#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 223 of 1
I don't believe in infinitely generated objects - how do you know it's infinitely generated? just because you got bored halfway through writing down all of the generators?
Perhaps there’s a homological condition, idk
I guess the boring condition would be wheter it homs to Prod_p Z/p
But maybe one could work from that somehow
Well, all simple modules
Right, overkill
why did you have to make it into ring theory....
Underkill I think
STOP NERD REACTING ME
Like having a nontrivial Hom to a quotient of the ring shouldn't be enough
No :)
Surely it is? We’re just looking at a composition factor on top that way
In an euclidean domain, if there is a nonzero $a$ such that $N(a)=N(ab)$, does that imply $b$ is a unit? ($b$ is also nonzero)
Shiranai
Like take the example again with the Prüfer group with zero multiplication, and freely adjoin unit. Then the Prüfer group is an ideal, so maps to the ring, but doesn't have any maximal submodule
The problem is that mapping to the ring doesn't mean mapping to the top
Is this supposed to be obvious
both sides are tautological
every group has a maximal subgroup (the group itself) and every group has a quotient (G/G)
Oh i thought it meant proper maximal subgroup
if I did the only counter example would be the trivial group
To which part?
who doesnt require maximal things to be proper
People who are memeing
the top of the lattice is the top. Ain't my problem
first time in history the top of a lattice has been referred to twice independently within the same year
I'm talking about the top of a module bro, get out of here with that lattice bs
Gm
what's even the difference, pal
Modules don't frighten me
tbf i think usually one says maximal subgroup to mean proper right ye
Ok do my work
Because I know all modules are finite dimensional
I'm stuck on some interesting group theory q but I will not ask because then someone will do my diss for me lmfao
Look at this guy, wew. Doesn’t even know day from night
everything is a filtered colimit of them and everything preserves filtered colimits
so agreed
lol
Is your norm defined to be multiplicative?
since all modules are k-algebras as well, instead of writing top just write M/J(M)
oh nvm you're actually helping someone I'll stop shit posting
no, but you can asume Na <= N(ab)
wlog
actually I just realized I don't need this yay
lol
if it's false, we'd have to get a counterexample in a E.D. with nonmultiplicative norm
which I think there's only one known
lol
Now I'm curious, what example is that
Maybe there's more, I just know this https://arxiv.org/abs/1703.02631
This seems like a euclidian domain that doesn't admit a multiplicative norm though. Which I guess is much stronger than admitting a norm that isn't multiplicative
Try computing (ai + bj + ck)^2 and take it from there
doesn't the hint just spoil the entire problem lol
evidently not
oh shoot i multiplied them wrong
i forgot multiplying backwards negates them
so $(ai+bj+ck)^2 = -a^2-b^2-c^2$?
x496
yh
sorry i mean it spoils the interesting stff
this is true for square roots in the quaternions
what do you have against lattices
... just abel goop ;-;
wew watch this:
true
R.I.P. gotta call posion control now
was it that shocking?
i better not mention false.
no problems
it's not that toxic
The word has too many unrelated meanings. I can think of at least 3
good point
Phi is a homomorphism from G to G'. In part 4, it says K' is a subgroup of G' intersect phi[G], but this is just equal to phi[G]. I think it should be K' is a subgroup of G', right?
Is it implying that G' is 'bigger' right? Also is it saying that K' is a subgroup of G' intersecting phi(G), not K' is intersecting phi(G)?
I imagine they're trying to avoid conceptual problems with defining phi^-1[K] where K contains elements outside the image.
But yes, if you're happy with that, it's fine to say that K' is a subgroup of G'.
I thought it was common to accept elements outside the image using this notation, but I get it. If that was their intention I wish they would just write phi[G] though
I'm reading a proof that if R is a UFD and f,g are primitive in R[X] then so is fg. It begins as follows:
If fg is not primitive then c(fg) is not a unit, so since R is a UFD, we can find some irreducible p in R with p | c(fg). [Here, c is the content of a polynomial, i.e. a gcd of its coefficients]
By assumption, c(f) and c(g) are units, so p ∤ c(f) and p ∤ c(g). Then...
i'm probably being an idiot, but how does the bolded part follow?
Oh nvm I am an idiot. Got it
Here’s a fun exercise if you’re bored. have fun
||First consider prime power n. Can't have n = p^k for any p > 2 (except the case p=3 and k=1) since (Z/p^k)^x is cyclic of order (p-1) p^{k-1}. For n = 2^k, note (Z/2^k)^x = Z/(2^{k-2}) x Z/2, so we need k <= 3. So using CRT largest should be taking n = 24, with units (Z/2)^3||
But I think I know another way maybe
Eh nah i think you need to know about Z/2^k being special ofc
a^2=e (mod n) is this what you mean? if so I wish there was a way to not forget how many "loops" ,say 12 in Z/5Z is 2, has made in order to generalize it, for this case it made 2 loops
yeppers :D
that's the route I used
Wait what’s the question asking I don’t understand
I used CRT, then analyzed powers
Well, just the fact that the method of proof is literally computing (Z/n)^x for all n
is kinda sad lmao
this problem was asked in the Romanian National Olympiad in 1987
Yes
whatt
yea looks like fermat primes would be annoying to deal with
Well all a in (Z/nZ)^x
ohh
has a^2 = 1
are the elements a with a^2=1 really called involutions? I only heard this term used for functions
But then a finite group where every element has order 2 is isomorphic to (Z/2)^k for some k
To be honest I wouldn't use it for groups lol
idempotents is more standard I think
that's x^2=x
idempotents makes more sense
oh
oh lol
but yea, i've heard of involutary matrices
idempotent is different
oh lol
already been said
i think involution is unambiguous though really
but the word itself says idem - potent, identity-exponent right?
i really like the word "tridempotent" 
it's weird actually that nilpotent means x^k=0 for some k, while idempotent means x^2=x
unipotent would make more sense to you ig
(they're commonly defined either as x^k = 1 or x = 1 + nilpotent)
exactly
is there a name for x^k=x, for some k?
what about x^x=e lol that could be a nice exercise
oh wait really
yeah
huh
Yeah I used CRT to show n must be a product of some power of 2 and some power of 3
then it's some small calculations to show max power of 2 is 8, max power of 3 is 3
so it's 24
I have a proof without CRT
we notice that phi(n) is a power a 2
therefore 7 does not divine n
therefore 7 is in (Z/nZ)*
so 7^2=1, i.e 48=0, i.e n | 48
n=48 doesn't work because 5^2=/=1
but n=24 works (I won't write the details)
Nice
Does anyone have any ideas for this exercise?
would appreciate a nudge in the right direciton
I'm also on this, i had a biblical brain fart with the G = that union
Each gHg^{-1} is a subgroup of G
so suppose G = \bigcup gHg^-1. Then G is the union of subgroups, which implies that one of these subgroups is G itself.
gGg^-1 = H
implies G =H
so G is not a proper subgrou
Unless there's something I'm missing, this doesn't follow. Every group is the union of its cyclic subgroups, for example.
no you're right
My hint: if $h \in H$ then note that $(gh)H(gh)^{-1} = gHg^{-1}$, so you can bound the number of distinct conjugates by a certain number, and they all intersect at $\set{e}$ at least.
Boytjie
I do need to double-check this hint but I believe it solves the problem.
aHa^-1 = bHb^-1= > ab^-1 in N(H)
H = N(H)
but that's not the contradiction, unless i can force N(H) = G
I think you're barking up the wrong tree
distinct conjugates share the identity. Also, |gHg^-1| = |H|. So, at most, the number of distinct conjugates ig [G:H]
So now how many elements are in the union? Try getting an upper bound.
we also have (gh)H(gh)^-1 = gHg^-1. So, At most |G ⧵ H| (set difference) distinct elements in the union. For G = gHg^-1, we need [G:H]. So it suffices to show that |G ⧵ H| < [G:H].
Hm I don't see how you got there
I was thinking more of an overcounting argument :)
If we have [G:H] distinct conjugates of G then G = \cup gHg^-1
No...
Remember, they intersect nontrivially as sets...
They are distinct, not disjoint!
aaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa
Now try
we need to get rid of some stuff
$G = \coprod_{S \in \mathrm{Orb}(H)}{S}$
and write down the upper bound you get
Mizalign #1 simp
??
that's just orbit stabilizer nvm
Orb(H) is the set of conjugates of H
I know.
I'd like swiftee to do the thinking here :)
The amazing thing is you can read and learn new words!
$|G| = [G : N(H)]| |N(H)| < [G : N(H)] |H|$ because of that union NOT being disjoint, contradicting $H \subseteq N(H)$
This is not especially obscure math
Mizalign #1 simp
... how
No well, in any case I simply can't see how you've gotten here
Again, I would really like to see swifteee's thinking rather than yours here.
Yeah this is just false, I don't know what to say.
oh lol which book is this from btw
cause i remember discussing this before
d+f?
maybe lang even
I've tried to type this message 3 times now. When are two conjugates distinct? per your hint, we have (gh)H(gh)^-1 = gHg^-1, so, intuitively, if g,g' \in G \ H, then we have gHg^-1 \neq g'Hg'^-1, as if they were equal, there would exist an h such that gh = g'. i.e. h = gg'^-1, which implies that g, g'^-1 in H (I think?)
OK so this is not the way.
You will not be able to determine in a general case when the conjugates are distinct.
Please just try my hint! We have at most |G:H| subgroups, each of size |H|, but we overcount by some amount. What is the most obvious adjustment to the upper bound we could make?
Miz if you spoil this for swift I'll be quite upset.
|G:H| |H| - |G:H| (for the number of elements in the union)
Yes exactly
so [G:H] |H| - [G:H] + 1
G must be partitioned into the cosets of N(H), the normalizer of H, so G is partitioned into [G : N(H)] distinct sets
G is the union over all the conjugates of H, aka the orbit of H. There are [G : N(H)] UNIQUE conjugates. HOWEVER, each gHg^-1 contains the identity due to it being an image of an automorphism, thus the union is NOT A DISJOINT UNION.
By orbit-stabilizer, each coset gN(H) corresponds to a conjugate gHg^-1. This is the contradiction of the fact that the gN(H) partition G... but the gHg^-1 DON'T
That's right! Now what's a simplification you can make here...
You may know this particular result by a name
lol
|G| - [G:H] + 1 = 1, which implies [G:H] = 1, which implies G = H, a contradiction
posts right after boytjie saying this
mfw
Yup, to say the least I am not happy.
Yes! I imagine you meant = |G| but this is a tiny typo
Cool huh?
I wasn't reading the chat, just typing... sorry fam
trying to parse because this problem fried my brain
i didn't read it anyway. miz is doing something with normalisersand orbits
Miz overcomplicated it a lot
I realized my original proof was wrong, and tried to rework it from that framework
But yeah, you got the argument. Well done!
yes, sorry haha. But yeah this counting argument is way simpler
It also seems quite weird for maximal subgroups
Yes it's kinda hard to picture for me
wait hold a fucking second does this hold for G, H infinite?
It's always pleasing when the simplest possible bound works
this is from jacobson Basic Algebra I btw
Apparently there are counterexamples in general rigt
for sure, this set of exercises has been an absolute misery so far so, once again, I appreciate your time
It does not.
oh okay
It's your chance to be creative and produce a counterexample
To me it is slightly disappointing that this problem seems to require just a counting argument - it'd be nice if we could somehow construct an element missing lol
But not very surprising either I suppose
i'm talking a 20 minute walk break now lols
nice
In my head this basically comes down to how difficult conjugacy of subgroups is. Maybe I'm just wrong, but this is why I said that trying to find a condition for when the conjugates of H are distinct isn't the way.
Z in the infinite dihedral group
?
wait no
Z/2Z in the free product of Z/2Z with itself?
not even that
I can't think of a counterexample
I'd need to find an infinite nonabelian group G with proper subgroup H such that every element in G is a conjugate of an element of H
I have a suspicion that this doesn't hold when we pick some subgroups of GL(n, R)
oh that's very smart swiftee
Just because there exists the idea of 'matrix similarity'
you could do ||upper triangular matrices inside of all complex matrices||
I was trying to cook up a topological example
As in like think in terms of graphs and stuff
I had a more combinatorial example in mind: ||the group of permutations on N with finite support||
edit: forgot to say ||the subgroup will be permutations whose support doesn't contain e.g. 1||
I don't know enough lin alg to say anything more of substance on this matter
G is the free product of Z/2Z with itself. Subgroup H is the subgroup of elements such that the length of the word is even.
Any element not in H is an alternating word of odd length like ababa, which must be symmetric :)
well thinking of lin alg was the good bit
yeah I realized that
ah ok
you won’t find an example with index 2
I am trying to see if I can come up with a simple example
ahem
lol
yeah I just chekced that
lol
Problem guv'na?
Oh no i mean miz posted the same thing and i just pointed out you had the same one (but accidentally pung'd you, my apologies)
Oh lol
Yeah S_N in S_\infty lol
S_n won’t do it
$\mathrm{colim}_n \mathrm{Sym}({1,\dots,n}) \to \mathrm{Sym}(\mathrm{colim}_n {1,\dots,n})$
Süßkartoffel
😼
conjugation of S_n with a member of S_infty just gets you a guy with at most n guys being acted on miz
I meant to describe it differently
What even is S_infty
Aut_set(Z)
uh
All rearrangements of a sequence? Seems horrid
You want like
$S_1 \hookrightarrow S_2 \hookrightarrow S_3$ etc to give you $S_\infty$
Süßkartoffel
yes
COLIMIT JUMPSCARE
not sure how itis ajumpscare but ye lol
i just like saying [object] JUMPSCARE
miz saying jumpscare jumpscare
Cat theory is scary
you should be working on a group that is a union of conjugacy classes jumpscare
nah fam they are just supremum and infima bro
ignoring a lot of structure....
scary
Yeah this is why I was careful to describe my example in words lol
you killed my mojo just because someone posted an example prior that I didn't see no sad
i didn’t do that, you killed your own mojo
right after you find a suitable group, i assume
Wait this is just saying that there's a basis in C_n such that the matrix is upper triangular, which is supposedly I theorem I should know 
Yes this is uh
Schur's theorem I guess
Every matrix over an algebraically closed field is triangularisable
You need the minimal polynomial to be a product of linear factors
Might try to formalize the absurd bullshittery to prove that no group of order 24 is simple
But not necessarily distinct
what do you mean by absurd bullshittery
And then diagonalisability is equivalent to the min poly being a product of distinct linear factors
Sylow and a small proof by exhaustion
it's bullshit because it's not trivial, you see
Maybe I'm not understanding what you're saying, but I think it's much simpler? We simply are guaranteed an eigenvector by algebraic closure, and we begin building a basis with that, quotienting as we go along to get an inductive argument. Am I missing something?
Groups of order 24 are simple as 24 only has two prime factors, boom
Yeah no that is correct, I'm just saying this stronger statement is slightly nicer
Fair enough
Like expressing in terms of min poly rather than the field
I think I'll start reading the section on sylow theorems to tonight 
sorry but the sylow theorems are not bullshit, and also they are sort of trivial, have a look at a book other than jacobson for a moment (humor me), go read Aluffi chapter 2 section 9 on orbit-stabilizer stuff, and then chapter 4 the section on sylow theory
and see if you still think they’re bullshit
this is not an exercise in jacobson and I came up with the exercise to challenge myself ergo I actually like it. I just like calling it bullshit
i promise it will be more clear
Of course, in general, any smooth connected L.A.G. over an ACF is covered by the conjugates of the Borel subgroup. So I suppose we could generalise it further, presumably with this observation
Based
Yeah
Iag being linear algebraic group i assume
isn't there more generally a statement about every element being conjugate to an element of the maximal torus
so that's for compact connected liegroups
i guess the issue is existence lol
Any semisimple element!
oh nvm
Otherwise, every matrix would be diagonalisable!
Right right
I've got good news
Let |G| = 24 = 2^3 * 3, assume G is simple
a = |Syl_3(G)| = 1 mod 3 and a | 8 => a = 1 or a = 4.
a cannot equal 1 because the only Sylow-3 subgroup would be normal, thus a = 4. Because every sylow-3 subgroup is cyclic of order 3, they have pairwise trivial intersection, thus the union of the sylow-3 subgroups is 4 * (3 - 1) + 1 = 9.
b = |Syl_2(G)| = 1 mod 2 and a | 3 => b = 1 or a = 3. Ditto, b = 3.
Each sylow-2 subgroup has order 8. The intersection of all of the sylow-2 subgroups must be normal due to conjugate closure, therefore the intersection is trivial.
The pairwise intersection of two sylow-2 subgroups must have order 2 or order 4, and this order is the same for all of the pairwise intersections due to transitivity by conjugation. The intersection of 3 of the sylow subgroups must have order 2 or be trivial, as they cannot be equal to another sylow-2 subgroup. The pairwise intersection order cannot be the same as the triple-intersection order. Since the Sylow-3 subgroups have trivial intersection with Sylow-2 subgroups, that means the union over all the sylow-3 subgroups must have cardinality 24 - 9 + 1 = 16
This leaves a case analysis by inclusion-exclusion:
Pair Inter 4, triple inter 2: 4 * 8 - 6 * 4 + 4 * 2 - 1 = 15
Pair Inter 4, triple inter 1: 4 * 8 - 6 * 4 + 4 * 1 - 1 = 11
Pair inter 2, triple inter 1: 4 * 8 - 6 * 2 + 4 * 1 - 1 = 23
None of these values are 16
I also used a symmetry group argument by letting G act on Syl_2(G) giving a non-mono homomorphism from G to S_3
which is way simpler but I tried to do a more calculation-based one
Frankly you can do a fuckin lot with that shortcut lmao
Let R be a commutative unital ring. I know that if R is a field, then R[x] is a Euclidean domain, but it is also true that for a general ring R Euclidean division works as long as the polynomial you're dividing has leading coefficient that is a unit. Does this mean that the subring of R[x] composed of polynomials with leading coefficient unit are a Euclidean Domain?
Are you sure that's a subring?
Yes it is true if S is a field then S[x] is a Euclidean domain.
At the minimum I think you need integral domain so I don’t think the argument works for just general rings R
products of units need not be units if they don't commute afaik
wait it's a poly ring
R u sure?
if you have uv then v^-1u^-1 is the inverse
I feel like a lot of group theory would break if what you said was true lol
Thinking of something else for units for a second
if p and q both have leading coefficient unit then so does their product?
And what about their sum?
oh shit
1 + 1 = 2 isn't a unit in Z
brb
One time I saw a paper use the equivalent def of a unit being an element lying outside of every proper ideal
But like damn
Vibe death
I also realized now that the polynomial you're dividing by has to have leading coefficient that is a unit, not the polynomial you're dividing
no the issue is addition
i corrected myself lol
If f, g, h ∈ R[x] and f is nonzero and has leading coefficient that is a unit, then is it true that fg = fh implies g = h ?
yes - equivalently you're asking if f with unit leading coefficient is a zero divisor and it's not too bad to see why that's the case ||given non-zero g, consider top coefficient of fg||
the leading coefficient needn't be a unit either
I think it needs to be a unit
constant polynomials in Z/6Z[x], f=2, g=3, h=0
It doesn't need to be a unit
It needs to not be a zero divisor
In fact you can prove that if a polynomial f(x) is a zero divisor, then there's a nonzero constant c such that cf(x) = 0
which is cool
Dw
yeah, I thought you meant that we can drop the condition and the result will remain true
It makes sense now, thanks
does this look good https://hastebin.com/share/uhubicalej.markdown
Hastebin is a free web-based pastebin service for storing and sharing text and code snippets with anyone. Get started now.
I think this is mentioned in Dummit and Foote
oh yeah fun exercise
as far as I know this only works for rings with unity
you want to prove commutativity in addition sense, not in multiplicative sense
No
that [x,y] is the same for all x and all y, and then throw 1 into the mix
[x,y] * c = [c*x, c*y]
commutator in the underlying additive group
yeah it's just kinda cursed having non-commutative addition
what do you mean by no? that's what the problem asks
sorry, i thought you were implying I was doing a different proof
Well this isn't the normal proof tbf
[x,y] is an "additive commutator"
But can't really guess that until you've done it lol
ye noice
what do you want to do with the commutators tho?
show they are 0
but why?
... All the commutators being 0 imply the additive group is abelian
no
... why
In the context of rings I've known [x,y] to be shorthand for xy-yx
I'm not referring to xy - yx
this is a commutator of the additive subgroup
not a commutator of the ring
I've said this like 3 times
Lol yeah
[x,y] = x y x^-1 y^-1
indeed, I missed this message, sorry
I thought you had a convo about it lol
okie no problemo
just the notation gets a bit fucky when you have lots of operations at once
but in my defense, I never encountered any other meaning of [x,y] in ring theory
I'm using x * y for multiplication, just xy for the "noncommutative addition" for my sanity
just for this problem
actually might switch that
anyway if the additive commutators are all zero, then coolio we have an abelian group
I'm pretty sure with our properties we can show x * a = x for all a implies x = 0
It's a group
It's actually because it's the only element outside of the quantification for the multiplication monoid
Wait is * now multiplication
In this
welcome to the jungle
Or what
Then take a = 0
FUCK
Lol
what's (-1)*(b+a)
where is the distributivity of multiplication towards addition?
M3, accidental poor cropping lo
this sucks
i have 0 fucking clue what to do
or where to start
||M_3||
i think my route is wrong and this is probably a bad omen for what's to come
I need to at least show 0 * x = 0 first
0 * x = (a a^-1) * x = (a * x) (a^-1 * x)
still stuck
if I can't solve this I probably should not do abstract alg
this is fucking stupid it's like the simplest problem
Well you're just trying to compute a+b-(b+a) right
I thought you wanted to know whether addition is commutative
well do you know anything about -(b+a) from the axioms
besides it exists, nothing
idk how to necessarily show it's -1 * it
because Idk how to show 0 * x = 0
think about the definition of 0
1 + 0 = 1
x * 1 + x * 0 = x * 1
x * 0 = 0
tru
0 = 1(-1)
0 * x = (x * 1) (x * -1) = 0
x * -1 = (x * 1)^-1
most of me parsing this is the goddamn notation
-1 * (xy) = (-1 * x) (-1 * y) = x^-1 y^-1 = (xy)^-1 = y^-1 x^-1 <=> xy = yx
holy fuck finally
In my notes I am DEFINITELY using i for the multiplicative identity
before I implode
I like e better because i is used with decent frequency to refer to the inclusion homomorphism or other things like that later on
I heard some CS people uses o and i to avoid confusing it with “real 0 and 1”
Huh lol
Indeed
This might be more readible. Let e be the additive identity, where addition is *, and i be the multiplicative identity, where multiplication is just xy:
Lemma 1: ex = e
Proof: e * i = i => x(e * i) = xe * xi = xe * x = x => xe = e by cancellativity
Lemma 2: xi^-1 = x^-1
Proof: e = i * i^-1 => xe = e = xi * xi^-1 = x * xi^-1 <=> xi^-1 = x^-1
Lemma 3: x * y = y * x
Proof: (x * y)i^-1 = xi^-1 * yi^-1 = x^-1 * y^-1 = (y * x)^-1 = (y * x)^-1 <=> x * y = y * x
holy fuck
it would be more readable with + instead of *
Btw, does a thread become inaccessible once I do not visit there often
hover over the channel, "more active threads"
should be there
Ahhh, thanks

here is another proof:
(1+1)(a+b)=(1+1)*a+(1+1)*b=a+a+b+b
whats the idea behind your use of juxtaposition for the group operation in the ring, Mizalign?
Nah y’all right
Wow that’s clean
gotta love the fucking terrifying difficulty jumps lmao
probably not that hard inductively
Hm I do not recall one has to prove the basic properties of ring
Hahahahahahahaaaa
probably just some inductive hypothesis bs
Yeah, or some combinatorics
probably an index shift
Oh, yes, this one, which is my reason for being mad at anyone that includes abelianness as an axiom.
Also prove the following: if you satisfy all the axioms of a module except for commutativity of addition, then commutativity of addition is implied. Thus one doesn't need to assume that a module is an abelian group under addition.
Interesting, it follows from bilinearity of scaling map
I don't think I've seen anyone give an x a tail like that before. If thye do, i've only seen it on the \ part, not the / part
You should see when I use chi and x in the same thing lol
Awful.

Which one is chi?
Left
Interesting
Idk where I got that from
Which turned into this really weird habit of using chi as a variable when referring to duals often
do an x as two curves like )(
...that is good notation, acruallt
valuation of chi at asterisk
•
awful
good enough. proof by suction
Called it
what did you call lol
Computing hell
yep
wasn't too bad though, just my hand regrets it
"basic algebra"
i fear not the content, but writing the work
lol you wish it was commutative
it's over a module
immediately goes for wedderburn little theorem as the first exercise
waiter, waiter more pigeonhole problems
well wedderburn's theorem is a further, much trickier result
showing that it's at least a division ring is easier
Oh?
What's a matrix over a module? (Also is + here noncommutative)
I tried proving that if a ring has the property that there's an n for each r such that r^n = r then it's a commutative
god that shit took forever
Wait that proof is actually in this textbook I think
literally just... same as a vector space but the scalars need not commute lol
and a lack of a "hardly know er" pun
Ah, then you can state it as a internal hom module
true chat
In this case, it is End(R^n), even
Because this section is critical I'm going to do all the exercises
This is gonna take a while
i just answered the first 4 in my head, that's a good sign
Woah, how do you easily do exercise 1
pigeonhole
try left multiplication and then think about it
every element has a multiplicative "order"
i.e x^n = x for some n
It's actually a proof for semigroups
Every finite cancellative semigroup is a group
I wish I were less dumb 
@dull ginkgo whenever your journey takes you to modules, mind pinging me? that might be a fine time to learn the structure theorem for modules over PIDs and Morita equivalence and what injective and projective objects actually look like
sure
it's not immediate
I've done this exercise before, I think in D & F?
it just follows from that
Wdym?
Set with a binary associative operation
...no unit?
doesn't necessarily needs a unit or inverses
Semigroup is a group but without inverses and unit
monoid has a unit
right
You can always adjoin a unit to a semigroup to make it a monoid, though.
yeah
okay so for a finite cancellative semigroup
x^n = x so x x^{n-1} = x so there's a unique x^{n-1}.
if a monoid is cancellative too you can make a group out of it
y x^{n-1} x = yx so y=yx^{n-1}
and likewise for the other way
so x^{n-1} is a unit
Let o(x) = min{n : x^n = x}
then you have to show x^{o(x) - 1} = y^{o(y) - 1} for all x and y
so that makes it the unit
yeah
I think this follows directly from uniqueness of unit
idc about actually taking the min. I'm lazy so I'll just take an n by pigeon.
err wait
x^{m1} = x^{m2}
and you can cancel all but n
okay we are back in black
now for inverses, x * ? = x^{n-1}. well, x^{n-2}.
QED.
unless I fucked up, this is indeed immediate.
yeppers
You can also take any number with x^n = x, not necessarily minimum.
fair
yes absta, be lazy like me
Being lazy is virtue of mathematicians!
0 is the only nilpotent in a domain
if x^n = 0 then x^(n-1) x = 0 so x is a zero divisor and is thus 0 qed
...oh, sweet
Reminds me of reduced & irreducible => integral
zwz is a zero divisor
(zw)z = z(wz) = 0 so either z is a left zero divisor or z is a right zero divisor because it's an OR
thus the ring of matrices has zero divisors
qed
what no
1*1*1 is not a zero divisor
you didn't need that theorem to show that the ring of matrices has zero divisors
lol
*assume zwz is a zero divisor
Does any ring of matrices have zero divisor?
yes
except for dim 1
What about matrix over field of one element
1 in the top left, 0 all others
technically the ring of one element here
by ring of matrices do you mean subring of M_nxn?
or rather
O 1
O O
CHUBBY
oh, for a subring, me things probably not
Or M_nxn itself
Hmm, can one have a ring of matrices over right of 0=1
suppose you have a subring that is rank >1 as an abelian group
how come in the wikipedia page of ufd it says every non-zero non-unit can be written as a product of irreducible and a unit ?
factorization is up to units
other places seem to not have the unit in the factorization
5=1*5=-1*-5
can you make this more precise
or like what do you mean
oh also I just realized
I meant M_nxn over the trivial ring, sorry for typo
the wikipedia definition allows you to factor units too
which is only possible if you allow a single unit be in the factorization
okay unit times unit is unit
so you can allow as many units as you want
factorization is unique up to a unit in a UFD
so like, it just has one element, namely the matrix of all 0's?
NExt is to show that if 1 - ab is a unit, so is 1 - ba
Yep, so I guess the ring is trivially trivial
that certainly doesn't have any zero divisors
the big think
you can also think of subrings of M_n(R)
for example, k * I for k in Z has no zero divisors since it's isomorphic to Z as a ring
@cobalt heath this is what i had in mind
Quite a valuable example though!
if you have a matrix ring M_n over a nontrivial ring then you have zero divisors (if that is what you wanted originally)
kinda stuck with this one
c(1 - ab) = (1 - ab)c = 1
abc = cab = c - 1
a = c(1-ab)a = (c - cab)a = ca - caba = ca(1 - ba)
Yeah so this is a technical one
(1 - ab)a = a(1-ba)
x(1 + ab) = 1 => x + xab = 1 => x = 1 - xab
bxa = b(1 - abx)a = ba - babxa = ba(1 - bxa)
bxa + (1 - bxa) = 1 = ba(1-bxa) + (1-bxa) = (1 + ba)(1 - bxa)
Did you do it
yes
trying to get a better more understandable proof tho
Oh wow
If c is the inverse of (1 + ab), then (1 - bca) is the inverse of (1 + ba)
can all differential equations be expressed as a lie group? and what its the geometric meaning behind it. is the lie group just the manifold that contains all the solutions to the diff eq?
I think the usual connection is that lie groups are the symmetry groups of differential equations.
For this problem
This is the intended solution
I don't understand the solution
Is the sum |Z_g| = |G| thing true
there are |C_g| elements in the conjugacy class of g, so that follows from the previous statement
Nice
once you show that |Z_h|=|Z_g| for every h in the conjugacy class of g
Also what happened in the last line
then you sum over the conjugacy classes to get c|G| on the right. on the left you sum over the conjugacy classes and then over the elements in the conjugacy class, which gives you the sum over every element in G
Okay but how is sum |Z_g| over the conjugacy classes equal |G| like Z_g 's aren't even disjoint they have e in common
you have |Z_g||C_g| = |G|, you just replace the |C_g| by summing over the elements of C_g
generally you won't have that the union of Z_h for h in the conjugacy class of g is equal to G
Oh so the conjugacy class remains fixed
We sum over the elements of the conjugacy class?
yes
Oh so it's basically a double sum
Thank you I was confused with the notation
It's clear to me now
I was able to get through the first one isn't it just orbit stabilizer with the fact that elements of H fix H under conjugation with however I am not able to get the second one
if every element of G was in a subgroup of that form that means that every g in G is conjugate to some element of H, see if you can show that H must be all of G from this
I guess there's an implicit assumption that H ≠ G
Yes I tried this I am not able to bound this
need help
is a) true?
ans is b,d
oh, so you had to pick the true statements
oh yeah
so I got that (a) is false]
because F* is cyclic, and if you take a generator a
then 1, a^17, a^(2*17), ..., a^(14*17) are distinct, and they are roots for x^15-1, so these are all the roots
(b) is true because 63 does not divide 255
oh i was tryna thinking how 256 can be cyclic
the multiplicative group of any finite field is cyclic
thats some new information for me
but I think (a) can be solved without this fact
since F* has 255 elements, then there is an element a of order 3 and an element b of order 5
so ab has order 15
and then any element in the subgroup generated by <ab> is a root of that polynomial
for c) you can prove that a and a^2 are roots, where a is an element of order 3
and for d) you can use the fact that F* has 255 elements, so t^255=1 for any t=/=0
awight, much thanks
i thought the symmetries are in the lie algebra
or am i misunderstanding something
elements of the lie algebra are infinitesimal symmetries
hm so how do i find these symmetries? i read something about using the infinitesimal generator?
Is this related to galois theory of inseparable field extensions?
Could someone help me with this problem?
well it asks you to do something pretty specific so have you tried to set up a group table yet?
More of an analysis esque question but here we go:
fg = 0 in \Gamma implies that for each x in [0,1], f(x)g(x) = 0
So for each x, f(x) = 0, or g(x) = 0 as R is a domain
Okay?
I am trying to work my way through it
I see
but neither f nor g is everywhere-0 on [0,1]
I don’t really wanna say anything
Because it’s hard to say anything without just solving it basically
You need to use continuity
That’s all you can really say
Is it easier to use the preimage-open or epsilonic def of continuity here
then it's not 0 everywhere?
There is a neighborhood of x that isn't 0 under f
g is 0 at x
wait
Okay so if there’s no open nbhd of f where f is constantly 0 then?
Okay but this still isn’t quite what we want
how is that not what we want

Because look
You can’t patch together all these opens
To show g is constantly 0 using this sort of argument
But if f isn’t 0 on any interval
It is not 0 at a bunch of dots near every point
Which means..
not continuous?
Actually not necessarily haha
Okay maybe we can just work more directly
Let eps > 0
what's the problem?
I thought the neighborhood argument would be just fine/
Omay I mean
Try to write it down
And I’m pretty sure you’re gonna struggle to make it come togehter
You can’t argue that g is constantly 0 on a bunch of nbhds and get it to work
You need to argue that there’s a bunch of points where g is 0
it's showing that a neighborhood exists?
Enough to the point that any nbhd of x contains at least one such point
And then continuity finishes it
if fg is zero then one of f or g is zero at every point
yeah
but if you have two subsets that union to the whole thing
perhaps one of them must be dense?
is that true?
A,B \subset \R, is it true that if A \cup B is \R then one of the two must be dense?
Oh is this alg geo
No
Hmm
Depends on spaces
ℝ.
Ah, need not dense then
Actually [0,1].
Here's what I was going to show:
Lets say f in C([0,1]) is a zero divisor. Then there exists a function g(x) that's not 0 everywhere such that for each x in [0,1] f(x)g(x) = 0. Then that implies that for each x, f(x) = 0 or g(x) = 0.
Analyzing g(x), because g(x) is continuous, there must be a point x_0 in (0,1) that is not 0. By continuity, there is an open neighborhood of x_0, S, that is also not 0. By R being a domain, that means the image of that open neighborhood must be 0 under f.
Yeah xela your statement is
You aren’t getting st the right thing
Because what you want to be true isn’t you can just halve the interval
And neither is dense
oh duh
are you talking to Xela or me?
You’re never going to finish your proof this way
You cannot work with neighborhoods like this
how so?
You never get control over specific points
I’m gonna try to explain this
You need to show f (or g whatever they can be swapped) is 0 at every point x
why?
Say f is not constantly zero on any interval
if fg = 0 at some point and in the nghb of that point
then one of f,g is zero at that point
You’re gonna pick an interval I
why do I need to show f is 0 at every point x?
take the one that's potentially not zero
I am so confused
take a ball such that in that ball f is not zero and this ball is also in the earlier ball
Xela you aren’t really helping when two people are saying different things
Oky look miz
How would you try to write the proof
Let’s say f is not constantly zero on any interval
so then in this ball g is zero
You’re trying to show g = 0 right?
?????>
and then I get stuck.
You can’t possibly make a proof work showing g is zero in balls
Okay miz
You pick either me or xela
I am doing first that f being a 0 divisor implies that the preimage of 0 under f contains an open interval
T H I S
don't pick me i was trying to figure it out
f(x) is not 0 everywhere
f being a 0 divisor implies there is a g that is NOT 0 EVERYWHERE such that f(x)g(x) = 0 everywhere
Analyzing g(x), because g(x) is continuous, there must be a point x_0 in (0,1) that is not 0. By continuity, there is an open neighborhood of x_0, S, that is also not 0. By R being a domain, that means the image of that open neighborhood must be 0 under f.
Okay so this sentence
What does x_0 in (0,1) that is not 0 mean
That’s clear because it is in (0,1)
sorry:
g(x_0) not 0\
Analyzing g(x), because g(x) is continuous, there must be a point x_0 in (0,1) such that g(x_0) is not 0. By continuity, there is an open neighborhood of x_0, S, that is also not 0 under g. By R being a domain, that means the image of that open neighborhood must be 0 under f.
Okay
wait, this is indeed what I showed, I just didn't realize we were proving that zero divisors only if the 0-set has an open neighborhood in it.
Yeah that works
i def thought that we were trying to show that there were no zero divisors
Shit
what
I thought you were trying to like
Pick a bunch of points f isn’t 0 at
extend that to a nbhd of each
|| g is nonzero somewhere --> g is nonzero on an open interval by continuity --> f is zero on this open interval ||
Truth has stepped.
This won’t work because you can’t show that g is 0 around specific points, only in smaller intervals in each interval
And you could somehow miss a bunch of shit
Anyway what I was initially trying to have you argue was
In any eps nbhd of any point x, there’s a point where f is not zero
Aka g is zero in any nbhd of x
So g is 0 on a dense set and thus 0 by continuity
The other way is even easier
Yeah
if f is 0 on (a,b)
Oh, was this the starting point
then consider a bump function on (-1,1) and shift by ((b - a)x + a + b)/2
Yeah
the idempotents are such that at each point f(x)=1 or 0. thus it takes on a constant value of either 1 or 0 on each connected component of the domain.
the nilpotents must be 0.
the invertible ones are not zero
The units of this is the most interesting imo
Yeah if $b(x)$ is a bump function on $[-1,1]$, then $b\left(\frac{2x - b - a}{b - a}\right)$ works if $f$ is 0 on $(a,b) \subset [0,1]$
Mizalign #1 simp
Isn’t it literally just functions which are nowhere vanishing?
I am sorry that trivial stuff interests me
nowhere vanishing or strictly positive/negative
IMO personally a functions that’s strictly negative shouldn’t be a unit
There are no nilpotents, and the only idempotents are 0,1
I don’t neee that kinda energy in my life
0 is nilpotent
generalize to topological spaces
NONTRIVIAL
you need an algebraic structure dingus
dingus
No you don’t
you are the dingus
if you don't include zero as a nilpotent then they don't form an ideal
Hmm, maybe complement of zero set of continuous functions form subbasis
or S -> R
Maps into R get the algebra structure from R
T->R
C(T,R) form a ring
connected component stuff because I personally like the idea of being constant on a connected component.
fuck I can't use my bump function argument like before
IIRC you can recover manifold structure from the ring of continuous functions C(M, R)
because Morse and stuff?
BEHOLD: URYSOHN
I don't think it's Morse
After all, continuous functions need not be morse, also I did not specify differential manifolds
Just assume metrizable or being a manifold
Other spaces are for algebraic geometrists
(It isn't butt)
i was gonna invoke urysohns and call it a day
You want like paracompact Hausdorff or something
you have to consider the closure
Normal hausdorff
Do you know of ring spectrum (Spec A) stuff
Paracompact and Hausdorff => normal or something
Two disjoint closed sets have disjoint open sets
Idk
Could I show you what I've tried?
probably lol
Idk
i know of the definition
Idk this is a psychotic bastardization of the already psychotic bastardized exercise jacobson gave
Yeah so, you can perhaps compute what Spec C(M, R) is
it isn't psychotic bastardized
i know my truth
now I just need to write down the fuckin thing
Hey xela, do you want another jacobson exercise I did to keep ya busy
it's something.
what do the prime ideals look like?
For the purpose, let's only think of maximal ideals
What are ideals of C(M, R)? Can you identify that

you can probably show every ideal lies in one of em
I think maybe you’re right but ugh
are the only prime ideals here maximal? yup
so then the zariski topology's closed sets are basically choosing single points in the zero set.
So if for every x there’s a function f_x not vanishing at x in I
I want to show 1 exists in I
I think you want to take a partition of unity or something and then use that to do an infinite sum
But I don’t actually see how you can argue that remains in I
that is, for every zero set, the set of zeros under our identification of zero sets with ideals gives closed sets