#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 225 of 1
Or maybe a better perspective. The characteristic polynomial measurers exactly when A - xI is invertible. So if A - xI is not invertible, then x is a root of the characteristic polynomial
Hi everyone, I didn't really know whther to put this in discrete maths or here, it doesn't really seem like advanced maths, so let me know if I should move this. But I have this question:
List the elements of a subgroup $H$ of $\mathbb{Z}_{45}^*$ such that $H$ has order $8$.
The thing that gets me is that doesn't the order of a subgroup have to divide the order of the group by Lagrange's theorem? So what does this question ask for?
theaveragejoe6029
\totient(45) is probably a multiple of 8
3^2*5 so 3 (3-1) 1 (5-1) = 24
so note that 8 | 24
the 2-sylow subgroup will be an order 8 subgroup
(Z_45)* is the group of units in Z_45
And you can prove that group of units is precisely the elements which are less than and coprime to 45 in this case
Which leads to the totient function, as it counts the numbers of how many elements less than n is coprime to n
This has a certain formula, which Xela has worked out, if you want to know why this comes, check out any elementary number theory book. It's a simple combinatorical argument
Which then leads us to know that the unit group has precisely 24 elements
And hence is a group of order 24
Now as 8 divides 24, there must be a subgroup of order 8.
Now by sylow's theorems, 24 = (2^3) * 3, hence, there's a 2-syloe subgroup of order 2^3 = 8
You have to find it
Also wait, actually, that subgroup is unique.
U_45 (that is, (Z_45)*, the unit group) is abelian, and hence any subgroup is normal.
Now a p-sylow subgroup is normal iff it is the only p-sylow subgroup.
So there exists exactly one subgroup of order 8, and it is normal, and of index 3
okay so that part is just computing the totient.
totient is multiplicative (in the sense that \varphi(ab)=\varphi(a) \varphi(b) for coprime a,b), so to compute \varphi(n) we need only to multiply \varphi(p^n) for p|n. for p, note that we have that the only way to not be coprime is to have a power of p in you, so since there are p^n/p=p^{n-1} of those we have p^n-p^{n-1}=p^{n-1} (p - 1). Thus the order of the (Z/45Z)^× as given by my computation above is 24
oh. you also want to show the subgroup is normal?
we know that there are either 1 or 3 2-sylow subgroups.
(since 24=2^3*3)
unfortunately 1=3 mod 2 so we can't immediately rule out 3.
oh it's abelian
duhhhh
yes so of course it's normal
how do you know there isn't an order 8 subgroup that isn't a 2-sylow subgroup?
oh because 8 is the largest power of 2 in 24
Yes.
U_45 isomorphic to C_6 x C_4
oh duhh. my bad. I got mixed up thinking that I had to considder that it was ismorphic to Z_{+}^{44} which would give different factors lol
nono lol that only happens if it's prine
I know it's ableist just from definition.
uhm do you mean abelian?
Okay, I've caught up to what you're saying. But how do I then compute this subgroup explicitly?
The question doesn't necessarily need reasoning or working, although it would be interesting, I can write some code to compute it but I don't really know the logic.
I know it can be done because Sylow constructs it (to the point that there's a polynomial time version of Sylow). I can't remember how it's done, though. Perhaps check the proof of Sylow.
Ah, got the elements of the subgroup. @vivid tiger and @boreal inlet Thank you guys so much!!
🙏
can anyone give me a hint for the following?
If R is noetherian then any submodule of the R-module R^n is finitely generated
i've been trying to proceed by contradiction by supposing you can have a chain of submodules that don't stabilise
sounds like the way to do it
I'm presuming you don't have the result that says M is noetherian <=> N < M is noetherian and M/N is noetherian?
Nor the result that says M is noetherian <=> every submodule is finitely generated?
no, i didn't know either of those
but i think i've got it, thanks anyway 🙂
Is there any non-constant rational function p in any number of variables X1, X2, … over any field and a positive integer k such that p(X1^k, X2^k, …) = p(X1, X2, …)?
does a degree argument work here
or do we be cheeky and do something like p(x_1, ..., x_n) = x_1/x_1 which technically isn't constant because it's undefined with x_1 = 0
Or take a field for which X^k = X
Like k = p in Fp
true!
they did say "any field" though, which makes this a lot more annoying - so following the Lefschetz principle we should probably work in char 0
Can someone help with the following one?
We have $C_n = \mathbb{Z}_n$, the ring of integers modulo m.
And a bijection $f: C_n \to C_n$, $f(x) = ax+b$ (where $b \in C_n$ and $a$ an invertible element of $C_n$.
f, being a bijection is also a permutation on $C_n$. The exercise I am trying to solve is asking for the cycle structure of such a permutation.
Faputa
I have tried setting $x_{n+1} = a x_{n} + b$ and then solving to find an explicit formula for $x_n$ which I could then equate to a given $x_0$ to find the cycle length for it. But I am not sure how to do that or if it's the right approach (trying to get a formula for $x_n$ always amounts to having to invert something like $a-1$, which may not be invertible..
Faputa
What is the isomoprhism of field of quotients of the ring F[[X]] to the field of formal Laurent series F((X))?

F((X)) seems to only have a finite amount of coefficients by definition, whereas a quotient a/b where a,b is from F[[X]] appears that could have an infinite amount of non-zero coefficients...
Can you give an example?
I mean I want an example in one field, not an example for every field.
That's never true as rational functions.
As a rational function, it's equal to 1, so no 🤷.
example of?
That would work: you can solve for x_n (hint: try an exponential function of n plus a constant).
Factor any fraction of power series into an integer power of X times a fraction of power series with constant coefficient.
Fact: a power series is invertible (with inverse a power series) iff its constant coefficient is invertible.
Using this, you can simplify the fraction of power series with non-zero constant coefficient to a single power series. It's now clear how to interpret the result as a Laurent series.
funny that it's not true as functions, but is true as rational functions - a proper subset
I have tried the following "standard" procedure for difference equations.
Homogenous part: $x_{n+1} = a x_n$ is solved by $x_n = c_0 a^n$.
I am having issue with the nonhomogenous part (the constant).
Setting, for example, $x_n = c$ and plugging in we get $c = a c + b$ or $c(1-a) = b$ now im not sure how to proceed since there is no guarantee that $(1-a)$ is invertible
Faputa
You need to add a constant as well.
Can't I do it seperately since it's a linear equation?
But constants are not solutions.
The usual "solution is homogenous part + particular part"?
This is a homogeneous equation already.
Its homogeneous part needs a constant.
The general solution will be
x_n = c (a^n + b),
where a, b depend on the recurrence and c on the initial condition (value of x_0).
Are you saying the annsatz should be $x_n = c_0 a^n + c_1$ or something like that?
Faputa
Yep
Why is this not equal to what I have attempted?
Wait I will try it.
I've tried it now and I get basically the same thing
$x_n = c_0 a^n + c_1$ is my ansatz.
Plugging in we get that $c_1(1-a) = b$, which I again don't know how to proceed since there is no guarantee (1-a) is invertible
Faputa
Or maybe (1-a) is always invertible for an invertible a? I have to check that
I was incorrect. It is heterogeneous. Your homogeneous solution is correct.
However, for the non-homogeneous part, you need to find a particular solution ie an (x_n) such that x_n+1 - a x_n = b.
As I understand it, you tried the ansatz of ‘a constant sequence’ and as you noted, it didn't work. That just means you have to find a particular solution by some other means.
No: a could be 1, after all.
Perhaps if true if it is not 1, and the case a=1 can be checked seperately?
I am thinking of a similar trick Ive seen before where 1/(1-a) can be expressed as kind of a geometric series 1+a+a^2+a^3+...
I spoke hastily based on memories of doing these over fields 💀.
In Z/nZ, there are other units which differ by 1 from a non-unit.
Something else is needed to find the particular solution for a general b.
Actually
What if you solve the recurrence over Q?
The sequence will turn out to lie in Z.
You can then look at it modulo n.
Let me try it
Quick fact check: If x,y \in I where I is an ideal of some ring, is it true to say x-y \in I? I believe so but I want to be sure.
Yes.
Hmm well I get $x_n = x_0 a^n + b/(1-a) (1-a^n)$ and I am not sure how to make sense of this now in $\mathbb{Z}_n$.
I would have gotten the same result by just iterating from $x_0$, getting $x_n = x_0 a^n + b*(1+a+a^2+..+a^{n-1})$ and using the formula for the sum of geometric series. However... This is pretty ugly and I am not sure how to get more information such as lengths of cycles from it
Faputa
I am starting to question whether trying to solve the recurrence was the correct way to approach this problem. Although it feels like it should be
how are you defining noetherian here for a module btw? is it just the thing about ascending submodules
yur
what is meant by "its index in G is prime to p"?
The index is coprime to p, i.e. their greatest common divisor is 1
sometimes prime and coprime are used interchangeably in this context
(G:1), or as I like to call it, |G|.
oh right I see. this follows from lagrange. thanks walt
yeah i was wondering about this. seems weird but oh well
[G:H] coprime to p
that's just how numbers work
I guess the point is that (G : H) = |G| / |H|
yes
Is that Lagrange? I forgor 💀
take n, divide by the largest power of some prime p in n, the result is coprime
oh
I guess that is a result
I just forgot you actually need to prove that
lol
p divides |G| by hypo. I can't see how we get to "if p does not divide |C| (centre of G) then p doesn't divide one of [G: C(yi)]"
just assume the contrary
you get that RHS is not divisible by p, while LHS is
that makes sense, thanks
Let zeta_m and zeta_n be some mth and nth primitive roots of unity over Q. How does the compositum Q(zeta_m)Q(zeta_n) look like?
What can i know about a finite unit ring with the property that x+y is a unit for every x unit and for every y non-unit
I got that every non unit element is nilpotent
And the set of nilpotents with + is a subgrupul of A,+
Where A is the ring
If every non-unit element is nilpotent then there's a very strong thing you can say about prime/maximal ideals
wdym by "finite unit ring"?
A ring with finitely many units, or a finite ring with unity
Ring with unit
We have an unique prime ideal
It is a particular type of ring then
But can we find the ring only with this information ?
no there's more than one local ring
Yeah this is What i got in a problem: let A be a finite ring with unit such that for every f:A->A bijective function with f(0)=0, f is an automorphism of the group (A,+). If A is a field i got A iso with Z/2Z. Then i took the function f(x)=x when x is not a unit in the ring and f(x)=sigma(x) when x is a unit, where sigma is a permutation of the set U(A) with no fixed points (assuming the order of U(A) is at least 2). This is a bijection with f(0)=0 so by the hypothesis f is actually an automorphism of (A,+). so f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y) for every x and y in A. Now if we take y as a non unit and x as a unit we have f(x+y)=sigma(x)+y. If x+y is not a unit then x+y=y+sigma(x) so sigma(x)=x which is a contradiction because sigma is a permutation with no fixed points. So for every unit x and for every non unit y we have x+y unit. And now i have that every non unit is actually a nilpotent element. More, the set of nilpotent elements create a group under the addition.
ok so is the problem to characterise A?
because every identity preserving permutation of the additive group being an automorphism is a FAR stronger condition than the ring being local
are these commutative rings
Nope. About that i have a question. Can we use CRT on a finite non commutative ring?
also I can't see why Z/3Z fails your condition
I did not said that Z/3Z fails
how can I show that for any p > 0 there exists n so that x^n - 1 is divisible by x^2 + x - 1 in F/p ?
I'm very surprised the exercise wants more out of you than just showing that such a ring is nilpotent
some idea: if the characteristic is not 2, then just take f(x)=x for all x, except for 1 and 2, which will be swapped (i.e f(1)=2 and f(2)=1)
from f(1)+f(1)=f(2) you get 2+2=1, so the characteristics is 3
Haha thanks:))
moreover, if char(A)=3, choose f(1)=a for some a∉{0,1} and f(2)=1 and the rest random so that you get a bijection
then a+a=1, so a is invertible, implying that your ring is a field
actually, since the characteristics is 3, a+a=1 gives a=-1
which means that the only element in A-{0,1} is -1
thus A=F_3
Wow
and we are left with the case char(A)=2
But not me. I don't cook, I don't clean
potato this is groups rings fields
lol
i know
lmao
nah there's annoyances
and by annoyances I mean "No wew lads it's obviously not true you fool. You charlatan"
@cloud solar if char(A)=2 and (no need of characteristic) |A|>4 I think we can just violate the equality f(a)+f(1)=f(a+1) for some a different from 0 and 1
like saying f(a)=a, f(1)=1 and f(a+1)=b, where b is not a,1,0,a+1
therefore |A|<=4
this guy is cracked
If x^n - 1 = p(x) * (x^2 + x - 1) then
x^n / (x^2 + x - 1) - 1 / (x^2 + x - 1) = p(x) inside (F/p)[[x]]
so we need (-F_{k + n} + F_k) to be eventually zero for p(x) to be a polynomial in (F/p)[x] (i.e. have finitely many nonzero coefficeints),
and since the fibonnaci numbers are always periodic we can just set n to be the period.
wallah
oh wait nvm it's just the group theory argument I had in my head
we have to inspect them, but I guess all of them work
Aut(C_3) = S_2, Aut(C_2) = 1, Aut(C_2 x C_2) = S_3 and these are the only groups with Aut(G) = S_{|G|-1}
oh Z/4Z doesn't work
so our only possible rings have to be (additively) Z/2Z, Z/3Z, Z/2Z x Z/2Z, F_4
I think there's only one option for multiplication on the first two but not sure about Z/2Z x Z/2Z
F4 ?
F_4 as well
I forgot!
wait no
wait yes
wait no
F_4 additviely is just Z/4Z
this is really a group theory question
it's Z/2Z x Z/2Z additively
ok if u say so
oh yeah cause it's a 2-dim F_2 vs
now do we need to think about monoids of order 3?
ok so any rings we're missing have to be char 2 or else they'd just be Z/4Z. So we can think about them as {0, 1, a, 1+a} as an F_2-algebra I guess, the only thing that isn't implicitly determined is a^2. So we can write them as quotients:
F_2[x]/(x^2) - which I think is Z/4Z
then F_2[x]/(x^2+x), which is Z/2Z x Z/2Z
then F_2[x]/(x^2+x+1) which is F_4
and a mysterious F_2[x]/(x^2+1), which we hadn't accounted for
so there is a strange fourth ring of order 4
.
there is no way in hell compositum is a real word
oh my god it is
that one's going in the lexicon
oh it's like a tensor product apparently
yeah ok it's the tensor product over a subfield in the intersection, in this case Q
so I imagine it's Q(zeta_{gcd(m,n)})
It's the lcm, but I don't need that structure
it's the lcm huh
I have to prove it's the lcm thing
so the lattices work backwards
makes sense actually, you'd expect the tensor product to be larger
lets see if the standard proof for Z/nZ \otimes Z/mZ = Z/gcd(m,n)Z is useful
$x \otimes y \in \bQ(\zeta_m) \otimes_{\bQ} \bQ(\zeta_n)$, write this as [\left(\sum_{i=0}^{m-1} x_i\zeta_m^i\right)\otimes\left(\sum_{i=0}^{n-1}y_i\zeta_n^i\right)]
distrbutivity : [x\otimes y = \sum_{j=0}^{n-1}\left(\sum_{i=0}^{m-1} (x_i\zeta_m^i)\otimes(y_j \zeta_n^j)\right) = \sum_{i=0}^{m-1}\sum_{j=0}^{n-1} (x_i\zeta_m^i)\otimes(y_j\zeta_n^j)]
ok so lets just look at some $(a\zeta_m^i)\otimes(b\zeta_n^j)$ cause they generate the whole got dang thang. Since $a, b \in \bQ$ this is $ab(\zeta_m^i)\otimes(\zeta_n^j)$ so we just want that $((\zeta_m)\otimes(\zeta_n))^{\text{lcm}(m, n)} = 1_{\bQ(\zeta_m) \otimes_{\bQ} \bQ(\zeta_n)} = 1 \otimes 1$
Wew Lads Tbh
which I think is true just by using the definition of multiplication when you tensor algebras together
nifty
so ur thing has a lcm(m,n)-root of unity
and I can't be bothered showing the rest hahahahaha
I think that is the problem we needed to solve anyways
I'm not exactly sure how is this true
I think it's another case where you just have to write the whole thing out and see that everything turns to 1s
actually no it's not that bad, you can directly move the power down like $(\zeta_m \otimes \zeta_n)^k = \zeta_m^k \otimes \zeta_n^k$
Wew Lads Tbh
this should be true cause tensor products of COMMUTATIVE algebras is the coproduct
There's a different way compositums are seen - that is, if M and N are fields, then NM is the field of fractions of the set of finite N-linear combinations on M (or vice versa)
F2[x]/(x^2+1) is weird bc it doesn’t have cancellation (since x*(x+1) = x^2+x = 1+x but x doesn’t equal 1)
huh. That is strange
The problem is this looks fucking horrible to work with
Idk how to make sense of it
As a tensor product it looks million times nicer but it's still kinda pain to work with
I'll google
Wait what isn't it an integral domain
Oh wait it isn't
yeah it's not surprising that it's not an integral domain
x^2 + 1 is reducible over F_2[x]
lmao
stupid ring
The dual numbers over Z2?
L
I haven't heard of dual numbers in years
but wouldn't that be F_2[x]/(x^2)
aka Z/4Z
2-adics
this was actually a really fun exercise to do
giving a nice corrispondence between the commutative rings of order p^2 and irreducible quadratics over F_p
well, not irreducible
just all of them
Wickerpedia says that’s the canonical matrix representation of the dual nums over a ring
I must've gotten my initial classification wrong then
yeah I definitely did - how could you get Z/4Z from a quotient of a char 2 ring? duh
F2[x]/x^2 has elems 0,1,x,x+1 with the same issue: x*(x+1) = x^2+x = x but x+1 doesn’t equal 1
So it looks like the same structure under a map A > A+1
yeah I believe this
The purpose of this note is to give a complete classification of all finite rings of order p2 with p a prime. In particular, we show that up to isomorphism there are exactly 11 rings of order p2.
I think those rings are not assumed to have unity
also here, because there is only one ring with unity with p elements
Finally found a better proof
oh wow
(zeta_m)^(m, n) * zeta_n is a primitive [m,n]th root. We are done
@delicate orchid
well it's a group of order p so is cyclic. we also have that since 1≠0 the additive group generated by 1 is the whole thing
r(n1)=n(r1)=nr
err I mean
Simply exquisite
(n1)(m1)=nm1
Any char n field contains Z/nZ, so for n = p prime we have that Z/pZ is the only ring of order p
...how can this be possible? I thought it should be a field!
oh, (x+1)^2 = (x^2+1) so it isn't irreducible.
F2[X]/(x+1) is cancellative.
F_2[x]/(x+1), or as I like to call it, F_2
Actually nvm fuck this doesn't work for m = 4 n = 2
simply diabolical
😔
man my professor is gonna kill me tomorrow morning
I haven't done a single problem correctly!
Ok can we like
let's say m and n are two natural numbers and uh
can we find a natural number k such that gcd(k,n) = 1 and zeta_k is an mth root of unity over Q
Because if this is true for any general m and n, we can always show that (zeta_m)^(m/k) * (zeta_n) is a primitive lcm(m,n)th root of unity over Q
k would have to be a divisor of m
so yes, we can.
ah no there's a slight annoyance
if M is the set of primes dividing m and likewise for N, n we need M \neq N
then we can find such a k by just picking a prime in M - M \cap N
Oh yeah
Atleast one prime needs to be there which divides one but not the other
Otherwise this 2 4 shit repeats itself
yur
And we pick that exact prime
Or one of such multiple primes
Bruh
😔
This means I can't use this technique in general
wtf
Let's take Q(zeta_12)Q(zeta_18)
This should be Q(zeta_36)
what are the divisors of 12 again
1, 2, 3, 6, 12
4 also
Oop
Yeah
In anyways
<zeta_m> \cap <zeta_n> = <zeta_d> where d is gcd
Similarly, <zeta_m, zeta_n> = <zeta_m><zeta_n>
I think this is enough
The first one is true because LHS has cardinality d and it's a cyclic subgroup of <zeta_mn>
2nd one also is a cyclic subgroup of <zeta_mn>.
Now, all subgroups here are normal
So, <zeta_m><zeta_n> has cardinality mn/d = l, where l is lcm
Hence, there must be an element of order l, and that should be a primitive lth root of unity
Hence we can generate an lth primitive root of unity using zeta_m and zeta_n, and we are done
I honestly don't think the actual explicit construction for the lth root is trivial, group theory saved my ass
FINALLY.
no idea what you're doing but I'm glad it's worked
I showed Q(zeta_m)Q(zeta_n) \superset Q(zeta_l)
The other part is trivial
we did it reddit...
anybody just start going through Aluffi chapter 0?
starting either later this week or next week
i don't get Then (a^-1)^-1b^-1 in H part, could someone plz explain? ty
a^-1H = b^-1H
H = ab^-1H <=> ab^-1 is in H
oh multiplied both sides by a?
Well, you can ask when is this congruent to x_0 modulo n.
x_k - x_0 = (a^k - 1) x_0 + b/(a-1) (a^k - 1) = (a^k - 1) (x_0 + b/(a-1)).
This is divisible by n iff a^k - 1 is divisible by n / gcd(n, x_0 + b/(a-1)).
hi, i’ve been meaning to
OK that doesn't make sense, b/(a-1) does not necessarily exist in Z/nZ.
x_k - x_0 = (a^k-1)/(a-1) (x_0 (a-1) + b)
This is divisible by n iff
a^k = 1 (mod (a-1)n / gcd( (a-1)n, x_0 (a-1) + b ) )
So you need the order of a modulo a certain factor of (a-1)n, which depends on x_0.
You're welcome
This may be a very stupid question but what is the relationship between being finitely presented and a concrete presentation <A | R>?
is it R is a finite number of relationships? I don't see the direct connection
my definition of finitely presented is we have an exact sequence Rn -> Rm -> M -> 0
oops overloading R, in the exact sequence it is just a ring
Well <A | R> is usually used for groups
Given an $\Bbb R$-algebra $\Bbb R^2$ with multiplication given as $$(x_1,y_1)(x_2,y_2)=(x_1x_2+y_1y_2, x_1y_2+x_2y_1).$$ Is there a way to determine the maximal ideals of this from knowing what the maximal ideals of $\Bbb R^2$ with the regular multiplication are or how should this be done?
Emerton
A presentation of an $R$-module $M$ is an exact sequence $R^I \to R^J \to M \to 0$ for some $I,J$. You think of $R^J \to M$ as specifying some generators, and then the kernel expresses relations.
Süßkartoffel
If you write out first iso theorem you'll see how it matches up to what you expect
yes I got it up to there
oops meant to reply the last message
im pretty sure there isnt much of a direct relationship between finitely presented R-modules and finitely presented groups
Okay for simplicity let R=Z
There is, like you have a surjection from a free group/module whose kernel is finitely generated
from the relationships of my presentation <A|E> what can I say of the map R^I-> R^J sus mentioned?
well like A specifies a map Z^J -> A
yup
and E is a set of generators of the kernel of that
which specifies a map Z^E -> Z^A
such that Z^E -> Z^A -> M is exact
I get lost at this part
Like uh say you have a and b in A and some relation e is that "a + 2b = 0"
then you send the generator e of Z^E to a + 2b in Z^A
oh that makes sense lol
(here, notationally, i'm viewing Z^S as formal linear combs of elements of S)
So like your map Z^E -> Z^A is formal, like you're sending the relation "a+2b=0" to a+2b lol
and Z^A -> M gives them "meaning"
this type of definition doesnt work for nonabelian groups right?
its just for modules and stuff
and abelian groups
one last question, what about an exact sequence Z^D -> Z^E -> Z^A -> M -> 0? (I'm trying to get intuition of resolutions). What does the map Z^D -> Z^E mean? Or how to understand it?
Identity this algebra with R[x]/(x^2-1) then correspondence theorem
yeah it won't, because a relation may not generate a subgroup so the map F(E) -> F(A) sus described is not a group homomorphism
Can I ask, how do you obtain R[x]/(x^2-1) from this?
or rather, does not generate the subgroup it should
hmmmmmmm ok I'm doubting myself
it's complex multiplication but with i^2 = 1 instead of -1
Ok the map F(E) -> F(A) induced by mapping "e" to e is a group homomorphism, but it's image is not necessarily normal. So yeah it doesn't work. One could modify definitions to say exactness means ker f = normal closure of (Im g) and it'd work though
its even worse for infinite groups lol
as in any sequence Fn -> Fm -> G is necessarily non-exact
Does this actually simplify further as x^2-1 = (x+1)(x-1)?
well that's how you'll be getting your maximal ideals
and uhh yeah you can chinese remainder theorem it
are there moral reasons as to why a formal power series over a field is a unit iff the first element is not 0?
Bc it is a local ring with maximal ideal (x) 
Well one thing is that x is "topologically" nilpotent whilst non-zero constant polynomials are units
unit + nilpotent = unit
But ultimately i'd say it comes downt o like
1/(1+x) making sense if you allow for power series
There are other moral reasons in the sense that you are taking a line over the field and "zooming in" at zero
makes sense
I'll ruminate on that
I'm trying to determine the order of uv, and i'm struggling. in particular, I'm struggling to discount the possibility that uv has some order greater than 2. (I have already justified to myself that uv=1 gives a contradiction, I want (uv)^2 = 1, because then we get uvu = v, exactly what I want to show that <u,v> is iso to D_2)
You’re gonna struggle with that! In certain cases, uv is the element of order n in Dih(2n)
What I mean to say is that it’s the rotation
Oh, so it's not the case that <u,v> is iso to D_2, but rather some D_2n
That’s right
hm
Try showing that D_n has this property, maybe that will help you see how to put the pieces togetger
that D_ n has the property that it is generated by two involutions
?
Yeah
Composing two reflections gives a rotation, r. My first idea was to compose this rotation with itself n times to get all the rotations in D_n, this this only works if |<r>| is coprime to n. I think that we should next consider compositions of this rotation with the reflections that we are given, (which will each result in reflections), and see if that's enough to generate D_n
Oh, and because these are involutions in D_n, they are reflections (for n geq 3). we know uv neq 1, because then we have u = v. So uv is a nontrivial (not equal to the identity) rotation
hello
oh hey it's this one again
miz had this argument but i got distracted and i didn't read it
because once you do this you will be able to map u and v to them
err
we just have the coxeter group with two elements are n
that is, let n be such a that (uv)^n=1
we only need to show that there aren't any extra relations
chat what is a coxeter group
oh sorry don't worry about it
point is that D_{2n} is <r,s : r^2=s^2=1 and (rs)^n=1>
yes I agree, that's exactly what we have with <u,v>
that is, that the group generated by u and v in Aut is actually the free group on two generators with the relations u^2=v^2=(uv)^n
how do we know that?
we know that those relations are satisfied.
u and v are distinct involutions, so u^2=v^2=1. uv has finite order as G is finite
yes, so?
<u,v> is the group generated by u, v in Aut.
Just because u,v satisfy those three generating relations in D doesn't necessarily mean that there aren't extra ones that don't hold for D
D is a free group mod the normal closure of the subgroup generated by r^2,s^2,(rs)^n. We know that <u,v> in Aut is certainly not bigger, but what if it is strictly smaller?
what other relations could there possibly be?
how do we know there aren't any!
for all we know the involutoons are special and thus have some relations D doesn't
after all, we came up with these
you could try doing an order thing
I think miz showed the order of <u,v> = order of D_{2n}
huh
by induction, but, I don't know what he did
@unkempt stream enlighten us
wait no not you
@dull ginkgo
So
so therefore (uv)^N-1 is vu
Every word in <u,v> is of the form uvuvuvuvuvuv.... or vuvuvuvu....
because involutions
okay so
combinatorics
(uv)^n=1
(vu)^n=1
supposing (uv)^N = 1 no>
yes
not no
(uv)^n vu = vu
then (uv)^{n-1} = vu
so a string of form vuvuvu... is just (vu)^m optionally times v
and this, as we have established is for some l, (uv)^l optionally times v.
which would optional cancel the last v
giving us (uv)^{l-1} times u in the option case and (uv)^{l} otherwise
so every string looks like
(uv)^m Optional(v)
with m < n
so, there are 2n of these (namely: identity, u, uv, uvu, uvuv, uvuvu, ...)
QED
let me try explain this to myself
How are we getting from |<u,v>| = 2n to <u,v> iso to D_2n?
Okay so firet
The group <u,v> is a subgroup of D_2n
err
Okay instead
The group <u,v> satisfies at least as many relations as D_2n (and it satisfies the relations of D_2n)
so, if we show that the generators u,v don't have any extra things glued to 0 besides the one that D_2n does, we will be done
more abstractly, <u,v> is a quotient of the free group on two generators by the normal closure of its relation, and so is D_2n
since <u,v> satisfies the relations of D_2n (namely uu=vv=(uv)^n=1)
all we need to show is that there are no extra relations.
by showing the groups have the same size, we will have shown that the relations are the same, because <u,v> doesn't have any extra
<u,v> having the relations u^2=v^2=(uv)^n =1 means that |<u,v>| \leq |D_2n|, so then showing that |<u,v>| = |D_2n| => these are the only relations on <u,v> (if we had another relation then <u,v> should be smaller) which them implies that they are isomorphic, Am I understanding that correctly?
yup
using the presentation of D_2n made this way easier. thanks for the help xela
and thanks to mizalign for actually solving it
lul
this is interesting to me because it gives me a reason to care about D_{2n}
likewise dynkin gives me a reason to care about coxeter.
Can someone help me with these problems?
So far, I have this, but not sure if I'm on right track:
If we had an extra relation, than some uvuvuvuv…. LESS THAN (uv)^n would be the identity, but that would either imply (uv)^m*u = e, or (uv)^m = e. This violates the idea that n is the order of (uv) unless u = v
Of which the order is 2
u,v distinct by hypo
D_n expert
Yeah
Took me a while but the assumption of the order is critical
it’s the whole “minimal n such that” part because more relations would contradict its minimality
Which that explanation makes sense to me more than just plugging and chugging for the order
Actually let me formalize this bastard
Let $u$, $v$ be involute elements in group $G$ such that $uv$ has finite order $n$, then $\langle u, v \rangle \cong D_{2n}$
Request a new nickname
Every element in $\langle u, v \rangle$ is uniquely of the form $(uv)^m u$ or $(uv)^m$ for some $0 \leq m < n$.
This can be shown via induction by appending $u$ or $v$ to words of those forms and see they also are of either of those forms through $(uv)^m = (vu)^{n - m}$ = (a bit lengthy and repetetive, so I'll exclude it here).
We can show $|\langle u, v \rangle| = 2n$, because an element of the form $(uv)^m$ cannot be the identity as it'd violate the minimality of the order being $n$. Since $u \neq e$, $m \neq 0$. Therefore if $(uv)^m u = e \Rightarrow (uv)^m = u \Rightarrow (uv)^{m-1} = v \Rightarrow (uv)^{2m - 1} = uv \Rightarrow (uv)^{m} = e$, causing the same contradiction.
We can show there's a map from $D_{2n} = \langle r, s \mid r^n = (sr)^2 = s^2 = e \rangle$ to $\langle u, v \rangle$ where $r \mapsto uv$ and $s \mapsto u$, but we also know the domain also has order $2n$, thus it is an isomorphism
Request a new nickname
How do you prove that R^2 with multiplication given by (a,b)(c,d) = (ac, ad + bc) is isomorphic to R[x]/(x^2)? I was thinking about defining a R-module homomorphism f : R[x] -> A with f(p) = p(1,0), and then using the first isomorphism theorem, but looks like this wont work.
You should use the first isomorphism theorem. I’m not going to say anything more because I can’t possibly do so without ruining the whole thing
How should one define the map f : R[x] -> A? The identity on A is (1,0) and 1 on R[x] so we need to have f(1) = (1,0)?
Remember you want x^2 to map to 0, so x should map to something that squares to 0
Riiiight its actually only x we need to take care of due to linearity right?
Yes, that's right
For any (a,b) in A we have that (a,b)^2 = (a^2, 2ab) and this is zero if a = 0. So any element (0,a) squares to zero in A.
So might as well map x to (0,1)?
The hard part now is then probably to show that ker(f) = (x^2)
there is also the approach in which you guess the isomorphism
if you look at how two polynomials in R[x]/(x^2) multiply, you might get a good guess on what the isomorphism should be
Any two polynomials in R[x]/(x^2) multiply as (ax + b)(cx + d) = acx^2 + adx + bcx + bd = (ad + bc)x + bd, but I'm bad at guessing
Now look at multiplication in A
I know they are similar, but where should I send something like f(ax + b)? Maybe f(ax + b) = (b,a), in this way f((ax + b)(cx + d)) = f(ax+b)f(cx+d) = (bd, ad + bc) which is quite similar to multiplication in A.
it's not just similar; it's identical, but you miscalculated the first component
my bad, you didn't miscalculate; I just had something similar in my head
your map works just fine
in my head it was f(a+bx)=(a,b)... the same thing
Oh okay
Hmm, it says "By induction"
Maybe check up on Induction hypothesis?
Suppose for every group G with v_p(|G|) = n and element x of order p we have that there exists a subgroup of G/(x) of order p^(n-1).
Then if v_p(G’) = n+1 we have for any element x of order p that G’/(x) has order p^n, so if y is an element of G’/(x) of order p then (G’/(x))/(y) has a subgroup of order p^n
That’s not exactly what we want though
how do i show that for any nilpotent $G$, nontrivial $N \lhd G$, that $N \cap Z(G) \neq {e}$?
mwago
I’m trying to induct on n, which is alpha in the problem
Yeah so
Let's say, we apply induction on Sylow's first theorem over alpha.
Taking the exact statement as P(alpha)
Then base case is P(0), and induction step is P(alpha - 1) => P(alpha).
Can you identify P(alpha - 1)?
wait in the proof they just use induction for a lemma, not the whole proof
Lemma?
the existence of the subgroup of G/(a)
It’s strong induction
Well, doesn't seem so to me
I didn’t know it’s possible to use a worse proof of Sylow than Jacobson but here we are
It is a bit of abuse of statements, but it seems like it is inducting over the whole theorem
Which makes sense, you want stronger induction hypothesis.
It’s inducting over the existence of the Sylow-p subgroup for smaller orders, no?
Ok i don’t know what’s going on in the proof lol
Okay homie so our assumption is that every group of order less than |G| abide by the hypothesis
Largest p-power factor of |G/<a>| is p^(alpha - 1)
Lang probably has a worse one.
I.e there’s a subgroup of order p^k
yea
I do think it is an induction over alpha
So, we have our conjugacy class equation: $|G| = |Z(G)| + \sum{[G : C(x_i)]$
Request a new nickname
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
The size of the conjugacy class is the index of some centralizer of an element in G
So we have two cases
Ohh
Assume p DOESN’T divide |Z(G)|
Then it must NOT divide one of those centralizer indices
Okay do you get it now
yea
Sick
Huh
how can it be made better
group actions 
bruh are you talking about the first proof on the wikipedia
At least they could have made the statement less confusing
which uses some shit called cummers theorem
Does Wikipedia use it
By beginning with "induction over alpha" etc.
I don’t think you need the full strength of Krummer’s theorem
yea but once i got it made sense
Actually I think Krummer’s theorem can indirectly be proven as a corollary
Hm I’m try to go back and understand rn
Though it’s easier just to shortcut it with Krummer’s theorem there’s a stronger proof
Jacobson makes it an exercise to prove it that route
You know shit’s fucked when the exercise is easier than reading the goddamn section
Wth
Is Jacobson so bad
I implore you to try it out
The Krummer’s part is below it
I admittedly like guided proofs like this
Guided proofs are great
This proof of Sylow is a bit longer but just kind of working it out made it click for me
But it required a lot of partitioning lmao
- Power set gets partitioned into sets of the subsets of the same cardinality
- p^k-sets get partitioned into cosets of its stabilizer
- family of p^k sets get partitioned into sets with stabilizers of the same order
- each of the equivalence classes gets partitioned into orbits under the action
bump
Any ideas?
Note this clarification.
It depends on what you mean by those functions being equal. As formal objects we might distinguish them anyways, but as @daring nova pointed out it's easy to find examples in finite fields. In Fp all elements satisfy a^p = a, so for any polynomial (and consequently any rational function over Fp) P(x1,...,xn) in Fp[x1,...,xn] we get the same evaluation pointwise under the map xj > xj^p
I mean equality in the transcendental extension generated by the indeterminates, i.e. in the field of fractions of the polynomial ring generated by the indeterminates, i.e., ‘formally’.
I have had no progress yet on this
My attempts were looking at the kernels of those maps and trying to determine sth
Also I haven't been able to make use of the fact that their commutators generate them
How's that important
Hello 👋
I am trying to understand this statement. Specifically the example that (Z,+) is generated by 1.
I can't convince myself this is true, because 1+1+1...+1 would never generate a negative number, so it cant generate all of Z. Am I miss interpreting the phrase "generate"?
Recheck the definition of a cyclic group. n in Z also includes negative n right? So you would also get (-n) * 1 as well
I was getting lost in the sauce of definitions, you are right. I see now how we can get to generating Z. Thanks so much.
so we have this result from linear algbera (T is a linear transformation). isn't this a more general fact about homomorphisms, though? like, isn't this kind of a direct application of the fundamental homomorphism theorem?
yeah its just a consequence of T being a homomorphism of the underlying groups
I have a very basic question. I'm reading about quotient groups on Wikipedia. I do not understand the first equality underlined red. Why is (ab)N=a(bN)? Nowhere have they defined this associativity to hold for cosets. Grateful for any explanation.
it holds for cosets because it holds for elements
yes, if you think about what each means it's clear
in general, if you have subsets A, B, C of G (not necessarily subgroups) , then (AB)C = A(BC)
like (ab)N is the set of elements (ab)n
ok 👍 so on the one hand we have {ab x n: n in N} and on the other hand {a x c: c in bN}. So I guess we can say that all elements in bN are of the form b x n and thus {a x c: c in bN}={a x b x n: n in N}
exactly
do you guys have any good resources on abelion sets and intro to this topic
(videos esp)
what are abelion sets?
It might be another word for an abelian variety, I’ve heard algebraic varieties being called algebraic sets before
In which case, #algebraic-geometry will be more useful than here
oh i see, i thought it would be here bc we are doing sets and fields and stuff
If I have something like the quotient k[x,y,z]/(y-x^2,z), since z = 0 in this ring can I say that this is isomorphic to k[x,y]/(y-x^2) or do I need some extra conditions to be able to say so?
I'm studying the group $\mathbb R/\mathbb Z$. It is said that $\mathbb{R}/\mathbb{Z}$ is in $1-1$ correspondence with the set $[0, 1)$. The group structure carries over to $[0, 1)$ and it is addition modulo $1$. \
As far as I understand, addition modulo $1$ is the positive fractional part of a real number. But since it is called addition modulo $1$, I wonder if it is somehow related to modular arithmetic? Is there any connection?
Philip
I mean, it is mod 1 instead of mod n, I don't know what more you want
well, the modular arithmetic I'm familiar with is; let n be a positive integer, and x,y integers, then x=y (mod n) if n|(x-y). Can we just swap x,y to be real numbers?
R is a field so divisibility isn’t interesting
you are correct; you can use the third isomorphism theorem to justify it
It’s related to “regular” modular arithmetic in the sense that in both cases you have numbers equated when they differ by a certain amount
ok, so what does addition modulo 1 mean? I don't think I've seen a clear definition of this. At least I haven't been able to find an article about this on Wikipedia.
if you have a quotient group G/H people sometimes say "modulo H" to refer to the inherited operation
I find this is more common with rings
Z as an abelian group is generated by 1, so they're just shortening it by only referring to the generator
ok 👍
I am not sure about notation R-linear combination when R is a ring
it just means things that look like $\sum r_ix_i$ with $r_i \in R$
Wew Lads Tbh
Okay, thank you
how do I verify these compositions of all the possible combinations of rotations and flips?
My guess is that D_n is a subgroup contained within the group S_n
hmm does that help?
so certain permutations are allowed but not all without deforming the polygon
this subgroup is closed under the operation of composition
that would mean that it wouldn't be anything other than rotation and flip
rotations and reflections have different cycle types after you embed them into S_n, you can use that to prove this
or consider the representation using 2x2 matrices - rotations have determinant 1 and reflections have determinant -1
I am not familiar with this, sorry
or take the subgroup generated by the smallest rotation and quotient D_n by it, you'll get two cosets - one of rotations and one of reflections
that's probably what they want
the book haven't even introduced these topics yet
subgroups is in the next section
I am confused
I knew the concept beforehand hence I was able to think of it
An idea might be to use matrices
_ _
When you Bury the relevant idea in a wall of text I am not going to see it boss
skill issue
OK I am being hyperbolic I just didn't read what you said tbh
wait maybe I should read the god damn image
use that homomorphism they've just defined
it's very straightforward
I just want to verify those composition operations
they are closed
now how do I know which certain ones are which?
I can see it through visualization but that's not rigorous
Alex do you know what a matrix is and how to use one
let phi be the homomorphism D_n -> {1, -1} as defined in your image (example 2.26)
let r,r' be rotations and f, f' flips
then phi(rr') = phi(r)phi(r') = 1, so rr' is a rotation
phi(rf) = phi(r)phi(f) = -1, so rf is a flip
and so on
Yeah I am vaguely familiar with linear transformations
Yeah just read this
I mean this is the same thing as taking determinants of the appropriate matrices but wew is so right (as per)
yeah, same thing as mapping to S_n and taking signs as well
were you trying to construct a map? (sorry I am a bit new to algebra)
who are you talking to
swiftee
This is assuming what we're trying to prove?. Yes this si the final step ignore me
both me and swiftee were coming up with different ways to get the map you've already been given
Ah
because I see a big block of text and my adhd activates my fight or flight so I didn't actually read it for like 5 minutes
nah I just think that mathematicians are more likely to be neurodivergent 
Chat am I a mathematician

not yet
You're being nicer than usual
maybe
wait we have to verify the fact that it is a homomorphism and you are using the fact that it is a homomorphism?
isn't this circular?
you're told it's a homomorphism
oh ok right yeah I really cannot be fuckin bothered?
it's the canonical surjection D_n -> D_n/<r>, which is a homomorphism as <r> is normal
it's the composition of D_n -> S_n followed by the sign homomorphism
define the action of D_n on the plane through how it transforms the n-gon, then it's the determinant which is a homomorphism
hmm
maybe actually post exercise 2.22?
@languid trellis did u know that the sign of a permutation is it's determinant as viewed as a F_1-module automorphism?
What’s an F1-module
...
Something with cars?
do you have a presentation of D_n
F1 the mysterious "field with one element"
yes but it's rather short
F1 stuff sounds enticing but I can’t make sense of any of it yet in my learning journey
ok then if we're defining a flip as just anything that isn't a power of a rotation then you should be able to do this from the presentation quickly
An F1 module is just a pointed set, but a linear map between F1 modules is a map of pointed sets, that satisfies the first isomorphism theorem
I.e. if you mod out the kernel the map becomes injective
writing the presentation as <r, f | r^n = f^2 = 1, frf = r^-1> we have (fr^n)(fr^m) = r^(m-n) which is a rotation, the other relations follow in the same manner
They are somewhat useful for studying things over arbitrary fields, as "tensoring" F1 modules with arbitrary fields always gives you a vector space. So it's like describing linear maps that plays nice with a specific basis. Like permutation matrices for example.
And then you have some fun things like sign being the determinant, and Sn being GLn
i hate hate hate the D_n exercise, its just a bunch of handwaving because "well its obvious there are no other symmetries" and its in the beginning of every first algebra course before you are able to prove the facts about planes and polygons rigorously
@rocky cloak hmm interesting. Thank you!!
agreed. It's dog water of the highest order
and I ain't talking like, a fine wolfhound
this shit is a pug
these are the things I care about
you also have things like the burnside ring being the F_1-representation ring
and now I've just had a very scary thought about trying to do modular rep theory over F_1
like how much carries over
F_1 ? More like nonsense
Also that message made me feel really good about my algebra knowledge
whyyyy
Because I only understood it vaguely
F_6, on the other hand…
I thought you were talking about the field with one element which is why I said f1 is nonsense xd
we are
I think there are some respectable mathematicians looking at F_1 though
I don't know anything precise, just will o wisps from reading other chats
I guess that would just be studying G-sets, which is pretty well understood I guess... Idk
yeah, I'd say they're completely solved tbh
what I want to do is go backwards, see how much block theory and brauer theory we can throw at it and how much of it will stick
this isn't a serious research suggestion I'm just posting words on the internet
stealing this for my blog name if I ever make one
you will not be credited and I will be seeing you in court
'Words on the webs' sounds like tje name of a blog which has 3 posts from 7 years ago because the owner got bored and moved onto a different fleeting interest in his life
exactly
Hi, recently started some galois theory and im doing field extension stuff rn, I just wanted to ask about what elements of fields of the form say Q[sqrt2] or like Q[a,b] in general. Ik elements of the first one are of the form a+bsqrt2 but how do I see this in general, like for eg how do we know elements of Q[cube root of 2] are of the form a+b times cube root of 2 + c times cube root of 2 squared. Notes dont rlly clarify this notation
they're quotients of polynomial rings, so just treat them like polynomials
one moment please!
,w minimal polynomial of 2^(1/3)
so Q(cbrt(2)) is Q[x]/(x^3-2), which has elements that look like a+bx+cx^2
so, passing that through the isomorphism, we have elements of Q(cbrt(2)) looking like a+b*cbrt(x)+c*cbrt(2)^2
Srry ig im trying to see how theyre essentially quotient polynomial rings cuz I have Q[a] defined as the smallest field containing both Q and a but I just dont see the link
Intuitively, to get the smallest field you start with Q and a and do combinations of addition, subtraction, multiplication and division.
The first 3 are exactly described by evaluating polynomials in a (a polynomial is just a big sum of things multiplied together after all).
So the only question is where division fits in. But if a is the root of a polynomial, for example a^3 - 2 = 0. Notice how
a*a^2 = 2, so 1/a = a^2 / 2
So dividing by a is just multiplying by a^2 / 2. So division is already covered.
This brushes a few details under the rug, but it's the main idea.
Q[a] is not a good notation because this normally means the smallest ring that contains Q and a, while Q(a) is the smallest field that contains Q and a
they are equal if and only if a is algebraic over Q
to see how the elements of Q[a] (in the sense of the definition I mentioned) look like, first notice, as jagr mentioned, that it must contain any p(a), with p in Q[x]
then convince yourself that these elements really form a ring, so by the minimality of the ring, you get Q[a]={p(a) : p in Q[x]}
now the elements of Q(a) are ratios of elements of Q[a]... so p(a)/q(a) with p,q in Q[x] and q(a)=/=0; if m is the minimal polynomial of a, then m and q must be coprime, so by Bezout there are u,v in Q[x] such that mu+qv=1, so q(a)v(a)=1, so p(a)/q(a)=p(a)v(a), which is a polynomial in Q[x] evaluated in a... this proves that Q(a)=Q[a]=polynomials in Q[x] evaluated in a
finally, by Euclidean division p=cm+r, with c,r in Q[x] and deg(r)<deg(m); and we have p(a)=r(a), so it turns out that evaluating polynomials from Q[x] in a is actually the same as evaluating polynomials from Q[x] of degree <deg(m) in a
Q[a] is fine since a is a letter for algebraic things only
Well it's a bit weird since usually people would still write Q(a)
I think i'm going insane
me too
I'm trying to prove a submodule of a semisimple module is semisimple, but I also want to prove something stronger. Suppose M' is a submodule of M. I proved that if
$$M = \bigoplus_{i\in I}M_i$$
Is the simple decomposition, then there is $I'\subseteq I$ such that
$$M = M' \oplus \bigoplus_{i\in I'}M'$$
Now I want to prove that $M' = \bigoplus_{i\in I-I'}M_i$. I want to start by proving every simple module $M_i$ for $i\in I-I'$ is inside $M'$.\\
I know that the intersection of $M_i$ with $\bigoplus_{j\in I}M_j$ is $0$ by independence, but I don't know how to rule out that $M\cap M_i=0$. I want to show that this implies $M_i=0$ but I am not able to show that
ShiN 11R34
It is definitely true
the quotient that is isomorphic to M' is a direct sum of M_i for i\in I-I'
wait I think I know how
so call the sum over I' $M''$, now for $m\in M_i$ decompose $m=m'+m''$ for $m'\in M',m''\in M''$. Now since $M'$ and $M''$ by contradiction intersect trivially with $M_i$, then since we know they are semisimple, the elements $m',m''$ have a simple decomposition that doesn't have $M_i$ as a factor, but then everything is equal to $0$ by independence
ShiN 11R34
this feels a bit....not nice
Cuz we first prove that M' is semisimple and only then do we prove the decomp
I think maybe I can prove the opposite inclusion first
Hmm
I'm starting to think this might not be true
Might only be up to Isomorphism
Which would make sense and I will try to proce
I think you can take a 2 dim vector space as an example
Cboose one basis
Then choose a different one with a common vector
But you can prove it's isomorphic through the quotient map I think
Because semisimple module decomps are only up to iso
Yea this example works
Ok I will try to prove this up to iso
I was able to do 1 I think the mapping is matrix maps to a+ib but I have no ideas for a map for bit 2
I think after knowing 2 , 3 is just exploiting the isomorphism and also the fact that this poly has roots in C
Correct for 1
Also correct
Can you find an invertible map taking A to an element of S? That's what I'd try
Like multiply some invertible matrix ?
Isomorphisms are meant to be invertible maps I don't understand what you mean by finding an invertible map
I don’t think that would be a ring homomorphism unfortunately
If you could pls elaborate more
Yeah right
You are most likely going to be looking for a different basis of R^2 and conjugating elements of S by that change of basis matrix
Ohkay so I need to find a change of basis so that A gets in the form of element of S
I think so
Okay so for getting around isn't it fair that I show that the jordan form of this is same as some other matrix in S
Sure
I think i might've found the basis and its less complicated than you would think so you could always just try to guess it as well
But yeah jordan form is definitely a less sketchy way of solving it lol
I am bad at guessing
Great idea actually
For later reference if you care (SPOILER ABOUT THE BASIS, ONLY LOOK IF YOU ARE READY!): ||I think the new ordered basis should be {e_1+e_2, e_2}||
Oh cool how did you find this
For the jordan forms idea the matrix in S has char poly (x-a+ib)(x-a-ib) so it's just diagonal I think
Yeah it doesnt work
And I just check the roots of char poly of A
I was thinking this is an issue because we need to keep the basis being real?
They are similar in M2(C)
Yes
Oh my god dude
Do u wanna invoke a crazy result about Frobenius Canonical Form
Umm idk that
Rational canonical form?
(2)
Reference is Dummit & Foote Page 477
I think this might be a Tad bit overkill but that's part of the fun right!
You're welcome! This problem was really cool lol
Got to use a lot of stuff i recently learned about which is very nice
Glad to hear you might be interested in looking at a problem I posted previously which was left unattended it's from the same source
Are there polynomials over non integral domains with more roots than the degree?
Consider f(x) = 2x in Z/4Z[x].
Ah yes
What. How
Wdym
Nevermind my brain somehow thought that said Z/2Z for a second
i think chamonke is joking
Sir does this mean that integral domain isn't real?
What
not an ID
What. How
4 is prime.
Some of you asked... here it is.
Green screen template
Song: Sanctuary Guardian
#whathowmeme #whathowtemplate #whathow
looks, 4's only factors are 1 and 4.
another way to see this is that 4 is odd and >2 and so is prime.
Reminds me of the Ace Attorney meme lol.
Is divisibility antisymmetric (up to associates) only in integral domains?
I doubt that it fails to be antisymmetric in every non-integral domain, but as far as I know, there is no large class (or at least, a class basic enough that everyone is taught about it) of non-integral domains for which it's true.
Hmmm.
Suppose a | b and b | a, then a = ax for some x. If x is a unit then a and b are associate (assuming commutative rings here), so the question is to analyse to what extent that can fail.
Sorry yes I did mean to ask whether there are non integral domains where divisibility does not have this property
If (0:a) = {x | ax = 0}, then ax = a precisely for x in 1 + (0:a). That consists solely of units iff (0:a) lies in the Jacobson radical, so that's one sufficient condition for divisibility to be antisymmetric up to associates: for every a, the ‘measure of non-cancellativity’ (0:a) should lie within the Jacobson radical, if not 0.
Oh, then no.
If b = ax and a = by then a = axy, b = bxy.
If a is non-zero then this implies that xy = 1 => x, y are units => a, b are associate. Similarly if b is non-zero. And of course if a, b are both zero then they're associate anyway.
How do we know xy=1?
It's not uniqueness of 1 because we do not necessarily have rxy=r for all r (just a,b)
Is that true if the ring is not an integral domain?
I know it holds in IDs: if a=axy then a(xy-1)=0, so a=0 or xy=1
How do we define R_m R_n as the group operation in R_m and R_n can be different?
or here is R_m viewed as the subgroup inside R
composed of elements (0, 0, ..., r, 0, 0, ...), where the r is in the (m+1)th place from the left, and r is an element of R_m
well hmm in that case isn't the product of an element in R_m and an element in R_n just (0, 0, ...) ?
Take C[x, y]/(x²y), then y divides y+xy divides y
Oof. Who'd have thought. Thanks!
Remember that R is a ring
It gets its addition operation from the R_n additive groups
but all the multiplication needs to do is distibute with addition
A good example is k[x] is graded as k (+) kx (+) kx^2 (+) ...
think about what multiplication does there
oh so, the R_i have to be subgroups of R?
Because then you can multiply elements so R_i R_j makes sense
We're using the group structure of the R_i for addition, not multiplication
but yeah R_i are subgroups of the ring R
But R_m R_n \subset R_{m+n} means that for x in R_m and y in R_n that their product (as in multiplication in the ring) is in R_{m+n} ?
yeah
here what did you mean
cuz like yea in a ring multiplication distributes over addition
but is that all you were saying
Was more trying to say that while addition is component wise, the multiplication isn't necessarily
i see
,rotate
The question as we can see has two parts I am not able to get through a single part
Why is this an integral domain
I was trying to do some maps like y=t and x=t
If it wasn't an integral domain then wouldn't this Q[t]/<2t^2-1> not be an integral domain
But 2t^2-1 is irreducible in Q[t]
Does this work
Also how does one find the isomorphism for the second field of fractions part
show that x^2+y^2-1 is a prime element of Q[x,y]
Do you know that Q[X, Y] is a UFD?
rationally parameterize the conic x^2+y^2=1, this is standard stuff with pythagorean triples
Not standard stuff for me 😭
Yes isn't it more than a UFD tho
Ok it's just they took t=tanx/2 or sth
In this case, the useful thing to know is that it's a UFD, because then
X² + Y² - 1 is irreducible => (X² + Y² - 1) is prime => your ring is an integral domain.
How to know a multivariate polynomial is irreducible
you can use Gauss' lemma to prove that x^2+y^2-1 is a prime
or you can just prove it by hand
Yes pls tell me more
Gauss' lemma tells you it's enough to show that x^2+y^2-1 is irreducible
and this is easy to show
Okay why is this easy to show ;-; how do we work with multivariate polynomial

I bash taking (ax+by+c)(dx+ey+f)?
work in (Q[x])[y], assume that y^2+(x^2-1)=(a(x)y+b(x))(c(x)y+d(x)) for some polynomials a,b,c,d and then derive a contradiction
Okay
you should end up with something like A^2=-1 as your contradiction where d(x) is Ax+B up to a constant
I suppose this is a neat way to show that it is an integral domain as well: the map X |--> (1 - t²)/(1 + t²), Y |--> 2t/(1 + t²) extends to a ring homomorphism from Q[X, Y]/(X² + Y² - 1) to Q(t).
If one shows that this in injective and the image contains t, then this embeds the ring as an intermediate integral domain between Q[t] and Q(t), whose field of fractions must therefore be Q(t).
Why is injectivity necessary
Otherwise you would be only embedding a quotient of Q[X, Y]/(X² + Y² - 1).
Okay.....
You would get that that is an integral domain with field of fractions Q(t), but that doesn't tell you the same about the original ring.
Right 👍
So I needed to make such a parameterisation that was injective
Okay but isn't showing this as injective very difficult
Okay
So this is my mapping from field of fractions of Q[x,y]/<...> To Q(t)?
x-> 1-t^2/1+t^2, y-> ....?
Okay thanks @prisma ibex and @tough raven
sorry for the ping
No ideas so far
Yeah so q1,q2,
..qn exist such that p1q1+p2q2+...pnqn=1?
Not exactly sure how it goes, but you can probably figure it out.
<=: you have \sum x_i p_i = 1
but...
but...
R over F is a PID.
we did need to know that to even do bezout
so then done
as then gcd must be 1
We are assuming determinant is 1?
that indeed is what <= is
so for => only question left is what the matrices look like in general.
Interesting question
l divided by m
oh shit
halfway through i realized we were working over a ring and not a field and then i forgot to go back
sorry so have you two proved either direction? i could try helping too
I don't understand