#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 227 of 1
just used the same proof verbatim that I used for that one other problem and it worked
same for classification of ideals in the triangular matrix rings
Ugh
I classified ideals in a matrix ring once
Sucked ass
Took forever to figure it out
Yeah that was overkill
brother I already did it I am recycling
My problem asked me to classify them
oh
And didn’t say what they looked like
No I mean
They didn’t say. What they looked like.
Writing it like that is the description of what they wanted
I had to discover that result
And prove it
Googoogaga bitch
The one-sided ideal version is nice too.
Assume R has characteristic nm, both greater than 1, then there is an injection of Z/pmZ into R. Consider the principal ideal (m), which must be (0) or R. It cannot be (0) as R is not 0, thus it must be R. That implies that forall x in R, x = my, thus nx = n(my) = (mn)y = 0, contradicting the minimality of the characteristic
Is R assumed to be commutative?
Does R have a 1?
Usually when it does, one treats "improper ideal" as "contains 1".
Oh, m is in the centre 🤦.
Yes this works.
Homomorphisms preserve 1 boo
trivial kernel qed
that's literally all I wrote for that problem
I’m bored
Time to prove that commutative artinian rings are product of locals
Zero map ain’t a homomorphism
Thank god
I think this might need choice lmao
I can work it out if I assert the existence of maximal ideals, or at the very least prime ideals (since primes are maximal in artinian rings)
So yeah just ultrafilter lemma before one of y’all ping me about it again
Artinian rings have finitely many max ideals since the set of finite intersections of them necessarily has a minimal element element, which by definition of minimum under inclusion in this case, the intersection of that minimum with any of the other max ideals must be itself, so it must be contained in the finite collection
Also by def of maximum, they are pairwise coprime too, so you can use Chinese remainder theorem to break up R over that minimum intersection into an product of R/max ideals
I should probably focus on getting to class on time
I would be a little careful with this argument. Since for example it's not true that a noncommutative artinian ring has finitely many maximal ideals. It is true for commutative rings, but this argument doesn't really show it.
What is true is that the intersection of all maximal ideals is equal to a finite intersection of maximal ideals, which is all you need for the remaining.
The fact that a artinian/Noetherian ring has a maximal ideal doesn't necessarily require choice depending on your definition of artinian.
At worst you need dependent choice.
I meant to imply commutativity, which is why I considered the intersection, not the product for CRT. Sorry fam
It depends on your formulation of Artinian, but I'm certain pretty sure there is some formulation where it doesn't.
Or put another way, I expect you don't need Choice beyond proving that existence of minimal elements of sets of ideals, stabilisation of descending chains, etc. are equivalent.
The set of ideals has minimum formulation is fine
the issue is existence of maximal or primes
But it's not very far to show that there are finitely many maximal ideals from here (commutative case), since M includes M1 intersect … intersect Mn = M1 … Mn => (M being prime) that M includes some Mi => M = some Mi.
Well, if there are no maximal ideals, then R is a minimal intersection of maximal ideals…
I'm not sure if that's actually acceptable for the rest of the proof though.
DON'T GIVE IT AWA
Sorry :(
But yeah, the intersection of the maximal ideals is nilpotent
observe I^n stabilizes for every ideal I
takes a bit of tinkering to force it to be nilpotent tho
I should have just added spoiler tags, shouldn't I?
Oh well.
I just didn't want you to reveal further, I already showed the intersection is nilpotent
Why is (Z/pZ)^2 where p is prime not a cyclic group?
Why do you think it is?
Well, it has order p^2, so if it was cyclic it would need to have an element of order p^2.
And you can just check what the order of the elements are
Ah I see! But every elements has order p right?
Indeed (except the identity I guess)
Yeah yeah ok! Thanks for the feedback
I am struggling to see how we get to \phi(p^e) = p^e - p^{e-1}. I have tried counting elements that aren't coprime and are less than p^e but I'm lost in the sauce. Would appreciate a nudge
thanks 🙂
If we have p^k, then the elements coprime to p^k are elements less than p^k that aren't divisible by p. How many are less than p^(k+1)?
How would you "strip" them out?
In general, stuff that isn't coprime to p^k is of the form np^j
You have p^e naturals in [0,p^k]. How many numbers are divisible by p in that interval??
:)
(p * [0,p^k-1])
So, we can count p, 2p, 3p, 4p .... (p^{k-1}-1)p
Wait what trickery has happened here
Basically. We have p^k naturals less than or equal to p^k. We need to strip out the numbers divisible by p, all of which are of the form pm, for m in [1,p^(k-1)]. So we strip p^(k-1) numbers from p^k numbers,
Oh that's quite clever
ping deltoid about sieves lmao
This is the same idea here but I didn't realise it
NOOOO NOT ANT NOOOOOOO
troll
as much as I want to do my math textbooks I know I need to get shit done for college aaaaaaaaaaaaa
I can't help but feel that it's a little "constructed" in this context though. It seems more like a human creation than most, probably because we just define \phi(n) to be all the stuff coprime to n lol
yes. log off discord and finish ur shit
I am in class lol
comp sci class I don't care about, can't work on my project rn
log off discord big guy
trivial kernel qed
holy guacamole!
sheef 
I don't feel like reading the hint. kernel moment
I was about to ask a dumb question and simultaneously answered myself and the problem
u can't just say kernel moment on this one
Kernel moment
mmm class over
me when <1> generates R
me when generators determine homomorphisms
That proof takes one sentence
||a,b ring homomorphisms, H = {x | a(x) = b(x)} is a ring containing S, <S> = H = R||
chat is this real
something something yap yap R is a PID
fields are PIDs
WOAH!
me when the inverse exists and we have commutativity
Here’s something for you: Show the complement of the set of units is the union of all ideals
doing analysis rn
remind me in 3 hours
Let $n \in \mathbb{Z}^+$ and $a \in \mathbb{Z}$.
\begin{enumerate}
\item Prove: $a \in (\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z})^* \iff -a \in (\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z})^*$.
\end{enumerate}
Mootje
Z^+ including zero
its actually trivial but im not so sure
if i can say gcd(a,n) = gcd(-a,n) and finish
prime factorisation in UFDs is only ever unique up to a unit so yes this is true but there's an even easier way
if ba = ab = 1 then what's (-b)(-a) and (-a)(-b)
us also one
but what is here UFDs
what do you mean by that
if a is coprime to n then (n - a) is coprime to n
is that what UFDs mean
No,
oh ok
Why are you bringing up UFD’s for this
not me
but @delicate orchid he was saying something about UFDs but not so sure
what he meant with that
and i do not know what UFDs are
ohso
It’s not bad
bit annoyed this message is being ignored
lol
nope its not ignored
i replied to it
but i was wondering what does UFDs mean
ah so you did, hence -a has an inverse so it's a unit
sure
Chat does a have a multiplicative inverse in Z/nZ
UFD = unique factorization domain = ring where you have unique prime factorization.
ah i see
we are now studying only groups actually
but in that case its the set of all gcd(a,n) = 1
thx
How do you find Gal(E/Q) when E=Q(sqrt(2), 5^(1/3), w)? w=e^i(2pi/3) . I have determined that this group has size 12,but want to find all 12 automorphisms? I think it should map from sqrt(2) to either sqrt(2) or -sqrt(2). map 5^(1/3)->5^(1/3), w-> either w or w^2?( i don't know why i can not collect 12 automorphisms)?
this is also considerd to be a good proof
i guess right
i used your idea but not so sure
but i find it logic
I gave you the full idea
5^(1/3) can map to other things besides just itself
i know but i tried using your idea this proof is my proof correct that way
but this isn't a ring theory question so you should just use whatever definition of Z/nZ* you've been given
well i used the definition of modulo
since it has an inverse etc
can you read it please
ab = 1 mod n => -ab = -1 mod n so something has gone wrong
the point is that (-a)(-b) = ab = 1 mod n
oh yea that is true
so actually what we can say that ab = 1 mod n is the same thing as saying (-a)(-b) = 1 mod nb
and then finish
please put the brackets in, I noticed you neglected to do so in your proof as well
but again, this isn't a ring theory question, so I don't know if you have that (-a)b = -(ab) = a(-b) yet
well we did not get that yet
so actually what we can say that ab = 1 mod n is the same thing as saying (-a)(-b) = 1 mod n but the proof follow from this line right
well if you know Z/nZ^X is the group of numbers coprime to n mod p
from this line we can conclude that if a is inside then -a is inside as well
Yeah
I mean, these are integers were talking about
Don't think you need to take ring theory to establish that -1 times -1 is 1
(p-1)^2 = p^2 - 2p + 1 = 1 mod p 
But is your definition of (Z/n)* things with inverse modulo n, or is it things with gcd(a, n) = 1, or can you freely use that they're e equivalent?
yeah just do this and you're fine
but why is it actually that (p-1)^2 = p^2 - 2p + 1 = 1 mod p that this has remainder of 1 when divided by p
freely use that they are equivalent
but would it make then a problem
i tried other stuffs a such that a^3=5, but no stuffs can unless cubic roots of uinity, but it seems contradicts homomorphism
I'm not sure I follow what you're saying, but 5^1/3 is a root of x^3 = 5, so an automorphism will map it to other roots of x^3 = 5. Do you know what the roots are?
I think 5^1/3 *w and 5^1/3 * w^2 can be roots
but I don't think it satisfies homomorphism
That's right. So that gives you 3 choices for where to map 5^1/3
And 2*2*3 = 12, so...
But w can only map to w or w^2
That's right
So you have two choices for where to map w
Combined with the two choices for sqrt(2) and 3 choices for 5^1/3 that's 12 choices
I found that I made mistakes on calculatoin, so I misunderstand that it won't satisfy homomorphism
New question: If E=Q( i, 5^1/4), and diagram shows about galois group Gal(E/Q), question:Write the multiplication table for the group? how to write this table?
is there an analog to field extensions for rings and groups? it seems kind of intuitive there should be but the operations would be different
ring extensions work in exactly the same way, quotient R[x_1, ..., x_n] by something and you get a new ring
oh sweet, yeah i thought so
only difference is the operations are (+, x, -) instead of (+, x, -, /)
does it work for groups too?
there's not really a notion of a "polynomial ring" for groups, by that I mean something with the required universal property blah blah blah
extenstions of groups are still a thing though
you just have to use different machinery
for example, you can extend some group G by another group H by just doing G x H
oh true
Given a group G and two subgroups H, N < G, you say that G is an extension of H by N if N is a normal subgroup of G, and G/N is isomorphic to H
yeah i briefly read about that
it's very different, and the analog for rings is called an "algebra extenstion" iirc
does that apply for something like adjoining 1/2 and -1/2 to the integers under addition?
for that you can just do Z[x]/(2x-1)(2x+1) I think
oh nice
nah that doesn't work
Just 2x+1 I would imagine
Z[x,y]/(2x-1)(2y+1) definitely works
Indeed
I don't see how that gets you 1/2
oh sorry i meant groups
oh
like is there some group extension for adjoining 1/2 and -1/2
Z_2 :trollface:
There's an exact sequence 1 → Z → G → Z/2Z → 1
oh wow lol
first map is an inclusion and the second one sends a+b(1/2) to just b right
Yeh
swagger
true
ububububuh but boytjie there's CLEARLY a 2 there so 2q = 0 mod 2 
I'm going to shut up
Real.
Rational, really
I've never understood why G is called an extension of Z/2Z by Z
and not an extension of Z by Z/2
Is there an enlightening pov lol
because, if it was split, the Z/2Z would be acting on the Z via a semidirect product
cause like you literally have an inclusion Z -> G
I guess just because Z/2 comes first in the notation
Ext(Z/2, Z)
I think in fact both ways around have been used at some point, but I find the quotient-by-subgroup bit easier to remember for Ext
what he said
And Ext is that way around bc of Hom
ye
Once again proving that we should be writing f : B ← A..... f o g my beloved
Or write (x)f
Very wise
society...
uwu
society
If E=Q( i, 5^1/4), and diagram shows about galois group Gal(E/Q), question:Write the multiplication table for the group? how to write this table?
This September, my class will be covering module theory
What prereqs from algebra do i need for that?
It’s mostly ring theory right
for the very basics just rings
@stark helm Well for an automorphism group (e.g. a galois group) the multiplication operation is composition of automorphisms. Since your group has order 8 there are only so many groups that are like that so if you know a decent bit about what those groups are you know what to look for.
How about compare $\phi_3 \circ \phi_5 (5^{1/4})$ to $\phi_5 \circ \phi_3 (5^{1/4})$. Does that tell you anything?
Ryemo🌾
Thank you. How much linear algebra should I review? I took a class a long time ago but I forget a lot of it
I remember some facts about vector spaces
I dont remember much about matrices or stuff like jordan canonical form
Honestly man there's no way of telling
Class is covering chapter 10 and 12 of dummit foote
The class may or may not need you to know certain things
Ok
OK then check that chapter. Doesn't D&F have a prerequisites graph? I used Fraleigh myself.
the first one maps from 5^1/4 to -5^(1/4) i, the second one maps from 5^1/4 to 5^(1/4)i, these are conjugate. So does it mean we need to find multiplication composition that can map to a pair of conjugate?
what do those results tell you about the 'multiplication' in this group?
you mean non-abelian?
how about D4( dihedral group of order 8) ?
And also if I have a and b such that a^4=1 and b^2=1
I guess similar to this property
Yep, that's one example. Altho it's not enough to specify it that you can find an element of order 2 and a different element of order 4. That's also true of the quaternion group Q8
quaternion grooup is ?
and also, how can we associate that with finding multiplication group?
nevermind. My point is that if you can find another group that it looks like then that'll make the multiplication table less tedious to write out. And if you know about an isomorphic group then that'll make the whole composition of automorphisms thing less cumbersome
OK, then since we have found that this galois group is non-abelian, we can fist confirm that this group is isomorphic to which group?
<a, b | a^4 = b^4 = e, ab = b^3a, a^2 = b^2>
Let me latex that.
composition of automorphism, so we basically need to list like phi3* phi5*phi7...( 5^1/4)?
$\langle a, b \mid a^4 = e,\ aba^{-1} = b^{-1},\ a^2 = b^2 \rangle$.
Boytjie
well no karl, you only need to do that for the pairs. the upshot of the automorphisms forming a group is that they're closed under composition, so you only need to do the pairs phi1(phi1), phi1(phi2), phi2(phi2), etc.
what does pair means here? i can see that phi1(phi2)=phi2(phi1)=phi2, does it mean pairs?
multiplication pairs
a*b, b*c, etc.
pairs of elements that you multiply together
you only need to check pairs of elements
if we don't see closure under multiplication, there are 8^2=64 results. However, because of closure, then there are still 8 pairs, like phi1(phi1)=phi1, phi1(phi2)=phi2, but phi(2)(phi2)=phi1( order of 2). So I don't know if there are 64 pairs or 8 pairs
one stuff I found, this galois group is isomorphic to dihedral group of order 8
you know it's closed bc it's a group
so there are 8 pairs right
cause I found phi2(phi2)=phi1(phi1)
so I am confused
if we only need to write one of them
there are 8 elements forming 64 pairs, but many of them will have the same answer, so there's 8 pairs up to distinct answer
really appreciate your help
the point of the exercise of writing out a multiplication table is to find which ones are the same
you don't know ahead of time before you've figured out the structure of the group
for some of them a(b) and b(a) will not be the same right? because it's non-commutative
so you need to figure out when commutativity fails and how it does
the table will tell you that
Is there some sort of ternary analogue of a group? The best thing I can come up with is [[abc]de] = [a[bde][cde]] for associativity to carry over the idea of each $x\in G$ inducing a function that is "left multiply by x". Is this like at all interesting? (I chose to avoid [[abc]de] = [a[bcd]e]] = [ab[cde]] since I don't think it'll be as rich)
Zander
Actually the second thing I give gives rise to a binary operation $a\otimes b:= [ab1]$
Zander
So yea, definitely I'd want to use the first one
I’m confused what this abcde stuff is
Q8 my beloved
a,b,c,d,e are elements of a set which I want to equip a ternary analogue of the group product
i've denoted it $[\cdots ]: G^3\to G$
Zander
First question: does surd root mean root that carries square root? Second question: how can we use induction here?since if we have root that carries square root, like sqrt(r), then we also have root -sqrt(r). Then the third root must be rational .Looks weird to me,so if I have some misunderstanding here?
I think it must have a tower of Q subset Q(sqrt(r1)) subset of Q(sqrt(r2), sqrt(r1))..., so we need to do induction on number of field that forms tower?
I think you'd use the induction on the height of the tower to show that ||over Q, p(x) has a linear factor (which boils down to a quadratic and linear if i>=1)||
I am considering if we need to first know that cubic polynomial p(x) with rational coefficient must have its sum of root be rational number here
at least there are two cases: 1. all three roots are rational numbers 2. there exist a pair of sqrt(r)( namely sqrt(r) and -sqrt(r)), there must left one number that is rational. Do you think this is correct?
i just want to confirm that if surd root refers to square root in this context
I think it can also be the sum of square roots...hmm
like a+b*sqrt(r) right
form that carrieds square root
Q < Q(\sqrt{2}) < Q(\sqrt{2})(\sqrt{3}) is what I have in mind
I think basically, sqrt(r) is supposed to be the root, so -sqrt(r) is as well. then cubic polynomial should be the polynomial of product of linear and quadratic.
Right, but then youd need to show that since youre a cubic a root is either rational or of the form sqrt(r)
In the thing I give, \sqrt{2} + \sqrt{3} is an element, for example
we first need to determine the automorphism of sqrt(2)+sqrt(3)
map this element to which
do you think map to -sqrt(2)-sqrt(3) is valid?
what are you trying to do
all I've given you is an example as to why this is false
so surd roots are sum of rational numbers and square roots
Well just think about what things are valid. Is this one allowed
$Q < Q(\sqrt{2}) < Q(\sqrt{2})(\sqrt[4]{2})$?
Zander
@patent girder https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/94690/is-anybody-researching-ternary-groups this stack exchange post might interest you
I think it should be, elements in this tower of field must be surd
Right! Now my idea for the inductive step basically ignores all of this: ||suppose that p(x) has a root r in B_i, then another root is also in B_i and thus the last root is in also in Q. The base step is obvious; assume now the inductive step and take a root in B_i. If it has a root in some other B_k, then another root is in B_k so that p(x) couldn't have actually has a root in B_i. ||
You need to add in some more details, but I think that's the main idea of the proof
Base case, Q subset of B1=Q(sqrt(r)), so two roots are in B1, and the third root in Q
inductive step, assume until Bk when n=k, this rule is true. Then when n=k+1, assume we have one root in B_k+1, and try contradiction, then there might be one root in B_j, which must find another root in B_j, then no way to put rational and inductive fails
can someone explain to me what a functorial is
idk what a category is so please dont use that word
but when i google i only get category stuff but im seeing this in my intro algebra class on rings
You cannot define functors without the notion of categories.
Functoriality is to functors what f(ab) = f(a)f(b) is to homomorphisms of groups.
If you want to know more, you will have to bite the bullet and learn about categories.
Usually these courses discuss what functoriality means in the specitic context.
Wait what’s the context damn
Does anyone understand part 1?
Well my prof just did lol
I’ve also seen it in my information theory class defined without categories but I just forgot what it is
On page 66 here
I don’t think that’s the defn of a functorial
Nah we’ve done this before and didn’t use the word functorial
They are just using the word in specific context to give future reference
They explain what functoriality means in current context, so that when you learn category theory later, you can understand how it connects.
What does it mean though
A functor is a mapping between categories
What r the categories
Category of rings, obviously
Basically the Functoriality is that the constructions define endofunctor in Ring.
Group rings can also be considered as a functor Ring × Grp → Ring
And ring of functions Set^op × Ring → Ring
Ok, so the functor is an endofunctor on Ring
But what’s the actual mapping here
What does R->S giving rise to R[x]->S[x] have to do with endofunctor on Ring
The functor is F1(R) = R[x]
^
Hm
I guess it is, depending on the set-thereotic construction
Ohhhhh wait wait
We rarely talk about injectivity on objects
So basically R goes to R[x]
Endofunctor does not mean there is a map R -> F(R)
Yeah, this is the functoriality
So functoriality is the ability to give rise to a functor
So this actually gets you a somewhat stronger statement
This translates to the fact that there is a functor F(R, G) = R[G] such that F(R→S, G→H) = (R[G]→S[H])
And the special case of id: G→G shows that if you fix G, then F'(R) = R[G], F'(R→S) = (R[G]→S[G]) is also a functor
Same goes for this: F(X→Y, R→S) = (Fun(Y, R) → Fun(X, S))
Where op means contravariant in X
I need to prove that every prime ideal of a Boolean ring is maximal.
So if I is prime ideal in the Boolean ring R.
Then R\I is an integral domain( without unity ) and every element is idempotent.
Then I have a result if S is a Boolean ring with unity and if S is an integral domain then S is isomorphic to Z\ (2Z).
How can I use this result without assuming R has unity?
try this for some small examples like D_8 (D_4 depending on convention) and then generalize. You're just writing out the multiplication table
Note that Z/2Z is a field
Oh sorry
I didn't see the "without assuming unity"
I'm not sure if it carries over the same
R is a field
so definitely has unity
unless you meant your boolean ring in which case I don't know
How R is field?
Say x is not I. Then
x(y - xy) = xy - xy is in I, so y-xy is in I. Hence x is an identity element in the quotient ring. Thus R/I = Z/2
Got it, thank you
I want to show that rad(I) is the intersection of all prime ideals containing I.
I showed that rad(I) is contained in the intersection of all prime ideals containing I but how can I show that intersection of all prime ideals which contains I is contained in rad(I) ?
I think there’s like 2 ways to go about it
How?
The ideals containing I are in a 1-1 bijection with the ideals of R/I
Look at the intersection in R/I
I'll give you a hint, it uses Zorn's
how will you show this proof? I can imagine it as x^3-3x-1. and use rrt to confrim no rational root, then how to proceed?
what are you allowed to use?
here is the original question, with many parts
Me on my way to construct the chevyschev polynomials
what does that mean?
Inductively you can define a polynomial T_n(x) for every n such that T_n(cos(x)) = cos(nx)
@stark helm use cos(3x)
you mean let theta=3x?
I mean use the formula for cos(3x) and take x=theta
Basically what filip said is what I was doing with a taste for the number field
Nice
i like chebyschev polys
Oh cool
Complex numbers real
Actually there is presumably a nice generating function via that right
yes
use the formula for cos(3x),so like trying cos(x+2x)?
Like ||sum of cos(nx) t^n is real part of sum of [exp(ix) t]^n = 1/(1-(t e^ix) ||
Idk how that's helpful tho lol
sure, you can deduce it that way
ok, I will try. How will you solve part c in this diagram?
it just follows by Vieta
vieta refers to?
They are the real part of (x + yi)^n when setting y^2 = 1 - x^2
one last question, since cos20 can not be rational numbers by RRT, and it can not be surd since no rational number, then it implies cos20 can not be adjoined, so why it still be a root?
I mean, if i have some misunderstanding here
I don't understand what you are asking
also 20 degrees is 2pi/18 radians
Therefore $2\cos(\theta) = \zeta_{18} + \zeta_{18}^{-1}$ lo
Request a new nickname
that means, cos20 not rational, not surd, so it should not be in the tower of a field,right?
because i am confused should a root be either in Q or adjoined
if it is not in Q, it must be adjoined
that basically means that [Q(cos20):Q]=3
so indeed you cannot construct a tower like in the problem
because [B_t : F]=2^t
it can't. I actually start confusing a tower Q subset of Q(cos20)
why it can't be a tower
by their definition of B/F it follows that [B:F]=2
so then [B_t : B_0] = [B_t : B_(t-1)] * [B_(t-1) : B_(t-2)] * ... * [B_1 : B_0] = 2 * 2 * ... * 2 = 2^t
but 3 is not a power of 2
so you can't construct a tower that starts with Q and ends with Q(cos20)
The thing that I really confused is that why Q subset Q(cos20) not a tower of field, i mean construct a new tower of field
Can you explain more ?
i tied, it works, really appreciate that
How do you impose a Banach structure on a manifold?
I guess embedd it into a Banach space (which is possible for compact smooth manifolds)
but that doesn't make it a Banach space, just makes it's manifold structure come from that of one
just stumbled across this and i love it already https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Minimal_polynomial_of_2cos(2pi/n)
In number theory, the real parts of the roots of unity are related to one-another by means of the minimal polynomial of 2cos(2π/n).{\displaystyle 2\cos(2\pi /n).} The roots of the minimal polynomial are twice the real part of the roots of unity, where the real part of a root of unity is just cos(2kπ/n){\displaystyle \cos \left(2k\pi /n\right)}...
trouble is the formula for them is really ugly lol
This came up in my research lol
Because this is zeta + zeta^-1 where zeta is an nth root of unity
a primitive* nth root
This also came up in a Galois theory exam and I was big dumb dumb
Well like it was supposed to be easy to show that like this generates the real subfield of Q(zeta_n)
And it's enough to show that Q(zeta_n)/Q(zeta_n + 1/zeta_n) has degree 2
But lol I could not spot the min poly for some reason
Min poly hard
I think the trick is to look at the galois group, right
yea
well I mean what else would it be
Wait no shit not the min poly for Q(zeta_n + 1/zeta_n) over Q LMAO
Me when 1/a root of unity is a root of unity 
Yeah lol
so this might be a stupid question, but arent more elements of Gal(Q(sqrt(2))/Q) possible by something like $a+b\sqrt2 \to a+(b+1)\sqrt2$?
sam
for $a,b \in Q$
sam
Elements of the Galois group must send roots of polynomials over Q to other roots
In particular this doesn't preserve roots of x^2 - 2
Or note this sends 0 to sqrt(2) and hence isn't a ring homomorphism
But yeah this is key w Galois grp
Well
It's not an extra condition
It's a property of any element of the Galois group
You can check by direct computation
awesome
I have small question
@south patrol
im not really sure if there is an intution behind
it
Ye feel free to ask
but why when we say for example $[a] or \overline{a}$ then we say that this is equivalent to $x = a mod z $
Mootje
for example until now i do not understand why if we want to prove that [a] + [b] = [a+b]
is well defined
then i need to say that a_1 = a_2 mod n and then say the same b_1 = b_2 mod n and use them to prove well defined
me as mathmaticien or somoene who is going to be a mathmaticien why should he do that
and what is here well defined really mean
Sure, it's a good question.
Well the point is like concretely we are thinking about Z/nZ so we have Z and identify x ~ y if x = y mod n.
We want to define an addition on Z/nZ, I.e. add two equivalence classes. Ideally what you want is to say you can add x and y by writing x= [a] and y = [b] and letting x + y = [a+b]. But this definition involves choosing representatives a and b of the equivalence classes x and y. So to show the definition makes sense, you need to show that your choices of a and of b don't matter
sure i agree with you that the choice do not matter of a and b
because then it will be a problem
but the thing that im asking [a] means actually a mod n
why cannot i say that for example a mod n + b mod n = a+b mod n
or i mean is equivalen to a mod n + b mod n congruent to a + b mod n
in the proof they do this
and the thing that i do not get it how [a] is similar to saying a_1 congruent a_2 mod n
or maybe im missing something
in the definition of [a] or \overline{a}
correct me if im wrong
please
a_1 and a_2 are two representatives of the same class
And you're checking you get the same equivalence when u add each
sure i agree on that
oh i see what you mean
its here a must
because when i say for example
just what i suggested
a_1 mod n + a_2 mod n = (a_1 + a_2) mod n
then actually i did not check that the choices
Yeah
but when i use two representative of the same class and them together and get that result
that mean it does not matter which represen i choose
i will get the same result
that is the intuition behind it
i see it now
thanks alot!
Nppp
Like in some sense the definition is a bit "naughty" in that you are choosing things arbitrarily
But then you show the choice didn't do anything
exactly
But yeah in future, when people say stuff is "well-defined" it usually means "doesn't depend on choices of equivalence classes"
I guess sometimes it means for example that the domain actually maps to the codomain or things like that
wait sorry back to this
would a function that adds one to b when b isnt 0 work?
No, well firstly it won't send roots to roots
It also sounds very ad hoc so unlikely to be a ring hom (and indeed it will still not be additive)
so when you say it has to send roots to roots, do you mean roots of the same polynomial?
as in there might not exist a polynomial with roots bsqrt2 and (b+1)sqrt2
if $K/F$ is a field extension and $\sigma$ a field auto of $K$ fixing $F$ and if $p(x) \in F[x]$ is a poly with a root $\alpha \in K$ then $p(\sigma(\alpha)) = \sigma(p(\alpha)) = 0$
Süßkartoffel
So in particular for this case, if g is in galois group then g(sqrt(2)) = \pm sqrt(2)
i might be confused but sqrt2 and 2sqrt2 are both roots in Q(sqrt2), doesnt the b->b+1 map send roots to roots?
They aren't both roots of x^2 - 2
ohhh so it does depend on the polynomial
that makes more sense
wait but couldnt they both be roots of something else?
Sure but i'm sayign this is necessary

im a little lost lol
I'm saying like if sigma is anything as above, then for every polynomial p in F, sigma must send any root of p to another of p
so in particular for p(x) = x^2 -2, sigma must send sqrt(2) to +/- sqrt(2)
OH it just clicked
this is jut by calculation
so that applies for every polynomial then?
that helps a ton thanks lol
np
Suppose that we have a finitely generated and free $\mathbb{Z}$-module $M$ with a basis $b_1,\dots,b_r\in M$. Suppose that we also have a bilinear (in the sense of $\mathbb{Z}$-modules) form $B:M\times M\to\mathbb{Z}$ which in this basis is represented by a tridiagonal matrix with ones on the "side diagonals", and a sequence of integers $d_1,\dots,d_r$ on the main diagonal. If $M$ has another basis $b_1',\dots,b_r'\in M$ with this property, but with another sequence of integers $d_1',\dots,d_r'$, does it follow that this is the same integers but possibly in another order?
Gustav
In other words, are these integers uniquely determined by the bilinear form $B$ itself, up to ordering?
Gustav
if i wanted to go play with the inverse galois problem is there any strategy to it? i was going to try and find an irreducible polynomial that has galois group of a transitive subgroup of Sn for n<= 7 but im not really sure what intuition there is other than just playing with it and finding patterns
i know i can look at the discriminate and what not for n <= 4 but there’s like 19 other transitive subgroups to go through
Im hoping somebody can help me show that: the kernel of the evaluation map E[a] is a maximum ideal of R[x], where the evaluation map maps R[x] (polynomials with real coefficients) to the real numbers.
So far I have that the kernel of the evaluation map is (x-a)p(x) and Im not sure how to finish the question from here
Generally solutions to the inverse galois problem use techniques from other areas of math, in particular algebraic geometry and more advanced algebra. I doubt you'll be able to do much with just the tools of basic galois theory
hm okay thank you
That's not to say you shouldn't play around with it! Just don't expect too much. I would maybe look up some early literature on these types of problems, those might use more elementary methods
Or maybe a historical overview
There are surely some of those online
@tranquil musk there’s something special about the quotient of a ring by a maximal ideal, do you know what it is?
so is it the ideal is maximal iff R/I is a field
Im just struggling to write it all out
am I correct in my initial calculation that the kernel of the evaluation map is (x-a)p(x)?
well im just trying to understnand the concept of quotient rings rn
but why does the 'p(x)' in '(x-a)p(x)' get dropped?
and isnt there some easier way to prove it is a maximal ideal by showing there are no ideals properly contained between I and R?
The elements of the quotient ring R/I are additive cosets I + r for r in R. I just don’t write the multiplied p(x) because it’s redundant for describing the ideal (by definition they’re closed under multiplication by r in R).
Maybe there’s another easy way to do it, but if you have a good understanding of what a quotient ring is then I think doing it by asking whether R[x]/(x-a) is a field is pretty concise
So would you say that I gotta show that R[x]/(x-a) is commutative under the multiplication rule?
you got anyway you would recommend to show that its a field?
Pls help: how do you simplify quotients of free abelian group presentations? E.g. <a,b,c>/<a+b-c, a-b+c>, why isn't that equal to <a+b-c,a-b+c,c>/<a+b-c, a-b+c>=<c>? Is it because c is not independent of a+b-c and a-b+c so you can't just quotients those out? Are there any articles/resources that explain how to do this?
For that example would it be equal to <a,b,c>/<2a,2(b-c)>? It's supposed to be (Z/2Z)xZ but not sure how to get that..
Oh I think it's because they need to form bases of 'integer points', not just R3
If G = S_n and X = {1,2,.....,n } and G acts on X so mapping G -> Sym(X) is a bijective mapping?
g |-> g_L is a bijection yes
Okay, thank you
If stab(a) = stab (B) , a is an element of G and B is subset of G, then B contains a ?
Let S_n act on itself by conjugation, n >3. So, the centre is trivial. Take two disjoint non-identity elements a,b in S_n. Then stab(a)=stab(b) but a neq b.
A_n is simple for n geq 5. Let A_6 act on itself by conjugation. The centre is trivial, and it contains no normal subgroups. Let G be the subgroup of A_6 generated by (12). Let a be an element not in this subgroup. Then stab(a) = stab(G) but a is not an element of G.
In general, this seems unlikely because stab(a) and stab(B) are two different objects: stab(a) = {g \in G s.t. ga = g}, in other words, the group action stabilises a specific element, wheras stab(B) = normaliser of B = {g \in G s.t. gB = B}. We only require that it remains in the same subset/subgroup, it need not stabilise any specific element, in fact.
wait actually I'm not sure stab(a) = stab(G) in the second example. My first example still works however.
Okay, thank you , I understand the first example, I am not sure about the second one
If G acts transitive on the finite set A. And Stab(a) is a maximal subgroup of G then how can I show that they act as primitively?
Got it, thank you
Back to this one last time (I understand now, I’m just playing devil’s advocate) what if we found a function that sometimes acts as one existing function and sometimes acts as another? Example: a+bsqrt2 -> a-bsqrt for rational a but INTEGER b; this would be the identity for non integer b values, but conjugate the radical for integer values (a kind of combination of the 2 existing functions)
Would that even count as its own unique function? It’s kind of dependent on the other 2
I mean something so ad hoc is not going to be a ring homomorphism
Note any element of Gal(Q(sqrt(2))/Q) is Q-linear and is fixed by where it sends sqrt(2)
s(a + bsqrt(2)) = s(a) + s(bsqrt(2)) = a + s(b)s(sqrt(2)) = a + b s(sqrt(2))
So s(sqrt(2)) determines the whole shabang
if i'm asked to compute the permutation (12m)(12k)^2... what's a nice way to get around splitting into cases on m and k?
What groups in introduced in a general intro to abstract algebra book (either in main body or introduced in the exercises) are not toy examples, but play an important role in some other, not too obscure, math-field or youre likely to see again regularly when you study stuff beyond contents of such a book?
Context: wew lads hating on dihedral groups and me not recognizing some groups that are introduced but not motivated (e.g. some matrix groups)
One way to answer could be:
I study topic X and we care about group(s) Y, because of reason Z
the matrix groups like GL(n, R), SL(n, R), O(n), SO(n), U(n), etc are example of Lie groups and they occur a lot when you care about continuous symmetries. They show up in physics, as well as differential geometry, etc. For example SO(3) is the group of proper rotations in R^3 so it comes up whenever you care about object orientations in 3d
S_n (the group of permutations on {1, ..., n}) occurs everywhere (and by Cayley's theorem, any finite group can be viewed as a subgroup of S_n for some n)
if you study Galois theory you'll run into a lot of other finite groups as the galois groups of polynomials
dihedral groups are kind of like discrete versions of O(2)
they are rotations and reflections but restricted to a finite "angle step"
What's the picture you have in mind when you think of modules?
the symmetric group is actually really important considering how early you learn about it
so dihedral groups would show up a lot when studying lattices and other systems with "discrete" properties
it comes up in analysis/integrating over compact groups of matrices (maybe a more niche/difficult application)
symmetric (S_n) and alternating groups (A_n) show up in the definition of determinants (the even and odd permutation sign expansion)
hi det, hope you're well
i'm alright
Hi det
I took an extended break from AG so I have to relearn some things
How do you summon a det
hiii tubu 
det relearing some homological alg, det always forget stuff ><
but each time det relearns something, det's understanding gets uwu'er 
you talk about determinants or eevees when det randomly checks discord 

Hom algies
homie alg 

I don’t hate dihedral groups, they’re a wonderful class. I hate how they’re introduced and you were forced to do exercises related to them before you had any machinery (if you are who you think you are anyway
)
how would wew introduce them? 
After group actions
Thats fair, what Type of machinery are you talking about for example?
Also not Sure what you mean by the content in the (...)
Quotients and homomorphisms
At the minimum
right, you don't really know what presentations are without free groups and quotients 
S_n is much better as an introductory non-abelian example because it’s far more combinatorial
Ok not that far lol, free groups would go pretty close to the end of a course
oh ><
(Not to say a non-rigorous treatment of presentations wouldn’t do wonders in a first course)
D_n is when something acts on an n-gon (?)
how the hell ar eyou defining d_n in terms of group actions
am i missing something
We’re not. But why would you care about D_n before group actions
D_n is subgroup of GL_R(C) generated by conjugation and zeta_n 
oh I see what you're saying
This would be a good alternative too
One of my undergrad profs loved writing groups as matrix groups.
I wonder if there’s a field that studies how to do that
representation theory
>.<
(I presume you mean GL_2(R) as well)
sorry what do you mean by GL_R(C)?
Aut_R(C) maybe better? R-linear automorphisms of C
Oh you mean Au- yeah ok
after choosing basis same as GL_2(R)
mhm
yee, i like this now that i think about it 
It bypasses my main problem - early students don’t really have a rigorous way of proving the relators in Dn
Now u can just do it with matrix multiplication
I can relate. I've supposedly seen a proof of this but it's still magic
If you use the action of Dn on an n-gon to write the group elements as permutations u will notice that reflections are products of 2-cycles and rotations are n-cycles
You can prove the relators like this as well
Aluffi does free groups pretty early in his first group chapter then ... then presentations during the "homomorphism theorems" then group actions.
The way they where introduced didnt make them feel harder than the rest (or do you think they get introduced at the end for different reasons?)
i thought det liked rep theory 

It sucks yes
is there a group such that the order is a continuous function?
The order is a cardinality, so how could it be a continuous function?
If you mean the order of each element, well yes but not in an interesting way, since we could choose the topology on the group G and the naturals however we wish.
You're not going to get super interesting results here because the function sending each element to its order has a discrete domain.
I am talking about this order
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Order_(group_theory)
In mathematics, the order of a finite group is the number of its elements. If a group is not finite, one says that its order is infinite. The order of an element of a group (also called period length or period) is the order of the subgroup generated by the element. If the group operation is denoted as a multiplication, the order of an element a ...
In mathematics, the order of a finite group is the number of its elements.
Darling
Order the elements of your group, g_1, ... , g_n. Then the function g_i -> |g_i| N-> N is cts as every point is isolated
lul
log has always been my favorite number
but you mean a continuous from discrete elements right?
What is a 'discrete element'
its continuous in the standard way
integers for example
You’d need to define what “continuity” is in this case
The order of an element is defined for any group, not merely finite ones.
then I did not understand that
what do you mean by that
I'm just meming because every functions are continuous at isolated points, though its not super interesting
It doesn't make sense to ask if a set is continuous
Guys just read the wikipedia page it explains everything
I am trying to find a example on a group where the order of a group is a continuous function
Wow I just read the Wikipedia page and I feel no more enlightened
A continuous function in respect to what
(With the obvious topologies on the group)
(It was a joke about the fact that I tried to clarify which kind of order was meant, but all I got in answer was a wikipedia page)
ah lol
today I was talking with
with my abstract algebra teacher and asked if it is possible for the order to be a Limit .
so , with a infinite numbers of operations it converges to the identity element

Yes, for example 3 = lim_{x → infty} 3
What you're talking about is a dynamics problem at heart
This requires information about the topological properties of the group
i.e: a binary operation such that for some a that belongs to the set of some group it happens that
a * a * a * a * a * a ..... until infinity = e
so he told me that a neccesary condition was that the ord must be a continuous function in order to be able to introduce a limit there
by "ord" I mean the function ord
i might start the exercises for that section now
order
I am stuck with my family and cannot maybe
*math
spend time with them
so he said that the problem was finding a non trivial group
but that just was a question I made
not really related to the class material
he show me an example where in the real numbers without 0 , that was not possible.
with multiplication as binary operation
Sanity check, for a finitely generated module M over a pid, we have that M = R^Rank M + R/a_i. Does this imply that the least number of generators must be rank M + number of a_i's?
It seems in principle you could get R/a_i + R/a_j from a single kernel R -> R, lowering the number of generators by one
You’re gonna be far ahead of me, I have physics and human studies work to do tonight
I'm not doing any more tonight i'll let you catch up
he's lying to get ahead of you
ignore your family, they will die eventually, math is eternal
I am attempting an actual proof of CRT because I never actually proved it for general rings lmao
First as a base, let A and B be proper ideals of the ring R, such that A + B = R
We want to find a y such that y = x_1 + ca = x_2 + cb for some a in A, b in B
Then 0 = (x_1 - x_2) + c(a - b) => c(a - b) = (x_2 - x_1), and we can find some a b such that a - b = 1, so
c = (x_2 - x_1) thus we have found our c, and y = x_1 + (x_2 - x_1)a = x_2 + (x_2 - x_1)b
Thus: y = x_1 (mod A) and y = x_2 (mod B)
unsure if we can repeat that off rip with y and some x_3 and another ideal coprime with the first two off rip, let me check
You're right that if ai and aj are relatively prime, then R/ai (+) R/aj = R/aiaj
What you might do is put the module into Smith normal form. Meaning that ai divides ai+1. In which case the minimal number of generators is indeed the number of ais
Is the idea in this exercise to notice Z/pZ is the prime ring of F. Then we can consider the multiplicative subgroup of each ring, so (Z/pZ)* is isomorphic to a subgroup of F \ {0}, so p-1 | |F| -1.
yes
Would be twice as readable if it were "divides" instead of "|"
This is great yes
Though if you know about the prime ring it is almost immediate that the size is a power of p so i find that amusing
I mean that in the sense it is an interesting pedagogical choice
All I know about prime rings is that they're all Z or Z/kZ
Yeah and for a field it's Z or Z/pZ
yeah
We haven't gotten to a lot of "deeper" field stuff and how they're solutions to X^q - X
But idk if the "we shall see later" is another exercise so I probabl shouldn't say anything aha
I am sorta stuck on the inductive generalization of CRT
let me try typing it in chat hopefully so while I'm typing it I realize I'm an idiot
I'll spoiler it for Swiftee
Have you got n=2 then?
yes that's my base case
Cool
this
Well base can be n=1 lel
But hmm
Tbh the proof I remember learning doesn't use induction
Jacobson's phrasing of it is a bit different
oh seriously?
huh
not strong either?
You just write down a map and show it is injective and surjective
Well
If the rings are commutative
loud incorrect buzzer
the mf isn't
Well actually depends
If you want to do it inductively, prove that if C is relatively prime to both A and B, then it's also relatively prime to A\cap B
no assumption of commutativity
OH SHIT
If you do the normal proof for CRT for comm rings, the assumptions here are exactly what you need for the proof to work iirc
The noncommutative case is the same as the commutative, no?
I think the non comm is way weaker
How so?
Iirc
Uhhh
Wait nah im wrong
Wait no
Like here they have that intersection
But normally you can just do smth weaker right like pairwise coprime or smth
Maybe im wrong tho
I think it can be weakened to C being relatively prime to AB
Yes but in Miz's statement there is a stronger assumption
Oh, I see. Yeah that shouldn't be necessary either way I don't think
From what i can find online it seems the general form with pairwise coprime ideals only works for commutative rings, tho I don't know a counterexample
Hm
Wikipedia has it for arbitrary rings
In mathematics, the Chinese remainder theorem states that if one knows the remainders of the Euclidean division of an integer n by several integers, then one can determine uniquely the remainder of the division of n by the product of these integers, under the condition that the divisors are pairwise coprime (no two divisors share a common factor...
I want to show that if A,B,C are coprime ideals then C is coprime to AB
AB is a subring of A \cap B so if I can show that I'm golden
let me try an idea out
actually i wonder if both AB and BA are coprime to C
wait bruh
For this part of the exercise: Let a1, a2 \in R. Then a1 = i1 + i2 for some i1 \in I_1, i2 \in I_2. WTS that there exists an a such that a = a1 (mod I_1) i.e. a - a1 \in I_1. a - i1 - i2 \in I_1. Can we not just take a = -i_2?
You also want a = a2 mod I2
Oh right I see.
are we not just saying that there exist cosets such that a1 + I1 \cap a2 + I2 is nonempty?
wait
You can think of it that way if you like
for any two elements we pick, those cosets intersect
I wonder if going down the route of some partition argument may be useful
Maybe, though I think the easiest route is just to directly construct a
if a1 = i1 + i2, a2 = i1' + i2', then for a - i1 - i2 \in I1, a - i1' - i2' \in I2, take a = i2 + i1'
nice
why is this called the chinese remainder theorem?
how is this related to remainders
You're doing stuff mod I
So you're looking at the remainder
The original formulation has the ring being the integers
I suppose when I think of "remainders" i think of specifically mod n, n an integer. I guess we can take Z as R and mZ and nZ as our ideals if gcd(m,n) = 1
then, for any two integers j,k we have a = j (mod m), a = k (mod n). I'm struggling to see hwo this is illuminating tbh
like, sometimes stuff has the same remainder?
swiftee I'm gonna join vc
im going to bed soon sorry
Two questions:
What are ideals in Z?
What is Bezout Lemma?
that'll hopefully make things connect
ideals in Z is anything of the form kZ. Bezout's lemma says that the equation ax + by = 1 has a solution x,y if a and b are coprime.
So coprime ideals generate Z?
Well you have a bijection between numbers modulo mn and pairs of numbers modulo m and n respectively.
That means that to solve an equation modulo mn you can split it into to equations modulo m and modulo n, which might be much easier to solve
Comes up in basic number theory
could you elaborate on the bijection between numbers modulo mn and pairs mod m, n respectively. The only thing I know about modulo mn stuff is that mnZ = mZ \cap nZ if m,n are coprime
I have small question I’m confused regarding something in group theory
What is now the difference between $\overline{a}$ and a
Mootje
Also I feel like this is implying R is commutative?
Like say I want to solve the equation
x^2 = 1 (mod 15)
Then Chinese remainder theorem says that x is a solution iff
x^2 = 1 (mod 3)
and
x^2 = 1 (mod 5)
And further that if I can find any pair of solutions to these two equations, then they combine into a unique solution of the mod 15 equation.
x^2 = 1 (mod 3) has two solutions (1 and 2) and x^2 = 1 (mod 5) has two (1 and 4).
So x^2 = 1 (mod 15) has 4 solutions.
(1, 4, 11, 14)
Why do you say that?
From where did you find 11 and 14
Because I’m also learning about chines remainder theorem
oh my fucking god dude it's so fucking easy I am a MORON
There is some nontrivial work in going the other direction, but CRT guarantees it's unique at least
True
I have a question rehearing something else @rocky cloak hopefully you can help because I really hate gcd and mod
let A, B, C, be pairwise coprime.
a_1 + b_1 = a_2 + c_1 + b_2 + c_2 = 1
So 1 = c_1 + a_2 = c_1 + (c_2 + b_2)a_2 = (c_1 + c_2a_2) + b_2 a_2 = 1
c_1 + c_2a_2 is in C
so C + BA = R
So, in this case are we taking our base ring to be Z/15Z, and our ideals to be Z/3Z, Z/5Z resp. I take a1 = a2 = 1. Then there is an element a in Z/15Z such that a = 1 (mod 3), a = 1 (mod 5). I'm slightly lost how we justify the line "Then Chinese remainder theorem says that x is a solution iff ....". Is the wikipedia page on CRT any good because I feel like I'm using up too much time by asking a question of the form "why do we care about CRT" lol
R = C + A = C + (C + B)A = C + CA + BA = C(R + A) + BA = CR + BA = C + BA LOL
So if the ring is Z, and the ideals are 3Z and 5Z, then CRT says there is an isomorphism between
Z/15Z and Z/3Z x Z/5Z
In other words every pair in Z/3Z x Z/5Z corresponds to an element in Z/15Z and vica versa
Let $n \in \mathbb{Z}_{>0}$ and $a \in \mathbb{Z}$.
\begin{enumerate}[(a)]
\item Prove: $\overline{a} \in (\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z})^* \Leftrightarrow \overline{-a} \in (\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z})^*$.
\item Prove: If $n$ is odd, then $\overline{a} = \overline{-a} \Leftrightarrow \overline{a} = \overline{0}$.
\end{enumerate}
Mootje
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
well the first one i prove it
the second one if n is odd then that
i did not know how to prove
HI SHIN
Hi
Oh, and intuitively this is an isomorphism because, by the construction in the proof, our choice of a depends on a1, a2.
Hint: ||you can rearrange a = -a into 2a = 0||
Interestingly this is a weaker condition
well thats what im not getting
what is now the diffrence between a with overline
I might read the wikipedia page, this seems interesting
and a without overline
a with the overline is an element of the quotient structure
The overline refers to the equivalence class of a in Z/nZ
If, for ideals A B C, that A is coprime to C, and B is coprime to C, then C is coprime to BA and coprime to AB
A and B need not be coprime?
huh
so then a is an element of the equivalence class of [a ]
can i see it like that
or in other word a is an element of \overline {a}
am i right @rocky cloak
oh sorry for penging you
Sure
alright i will try the hint
I'm gonna go to sleep, thanks for your time as always jagr. I appreciate it
A=B
Let $A, B, C$ be ideals in ring $R$ \
Assume $a + c_1 = b + c_2 = 1$ where $a \in A, b \in B, c_1 \in C, c_2 \in C$ \
Then $1 = c_1 + a = c_1 + (c_2 + b)a = c_1 + c_2a + ba$, but $c_1 + c_2a \in C$ and $ba \in BA$ \
Likewise $1 = c_1 + a = c_1 + a(c_2 + b) = c_1 + ac_2 + ab$, but $c_1 + ac_2 \in C$ and $ab \in AB$\
This implies that if $A$ and $B$ are both coprime to $C$, then $C$ is coprime to both product ideals $AB$ and $BA$, both within $A \cap B$
i do not know why it feels that my proof is wrong
@chilly radish is this valid?
this is what i have
it feels as if im playing or something
im not convinced
Request a new nickname
yes for CRT
I'm not sure why you need this for CRT
induction step
2a = 0 thus a = 0 is sort of a big unjustified step
Well then what do you suggest ?
yipee
Just unpack the definition of what it means that two things are equal in Z/nZ
I revoke my statement this isn't that bad
Well that mean that it divides their difference
Or congruent to each other
I guess that’s what you kean
Mean
Indeed, and then you had this hypothesis of n being odd
I will try that
One second
yeah I had a short circuit moment
pretty sure CRT in the noncom case just still considers intersection, which will contain the products afaik
I guess it's true in the noncommutative case as well if product means AB + BA
By induction that shows if I_1...I_n are pairwise coprime, that I_n is coprime to the intersection of the other I_m before it
oh i didn't need to show that
lol whatever still jotting it down
@rocky cloak i get stuk then
i guess there is a part that i do not fully understand or something
but not so sure
what
So 2a = 0 (mod n) should mean that n divides 2a
but why can i say that
i mean $\overline{2a}$ is not the same as $2a$
Because that's the definition
Mootje
Overline {2a} just means 2a modulo n
for example $\overline{0} mod 3$ has many elemnt s
Mootje
For $\mathbb{Z}_n$, $\overline{x} = {y \in \mathbb{Z} : n \mid (x - y)}$
Request a new nickname
well sure agree on that but here y is arbitrair
so what if the set $\overline{x} = \overline{-x}$?
but here we use like the classes as elements
Request a new nickname

