#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 219 of 1
Now, what can we say about x^n - 1
Hmm... it's monic, also p doesn't divide n
So the gcd of x^n -1 and it's derivative is 1
Does that say it is separable though..?
Oh wait I think it does.
Consider K[x]/(f), the residue algebra - (which is also a field)
The derivative f'(x) = nx^n-1 is a unit iff p does not divide n
Which also means we can generate 1 using f and f'
The derivative is non-zero iff p does not divide n.*
And also, that condition gurantees all roots are distinct
As f and f' do not share a root
But in that case n x^{n-1} divides x^n so you can generate 1 = (something)(n x^{n-1}) - (x^n - 1).
Oh, mb. Exactly this.
Damn me can do math for once
Ok wait if x^n - 1 itself is separable
Then f(x) must have phi(n) different roots
Exactly; factors of a separable polynomial are separable.
This is the minimal polynomial of the primitive nth root
That's always true under your assumptions (char 0 or does not divide n).
That doesn't follow from x^n-1 being separable 🧐.
Unless you already showed something else earlier or something.
My bad, I meant to say that we know rhe degree of f is exactly phi(n)
I'm trying to prove that it has to be the cyclotomic polynomial
By assumption?
Yes
Got it.
We do know that for zeta_n, the image under any K-algebra automorphism of K(zeta_n) is another root of f
To put you on a different track: you know that f and Φ_n both have degree φ(n) (and monic, let's say). What would be a particularly convenient way to show that they are equal?
Yes
Hmm..
If one divides other i g- OH
wait.
I think i might have got it
cyclotomic polynomial also has zeta_n as root
So the minimal polynomial must divide the cyclotomic polynomial
Both have same degree
so we done
Right
Because?
That's the definition no
Or am i tripping
Cyclotomic polynomial is product of (x - (zeta_n)^a) where zeta_n runs through Un and gcd(a,n) = 1
Oh, sorry, I thought you were using a different definition for some reason.
What are the other definitions which are useful to work with
Π_{d|n} Φ_d = X^n - 1 as polynomials.
This (plus monic) determines the cyclotomic polynomials uniquely in Z[X] by a multiplicative version of Mobius inversion (although it's not a priori clear that they are polynomials rather than rational functions).
In particular, AFAIK this is the way to define Φ_n if the characteristic may divide n.
(Although you just end up getting Φ_{p^k m} = Φ_m^{φ(p^k)} if char = p, n = p^k m, m coprime to p.)
Anyway, with this definition, you're right — trivially any primitive n^th root of unity is a zero of Φ_n.
So f | Φ_n, which gives you 1 => 2, I think.
1+1=
Now only thing that remains is to show the automorphism group is isomorphic to the group of units
We do know the automorphism group simply permutes the roots of the cyclotomic polynomial
That means if we can determine where zeta_n is sent by one automorphism, i think we determine the whole map
It can only send zeta_n to another primitive root
That is, (zeta_n)^a for some a coprime to n
Do you know the characterisation of K-homomorphisms from K(α) to L, for L another extension of K?
The cardinality of it corresponds to the separable degree of the extension L/K
Afaik
Ohhhhhhhhh
Wait is it just simply Aut(K(alpha)/K) in this case
I think that happens if L/K is normal
For every root β in L of the minimal polynomial of α over K, there is exactly one K-homomorphism mapping β to α.
You can use this here with L = K(α) to find the automorphisms.
(And α = ζ_n.)
I think we did this but we didn't prove each such homomorphisms are unique
For every root there indeed is one K-algebra embedding
Oh mb that's trivial
Any element of K(α) is a polynomial in α with coefficients in K (or rational function if α is transcendental over K), so the image of α determines a K-homomorphism entirely.
So that gives you uniqueness.
Yes
Nice
Wait that gives the well-definedness of the map
Now we prove it's a group homomorphism with trivial kernel I think
Because finite sets and injective maps with same cardinality so it's isomorphism
Cardinality part I can say because the extension is already seperable
ab mod n -> Sigma_b • sigma_a i think
because like zeta_n goes to (zeta_n)^ab can be done by first sending it to (zeta_n)^a and then sending that image to (zeta_n)^a)^b
Last thing to show is 3 => 1 because that completes the equivalence
So we already have this isomorphism...
Oh i think that's trivial right
Because you already know all the primitive roots are of form (Zeta_n)^a for gcd(a,n) = 1
And the fact that sigma_a(zeta_n) = zeta_n^a
Is also a root of f
The automorphisms allow us to go back to each unique root and hence we can clearly claim deg f is at least totient of n.
Now as f is seperable
We are done
Oh no wait we aren't done
How do we know there isn't a root which is non-primitive
Let's pick a root which is non-primitive
Btw you use here that sigma_b, which by definition maps zeta to zeta^b, also maps zeta^a to zeta^ab.
It's true but pointing it out.
Now recall that f | Φ_n.
Huh
I mean you do have to use what the roots of x^n - 1 is like
Yes
Not really. The problem is that when one proves f | Φ_n assuming something, one doesn't realise that it's true in general.
The picture in my mind is that algebraic conjugates of primitive n^th roots are n^th roots (because both are zeroes of Φ_n, which always has coefficients in K). Hence the primitive roots are partitioned into various equivalence classes, each of which is a set of conjugates, i.e. the roots of a single irreducible polynomial. Clearly then those ireducible polynomials form a factorisation of Φ_n (when char = 0 or does not divide n, so that Φ_n is separable).
With this picture, your equivalence is more or less clear: a minimal polynomial of a primitive n^th root is deg(φ(n)) iff it is Φ(n), iff all primitive n^th roots are (algebraic) conjugates. We can also see that the automorphisms are precisely ζ -> ζ^a for some a's (those for which ζ^a is a conjugate of a) in (Z/nZ)^×, and it can be checked as you have done that composition corresponds to multiplication. Thus Aut is a subgroup of (Z/nZ)^×, equal to the whole thing iff the other equivalent conditions hold.
anyone knows a reference to this? the topological closure of an infinite subgroup in a one-dimensional Lie group is open
I don't know about Lie groups, so may be easy to prove or standard
Z inside R isn't open...
If you add compact, then R/Z is the only 1D lie group I guess. Then you can basically just do case by case analysis of the subgroups of R/Z
oh, right
yeah so this was in the context of elliptic curves over R, and I think their associated group is that
well actually it can also be (R/Z) x (Z/2Z)
yes but the group isomorphism is not algebraic
it's not defined by rational functions, it's just an isomorphism of Lie groups
ok got it
elliptic curves over C are isomorphic to C/L where L is some lattice, so the result over R is kind of what you would expect

Assume the normalizer of a set S is the whole group, then <S> is a normal subgroup of G
trying to think of a way to prove this hmm
conjugation is an automorphism
So the intersections of all groups containing S is fixed under conjugation for each g because all the groups containing S are just "permuted around"?
Does this imply N_G(S) is a subset of N_G(<S>) for any subset S?
gsg^-1 \in S
x \in <S>, x = s_1s_2...s_n => gxg^-1 = ... you finish it
I kind of want to use the intersection def
Let $\sigma$ be an automorphism of $G$. I assume for subsets $A$ and $B$ that $A \subset B \Leftrightarrow \sigma(A) \subset \sigma(B)$
A Fibrous Powder
Why would you assume something that is easily provable
because it's a bijection

brain fried
But yes this is essentially the key observation, it should be straightforward from here
Assume S is mapped to itself under an automorphism. Sp_G(S) is the set of subgroups of G containing S, then <S> is the intersection over SP_G(S). \sigma is a bijection from SP_G(S) onto itself, by the lattice automorphism induced on P(G). Thus the intersection is preserved by the automorphism and thus the automorphism fixes <S> in terms of images
power set of G
what is the original problem?
_ _
But the automorphism part can be used as a lemma
oh bruh why are we talking about lattices...
also helps with the next problem
let f be an automorphism that fixes S, x in <S>
f(x) = f(s_1...s_k) = f(s_1)...f(s_k) \in <S>
like
come on dude

why do we need automorphisms at all for this?
his proof worked for general automorphisms
ah
It's useful for a problem coming up
for the original problem, absolutely you just need inner autos
Let me guess
the next question is "a subgroup generated by a characteristic set is characteristic"
Too late binch
it's coming up a think yeah
"characteristic set" wtf are these constructions nobody uses these
i saw it when skimming from what I remember when I first got the book
If sharp were here...
logic is crankery
I can't deny that
except the "true over char p for all but finite p <=> true over C" is nifty
this is a safe space
yeah but logicians care about "SNOREly rank" or "stab-ILL-ity" or something
Next one
Let $T$ be a subset of $G$, and $T_N = \bigcup_{g \in G}{gTg^{-1}}$, then $\langle T_N \rangle$ is the normal subgroup generated by $T$
A Fibrous Powder
So:
Assume $H$ is a normal subgroup between $T$ and $\langle T_N \rangle$. Therefore, by definition of the latter, it cannot contain $T_N$. Thus there is a $t \in T_N \setminus H$
A Fibrous Powder
It's obvious that for all $g \in G$ that $gtg^{-1} \in T_N \setminus H$
A Fibrous Powder
yeah I'm stuck
it meant to be H\T_N
Let me try again. Let $T$ be a subset of $G$. Then $T_N = \bigcup_{g \in G}{gTg^{-1}}$ is the \textbf{intersection of all conjugate-closed subsets containing T}. Now let $\langle T \rangle_N$ be the normal subgroup generated by $T$, i.e the intersection of all normal subgroups containing $T$. Likewise $\langle T_N \rangle$ is the intersection of all subgroups containing $T_N$ and is normal\ \
Therefore, we get $T_n \subseteq \langle T \rangle_N \subseteq \langle T_N \rangle$. I need to prove that there cannot be a normal subgroup strictly between $\langle T \rangle_N$ and $\langle T_N \rangle$
A Fibrous Powder
I realized I am an idiot chat
wrong channel #❓how-to-get-help
in z/2z, (0) is a maximal ideal?
(0) is maximal in any field
^ it would be a good idea to prove that the only ideals in any fields are (0) and the field itself
If the set of units is the set of elements not in any nontrivial ideal then is it the antideal?
🐜ideal
idealn't
Instead of ideals (of rings), use antiideals. (Technically, these are antisubalgebras of the ring as a module over itself.) Again we can omit ≠-openness by strengthening the nullary condition. In detail, a subset A of X is a two-sided antiideal (or simply an antiideal in the commutative case) if p≠0 whenever p∈A, p∈A or q∈A whenever p+q∈A, and p∈A and q∈A whenever pq∈A.
Hey chat
so in general what's the procedure to show that a given Group is isomorphic to a given presentation
Projection in what context?
like I don't quite understand how to prove the full isomorphism if you can prove the relations hold in a group, but like, "no more further relations"
@dull ginkgo bro u are mathing all day man
spring break homie
Nice
I respect it. I should put more time in tbh
ESPECIALLY study without my phone on me. Im so much less productive with my phone next to me
Hey guys I'm trying to prove that any primitive root of unite is a root of the nth cyclotomic polynomial, but I can't manage to conclude, I have the following:
Let $\xi \in \mathbb{C}$ be an nth primitive roots of unite, which means $z^n-1 = 0$ and $\forall 1 \leq m < n: z^m - 1 \neq 0$, then we know that $(z - \xi) | (z^n -1)$ and $(z - \xi) \nmid (z^m -1) \forall 1 \leq m < n $. We now assume that $(z - \xi) \nmid \Phi_n(z)$, from which it follows that $(z- \xi)\Phi_n(z) | z^n-1$ und $(z- \xi)\Phi_n(z) \nmid z^m-1 \forall 1 \leq m < n$.
From this we automatically follow that $deg((z-\xi)\Phi_n(z)) = deg(\Phi_n(z))+1 > deg (\Phi_n(z))$ .
Can now please somebody tell me where I get the contradiction from, I completely don't see it
damn_guuurl
what's your definition of the n-th cyclotomic polynomial? the usual definition is prod (z - ξ) over primitive nth roots of unity ξ
nope it's the polynomial of biggest degree that devides z^n-1, and I guess this is the direct contradiction I was looking for
that's z^n - 1 tho
do you want it to be like coprime with z^m -1 for m | n and m < n?
Presentations suck
I have to prove that $G = \langle a, b, c | ab = ba, ac = ca, cb = abc \rangle$ is isomorphic to $V = (\mathbb{Z}^3,\cdot)$ where $\begin{bmatrix} n_1 \ m_1 \ k_1 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} n_2 \ m_2 \ k_2 \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} n_1 + n_2 + m_1 k_2 \ m_1 + m_2 \ k_1 + k_2 \end{bmatrix}$
and what have you tried? >.<
i know the generators
A Fibrous Powder
you have pretty nice relations, so it's not as bad
I have an idear
If $V = (\mathbb{Z}^3, \cdot)$, i think $Z(V) = \langle \begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 0 \ 0 \end{bmatrix} \rangle$
A Fibrous Powder
I am an idiot!
$a = \begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 0 \ 0 \end{bmatrix}, b = \begin{bmatrix} 0 \ 0 \ 1 \end{bmatrix}, c = \begin{bmatrix} 0 \ 1 \ 0 \end{bmatrix}$
\ \
Then $\begin{bmatrix} n \ m \ k \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} n \ 0 \ 0 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} 0 \ 0 \ k \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} 0 \ m \ 0 \end{bmatrix} = a^n b^k c^m$
A Fibrous Powder
yippe that works
yay
Idfk what this top one means but I’ll just try to find the presentation on my own
I know product of intersecting two cycles is a three cycle
oh it's i neq j neq k neq i
okie
Dummint?
just solve in general the problem of deciding if two words are equal smh.
Nope. Jacobsont
i love the irony of it and how many people ask about if it's basic college algebra (like before calc)
and I bullshit like it is just long winded and does basic precalc stuff
I just say it's what constitutes basic algebra in european gradeschool
lol
For the presentation of A_n
I wonder if I can use the problem before it and append a new relation to describe the subgroup
$x_1^3 = e$ implies $x_1$ is a 3-cycle \
$i > 1 \Rightarrow x_i^2 = e$ implies $x_i$ is a product of disjoint 2-cycles
A Fibrous Powder
the annoying part is that just the single x_1 is a 3-cycle
so all of these presentation proofs depend on finitivity but what if the fucking thing isn't finite
Yeah, should have solved halting problem already, smh my head
P sure you can derive this from how the elements commute
No but you need like inequalities and shit to prove the presentation is sufficient
Ah
Well, for a group G
You can find its presentation by identifying kernel of F_n -> G, no?
Like wtf is this shit https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/152158/presentation-of-a-n-from-jacobsons-basic-algebra-i
Yeah, that's analogous as what I propose
Ah, I guess element counting?
for what purpose?
The question here is doing element counting to show that this surjective homomorphism is bihective
ah
(Where surjectivity is.. well.. computation
)
weird
R\{0} under multiplication is a group
however, R under multiplication is not a group
is there some useful property of them that makes checking these group axioms trivial / obvious
sorry thats the special linear group
well the special linear group is a subgroup of the general linear group
ok
very briefly, what's "cool" about them
why do they deserve their own special name
"general linear group"
honestly idk lol
Why is the set of transpositions/reflections not closed?
is it because no identity?
I mean identity isn't a reflection itself @tacit hemlock
That's why not closed
You have to manually add the reflection there
That group can also be used to represent the set of linear automorphisms of the finite dimensional vector spaces over the field it's on.
Riku
I don't know about if this group "deserves" the name but that's one reason it might have this name
wtf is an automorphism
3 weeks in
first course
No i mean what are you guys reading
Ok hmm have you studied Linear Algebra seperately before or this is the first time
real answer: giving standard names to things that come up often allows mathematicians to talk about these things and have readers understand what they’re talking about at a glance rather than having to redefine them over and over again
^^
You're right to a certain extent but not exactly
Automorphism is a map from an algebraic structure to itself, which also preserves certain properties of the structure.
Basically a "homomorphism from one to itself, which is one-one and onto"
Not only bijections, it's also a group homomorphism
When I said Linear automorphism, I meant automorphism of a vector space
yah
You'll get there when you read Matrices and Vector spaces
important: in order to be an automorphism you also need the inverse map to be a homomorphism (this is guaranteed for groups and finite dimensional vector spaces but is not true for any structure in general. you can ignore this point if you currently find it to be too pedantic)
Wait, really?
so basically just an isomorphism to itself
yeah
is there any intuitive way or standard example of thinking about automorphisms
that i can get some intution of
i.e., for permutations f: X --> X
I can tihnk of some small set of integers
1,2,3,4
and some permutation could be just switching all elements around
2,3,1,4
etc
yeah the automorphisms of a set are precisely the permutations of that set
For vector spaces it's easier
Like taking a vector in R^n, and we scale and rotate every possible vector in the space. Whatever you originally had now will morph into something bigger or rotate in some angle, but the shape stays the same
For a set, where there's no other underlying structure, all permutations make up the automorphisms
.
If your automorphisms are "homeomorphisms" or "conformal maps in C" or something like that then maybe yes it's non-trivial
And we need to prove it
Actually for conformal maps between open connected subsets of complex numbers it's automatically true my bad
But yeah
Ok let me actually ask a question that I am trying for the longest time it's probably trivial but I'm missing it
So I have K = C(t), the field of fractions of the polynomial ring on one variable over C. I take f_n(x) = x^n - t to be a polynomial in K[x], and consider the splitting field of f_n to be L_n. When can we guarantee L_n is a cyclic extension, that is the automorphism group is cyclic?
What I know until now is
x^n - t is first of all irreducible over K. This is true because this polynomial is first primitive (it is monic) and hence is irreducible over C(t)[x] iff it is irreducible over C[t, x]. Now we see t \in (t) but not in the square ideal. By Eisenstein, it's irreducible in C[t][x] = C[t,x]. Hence we are done.
Now K is characteristic 0. Hence it's perfect and so, x^n - t is hence seperable.
So, L_n/K is a Galois extension as it's a splitting field of a seperable polynomial.
But what to do after that
What I think we might be able to do (but I don't see exactly how) is to find a certain automorphism of order n.
Because L_n/K is galois and hence seperable, so |Hom_K(L_n, L_n)| = n, the number of distinct roots of f_n
And L_n/K is normal so that's equal to the automorphism group Aut(L_n/K)
So the cardinality of the Galois group is n, hence one automorphism of order n is sufficient to show the group is cyclic.
My question is under what conditions we can find it
I could be very wrong here (i am still trying to get good at galois theory), but how do you know this? Can’t you have a polynomial of degree 5 with the full symmetric group as automorphism group?
I still think it’s true, but you do that by showing computing the degree of the extension L_n/K. I’m going to claim you only need one root of f(x)=x^n - t, call it a, to get the splitting field. Then, multiplying a by the n different nth roots of unity (which are in C), you get n different roots of f (plug them in and get 0), so indeed these are all the roots of f. So,
L_n = K[a]/(a^n - t),
so [L_n : K] = n. Next, this also gives us insight about what the automorphism might be to generate what we think should be a cyclic group. An automorphism is determined by where we send the generator a, and there are n options (so these choices exactly correspond to the n automorphisms). So, try sending a to zeta a, where zeta is a primitive nth root of unity.
It's always cyclic since K has roots of unity
If you fix a root a, it's generated by (e.g.) the automorphism a-> a*xi
Every root is of the form a*xi^k
Ah joseph already said this
You're right that what he said is not sufficient to conclude [L_n:K]=n. You need to do the extra step of showing L_n is simple and then it follows since it's the degree of the min poly of the generator
Hello! Can someone help me with this exercise in Galois theory, I don’t know if I’ve done it correctly and I still can’t grasp exactly what it says….
why is this not closed under multiplication
oh
is it (a+ai)(a+ai)
= a^2 - a^2 = 0 = 0 + 0i
So why does it not have inverses?
Can't I take $\frac{1}{a+bi}$
normalAtmosphericPa=101,325
rationalize to get $\frac{a-ib}{a^2+b^2}$
normalAtmosphericPa=101,325
I completely forgot about that case, thanks to both of you for the explanation
normalAtmosphericPa=101,325
Yes
what's a quick way to check for this?
I know that in any such cycle $\sigma$, I must have 1 foloowed by 4
normalAtmosphericPa=101,325
so WLOG, take $(14a_1a_2...a_k)$ as our cycles, where $k$ is at most 4 (nothing else is fixed)
normalAtmosphericPa=101,325
but then I still have 5x4x3x2 potential choices
Think of sigmas as functions, it might be handy
i am though aren't I
with the cycles lol
is cycles not the best way to go about these?
consider listing all elements:
1 2 3 4 5 6
1 2 3 4 5 6
1 2 3 4 5 6
then map $1\mapsto 4$
normalAtmosphericPa=101,325
in the second --> third row, I can map 1 --> 4 again
but that doesn't preserve 1 --> 4
thus, not closed
yes
Damn I would’ve just said there’s no inverses 
what about this one
can I reason that this is equivalent to consider $S_5$ since it is clearly isomorphic to it
normalAtmosphericPa=101,325
Yeah just show the isomorphism
how
we're mapping cardinality 6 --> cardinality 5
im confused
Not exactly
how is this not closed
...
unless $\sigma$ is a product of non-disjoint cycles
normalAtmosphericPa=101,325
The cardinality of S_5 and this is exactly the same, any counting argument shows that
oops
so on top of checking injectivity and surjectivity, I also need to check multiplicativity for the homomorphism
What you do is, just send every such permutation to a corresponding permutations in S_5, after reenumeration of the elements being permuted
Basically send (a_1 a_2 a_3 4 a_5 a_ 6) to (a_1 a_2 a_3 a_5 a_6)
The latter being a permutation of 5 elements instead of 6
Also, for checking subgroups of S_n, does closure automatically mean that it's a subgroup?
i.e, I don't also need to check other groups axioms: associative
I mean if it's not even a subset i don't think so
You can still show it is a subgroup up to isomorphism, that is
here, they're only checking closure it seems
That is because subgroup is first and foremost also a group
And group needs to have closure
If you don't even have that how can it even be a group
but if it's closed √ ==> do I still need to check associativity? ==> identity? ==> inverse?
wait, so why are odd cycles not closed
is it because we aren't assuming $\sigma$ is composed of disjoint cycles?
normalAtmosphericPa=101,325
i.e., $\sigma=(123)(345)$
normalAtmosphericPa=101,325
Which is equivalently $(12453)$
normalAtmosphericPa=101,325
normalAtmosphericPa=101,325
(12345)*
(12453) if u multiply them the right way around
oh yeah, the weird convention that fg means gof
I don't know why people would prefer it
idk, fog(x) always meant f(g(x)) to me, so g first and then f
same
i'm not really sure. Whenever i try to think about function composition all that is in my mind is fog
L o L
I always struggle with this directions
It almost seems like we have to read things in RTL style
they called it "star-compositoin" in class
for cycles
Left to right
to emulate multiplication
this is why I read manga, makes it easier.
You don't need to check associativity because if an operation is associative it is also associative when restricted to a subset. To show H is a subgroup it is enough to show that for a, b in H ab^(-1) is also in H. You can derive the existence of identity and inverses from this
gof is read "g after f"
I'm trying to compute $\text{Gal}(\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{1+\sqrt{2}}/\mathbb{Q}).$ So far, what I have done is considered the Galois closure, namely $E^=\mathbb{Q}(\alpha,\beta)$, where $\alpha = \sqrt{1+\sqrt{2}}, \beta = \sqrt{1-\sqrt{2}}.$ Then, I have that this is a Galois extension, so that my automorphisms send $\pm \alpha \to \pm \alpha, \pm \beta,$ which means $\text{Gal}(E^*/\mathbb{Q}) \cong D_8.$ Next, I consider the subgroup lattice of $D_8$, but I can't find an intermediate field for each subgroup, is that fine, or am I messing something up
Zander
what does Gal(L/K) mean when L/K is not Galois? automorphisms of L that fix K?
Yes, this is a standard extension of the definition
You just don't get the usual nice results and you have to keep that in mind
Right, that's why I'm wondering if I'm allowed to do what I did; I got the Klein 4-group
So for 2.8 of Atiyah Macdonald $\mathfrak{m}$ is the maximal ideal of a local ideal $A$, and $M$ is a finitely generated $A$-module. $M/ \mathfrak{m} M$ is also a vector space, and the theorem says that the basis of $M/ \mathfrak{m}$ generates $M$
So my question is, is $\mathfrak{m}M =0$ here? Since $\mathfrak{m}M$ is the zero of $M/ \mathfrak{m}M$ and the way the basis generates 0 should be unique here so that there is only one element in $\mathfrak{m} M$ and it is $0$
unixitary
No, mM is not necessarily zero. The point is that a lift of a basis for M/mM to M is a generating set.
For example just consider A as a module over itself, for instance C[[x]], formal power series in x.
Hey the nilradical ideal N of a ring R is the intersection of all NONZERO prime ideals right? Clearly it's only a subset of the zero ideal iff the ring is reduced.
the zero ideal is only prime if R is an integral domain
Oh so only integral domains have a generic point in their prime spectrum then?
yes
Oh ok thanks
though I guess if the nilradical is prime you could call that a generic point since it is still dense? (someone who knows AG please correct me)
I think it's enough for Spec A to be irreducible
if it's also reduced then it's integral
more generally any closed irreducible subset of a scheme has it's own generic point
The nilradical should be there intersection of all prime ideals. For example C[[x]] has only the primes (x) and 0, and the nilradical is 0.
No, it’s when there’s a minimum prime, which is then the nilradical
Example k[x]/(x^2) with nilradical (x)
And no, it’s all prime ideals
I was playing around with the frobenius map and I got a bit confused, if phi(x) = x^(2p) then phi seems to be ring homomorphism on Z/pZ -> Z/pZ, but (-1) gets mapped to 1, but I thought ring homomorphisms on fields must be injective?
is x mapsto x^(2p) not a ring homomorphism? I was not trying to apply frobenius twice, I just figured the additive property would still work if p was replaced with 2p
No it is t
Is not
Compute some binomial coefficients and see what happens
(6C3) = 6!/3!3! = 5!/3! = 20
Which is not divisible by 3
that clears things up thanks
My prof and book say that this is correct and consistent with permutation compositions; if you apply the permutation compositions left to right instead, then you also have to apply function composition out to in instead.
So if fg = f o g for you, then you would apply permutations right to left
i.e. (12)(13) = (132) if you use normal right-to-left application (as in you have fg(x) = (f o g)(x) = f(g(x)) ).
If F is a finite field and we construct a map phi:F->F by saying phi(x)=x^p when x is in F. Then if I finish proving phi is one-to one, can I say because the field maps to itself( same cardinality) and it is finite, so it is on-to? the second question is if F has characteristic p but F is infinite, we can still prove one-to-one but are not able to prove phi is on-to?
for the last bit you can still prove it is an auto if F is algebraic over F_p though ig
But yes
I am somewhat confused about what is ig? and also, F is algebraic over F^p can prove the map is automorphism?
"i guess"
Well F is always algebraic over F^p
in fact, I am considering x^p in F^p must exist x in F, so it should be on-to. But field is perfect iff characteristic is 0 or characteristic of p that F^p=F. so it seems that all field can be perfect field???
i'm not really sure what your first sentence is saying
I am considering an infinite field of characteristic p, then what will happen?
modify F to be infinte field with characteristic p, and phi(x)=x^p.
Sure I mean not all fields are perfect
It sounds like you're saying every element of F^p is a pth power (which is obvious)
and Idk where you're going from there
my question is, if F is infinite field with characteristic p, and we still construct phi: F->F and write phi(x)=x^p. Then we can still prove phi is one-to-one here and on-to? if we can, it seems that F=F^P and this infinite field with characteristic p is perfect field, but it seems contradicts the theory
No we can't prove it's onto
there's like the universal example of
F_p(t)
the Frobenius is not surjective
since t is not a pth power
but it maps from field to itself, so can I consider the case Fp(t)->Fp(t)?
yes
I think I understand it,if maps from Q(pi) to Q(pi) as an example, the map must not be surjective
ok, then just saying Zp(t)
That's what I said there yes
r u telling me x -> x^0 isn't a homomorphism :letrollface:
idk if this is trivial but given a topological group, can you embedd it inside a compact topological group?
mmmmh
embed an infinite discrete group?
by definition of embedding I mean an injection G-->X where X is compact, the map should be continuous and the image should be dense in X and homeomorphic to G with the discrete topology
isn't it standard or I'm missing some subtlety?
all of the notions (both of them
) of compactification for a topological group I know of are just a G-set that's also a nice topological space. I can't think of any that are groups themselves
but there must be some way to do this it would be too yucky without
A nice example is with Z, you can embedd it in say Z_p for some p
I think the point here is that the quotients Z/p^kZ are all compact, so the limit is compact
this won't be discrete Z right
it would be Z with the p-adic metric, where 1, p, p^2, ... converges to 0
I've found a fairly nice construction https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bohr_compactification
idk 
the only wrinkle is that you need a nice condition on the finite dimensional unitary representations for the "canonical map" to be injective
and god knows if the image is dense
wow this Bohr guy was a footballer
also bro of Bohr
but this is universal among compact Hausdorff groups, so it's the best you could do right
I suppose, if your hypothetical compact Hausdorff group existed with a nice continous injective homomorphism it would have to factor through this, giving you a continuous injective homomorphism into this space too
that explanation was more for myself than you 
of course, this still leaves non-hausdorff mfs
yeah I was wondering that too
But if Z is given the discrete topology you always have continuous maps to whatever compact Hausdorff group, so Z^Bohr maps to any compact Hausdorff group
#1216202707220566137
is there a way to do this problem non-computationally?
Can anyone help me with this one
All i've been able to do so far is show that f(m) = r * m is injective for nonzero r (this uses torsion free but not PID at all...)
Thought maybe by knowing where r * x_{s+1} would go you might somehow be able to recover where x_{s+1} goes but this doesn't seem like its going to work (for example the above map fails for ZxZ -> 2Zx2Z for r=2)
Are you working with embedding M inside the free module
Yes
So, did you express r x_(s+1) in terms of x_1 .. x_s?
Yes
Then one trick remains
It says “a free module of rank s” for a reason
Which means, you do not need to take x_1, .., x_s as the generators of the free module.
Alternatively, note that you can embed some rM into the free module for some r
Crazy clever. Thanks man
No problem!
Has anyone here ever done any differential Galois theory? I'm stuck on this exercise (right from the first question, I can't see how to use Cauchy's existence theorem), so thanks in advance!
I also have a more specific question. When we look at automorphisms in their matrix form, how can we say that a matrix is in the Galois group? Are there any particular equivalent conditions? Because apart from saying that it sends fundamental matrices over fundamental matrices, I don't really see...
what is L?
L is a Picard-Vessiot extension for the equation
Also which Cauchy theorem do they mean
Cauchy existence thm say that for an ODE in an open U, for every disc in U we have the existence of a fundamental Matrix on U for the equation
Wouldn't that mean that every solution of the ODE (over C) is of form Uv for some v, and therefore the set of those solutions is a subset of the ring of holomorphic (therefore also meromorphic) functions?
why is this part the case
i.e., you have one group generated by a single element, but another group not generated by a single element
why can they not be isomoprhic
isomorphisms preserve every formula without parameters about a structure
in this case, consider the following formula
There exists a x such that every element of the group is of form x^n for some n
Let phi be an isomorphism from G to H where G is generated by a single element but H isn't
And let x be a generator for G
what can you say about phi(x)?
No because after i found explicitely non holomorphic solutions
everything is obvious after you know the answer
what properties do isomorphisms have?
do you know if all the solutions meromorphic?
phi(x^n) = phi(x)^n and phi is surjective
Not necessarily. If we have two independant meromorphic solution f and g then C(x,f,g) is a PV extension thus every solution is of the form Pf+Qg with P and Q rational
isn't Pf+Qg meromorphic?
Yeah i'm stupid 🗿 sry
its okay, me too
In fact i don't know if the answer is for exemple an argument on analytic continuation or if we can cover C by disk and then patch the solution (i dont know how) together to form a full solution
Like, if we cover C by disks and at each intersections of those (id don't know if my sentence is correct i'm don't really good in english) we can say that is a sort of pole
the set of poles has to be discrete
i don't think you can cover the plane with disks such that the intersections form a discrete subset
maybe #real-complex-analysis would be a better place to ask
I just don't know if even someone has worked with this theorem ahah
Ok the thm is in fact more precise. For every disk of radius R, D(0,R) in U, we have the existence of a fundamental matrix composed of holomorphic function on D(0,R)
yeah im bad at complex analysis so im prob missing something obvious but i dont see how to construct a solution in the whole plane from that
I don't know if it's correct. But, If we have two disks suppose that they are centered at 0 for exemple of radius r and R st r<R. Then we have the existence of a solution on D(O,R) and on D(O,r). But the solution D(0,R) must come from a solution on D(0,r). Thus for any solution in D(0,r) we can extend it as much as we want in the complex plane ? Or an other idea is to cover C by disks wich intersect each other in an open subset of C. Then for each we have the existence of an holomorphic solution in this disk, It is then also defined in the other disk which intersects the first because it is defined on the intersection and so on we have the existence of an entire solution in C. (The Cauchy thm say that we have the existence of a fundamental matrix, thus we have in fact two independant entire solutions, f and g, thus C(x,f,g,f',g') is a PV extension and a subfield of the field of meromorphic function)
yeah but if you have a solution on D(O,R) what guarantees there will be a solution on D(O,R') for (all) R'>R?
you can make them smaller but idk how to make them larger
I think the second argument is better
why do we have an holomorphic solution in those disks?
By the Cauchy theorem
I think we have to see it in reverse for this one. Any solution defined on a disk D(0,R) comes from a solution defined on a D(0,R') with R'>R and therefore any solution defined on any disk can be extended on a disk of any size
i dont see how that implies any solution can be extended to a disk of any size
its consistent with that that there are solutions on D(0,R) that can't be extended to a solution in D(0,R') for some R'>R
we just have to find two of them
The thm say that for any disk D(0,R) we have the existence of two solutions on it. Thus for D(0,R'), two solutions on it, come from two solution of D(0,R)
And we have the existence for any size of disk
how do you rule out the possibility that there are solutions in every disk D(0,R) but not in the whole complex plane?
A function is defined on C if it is defined on every disk D(0,R) R>0
we need a family of solutions f_R such that f_R and f_R' agree on D(0,min(R,R')) then
i don't see how to get that
Otherwise the argument with the cover is perhaps clearer, I don't know
just to give an example of a similar example where this doesn't work
for every D(0,R) there are non-constant holomorphic functions bounded by 1 in D(0,R)
but there isn't one in the whole complex plane
We have it directly by the thm i think
for every disk D(0,R') we have the existence of two solutions f,g, then their restriction to D(0,R) are solutions in this open subset
f_R=f_R'|R
otherwise i have an other idea ahah
the problem is at infinity
If we make the change of variable x to 1/x, we have the existence of a solution near 0 by the cauchy theorem
Then this is a solution near infinity
Hello! What do you think of this true or false question: if K is an extension of F of degree 30 then there exist a,b,c in K where K=F(a,b,c)?
I’m thinking that if a,b,c are linearly dependent then it’s always true
But I can’t think of a counterexample that would make it false assuming linear independence
If they are linearly independant, then, [K:F]=[K:F(a,b)][F(a,b):F]=[K:F(a,b)][F(a,b):F(a)][F(a):F]
no ?
presumably it'll be to do with 30 = 2 * 3 * 5
so by the tower law, the problem is more or less equivalent to saying: if K/F is an extension of degree p, is K = F(a) for some a
and that is indeed the case
With p being prime?
Yeah
More rigorously, you can pick random a in K which isn't in F. Then F(a)/F is of degree > 1 and hence [K:F(a)] is only divisible by two primes (or fewer)
Then do the same game with K/F(a) instead (i.e. use induction)
:)
Does that make sense?
Hmmm yeah I think I get it! So either [F(a):F] is going to be one of 2,5,3 or some product of them. And then [K:F(a)] is what remains, either a prime again or a product of the two remaining….
Yeah exactly
Basically by induction on $n$ you can show that if $[K:F]$ is a product of $n$ distinct primes then $K = F(\alpha_1,\dots,\alpha_n)$ for some $\alpha_1,\dots,\alpha_n$
Süßkartoffel
Oh yeah that seems like a useful result! Thanks for the feedback!
in R=Z4[x], can you figure out a factorization x=f(x)*g(x) in which neither f(x) nor g(x) is a constant?
How to show the polynomial X^n+X+3 is irreductible over Q
oh this sounds fun
It's easier, I think, just to find a two nonconstant units in R
I've managed to get 2x 
2x+1 and 2x^2+x i think that works
Hello! Does this seem correct to you? I haven’t solved a similar exercise before and I couldn’t find something online
Thanks!
:3c
Probably alternating group?
ok i will look it up thank you
it's definitely the alternating group
\
Try not to use GPT since people here don’t really trust it (for good reason)
It’s also against the rules
oh my bad
it's against the rules to use it to answer other people's questions
ye it really is
I'm actually very surprised chatgpt can even produce mathfrak letters
for definitions i find it ok tho
i think you're better off just googling things
Some definitions are hard to find online
Ever used it for TikZ?
Coding is one thing it is great at
Tho ig its probably hard for chatgpt to know them either
A modern commutative diagram editor with support for tikz-cd.
i wonder if chatgpt knows what 1-complementable means or P-hard
tbh I don't know what those mean
i also didnt, and it wasnt easy to find what they mean using web search
something something complexity theory probably(?)
P-hard yes
But its hard to find a reference defining it
Oh i found one. Yesterday i had more trouble finding it for some reason https://cstheory.stackexchange.com/questions/8041/problems-outside-of-p-that-are-not-p-hard
Maybe cuz i was looking at PP-hard rather than P-hard
If I have a ring hom g:R->S and x not a zero divisor in R does it follow that g(x) is not a zero divisor?
3 mod 3 is 0 not 1
if you mean over Z/2Z, then write f(x) = x^n+x+1 then use fermat's little theorem to reduce the x^n down
Maybe try unpacking the definition a bit.
What does it mean for g(x) to be a zero divisors. It means that there is some y such that g(x)y = 0.
If there is no such y in R, can you always expect there not to be one in S?
I am idiot omg
it's ok boss we all make silly mistakes
you were on the right track just with the wrong prime
Haha thx:)))
there's a nice choice for S and g that make this very explicit, my hint is: ||matrix||
how do you show this gives G^* the structure of a topological group
T is the circle group
inversion is clearly continuous
because x in P(K, U) iff 1/x in P(K, 1/U) where 1/U={1/u : u in U}, and inversion is continuous in T
but for multiplication, you would want to show that if f(x,y)=xy then f^{-1} P(K,U) is a product of open sets in G^*
mmh maybe it's better to try to show that every point in f^{-1} P(K, U) is an interior point, by finding some neighborhood that still makes it work, and I assume that's where you also have to use compactness of K
Maybe it's something along the lines:
- Suppose x,y in G^* are such that x(k)y(k) in U for ever k in K.
- Consider z in P(K, U'), then you would want to be able to find U' such that z(k)x(k)y(k) in U still. And I think you can do that because K is compact
well, xy just belongs to P(K, U). So say f in P(K, U) then you want to find U' such that if g in P(K, U') then fg in P(K, U)
unless I'm clowning
I forgot to say, you want U' to be a neighborhood of the identity
you mean wrong channel
https://discordapp.com/channels/268882317391429632/1055183210444763205 (animal noises thread in #cats )
maybe it's just true that if K is compact in an open U then you can find open V such that KV subseteq U
what does it mean for a group G to be albainian? , all elements of G are from albainia?
Yeah
is it true that if U is open there exists V open such that UV subseteq U
like that should be from continuity of multiplication right
UV={uv such that u in U and v in V}
Okay sure
UV = the stuff that comes out of the sun
lol it wasn't that funny
det doesn't see this if U is like not compact
for compact U, we have U x G --> G and U x {e} maps into U, so by tube lemma U x V maps into U for some V nbhd of e
the map f : G x G-->G defined by f(x,y)=xy is continuous, consider the inverse f^{-1} U which should be open, say U_1 x U_2 with U_1, U_2 open, then consider (U cap U_1) x U_2 ?
you don't need U2 inside U
even the tiniest V say (-eps, eps) will make U+V larger than U
mmh true
ok yeah I wasn't paying attention to what the open sets in the product are
idk why I assumed they had to be rectangles of the form U1 x U2 with U1,U2 open which is untrue
anyway, det will go eep
bump
sleep well
If R is a domain and the map a->a/1 is an isomorphism, then R is field. I am confused why we can get conclusion that R is a field?
Wdym
They’re basically saying “if R and Frac(R) are isomorphic, then R is a field”
That makes intuitive sense right?
So given the map: R-> Frac(R), it assumes that every a in R maps to every a/1 in Frac(R), where a/1 in frac(R) have the inverse, so a has the inverse in R. is that true?
Well we know a/1 has an inverse in Frac(R), written as …
And if we omit the condition: R->Frac(R), just saying R is domain and map:a->a/1, then R is not a field?
yes, we know this, 1/a so I want to confirm if we omit the condition map: R->Frac(R)
I’m confused by your question
The theorem says:
Hypothesis. R is a domain, and the map f:R —> Frac(R) where f(a) = a/1 is an isomorphism.
Conclusion. R is a field.
What condition are you trying to omit?
trying to omit the map f:R->Frac(R), probably modify it as R->R' where R'={a/1|a in R}
You’re inventing this new set R’. Are you claiming it’s a field? What are its operations?
R' should be the subring of frac(R) I believe.
Okay it’s a subset of Frac(R), sure, and I believe it’s a subring as well
Okay fine
So what is your new theorem?
Is this what you’re trying to claim?
Hypothesis. R is a domain, and the map f:R —> R’ where f(a) = a/1 is a ring isomorphism.
Conclusion. R is a field.
this is the theorem I ask, I want to know if it is still true to argue R' is a field, or it is not
it seems to me that if we don't say map R to a frac(R), then what will happen to R, still a field or not
just let R map to other set
Consider decomposing an even permutation into transpositions, then using what you know about sign and then go case-by-case
We know R’ is not a field in general. Consider the domain Z, and now consider Z’ = {n/1 : n in Z} as a subring of Frac(Z). This structure Z’ is definitely not a field, since there are no multiplicative inverses.
im thinking, is there anything else that may be useful in the long lecture notes
and maybe try some easy examples
like the identity
(1 ..... n) (1 ,,,, n) ... (1... n) }n times
or try (123)
in fact decoming a transposition would be pretty useful
probably
post it here
How do you express (12)(3) as a product of three-cycles
?
(12) is not even
Steve Backshots
Oh oh
you're being a bit inconsistent with notation
you mean (a_1 b_1 c_1) = (a_1 a_2 a_3) right
also, comparing images, a_1 should map to a_2 according to the lhs, but the far rhs shows that a_1 is mapped to itself right? a_1 -> a_n -> a_1
a_2 -> a_3 so that works
again a_3 -> a_3
wait
right
im trying to sanity check myself by finding the inverse image of a_2
hold on
a_2 doest get mapped to a_3
it gets mapped to itself
right
what is the standard proof that the Frobenius map generates all automorphisms on finite fields?
Steve Backshots
what does commute refer to in commutative diagrams
normally, I think of 'commute' as meaning ab=ba
to refer to some binary operation
i.e., the ordering of the operands are interchangeable
what about $A \circ B = D = A \circ C$
Kakaka
isn't that what is instead implied in the "commutative" diagram?
Yeah I think this is (a bit of) conflation of terminology
You have a composition A -> C -> D and A -> B -> D
so they're using a second definition fo "commute" ?
i.e., equivalent compositions
Then are commutative diagrams only used for showing equivalent function compositions?
Yes, mostly.
It is also good for illustrating what is going on, I think
(Though, it is quite abstract)
why the same name 
Fwiw,
so many close synonyms they could've chosen
You can think of the "left multiplication by a" as an oprtation L_a
Then, commutativity means L_a \circ L_b = L_b \circ L_a.
ohh
and then for the square example
I can create a singleton set A={1}
and make D = {ab}
√
You can think of this as saying that the operation of"going right" in this diagram commutes with the operation of "going down"
Right then down or down then right you get the same map
Yeah but usually for group commutativity, A = B = C = D = G
I'm trying to show that if I,J are relatively prime ideals of a ring R, then I^n, J^n are also relatively prime. I've mostly tried to write an arbitrary element x of the ring as a product i_1i_2+j_1j_2 given that x=i_1+j_1, but this has been pointless
R is not necessarily commutative
Arbitrary element could be harder. You know one specific element is enough for this, right
I guess you mean 0?
0 is always in any ideal
What good is the fact that 1 is in I^2+J^2? The whole ring is not necessarily generated by 1
A subset I of R so that 0 is in I, aI is in I for all a in R, and i+j is in I for i,j in I
(left ideals at least)
a * 1 = a
Ah yes I am stupid
Happens to best of us
The thing is I can't come up with any useful element of I^2+J^2
Going to be quite technical, I think
If i+j=1, then (1+j)i+j(1-i)=1 but that's not in I^2+J^2 (and the most useful observation I had)
My other idea was something something binomial expansion of (i+j)^n, because that will be equal to 1, but it is again not in I^2+J^2 because of all the coefficients not equal to 1
Still good to try, though.
Unless I've misunderstood, it's a dead end because in Z we have 1=3*5-2*7 which is in (5)+(7), but (3*5-2*7)^2=9*25-2*3*5*2*7+4*49 , which one would be excused for believing is not in (25)+(49)
So square does not work; how about cubic?
absolutely bizarre that that works
Relatively prime is equivalent to the statement that no maximal (prime) ideal contains both. Show that the maximal (primes) containing I^n and I are the same
Okay you said not necessarily commutative, so I’m not sure anymore, but probably this works using maximal 2-sides ideals
I realise the book probably intended for R to be commutative
What book
Lang's Undergraduate Algebra
Okay well in that case prove what I said
But I suspect it works without that assumption too
Yeah I think I see it both ways now. Thanks @cobalt heath @next obsidian
Hi chmuwu 
Hi tububuwu
Something cool, but basic:
- Note that for finite groups, by Lagrange's theorem if a subgroup has size > 1/2 then it must be the whole group. (There are also generalizations using haar measures)
- Suppose you have a group G and a way to test if elements are in a subgroup H, and want to know if H=G. Here's a probabilistic test: test n randomly chosen elements, and if they're all in H then H=G with probability at most 2^{-n}.
Don't know if it's "the standard proof". But GF(q^n)/GF(q) is a degree n Galois extension, and the Frobenius map has order n. Hence it generates the entire Galois group.
These elementary probability results about groups are very cute. I like the 5/8ths theorem as well
can’t you stricten the bound to sqrt(n) for the first bullet point?
n can have divisors larger than sqrt(n)
3 divides 6 and 3 > sqrt(6)
Do you mean probability at least 1-2^{-n}?
ah yeah we need like a factor of 2 or something
or we’ll actually if we go up to sqrt(n) we know all the divisors since they come in pairs, but i see the point now
is there any way to prove without galois theory?
Hey, i have a question about this exercise (question 19) find a generator of the polynomial relation. I just have to find one relation ? Because i found one but it seems weird to me
And after i found lambda by evaluating at 0
This is a chapter 1.2 on dihedral group in dummit and Foote - they don’t specify what r and s are so I’m kinda confused
Like if s is a symmetry why does it have order 2?
s is the reflection element
So you can kind of think of it as flipping twice gets you back to where you started
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sylow_theorems#Fusion_results:~:text=1)2.-,Since%20q%C2%A0%3D%C2%A0pnm%C2%A0%2B%C2%A01,-%2C%20the%20order%20of how do they get the highlighted part
proceeds to not provide a proof of something not intuitive at all
i get the finite case
I'm just trying to explicitly describe the bijection
$\coprod_{g \in G}{X^g} = \coprod_{x \in X}{\mathrm{Stab}(x)}$
Mizlang
yeah, I don't get it either
p = 1 mod q => q is a divisor of p-1, completely contradicting it being larger than p
I mean the question is fundamentally a Galois theory question, but if you just unpack some definitions you don't have to use the word 'Galois'.
Another thing you can do, is use that the multiplicative group of GF(q^n) is cyclic, and let x be a generator. Then GF(q)(x) = GF(q^n) so x has a minimal polynomial of degree n, and any automorphism is uniquely determined by where x is mapped. Thus there can be at most n automorphisms, so powers of Frobenius is everything.
how the fuck do I even interpret this problem
Jacobson understand the exercise challenge (impossible)
this is just counting the number of elements in a S_n conjugacy class I HOPE
so can be done entirely combinatorially
the point is that the elements r and s are just that, symbols, but their relation with each other is what represents the dihedral group
does the definition change if we instead require “at least one of a^n and b to be in I for some natural n”
I feel like it shouldn’t, but I don’t see why
Ok yeah I got it - didn’t realize s was a symmetry and that r was a rotation
And basically their point is that you can’t perform any number of rotations to cause a symmetry
Yeah - by symmetry I meant it line folding over a line
Reflection is a better word for it
lol I understand the problem now only after finding the solution combinatorially and realizing what it asked for
Jacobson: understanding the problem is the problem and the solution is the solution
haha yeah.
The context is commutative rings right, so that would just be relabeling which one you call a and which you call b
Left-primary ideal
An idiot (mizalign)'s odyssey through jacobson
If $\phi,\psi\c A\to B$ are isomorphisms of rings (commutative and with unity) are such that $\sqrt{(\phi(a))}=\sqrt{(\psi(a))}$ for all $a\in A$ does it follow that $\phi=\psi$?
croqueta3385
This is an interesting question. Can you ping me when you figure it out?
sure
mmh
It's false I think
like consider k[x]/(x^2), then you have two isomorphisms given by sending x to x and another one by sending x to -x
the only radical ideal is in fact (x) and (1), so it works
@vivid tiger
ye
Thanks!
oh you're right I thought it was for rings without assuming commutativity
if R is a ring and I=(x) is the principal ideal in R[x] generated by x, then prove R[x]/I isomorphic to R. I am considering a ring homomorphism phi: from R[x] to R given by f(x)->f(alpha) where alpha is a real numbers. Then use the first isomorphism theorem to argue that R[x]/ker(phi) isomorphism to im(phi). The question is do I have to argue why im(phi)=R? if it is necessary, I can argue that im(phi) is a set containing analpha^n+...a1alpha+a0, and these elements are real numbers, is that adequate?
it's pretty obvious that evaluating the constant functions on alpha gives you all of R
so the map is surjective
you'd need to pick a specific alpha for the kernel to be correct though
then if I modify it as f(x) to f(1), will it be correct?
then I can just argue that im(phi)=R, since it is just a constant functions on 1
x is not in the kernel of this map
then how will you construct the ring map here?
then I can write it as f(x) to a0 right?
I want to prove the correspondence theorem of a ring
The second question: I argue the isomorphism phi: R/I->image(phi) given by r+I->phi(r). but I feel confused why we can have the isomorphism between R/I and S/J given by r+I->phi(r)+J as well ?
Do you know the existence of the natural map from R to R/I?
You can prove that the mapping from R-> S/J has kernel I and it's surjective mapping
R -> S -> S/J
Surjective as a composition of surjective maps, kernel is I
Then apply 1st iso
Riku more like miku

Mbmb let me think
Wut
What I was proposing as alternative is not correct
What is the map S -> S/J
I thought you’re saying you induce maps R/I -> S/J and backwards
And then show they’re inverse
My plan was R/I -> S by universal prop, uniquely determined
The go to S/J from S somehow
You don’t get a map R/I -> S
There is a map which is like x -> x mod J
No such map exists
Why not

