#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 220 of 1
Yeah
It literally isn’t possible
Cuz you pickup a kernel
Unless I is 0 I guess lol
Yeah then I guess there's no way to actually do it except using First Iso
Well no
You can do the other thing I said
You can induce maps on quotients in both directions and conclude they’re inverse
How do you induce without the universal property
Right so
I was gonna say showing you can induce such maps is how you prove first iso
But it “isn’t the first isomorphism theorem”
Chmonkey
Ok see I get how R/I -> S/J should look like, but I don't see how it can be well defined
It is, but it's not like trivial
Yeah
Well to prove first iso involves showing maps descend
The machine that shows it’s well defined is used to prove first iso
so because S->S/J is surjective mapping, so I think we can have the ring homomorphism between R and S/J, while the kernel is I, then we can use first iso to argue that R/I is isomorphic to S/J?
Yeah so technically we are not doing anything new
Yes
Yes ^^
is it true if I have a group G, normal subgroup H, and a subgroup K such that {k + H | k ∈ K} forms a partition for G (i.e. the elements of K together form representatives for the cosets in G/H), then G/H is isomorphic to K ?
I'm pretty sure that k -> k + H is an isomorphism here?
i am actually considering since we have isomorphism phi: R->S with phi(I)=J, can I just argue that there is an isomorphism from phi^-1: S->R with phi^-1(J)=I? And say S->R->R/I and argue that this map has ker=J, so S/J isomorphic to R/I?
Surjectivity is not obvious. Though, I don't have a counterexample rn so it possibly is true
I mean argue it by using phi^-1, but I want to confirm if it is essentially. the same?
Like for example let's pick an element from G/H. It should be of form g + H, where g \in G. Without knowing what's exactly is there in K i don't know if we can prove surjectivity
Given a coset a + H, we know that a will be in some set k + H (since sets of this form are assumed to partition G), and ofc a ∈ k + H implies that a + H = k + H, so k -> k + H = a + H
Ohh right right my bad
Is there any relation between H and K what if K is a subset of H
Set of cosets is et of equivalence classes
The fact that K generates all partitions is a proof K cannot be a subset of H
We assume it's the set of all partitions using the equivalence relation
This is part of the hypothesis to my statement
Okay
So are we like trying to prove the uniqueness of the group structure of G/H
Also one I thing I'm not really sold about is, what is the group that K is a subgroup of
I don't think it's a subgroup of G
It simply cannot be unless like H is trivial
Simply stating K is a group is enough
IDK I just formulated that statement after observing that R[x]/(x) = {r + (x) | r ∈ R} so I wanted to conclude right after that R[x]/(x) = R
this is for rings but it's like the same thing
Then how do different groups operate?
Yeah but the addition of R[x] is quite different than R
Yes
what hwats wrong with my original statement again
"Subgroup K"
Just say it's a group with some operation (it'll be the coset operation after you show its isomorphic)
Because like
For the homomorphism part you need it
Bijection you have shown
If K isn't a subgroup how do I make sense of k + H for k ∈ K ?
I don't understand if it has different operation then how { k + H | k belongs to K } makes partition of G ?
Let's say K is indeed a subgroup of G
Then G/H is a subgroup of G right, at least upto isomorphism
Is this true always
Yes, I think so if K is a subgroup of G then maybe it makes sense
Let's look at the isomorphism R/Z \cong S^1
I think if I add the original requirement that each k + H is distinct then I'm good
like k1 + H = k2 + H implies k1 = k2
that was sorta implicit in my original formulation
I don't see how S^1 (or if you want, z \in C such that |z| = 1) can be embedded in R
How?
we started with a subgroup K of G and then we show G/H is isomorphic to K
Ohhhh I see
lemme think
The thing you're saying is fine because everywhere wjat you're doing in the ring context is addition, even though the additions are different, some amount of properties are preserved because universal properties are there
So yeah it does look like the exact same operation
But it's just not
Oh, I thought in general how G/H is a subgroup of G
k + H is the just the equivalence class related to the operation of G
Doesn't mean this + is same as the other plus
Mmmm
But if K has a different structure than elements of G then how k+ H works?
it's just the set of all elements y in G such that there exists an element h_1 in H with the property y - h_1 = k
In my R[x]/(x) = R case, I had G = R[x], H = (x), and K = R, but this was something special cuz R embeds naturally in R[x], so k + H where k ∈ K makes sense
That's what it is
Correct
So K must be a subgroup of G ?
It doesn't need to be at all
If it is
Then nice
If it is not, property still holds
It definitely doesn't need to be a requirement
But then operation is different so how does it operate?
As long as K is a group with its own operation
It depends on K?
Like the case I gave, unit circle operates on complex multiplication
What if G is a group with multiplication and K is a group under composition?
It can be
The isomorphism only requires the operations preserving some structure between them
I think Notknow's problem, and lowkey mine too, is how do I make sense of k + H when k is not in G
cuz you're saying you can drop the requirement that K is a subgroup of G
Then what do they look like { k + H | k belongs to K} ?
k + H is nothing but a notation
LMAO if k + H is a formal symbol then of course {k + H} is iso to K
If you name it like say $ it doesn't change its properties
but if k + H is a formal symbol how do I make sense of the assumption that {k + H} partitions G
Yeah notation but there is operation between elements of K and H so what will be the operation here?
Any Equivalence relation always generates a family of sets which satisfies every property of a partition.
I know that but im still lost
Then I need to define the first $ operation in how they operate with k and H
Pick two equivalence classes let's say C1 and C2.
C1 is the set of all such element g of G such that for each such g there exists an element h_1 in H with the property g * (h_1)^-1 = c_1
Similarly define C2.
This definitions come from the equivalence relation (x is related to y iff x(y)^-1 belongs to H)
This is how the cosets are constructed anyways
Now the operation of C1 and C2 is defined as usual
That is, C1 ∆ C2 = set of all such elements g of G such that for each such g there exists element h in H with the property g * (h)^-1 = c_1 * c_2
Now the set of all equivalence classes is a group under ∆
Are you defining what k + H means for k ∈ K ?
(* is the operation of G)
Yes, while I say a general group G, not something with the addition you guys are mistaking it for
and C1 and C2 are two cosets in G/K ?
I don't get why you need two cosets
....for a group you need binary operation.
Of course you need two cosets to describe an operation.
you're defining a group structure on G/H then?
that's just the normal quotient group yea
so now what's the operation + that takes in an element of K and a coset from G/H ?
goodness how i blame the common algebra books for making everything as + now
no I just thought you were defining k + H
I am defining k + H yes
In this context it's an equivalence relation
It's not the element addition to a set always
It definitely can be addition, sometimes (like in cases of vector spaces i think), but not always
Ok so I know what the quotient group structure is on G/H , but I still don't understand your definition of k + H for k ∈ K, where K is an arbitrary group
No I know + is just notation
I don't mean to say this in a bad way but I think I genuinely can't convey what I want to mean for my lack of presentation
If someone else understands please help
So always can I find an operation between K and subgroup H which makes sense
Is it something like that K acts on set of all subsets of G by +
This is probably okay to say, I'll have to check later and tell
What is K and G here?
Sorry, I don’t know without the context.
a fortiori.
a priori as in "beforehand"
or "on priors"
"a posteriori" I've never used.
Wish I knew English better.. anyway there you go, kakaka
it's latin
G is a group and K is a subset of G such that {k * H | k \in K} forms a left coset space of G. If K is a group, it is identically the quotient group G/H, as K can only be a group if H is normal
Hmm, so + could be a confusing notation here
a fortiori means "as a special case of something stronger".
You could also just use Google to find some examples
I mean I think it's clear in context
It's not could be, it's precisely the problem
So K is a subset of G, right ?
Then it makes sense
Since no-one seems to have mentioned semidirect products:
I assume you mean that every left H-coset contains exactly one element of K.
Then yes, the quotient map restricted to K is an isomorphism. Even more is true: such a K exists iff G is a semidirect product of H and K. (And no, this is not always possible: the standard (and smallest) example is G = Z/4Z, H = Z/2Z.)
Le extension problem!
Indeed.
Wait, how do you construct the semidirect product here?
If H is a normal subgroup of G and K is a subgroup with the mentioned property, then the construction “has been done for you”.
Is semi direct product a way to try to generalize the notion of a split exact sequence from abelian groups to all groups
it's a useful construction by itself, but yes that is one of the consequences
The only mention of it in Jacobson is a single problem and then one about wreath products
Specifically, let K act on H by conjugation (since H is normal); call this action σ.
Then if we map H × K to G by (h, k) -> hk, we have
h1 k1 h2 k2 = h1 k1h2k1^{-1} k1 k2
= (h1 σ(k1)(h2)) (k1 k2).
So the map is a group homomorphism from the semidirect product H \rtimes K to G.
This much is true for any normal subgroup H and subgroup K. The assumed property of K is precisely that this map is bijective (and hence a group isomorphism).
for the correspondence theorem for rings, i am confused by J->J/I can be injection map? Because it seems that if we have a map between a ring to a ring, then map is injection iff ker={0}. But J->J/I given a->a+I for a in J, if a is in I, then the kernel will have elements a not 0, can someone help me figure out where I made mistakes?
essentially, the ideals in R/I are bijective with the ideals of R that contain I
with the same structure
for example, the ideals in Z_12 that contain <6> are in bijection with the ideals in Z_12/<6>
the key is that I < J < R
the canonical map induces a bijection between the sets {J is an ideal of R containing I} and {ideals of R/I}
it says nothing about a bijection between J/I and J
I wouldn't say that it generalizes the concept from abelian groups, but semidirect products do correspond to split exact sequences.
Like if you have an exact sequence
1 -> N -> G -> G/N -> 1
Then G is a semidirect product iff G -> G/N splits.
And then worth noting that the splitting lemma doesn't hold for nonabelian groups, so just because G->G/N splits does not mean N -> G splits. In fact N -> G splits iff G is the direct product.
I am wondering what will the ideals in Z12/(6) look like?
so lets try and use the corrispondence theorem to see
ideals of Z12 that contain (6) are (6), (3), (2), and (1)
so mapping these through to Z12/(6) we get the ideals {0+(6),6+(6)}, {0+(6),3+(6),6+(6),9+(6)}, {0+(6),2+(6), ..., 10+(6)}, {0+(6), 1+(6), ..., 12+(6)}
which simplifes down to just {0+(6)}, {0+(6), 3+(6)}, {0+(6), 2+(6), 4+(6)}, and the whole ring. And these are all of the ideals of Z12/(6)
alternatively one can use the isomorphism between Z12/(6) and Z6 and then these ideals are (0), (3), (2), and (1)
In the ring, the right inverse does not imply the left inverse, right?
they can be different if your ring is non-commutative
in fact the existence of one does not imply the existence of the other
Yes I want an example, I first thought about matrix but I think in matrices it will work that if the left inverse exists then the right inverse also exists, right?
take the group of sequences on Z, then consider the endomorphism sending a sequence a_n -> b_n with b_0 = 0, b_n = a_{n-1}. This only has a left inverse, sending a_n -> b_n with b_n = a_{n+1}
yeah, although my example can be quickly changed around to give you a linear operator on an infinite dimensional vector space that is only invertible on one side
What is the operation here ?
ok fine, change it to Z
You take a set of all endomorphisms to be a ring?
the set of endomorphisms of any abelian group is always a ring
Yes
then why are you asking
I just want to confirm that
If they exist they are equal. But one can exist without the other.
really? huh
are you positive?
~~Ring of functions from R (real numbers) to R, with addition and composition
f has a right inverse <=> f is surjective
f has a left inverse <=> f is injective
[or change the domain and codomain to positive integers to avoid the axiom of choice]~~
ah no I see it now
xy = 1, zx = 1 => z = zxy = y
Composition doesn't distribute over addition here sadly 😢
we know there is also a ring map phi': R->S/J and we can get there is an isomorphism phi^bar: R/I->im(phi'). But we want to prove R/I and S/J is isomrophism, so we have to prove image(phi')=S/J? I am somewhat confused about how to argue the image(phi')?
Can you be more explicit about how you want to use this map phi'?
First of all what is the definition of phi'? Second of all what theorem are you trying to apply with phi'?
second: I want to use first iso thm. first: since I have the ring map phi:R->S, and S->S/J is natural surjective ring map, so I get phi':R->S/J
Can u be explicit as to what this "natural surjective ring map" is
surjective ring homomorphism
And what the conditions of the first isomorphism theorem are
Please give me an actual definition
I give you x in R, what is phi'(x)?
phi'(x)=phi(x)+J? Or do I still need to add something?
That's correct
And you want to apply this theorem. I believe that you know this map is a surjective homomorphism but what other part of the first isomorphism theorem do you need to satisfy to apply the result?
so I have phi':R->S/J given by x->phi(x)+J, and ker(phi')=I, therefore I apply first iso to get phi(bar):R/I->im(phi') given by x+I->phi(r)+J
You have to prove maybe why ker(phi') is I (very easy, one-two sentences but actually write that out instead of just declaring it)
Otherwise yea seems good to me
See how actually making things explicit and writing out definitions / theorems helped?
I am actually confused about the image {phi(r)+J}=S/J?
?
I mean because it writes isomorphism R/I->S/J
but we only prove isomorphism: R/I to image(phi')
What is the domain and codomain of phi'
domain: all x in R, codomain: phi(x)+J? or domain:R, codomain:S/J?
What is the domain and codomain of phi?
Can there exist a distinct right inverse? Like here in Z_8 2•1= 2 and 2•5 = 2 so there is particular two distinct elements which give me same element 2 so is there any example where distinct right inverse exist ?
Is the right inverse unique? Or if the left inverse exists then it will be unique.
What map did you compose with phi to get phi'?
If an element has both left and right inverse, then any left/right inverse is a two sided inverse, and two sided inverse are unique.
If you don't have a left inverse you may have several right inverses
map: R->S given by x->phi(x) and map: S->S/J given by phi(x)->phi(x)+J, and get phi':R->S/J given by x->phi(x)+J
Yes, so is there any example?
Ok so phi' is a map from R -> S/J?
What is the domain and codomain of the map you got from the first isomorphism theorem?
I think it should be x and phi(x)+J respectively?
well x is an element
Not a set
And phi(x) + J is an element of S/J
Not S/J itself
So that can't possibly be right
Is the set of all endomorphisms is the ring? Because I think they defined multiplication operation as composition
So Wew already gave you an example.
Take the set of all sequences of integers. And let R be the ring of all endomorphisms with composition as multiplication.
Consider the map that sends
(a1, a2, a3, ...)
to
(a2, a3, a4, ...)
Then the map sending (b1, b2, ...) to
(0, b1, b2, ...)
is a right inverse while the one sending it to
(b1, b1, b2, b3, ...)
is another. There are infinitely many in fact.
Then based on the first iso thm, we get R/I isomorphic to im(phi'), is it correct?
This is the stuffs that I feel confused now
I only know that this set contains elements phi(x)+J
What did you write here? Please read what you wrote here
so is it adequate to demonstrate S/J=im(phi'), only because codomain of phi' is S/J?
I mean codomain is equivalent to image?
You have that + phi' is surjective
so you know phi' is a surjective map from R to S/J
So here composition holds distribute property?
such that x -> phi(x) + J
So then the map you get from first isomorphism theorem has what domain, codomain, and how are elements mapped?
Yeah, homomorphisms preserve addition.
Yes
Got it, thank you
first of all, I think because phi' is surjective map, so the whole image should be S/J. But I still have one question. do you mean because we have S->S/J natural surjection, so R->S/J surjection?
phi is an isomorphism remember?
How can I prove that Q is the smallest subfield of R?
Show that Q is a subfield and that every subfield of R contains it
Q is the smallest subfield in general of char 0
Like I can generate Z then take inverses of elements of Z then it makes Q? Like fraction field of integers?
Do you want a clue to the way I understand it?
Yeah
Any of the prime fields are generated by 1
Yes
Yes, but what does it mean generated by 1
Hmmm
You can construct it by induction within any field basically
Induction?
Recursion
Just think of all the elements you can get starting from 1 with the use of the field operations (addition, subtraction, multiplication and division)
Brain fart lo
but yeah
That’s the prime field, either it’s Q or Z/pZ depending on the characteristic, I.e if 1 + 1 + 1… ever equals 0
You can always map N into your field by adding 1 to itself over and over again
If it is injective, then you have characteristic 0, and you can then append the negatives to embed Z in your field
Yes
Because you have a field, you can then map Q into it injectively via the inverses and quotients
That means that every field of characteristic 0 either contains or is Q
I.e Q is the “smallest” field of characteristic 0, which includes R, Q, your p-adic fields, etc
Okay thank you
For characteristics p, you can show that some 1 + 1 … 1 = 0 for a prime p, then you can inject Z/pZ into the field which is itself a field
Yes Z-> F by n-> n•1 and kernel is pZ
yes, I was silly
but I guess that can be fixed if instead of regular functions we consider the endomorphisms of (R,+)
and I probably need to use Hamel basis to get a counterexample
I see, I ignored this one.
the example with sequences can be incorporated in this: we take a Hamel basis B and we extract a countable subset, say A={b_1, b_2, ...}
we let f(x)=x for x in B-A and f(b_1)=b_2, f(b_2)=b_3, ...
hopefully this works; f is injective, but not surjective; so it has right inverse, but not left inverse
Personally, I consider them to be generated by the empty set as well.
banned
pean in the ass
Not really.
it was an afront to god (a joke on the name peano axioms)
ℤ in any subfield via 1+1+1.... from this, ℚ
Oh, that was intentional! Not bad.
i am confused about why we can map from Z to F( I am considering if this map is adequate enough to argue this proof)? I mean if I change Z into other domain R and do the following steps in this picture, what will happen? it seems to me that it will not have an obvious result, but we can confirm that the intersection of all subfield of F must be embedded in the image X, so the map from Z to the image(X) will show the result of all intersection of subfield of F that is isomorphic to Q and Zp. Do you think this is the reason why this proof is adequate?
What do you mean by change from Z to another domain? Like what would be the map you considered?
I mean define x: R->F, R is a specific domain that I imagine, I just want to know if this argument is adequate enough?(Why picking domain Z and the result of its image isomorphic to Zp or Q can prove this statement)
Is it just because the intersection of all fields should be embedded in image X, so the proof showing image X isomorphic to either Q or Zp is adequate?
and the possibiliity of mapping from a domain R(not Z) to F and its image will be different ( not isomorphic to Zp or Q)
Well the map from Z makes sense no matter what the field is, so the image is contained in all subfields.
If R is just any domain then there's no guarantee that you can construct a map at all.
Hur dur recursion theorem gives a map from N
so if there exist a map that we can construct, then it is valid right?
if the map helps us get the result of imX isomorphic to something
I mean, vacuously that's true I guess.
Z via 1+1+1+1...
if char = p then Zp else Q
(cyclic and countable, so these are your only options)
Which part are you getting incorrect answers here?
Hm
I tried looking up a solution but the solution posed the definition entirely differently
Even the def of a semi direct product differently
Is this semidirect product?
Thats different notation than I've seen
Yeah it does seem to be using different conventions mostly
Wreath
Ah, wreath product
How is it defined, may I ask?
Ahhh
Hmm
Hmm, let me see
Yeah, something doesn't seem right here. Seems like it should be
(f, h) (t, s) = (f(hs)t, hs)
for it to work out.
So (f1, h1) (f2, h2) = (f1 (h1 * f2), h1 h2) part is simply from definition of semidirect product
Then,
Ah, now I see where the problem is, h is somehow omitted in left part of the action
Yeah
Just from the fact that
(f, h) = (f, 1)(1, h)
It should be clear that how f acts has to depend on h in some way
f(hs) or f(h^-1 s)?
I think f(hs) is the thing that makes it work, but you should check both
What is the textbook? Might be in the errata
Huh, seems like there is no errata..
Say f:A->B is a ring hom.
Say p is a prime ideal of B. Is it possible that im f intersected with p is non empty and im f intersected with p complement is nonempty?
If gA = B is also in the partition set, does that imply each partition set is bijective to the next
Like a coset
Yes. The ideal P = <2,x> is prime (maximal) in Z[x]. Let f : Z --> Z[x] be the inclusion at constant polynomials. Then P satisfies what you want.
Most exampes will satisfy this.
It's actually impossible for that not to be the case. As the image will contain 1 which is not in p, and it will contain 0 which is in p.
I can’t tell if each set in the partition is bijective or not lmao
Oh I think I read it backwards as im f complement intersect p; that can be empty (say if im f = B) but yeah what jagr said
Nvm it’s only bijective if it’s transitive on the partition
so in a PID, gcds exist and are exactly the generator of the ideal generated by the elements?
that is consistent with Bezouts lemma, that
gcd(a,b)=d=ax+by for some integers x,y and d is the least positive integer that is an integer linear combination of a and b.
so is this how we find the generators of an ideal generated by multiple elements: just find the gcd?
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/GCD_domain look at the chain on this page
I just realised that G = G×G/D, where D = {(g,g)} is the diagonal subgroup and we map (g,h) to gh^{-1} to define a map from G×G to G, and a (G×G)-invariant measure on G is the same as a two-sided Haar measure on G.
So this should yield a criterion for unimodularity (possibly the same as the usual one).
In the formal series R[x] where R is an arbitrary integral ring with identity element 1. It states that a_0 + a_1 x + a_2 x^2 +....... is a unit in R[x] if and only if a_0 is a unit in R.
I think this statement is wrong, right? Because it states that if a_0 is a unit in R then a_0 + a_1 x +...... is a unit in R[x] so if I take R is a set of real numbers then 1 +x + x^2 +3 x^3 +...... how it is unit in R[x] ?
The set of power series is denied R[[x]]
This has inverse 1-x
This is the geometric series
I wrote 1+x + x^2 + 3 x^3 +........
How it's inverse is 1-x ?
3x^3
just calculate (1-x)(1+x+x^2+...), which is equal to (1+x+x^2+...)(1-x)
Let R be a finite dimensional k-algebra and let M be finite dimensional R-module Let $$rad(M,N) = {g \in Hom_R(M,N) : hg \in rad(End_R(M)) \forall h \in Hom_R(N,M)}$$ where $rad(End_R(M))$ is the radical of the ring $End_R(M)$. I am trying to show that $g \in rad(M,N) \iff hg \text{ nilpotent } \forall h \in Hom_R(N, M)$. I understand that when g is in $rad(M,N)$, then hg is in the radical of the endo, which is nilpotent by the fact that the endo is artinian, but I cant figure out why the other implication works. Is it immediate that the radical is the set of all nilpotent elements (non-invertible maps) in the endo?
Eso
if the result is 1, this means that 1+x+x^2+... is the inverse of 1-x, right?
as chmonkey said, write out the geometric series of 1/(1-x) and you'll see that it's 1+x+x^2+...
hence (1-x)(1+x+x^2+...) = 1
But my series is not 1+ x + x^2 +x^3+.......
My series is 1 + x+ x^2 + 3 x^3+.....
what's the pattern then?
Got it, thank you ❤️
It's random polynomial
ah ok so you can't be looking for an explicit inverse
Yes
good LUCK
You’d have to construct it likely via recursion and that isn’t fun 
In general, a unit in a ring is an element that lies outside of all proper ideals
We have a map from R[[X]] -> R injective sending a series to its constant coeff.
Perchance consider that implication
surjective
Yeah sorry lol
I originally wrote epi but I changed it to the wrong word
and this is true for polynomial rings as well, so you still need to use something specific about R[[x]] to show what the maximal ideals are
Epi for rings is diff to surj anyway ig
yeah but no-one cares about
Real...
Well like all localisations
that's the one
I think it's important to bw precise for that reason
I just say surjective because that's almost always what I mean
all categories are concrete etc. etc.
I think poly ring unitality requires all other coeffs to be nikpotent
I also would say surj lol
Ye
Being a unit implies ur a unit in R/p[x] for all m
it does
radical as in the jacobson radical*, intersection of all maximal ideals etc.
that proof is lame cause I don't understand it. Simply raise the mf to a high enough power
you'll end up with just some constant term, which is a unit by assumption (if I'm following the conversation properly)
I don't think that works right
like if b is nilpotent then for all n (a+b)^n will still have terms like a^(n-1)b
Idk
I don't understand this
You may be doing the wrong direction
no that's a fair point
I think I am yeah
But dw
oh well I literally never have to care about this in real life
So all that’s needed for the power series case is just the constant is unital?
yur
If I want to prove that Laurent series are an integral domain under an integral ring.
Let two non zero Laurent series such that p= a_n X^n + a_n+1 X^(n + 1) +...... where a_n ≠ 0 and another polynomial q= b_m X^m +....... where b_m ≠0 then pq has coefficient a_0× b_0 x^(n+m) and a_0 × b_0≠0 so pq≠0.
I think the same we can prove for Laurent polynomials.
yeah this works, although I presume you mean a_nb_m instead of a_0b_0 at the end?
Yes
I saw the sticker 
😂
How can I prove that a Laurent series a_nX^n +..... with a_n ≠ 0 is a unit in R<X> if and only if a_n is a unit in R ?
I still wish to at some point prove Hilbert basis theorem without using ultrafilter lemma or leading coefficient mappings
I want to know how the structure of R[X]’s ideals depends on R’s
I know there’s like a “laying over” property on R[X] for primes but
In order to use that for Hilbert basis you need ultrafilter or an equivalent to show every ideal is in a prime ideal
My idea was to assume R is noetherian, and we have a strictly increasing sequence of ideals J_n
J_n cannot be strictly contained in (X), as R[X]/(X) is iso to R violating the noetherian condition
So eventually J_n must intersect R nontrivially
However I don’t think I can do much wirh this. The intersection of J_n, J_m (n < m) with R need not preserve strict inclusion
Let $R$ be Noetherian. Let $K_n$ be a sequence chain of ideals in $R[X]$. The auxiliary sequence of ideals $A_n = K_n \cap R$ must stabilize.
Mizalign #1 simp
$R[X] = R + (X), R \cap (X) = (0)$
Mizalign #1 simp
Makes me wonder, assuming A_n must stabilize after a certain point…
I need to find a way to show $B_n = K_n \cap (X)$ does too
Mizalign #1 simp
Key thing of note is that if $B_n = (X)$ after a certain $n$ then it must stabilize because the ideals can be mapped to $R$ via $R[X]/(X)$
Mizalign #1 simp
So the remaining case is $K_n \cap (X) \subset (X)$
Mizalign #1 simp
A positive integer is square free if it has form n=p_1× p_2×.....× p_k and all these p_i are prime and are different for all i=1,2,....k.
Right?
if $K \subset (X)$ then shouldn’t $\frac{K}{x}$ be an ideal?
Mizalign #1 simp
Idk how to prove that off the top of my head
Or introduction it
Actually I don’t think it’s true
p(x)xH = xH forall p(x) doesn’t necessarily imply p(x)H = H
Though it does if aH = H
Let xH = K, K an ideal of R[x]
a(x)K = K
a(x)xH = xH
By cancellativity of x in R[X]?
a(x)H = H?
Another question: assume $A \subset B$ are rings, and we have a principal ideal $(b) \subset B$. If $A \cap (b) = (0)$ and $A + (b) = B$, then does the at imply $B \cong A[X]$?
Mizalign #1 simp
So if n is square free then I want to prove that Z_n has no non-trivial nilpotent elements.
So if there is a nilpotent element in Z_n, say a≠0 and a<n that means a^k=0 mod n for some positive k>1. Thus n divides a^k.
So if n= p_1 × p_2 ×......× p_m. Then p_i divides a , thus p_1 × p_2 ×.....×p_m divides a means n divides a. But a<n so it is not possible.
Hence there are no non - trivial nilpotent elements in Z_n.
Is it correct?
and it's easier to prove this than the corresponding result for the poly case
which is funny
Poly case is by induction
Well you don't need induction if you use the proof I showed tbf
As in, one direction is easy (unit + nilpotent is always a unit)
and the other like, if $f \in R[x]$ is a unit, then for each prime ideal $\mathfrak p \subset R$, $f$ becomes a unit $\bar{f}$ in $(R/\mathfrak p)[x]$ and by the corresponding result for domains it follows that $\bar{f}$ is constant i.e. all non-constant coeffs of $f$ lie in $\mathfrak p$. But $\mathfrak p$ was arbitrary, so all non-constant coefficients are nilpotent
Süßkartoffel
and the result for domains is easy since then degree is a multiplicative thing
in the polynomial ring of a commutative ring with unit, a polynomial is a unit if and only if its leading coefficient is a unit and the rest of the coefficients are nilpotent
Does a similar result hold in the non-commutative case?
Always funny when we get two questions in a row on the same topic from different people. Makes me think u guys are in the same class
I suppose it depends how you define polynomial ring over a noncommutative ring
It would have to be the free algebra right
Well, how do you define 'algebra' over a noncommutative ring
Like if algebra just means ring with map from your base ring, then the free algebra looks pretty horrible.
A ring S with a map R -> End(S)? Or are you talking about left/right actions
Yeah I didn’t say it would be nice
we’re doing ring theory here nothing is nice
Well, you want some compatibility between the ring structure and module structure, no?
True
Although I think what the asker is after is just elements of the form a_0+a_1x+… with a_0 in R.
Product given by convolution - who knows if this is a ring or not
But if it isn’t that answers the question as well
My intuition is telling me that associativity breaks
But maybe not
That should be a ring. And then the constant coefficient would have to be a unit for the polynomial to be a unit. So then if you multiply by the inverse of the constant coefficients, you can look at things with constant coefficients 1, and then I think the proof from the commutative case more or less goes through.
Though just because b is nilpotent and a is a unit, I don't think you can conclude ab is nilpotent
I want to prove that in Z_n if n is the power of prime number. Then a set of non -units elements of Z_n is an additive subgroup of Z_n.
So if n= p^k, for some positive integer k.
Let S be a set of all non-units elements of Z_n. So 0 belongs to S.
And if a belong to S that means gcd( a, n) ≠1.
So let a and b belong to S so gcd(a, n)≠ 1 and gcd(b,n)≠ 1. So it follows that p divides a and b. Thus p also divides a-b so gcd(a-b, n) ≠ 1 so a-b belongs to S. Hence S is an additive subgroup of Z_n under addition.
Is it correct?
yes
you have even found an explicit formula for the non-units
namely, subgroup generated by p
Since you know a bit of commutative algebra, another way to phrase this is that the ring Z/p^k has exactly one maximal ideal, namely pZ/p^k, e.g. by the correspondence theorem (since (p) is the only maximal ideal of Z containing (p^k))
and for local rings, the maximal ideal is precisely the set of non-units
Of course overkill here lol
but perhaps worth highlighting if you want to study non-units more generally since they will come up
what breaks down in the ring structure of R[x] when R is not commutative?
Nothing breaks down, or I'm not sure what you mean
It's just clear what the definition should be
Oh I thought you were hinting that the repeating the standard construction of a polynomial ring in the non-comm case doesn’t work
Well what is the 'standard' construction
The usual construction uses that R is commutative
I think one thing is that usually you want like, a map R[x] -> S to be a map R -> S equipped with a choice of element of s
but then if S is non-commutative, that changes since s would need to commute with all of S
I’m asking where that is
Like should
rx = xr or not?
Whether you think so depends on how you define the polynomial ring
Let R be a non comm ring. Define addition and multiplication of polynomials in R[x] as you usually would if R was comm. Is R[x] not a non-comm ring?
You keep saying 'as you usually would'. So then it depends what you would usually do
like
gotem
jagr stop being a little nerd
But no i mean you can view them as finitely supported sequeencesof elements with $(a_i) \cdot (b_j) = ( \sum_{i+j=n} a_i b_j)_{n \in \mathbf N}$
Süßkartoffel
Actually don’t we love you for it
i think
But I said all this earlier RAAAGGGGH
and then just take x = (0,1,0,...)
the sum of p = (sum a_i x^i) and q = (sum b_i x^i) is (sum (a_i + b_i) x^i), and their product is (sum a_i b_j x^(i+j))
and that gives you a construction with x in the centre
you just had to say "yes" to this 
lol
yes
I kind of wrote it poorly above but this is what I meant
i don’t see where we use the commutativity of the base ring, besides showing the polynomial ring is commutative
you don't use it
Yeah, so that's a ring.
And it should be clear that the constant coefficient has to be a unit for it to be a unit
so what’s wrong
The other coefficients are more complicated though
you’re saying
p(X) is a unit implies that the constant term of p(X) is a unit and that the reverse direction is harder?
reverse direction isn't true
Like formulating a sufficient condition is harder is what I mean
.
So for example if R is the 2x2 matrix ring
n = [0, 0; 0, 1]
m = [1, 0; 0, 0]
a = [0, -1; 1, 0]
Then (a + nx) and (-a + mx) are inverses of each other, without m or n being nilpotent.
Sup homies
I think maybe something like
a0 + a1x + a2x^2 + ...
is a unit iff
a0^-1 ai is nilpotent, but I haven't checked the details on that

But if it is a formal power series then it is true, right?
Okay thank you
Yes?
No, sorry actually there is discussion about the use of commutative property in the construction of Ring R[x], so I remember that you answered this question so therefore I just mentioned it .
I see.
But i want to prove it's reverse part , if a set of non -units elements of Z_n makes an additive subgroup of Z_n, then n is the power of a prime.
I assumed if n has two prime divisors then it will contradict but how ?
Are you familiar with Chinese remainder theorem?
real
to be fair you don't quite need Chinese remainder either
you use the fact that like ||union of incomparable subgroups is never a subgroup||
Yes
is this even true?
In Z_12, the set {0,4,8} is a set of non-units, and it is an additive subgroup
Set of all non-units
{0,2,3,4,6,8,9,10}
I see, but you said "a set" initially
My mistake
What is an incomparable subgroup?
That's like asking what an isomorphic group is :)
I mean that neither is contained in the other
Could also just do 0
yeah, I noticed shortly after I wrote that
Okay
Then i think you want to say that the set of units in Z_n is an additive subgroup of Z_n, right?
If n has at least two distinct prime divisors
No
It evidently isn't since 0 isn't in it
Then how do I use that fact here?
If you're a nonunit then ur in pZ_n for some p|n
And the union of those is precisely the non units
@crystal vale your idea of assuming that n has two distinct prime divisors works
It is true for all n here we did not use n has two distinct prime divisors?
How?
say the primes are p and q
then p and q are non-units, and apply Bezout
Yes
you get that 1 is in that subgroup, which is a contradiction
So here n=p_1 × p_2 or n haz at least prime divisors p_1 and p_2 ?
at least two
Got it thank you
Oh yeah that is easier lol
Actually I thought about what if p-q is a unit but it is not true in general
I want to understand your way
For its reverse if I let n is not square free then there is a prime p which divides n and power of p is more than 1 , say k, so I take a= n/p which is <n and then a^k=0 mod n. So it has a non - trivial nilpotent element.
Is it correct?
BTW, I am now pretty sure that this (F was a division ring BTW) is false because it implies something I know to be false.
If anyone is interested, ping me and I'll (later) try to flesh out the contradiction into an explicit counterexample.
So what does that tell you about Z/mn when m and n are relatively prime?
(Rough sketch: it would imply linear independence of characters valued in division rings, but conjugations (which are characters of the group of units of the division ring) by linearly dependent (over the centre) elements are linearly dependent.)
Groups of units of Z/mn is isomorphic to the direct product of groups of units of Z/m and group of units of Z/n
Yes, but not just the group of units
Z/mn is isomorphic to Z/n x Z/m
Do you see two nonunits in Z/n x Z/m that sum to a unit?
I have a question about separability over different fields, as far as i understand the polynomial X^p - t is separable over F_p(t) since there is an extension (its splitting field) where it only has p’th root of t as the single root and since it’s irreducible we say it’s not separable - (my definition: a polynomial is said to be separable if its irreducible factors don’t have multiple roots) however over the splitting field the polynomial already splits and has irreducible factors X- ^p √t and they obviously only have one root so the polynomial consists of separable factors and is separable..?
is the point here that we look at whether a polynomial has multiple roots not over which the field is defined but rather its extensions or even the algebraic closure..?
I can't quite parse you're last question, but with the definition you're using it matters which field you consider the polynomial over, yes.
i’ve seen people say that (a) is a “multiple” of (b) when (a) \subseteq (b).
i can imagine this terminology being motivated by ideals in the integers. but in general, is it true that if (a) \subseteq (b) then a = cb for some c \in (b)?
say we’re working in a commutative ring
Is this just:
H, {(1 3),(1 2 3)}, {(2 3),(1 3 2)}, {(1 2 3),(1 3 2)}, {(1 3 2),(1 2 3)}
those last two are the same set
and they aren't disjoint
we know there are |G|/|H| = 6/2 = 3 cosets
I think it's only the first 3
At least that's what I got when I worked it out, how did you get the last one?
(0,1) and (1,0) ?
I am asked to prove that an isomorphism phi: F[x] -> F[x] which fixes the constants preserves irreducibility. Isn't enough that phi is an isomorphism? If f is irreducible and f=pq, then phi(f)=phi(p)phi(q). By definition one of p,q is a unit and one is not, and since phi is an iso, the same is true for phi(p), phi(q), ie phi(f) is irreducible.
If I have a field F and an automorphism φ of F[x], why is it true that φ(c) = c for all constants c?
If the field F has characteristic p then x^p=x for all x belongs to F?
How many automorphisms of F exist ?
If F is a finite field and has characteristic p then x-> x^p is an automorphism. But I am not sure where F is finite I used?
for onto, right?
Injectivity is clear. Onto is NOT clear and NOT true for infinite fields of characteristic p in general
However, injective maps from two sets of the same finite order are surjective
This is where it’s used
If phi is an automorphism of F-algebras this is true by definition. If phi is just an automorphism of rings, then this is not true.
Yes, but how injective is clear? If x^p = y^p then (xy^(-1))^p =1 then how does it imply that xy^(-1) =1 ?
Once you’ve verified that x|->x^p is a homomorphism you can just work with kernel is 0
What are the solutions to x^p=0?
Yes got it
0 because the kernel can be only {0} or F
This is true for integral domains too
And if the kernel is F then 1^p=0 means 1=0 but I assumed that the characteristic of F is prime not 1.
A product of terms is 0 in an integral domain if one of the product terms is 0
Yes
That works too
And x^p = x is it true?
For F_p in particular yes but not for any other extension of it ( at least finite)
F_p notation mean? Z_p
And if I want an infinite field which has finite characteristics then if I take the fraction field of Z_2[x] then will it work ?
Yes
Another example is the algebraic closure of F_2
Okay thank you
Ok then let’s say phi fixes the constant polynomials, ie phi(a) = a for all constants a. Then what is phi(x)? Is there enough information to determine phi(x)?
No, phi(x) can still be pretty much anything
Really? Hm
Or if you want it to be an automorphism it would have to be something of the form
ax + b
But that's still a lot of choices
Oh yeah
Yeah how do I show it’s of the form ax + b
I’ve been stuck on this
I feel like it should be simple lol
What happens if its not of that form?
Well, if phi(x) = x^2, then i figured applying phi iteratively gives you higher and higher degrees
But I don’t see a contradiction…
I mean, I think the x —> ax+b part should be straightforward, no?
if phi(x) = x^2 what is phi(f) for arbitrary f?
f(x^2)
I mean, could I not make some sort of argument about cosets? Like, the degree 1 polys map to degree 1 polys, and degree 2 maps to degree 2, etc? I don’t like this contradiction business
Oh interesting
Hm
Actually the same question I asked a month ago , it shows that automorphisms preserve degree
Exact question
Do you recall what is automorphism?
Bijection, right
You also need homomorphism, but right.
Oh sht
Ah, I guess this was already explained. But for this to be bijective, you need f where phi(f) = x.
Or alternatively, a homomorphism phi^(-1) shall exist
Which sends x to f, then phi sends f to x; I think you can derive from here than f is of degree 1 without contradiction
to add to what was mentioned: x^p=x in a field can only happen for at most p elements; this is because the polynomial X^p-X must have at most p (its degree) roots
if the field has characteristic p, then 0,1,2,...,p-1 are the only elements for which x^p=x
Okay thank you
I want to prove that if R is a ring with 1 such that non - units in R form a subgroup of (R,+), then char(R) is either 0 or else a power of a prime.
If n has at least two distinct prime divisors say, p_1 and p_2.
Then p_1 is non-unit because if it is then char(R) will be less than n. Similarly p_2 is non -unit in R. But we know that there exists integers and t such that p_1 s + p_2 t=1 which implies that a set of all non -units is not a subgroup of (R, +).
Is it correct?
And if R has no unity then in R[x] what will be the coefficients of x or x just the element of R[x].
And I want to show that if R ≠ (0), the variable x is not a zero divisor in R[x].
If it is then there is non-zero polynomial f such that f × x =0 but since f is non -zero polynomial so there exist a_k x^k term in f(x) with a_k ≠ 0.
f × x has non-zero term a_k x^(k+1) so it can not be equal to 0.
Is it correct?
I want to discuss ring theory, does anyone want?
Yes
Okay, variable x is not a zero divisor in R[x] proof is it correct?
Looks good
Discuss in what way?
I have doubts and want to solve that
What kind of doubts?
-
If I define 0 as zero- divisor then if ab is zero divisor then is ba zero divisor?
-
Is there any specific form in M_n (Z) such that there are two zero divisors whose sum is not a zero divisor ?
-
Let R= M_n (Z) and N be the subset of all strictly upper triangular matrices then x^n =0 , for all x belongs to N.
-
If I take R= S_3 and define addition as S_3 operation and multiplication a•b = (1) then is it ring. If yes then what will be char(R).
and many more....
-
No it's possible for ab to be a zero divisor and ba to be a unit for example.
-
Unsure what you mean by form, but if you take a diagonal matrix with 1s and 0s along the diagonal you can find to 0 divisors that sum to the identity.
-
Yes
-
Addition isn't even commutative, so not a ring.
Hint for 1.
I thought about it but I don't know how to show it. Maybe there are many calculations for 2.
I don't know how to prove 3.
I think I get it 2. Thanks
-
I think you've seen an example of this when asking about one sided inverses earlier.
-
There are indeed lots of examples.
-
You can use linear algebra, think about the characteristic polynomial.
Okay, thank you
In the ring of endomorphisms of groups of sequence, additive identity is (a_1, a_2,.....) -> (0,0,0,....) , right?
That's right
So if I take
a is (a_1, a_2, ....) -> (a_2, a_3, .....)
b is (b_1, b_2,.....) - > (0,b_1, b_2,.....)
Then ab is unity but ba is not unity and ba ≠ 0.
So if I take c is (c_1, c_2,.....) -> (1,0,0,.....)
Then bac =0, right ?
Yeah, well c defined like that is not a homomorphism, but you basically have it
For $G$ a group, $G^{S}$ for any set $S$ has the structure of a group, where $f_1(s)f_2(s) = (f_1f_2)(s)$
Mizalign #1 simp
if I can get this right, then $S = \mathbb{N}$ in this case?
Then what will be c ?
Mizalign #1 simp
Is c (c_1, c_2,....) -> (c_1,0,0,....) work ?
Any non-unit in a ring must be contained in an proper ideal
Therefore your statement that non-units form a subgroup of (R,+) might be equivalent to the union of all ideals is an ideal, implying there is a single maximal ideal. i.e local
lol this is how i proved it
Can you please give me example where R is a ring and S is a subring of R and both have distinct unity but they have the same char.
Well to me a subring necessary has the same unit - isn't that the standard convention
Yes
well you can do Z/2 as a subring (in your sense) of Z/2 x Z/2
as in like {(0,0), (1,0)}
Yes
then they have distinct units but the same characteristic
np
And if S= Z × R, R is a ring.
If I define (m ,x)(n, y) = (mn, my + nx + xy).
R is a subring of S. There is a statement that any ring R can be realised as a subring of a ring S with unity.
If R has no unity then is this statement true?
All functions f:F4->F4* are polynomial?
All functions on finite fields are polynomial
You can construct them quite easily if you know the idea behind Lagrange interpolation
oh yeah? watch this.... sin(2 mod 5)....
So true
What about the degree of a polynomial P in F4[X] with P(x)=f(x) for every x in F4
I am trying to prove there is such polynomial P irreductible
the degree doesn't have to be fixed
x^4=x, so the polynomial P(x^4) also works, for example
Let R= M_n (Z) and N be the subset of all strictly upper triangular matrices then I want to prove that N is non- commutative if n>=3.
So if I have A and B elements of N then let AB= C.
So C[1,3] = Summation A[1,j] × B[ j, 3] , j runs over 1 to n. And we know A[1,1] = 0 and B[ j,3 ] =0 for all j>=3. Hence C[1,3] = A[1,2 ] × B [ 3,2].
So we can construct a matrix where A[1,2] × B[ 3, 2 ] ≠ B[1,2 ] × A[ 3, 2].
Is it correct?
yes
okay, that's pretty neat
What’s a polynomial ring?
A ring of polynomials
well, usually it's the ring of polynomials over a ring.
well they didn't say how many variables >.<
okay, it's a group monoid ring where the group is free abelian and written multiplicatively
that's R[x, x^-1]
... whoops
hate to be the ermm aktually-er but it is the truth...
dude this is mathematics, the subject is founded on "ermm aktually"
I'm trying to make your definition even more unwieldy
it's the category algebra R[(N, \leq)] I think
or maybe we just take the nerve of X_1 -> X_2
my head hurts
no (N, \leq) should work
(N, \leq) looks like 0 -> 1 -> 2 -> ... with a unique map in each Mor(x, y). So composing two arrows is like adding two numbers. The analog for "x" in "R[x]" is the morphism "0 -> 1" here
again - I think
no! it doesn't work! gaaah!
okay but we want many vars
we need a single object with one endomorphism for each natural number, and composition defined obviously
yeah, I just had to actually arrive at that construction
it's just like with groups
they're more commonly called "categories" 
...oh you literally thought the same thing
a monad is a monoid in the monoidoid of endofunctors
if you want more examples of this the general process is called "horizontal categorification"
abelian categories are "ringoids" for instance
A monad is a monoid in the monoidoid of monoidoid morphisms from a monoidoid to itself
is this poetry or math
This is croqueta3385
🤘 😔
the poly ring over R is just the ring corepresenting the forgetful functor RAlg -> Set
u could just say "the free R-algebra" home dawg
out of curiosity is it common for a first course in group theory to be egregious
in what way
idk if its the concepts themselves or the professor teaching it that's making it difficult
cus i heard people say algebra is easier than analysis but im finding it to be the opposite
it would be strange to cover the egregious theorem
never heard of that
im a fan of chris grossack
(= (strict) 2-categories)
oh goody! the worst thing I've ever seen
Lmfao
what does it mean by "induces an action in the usual way"?
wait but how does sigma define an action on Z^N^3? isn't it defined for N^3? sorry im very confused by actions
it's just permuting the coordinates
like the permutation (1,2,3)-->(2,1,3) would translate to (x,y,z)-->(y,x,z), and so on
but well they are actually not doing that, I have no idea why they take sigma^{-1} instead of sigma
so when its saying like $\sigma \cdot p$, does it mean $(\sigma \cdot p)(x_0, x_1, x_2) = p(x_{\sigma^{-1}(0)}, x_{\sigma^{-1}(1)}, x_{\sigma^{-1}(2)})$?
board 2
it's a right/left action thing
yes that's the action on N^3, and you can think of Z^{N^3} as functions f(x1, x2, x3) -> Z with xi natural numbers, so you're just permuting the inputs of these functions
which is an action on Z^{N^3}
i see, thank you so much!
Do i just prove identity and compatibility?
have you tried setting (h,k) to the identity
yeah i got it i think
setting h,k = 0
gives 0 + f(a) = f(a) for the identity
the other part i denoted (h1,k1) and (h2,k2)
and tried to show ((h1,k1)*((h2,k2)*f(a))) = (h1+h2,k1+k2)*f(a)
(h1,k1).((h2, k2).f)(a) = (h1, k1).(h2+f(a-k2)) = h1+h2+f(a-k1-k2)
to make it even clearer:
let g(a) = h2+f(a-k2)
then (h1, k1).g(a) = h1+g(a-k1) = h1+h2+f(a-k1-k2)
I'll let you do the other part
oh i see
i just expanded wrong i think
for part c of the same problem, how do i get those values from ((h,1).f(a)) = h+ f(-1+a)=f(a)?
is it because f(-1+a) = f(a)+k for some k in {0,1,2}?
are they using 1 to mean 1 here or the identity
right nvm they wrote 0, so they mean 1
yeah
this is a bit more interesting
f : Z/3 -> Z/12
(h,1).f(a) = h+f(a-1) = f(a)
it's hard because f is just a set map
could you explain how you derived this
has to be the other way around otherwise how are we adding an element of Z/12 (h) to an element of Z/3 (f(-k+a))
actually it just tells us lol
I can see how they have a fixed point though
set f(a) = 4a,
(4,1).f(a) = 4+f(a-1) = 4+4a-4 = 4a = f(a)
but this works equally as well for f(a) = xa
then (x, 1).f(a) = x+f(a-1) = x+xa-x = f(a)
so I'm confused
high quality Polish image

but it also means that f(a) ∈ {0,1,2}, so f(a-1) ∈ {0,1,2}
you got it backwards again
ok time to do this purely combinatorially and not care about functions
think of f(a) as a sequence of length 3 with values in {0,...,12} and our action (h,k) sends (a_0, a_1, a_2) to (a_{0-k}+h, a_{1-k}+h, a_{2-k}+h) where the indices are taken mod 3
this induces a homomorphism from Z/12xZ/3 into S_{1728}
it's clear that the generator of Z/3 is sent to (1,13,25)(2,14,26)...(12,24,36) up to conjugacy
actually, is that clear
functions don't exist, they can't hurt you
(but morphisms are very real)
no because it fixes diagonal elements
oh lord it's not S_{36}
ohhhhh lorrddddd here we GOOOO
yeah so this is like an action on base-12 numbers
i mean ultimately it's proving that h=f(a)-f(a-1)={0,4,8}
ok fine I'll actually answer the question instead of being massively distracted
so we permute the coordinates counter-clockwise one and then add 0,4 or 8, obviously (0, 1) fixes the tuple (0,0,0), corrisponding to the trivial homomorphism Z/3 -> Z/12
(4,1) fixes (0,8,4) and (8,1) fixes (0,4,8)
if (h,1) fixed some (a_0, a_1, a_2) we'd need a_1+h = a_0, a_2+h = a_1, a_0+h = a_2
so a_1+h = a_2+2h = a_0+3h = a_0, so 3h = 0
implying h in {0,4,8}
@random pasture done!
time to return to getting massively distracted
actually I'll translate this back into functions for you
if (h,1) fixes f, then f(1)+h = f(0), f(2)+h = f(1), f(0)+h = f(2)
so f(1)+h = f(2)+2h = f(0)+3h = f(0), so 3h = 0
using the same thing you can show that (h, 2) has a fixed point if and only if h in {0,4,8}
(h,0) doesn't fix anything, (0,0) obviously fixes everything
yeah I just needed to stop thinking about f as a function lol
now the number of fixed points (h,1), (h,2) have I'm not too sure, I think there's 12 each
so you just get f(x) = f(x) + 3h i can't believe i missed that lmao
think how I feel 
I legitimately wrote out ``the generator of $\bZ/3$ gets sent to $(1, 144, 12)(2, 288, 24)...(11, 1584, 132)(13, 145, 156)(14, 289, 168)... = \prod_{(a_0, a_1, a_2) \neq a_0(1,1,1)} (a_0+12a_1+144a_2, a_1+12a_2+144a_0, a_2+12a_0+144a_1)$"
Wew Lads Tbh
like what am I smoking
i was so lost after that notation
you and me both
I just wrote out f as a tuple (f(0), f(1), f(2)) cause it was easier for me to see the action on it
and then I didn't look at the action on it
wait so is |X/G| just 1/36 * (Fix((h,0)) + Fix((h,1)) + Fix((h,2)))
Essence of Burnside
no no
omg no it is |G|
jesus I'm skill issuing all over the place today
yes you're completely correct
now just to find all of the fixed points of (h, 1) and (h, 2)
I just realized that the lemma that is not burnsides feels pretty obvious
|G| |X/G| = sum of fixed points of g
so for (4,1) the fixed points look like (n, n+8, n+4) for any n in Z/12
so there should only be 12
(h, 1), (h, 2) look very similar to this
(0, 1), (0, 2) should be obvious
(0,0) is obvious
and everything else doesn't fix anything as we previously came up with
wait but for (h,0) it'll be 121, (h,1) is 12 3 and (h,2) is 12*3
this was part b that i already did, which is why I was confused
yes this agrees with me
lemme figure it out one sec
|(0,0)| = 1728
|(4,1)| = |(8,1)| = |(4,2)| = |(8,2)| = 12
|(0,1)| = |(0,2)| = 12
1728+12*6 = 1800
1800/36 = 50
Wew btw
Have you seen the character-theoretic proof of the 5/8 bound
like for commuting elements
I recall seeing it at some point
do I remember the details? no lol
oh so that's how it goes
ahhhh
yes ok I've rederived it
or have I
no I haven't
@south patrol if you can find it somewhere I'd love to reread it
I can't remember the trick off the top of my head tho
Okie I shall
I think will sawin posted it on stack exchange
it'll be the character degrees squared adding up to |G| I have a feeling
Over maybeoverflow
Yes that's what I mean, exactly
Idk how you link it to the probability tho
Presumably because centralisers correspond to conj classes
hmm
Probability g commutes w h is probability C_G(g) = C_G(h) and then do a weighted average over all conj classes
Presumably gives u smth in terms of characters
Idk
Here's another dumb question
How interesting is the character table of a group as an invariant
Do people study it like this at all
I guess it is just equivalent to saying character rings are iso lol nvm
I'm not familiar with invariant theory so could you be a little bit more precise
I just mean like call two groups the same if they have the same char table
How interesting are those classes
they're more or less isomorphism classes lol
But I imagine it is just this
But isomorphic as rings, not hopf algebras
on abelian groups they are isomorphism classes
and the only... - ok I'm gonna ignore you bringing up hopf algebras - counter example I know is D_8 and Q_8
Is that just by classification thm
yur
Same lol
not true
there's two groups of order 16 as well I think
SD_16 and something maybe
one mo
yeah @south patrol
ah okay
Q_16 and SD_16 have the same character table
hm
now the question becomes, find an example which isn't a 2-group 
anyway D_8 and Q_8 are interesting because it shows you can't find the splitting field for a group just from the character table
all of D_8s reps can be realised in Q but Q_8s are over Q(i)
Okay, thank you
Lmfao wew
I tried recreating it
and just ended up finding a non-character-theoretic proof
but i think it is the standard proof?
idk
if you're fucking around with centraliser sizes, that sounds like the standard proof
eitherway still really impressive
like probability two elements commute is $P = \frac{1}{|G|} \sum_{g \in G} |C_G(g)|/|G| = \frac{1}{|G|} \sum_{g \in G} \frac{1}{|g^G|}= \frac{|Z(G)|}{|G|} + \frac{1}{|G|} \sum_{g \in G \setminus Z(G)} \frac{1}{|g^G|} \le \frac{|Z(G)|}{|G|} + \frac{|G| - |Z(G)|}{|G|} \cdot \frac{1}{2} = \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{2} \frac{|Z(G)|}{|G|} \le 1/2 + 1/4\cdot 1/2 = 5/8$
I should be able to do the character proof
2nd summation
Oh

