#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 215 of 1
Yes
yea I presume if this is for HW you'll write up up clearer not too worried about that here
No this is not HW
Yes
question,
given a field extension over k, k(a)
let a be algebraic
we know that like
k(a) is isomorphic to k[x]/(f(x)) (f minimal poly of a)
and we know the isomorphism
i dont understand why it implies this
wait ohhhh
it just clicked im dumb
one of those - properly phrase the question then it hits moments
đŠ moment
For Vector space V we take V as a group under + operation so this + operation is notation? It can be multiplication, composition? Right?
It can be anything as long as it satisfies the vector space axioms
In wikipedia it says a Dedeking domain is an integral domain in which every nonzero proper ideal factors into a product of prime ideals.
Why do they say "nonzero"?
Doesn't (0) factor as (0) which is prime in an integral domain?
You don't have uniqueness if you permit the zero ideal
I know
Thank you
See the very next sentence:
It can be shown that such a factorization is then necessarily unique up to the order of the factors.
So we need the ideals to be nonzero :)
Is there a generalization of Dedekind domains to non integral domains? So a commutative ring where every ideal factors (not necessarily uniquely) as a product of prime ideals?
a relatively common example is (0, \infty) with multiplication as the 'addition', and exponentiation as the scalar 'multiplication', which forms a real vector space
where by 'common' I actually mean it is the only one I can remember ever seeing and not common
Yes I saw this therefore I asked, thank you
Let A be a free module and P be a projective module. Then if we have a map f: A \to P that is onto, by definition there is a map g: P \to A such that gf = id_P. Now I am asked to show that A is iso to im f \oplus ker g. How can I approach this
To me it seems like ker g is just 0, otherwise how could the composition be the identity?
do you know about short exact sequences
yes
ok so we have a sequence 0 -> ker f -> A -> P -> 0 with the last -> being split as you correctly identified
That should be ker f (+) im g, since those are the things in A
hmm ic
now excuse me as I try and remember how this proof goes
ah yeah
define a map h : ker f (+) im g -> A with h(k, p) = i(k)+g(p) where i is the map ker f -> A
h is injective as h(k, p) = 0 => i(k)+g(p) = 0 => f(i(k))+f(g(p)) = 0 => f(i(k)) + p = 0 => p = 0 (as img i = ker f). So we have to also have that i(k) = 0 => k = 0 by injectivity of i.
I've forgotten how surjectivity goes
damn it
jagr if you could fill in the surjectivity proof I'd much apprechiate it. I have to go to a seminar now lol
Nerd
slightly confusing. So Im g lies in A, and then you are sending elements in A with g, but g's domain is P
For x in A
f(x - gf(x)) = f(x) - fgf(x) = f(x) - f(x) = 0
So x - gf(x) is in ker f, and gf(x) is in the image of g hence
x = (x - gf(x)) + gf(x)
alright i see. also found this nice
Splitting lemma my beloved
Yeah we were just proving 2 => 3
I guess that proves 1 => 3 by dualising right
Well okay
Not quite
If we prove it in a general abelian category then yes
you're so stinky it's unreal
and I presume you mean 1 => 3? I don't see 1 => 2
Yes typo sorry
fair play
Do directed unions and directed intersections of ideals of a ring commute?
More precisely, suppose $D_1, D_2$ are directed sets and $I_{s,t}$ is an ideal of a fixed ring $R$ for every $s \in D_1, t \in D_2$ such that $I_{s_1,t} \subseteq I_{s_2,t}$ whenever $s_1 \geq s_2$, while $I_{s,t_1} \subseteq I_{s,t_2}$ whenever $t_1 \leq t_2$.
Raghuram
I guess these are like codirected intersections
are "directed unions" a weird name for colimits
Directed colimits
so colimits but over (N, \leq) got it
For subobjects of algebraic structures, this is the usual ânot category theoryâ terminology
.
This should be false
Then we have the ideals
$$ I = \bigcup_{t \in D_2} \bigcap_{s \in D_1} I_{s,t},\qquad J = \bigcap_{s \in D_1} \bigcup_{t \in D_2} I_{s,t}. $$
Raghuram
Pure set theory shows that $I \subseteq J$ (in fact, this is true without any directedness assumption, replacing $\bigcup$ with $\sum$).
My question is about the converse.
Raghuram
but tring to come up with an explicit counterexample lol
Hmmm.
if you take I_{a,b} = 2^{a-b} Z
Then uh
$\bigcup_b \bigcap_a I_{a,b} = \bigcup_b 0 = 0$
but
SĂŒĂkartoffel
$\bigcap_a \bigcup_b I_{a,b} = \bigcap_a \mathbb Z = \mathbb Z$
SĂŒĂkartoffel
I think this is a valid example
IG even though we have gotten to unions rather than sums, x in I requires a single t to work for all s, whereas x in J allows t to depend on s.
Oh and for mine
Yes, realised.
Cool
Hmm.
But yeah this is like
Sad.
finite limits commute with filtered colimits (in particular directed ones)
But when you get to the infinite case on both sides, it breaks down
Does it hold if $D_1$ is the set of finite subsets of some set $X$ and $I_{{x_1, \dots, x_n}, t} = I_{{x_1}, t} \dotsm I_{{x_n}, t}$ (i.e., the directed intersection is of finite products of a family of ideals for each $t \in D_2$)?
Raghuram
(Probably not, but let me try to break this too.)
Ooh, this might actually work (for Z?).
Let's say X = N and I_{s, {t}} is independent of t; so that the inner intersections are \cap_n I_s^n.
Then, in a Noetherian integral domain, the inner intersections are R if I_s = R and 0 otherwise (Krull intersection theorem IIRC).
Thus I = R if some I_s = R and 0 if all I_s are proper.
OTOH, the inner union \cup_s I_s^n is equal to (\cup_s I_s)^n (using directedness). So again in the intersection, we get R if some I_s = R and 0 otherwise.
Oh, we can still achieve this if we let I_{{m}, b} = Z for m <= b and 2Z otherwise (X = D_2 = non-negative integers).
Again inner intersections are 0 but inner unions are Z.
So that's quite thoroughly false IG.
R/I isn't an ideal of R so how we doing this quoti- and there they go
SORRY
apology.... accepted.... :thecosmoshumswithatunemostsweet:
If R is a ring, I, J ideals with J containing I, is the image of J under the quotient map R -> R/I isomorphic to J/I ?
should be
try and construct the obvious map here and then show it's an isomorphism
I wish you'd use tex instead of monospace đ it's so much harder to read
It's not even hard in this case, you'd just write $ whenever you're currently writing `, and the only change is \to instead of ->
I find the monospace very readable actually
in other cases
I'll meet you halfway and use half tex half monospace
I'm stuck on this problem, I just cannot figure out an approach. It seems like you just need to do the obvious thing and map the simple tensors to the simple tensors, but I don't know if that's right or if I am completely misunderstanding something.
Have you tried it?
Yes but I'm not sure how to show that doing that actually makes a homomorphism, am I just overthinking it?
I mean it seems obvious
Are you maybe forgetting that a map out of N (x) M is determined by a bilinear map out of N x M?
You know, the universal property
This should be the first thing you think of whenever you want to work with tensor products btw
ok
$V_i, X \in \mathrm{Obj}(\mathrm{Vect}_\mathbb{K})$. Let's assume I is infinite as otherwise the results are clear to me. Could someone explain the intuition behind the first isomorphism to me? On the LHS we have morphisms where the domain is the external direct sum of vector spaces, so the vectors we take from it are zero at almost every coordinate. On the RHS we have vectors of linear maps that can be non-zero at every coordinate. It's super counter-intuitive to me
Thingoln
If I have a bunch of maps all going into the same thing, I can take finite sums of them if I have some finite number of things in the domains of the maps.
That's the intuition of the first isomorphism to me.
Remember, you can't take infinite sums in a typical module!
On the left Vi is a subspace of the direct sum for each i (by just having all other coordinates be 0). So to specify a map you necessarily have to specify it on all the Vi.
And since you can take finite sums, you don't have to specify it more than that.
For example let Vi = V be some fixed space and let X also be V.
Then we can define a map that just sums all the coordinates together. This map is nonzero on each Vi, so corporesponds to an infinite product of nonzero maps in ProdHom(Vi, V)
I'm afraid I don't understand this construction. Let's say that $I = V_i = \mathbb{K} = \mathbb{R}$. Let $\varphi \in \prod_{i \in I} \mathrm{Hom}(V_i, X)$ satisfy $\varphi(i) = \mathrm{id}\mathbb{R}$ for all $i \in I$. Which morphism from $\mathrm{Hom}(\bigoplus{i \in I} V_i, X)$ would correspond to it?
Thingoln
Oh, would it be simply $V_i \mapsto \mathrm{id}_\mathbb{R}$?
Thingoln
Wait, no. That doesn't make sense. I need to map Vi to something from the field
So given functions fi: Vi -> X for all i. What you do is apply fi to each coordinate, then sum everything together.
The reason you are able to sum the coordinates together is that almost all of them are 0.
For example if Vi = X = R as you said and all the maps are identity then
(1, 0, 0, ...) maps to 1
(0, 1, 0, ...) also maps to 1
(0, 0, 1, 0, ...) also maps to 1 and so on.
(1, 1, 0, ...) maps to 1+1 = 2
(1, 0, 2, 0, ...) maps to 1+2 = 3
What if I have two morphisms from the RHS: one that is the identity at the first coordinate, the zero map at the second; and another one, that is the zero map at the first coordinate and the identity map at the second. Other than that, those two morphisms are the same. Won't they correspond to the same morphism from the LHS?
I feel like what I've said is stupid lol Because on the LHS we could "specify the first coordinate" by just checking what happens at the argument V_1
No, one will map (1, 0, 0,...) to 0, while the other would map (0, 1, 0, ...) to 0.
Consider the following:
- Every field of characteristic p contains F_p as a subfield
- Q is of characteristic 0
- Q = F_0
Thank you all for your time
I'm down with that convention. Now we just need a nice canonical choice of F_(0^2)
What is F_n when n is not a prime?
Let's go with the product of F_p^k where p^k apears in the decomposition of n
Oh I see
thanks
I mean, that's not something someone actually defines, just while we're extending the F_n notation...
Yes but it makes sense to extend it like this, at least in the lecture notes I'm reading
I think I'm still confused. Elements from the RHS can have an infinite number of non-zero coordinates because we're taking the Cartesian product of the spaces of morphisms, so we can't sum them
I'm so sorry. I guess it's pretty straightforward and I just can't see it
Your not summing the maps, your summing the values you get when you apply the maps to each coordinate
We want F_n to be a field of order n, so it most certainly doesn't make sense to extend it to all n since there is usually no such field.
My joke above isn't consistent with this, it's just a joke after all
Going back to the example, you agree
(1, 0, 0, ...) can map to anything right?
Similarly
(0, 1, 0, ...) You should be able to map wherever
and also (0, 0, 1, ...)
Would it be reasonable that at some point you're forced to map all the remaining basis vectors to 0? Or could you specify somewhere for each to be maped?
Those are elements of $\bigoplus_{i \in I} V_i$, right?
Thingoln
I want to say yes because vectors from this space are zero almost everywhere, but at the same time I feel like it's more subtle than I think. For example, each V_i can be of infinite dimension and we need to map every vector from its basis to something
But just by looking at the construction of the direct sum, yes. We take the zero vector from almost all vector spaces we sum
So two things to think about:
If Vi=R=X, is the function where we just sum all the coordinates a linear map?
Is there some i for which this maps (0, 0, ..., 0, 1, 0, ...) (1 in position i) to 0?
If the you answer yes to the first and no to the second, then you see that this is specifies a nonzero map for each Vi
So is it clear then?
The construction yes
Okay, riiiight. All that matters is the values of the map at (0, ..., 1, ..., 0, ...) because if the domain consists of only finite linear combinations of these vectors, then they make for the basis
Well, maps Vi -> X
Or less chaotically. Let $B_i$ be a basis of $V_i$. Then $\prod_{i \in I} (B_i \to X)$ is a basis $\mathrm{Hom}(\bigoplus_{i \in I} V_i, X)$
Thingoln
If we sum the coordinates*
If we don't, then that's a basis of the other space of morphisms
Or maybe not, lol. I need to think about it
let q: R -> R/I be the quotient map. Then the map f: q(J) -> J/I that sends j + I to j + I the bijection? That feels so weird to write
maybe...
Ok yea that guy is obviously an iso
It's q restricted to J
N.b., what kind of isomorphism do you mean?
It is equal to J/I, so you don't need to discuss isomorphism in any case
LMAO
ok
I've officially lost it
whats a good way to show something isn't a field
y^2 = 0 so you have zero divisors
More generally R/I is a field iff I is a maximal idea
By using the definition 
Assuming R is commutative and then you just do a one line proof using the correspondence theorem
But yeah like, the usual observation is the presence of zero divisors
You're saying that y^2 + (y^2, x^3 - 17) = (y^2, x^3 - 17) ?
Ok yeah
The important part of that is that y is not zero in the quotient
Right, cuz y is in y + (y^2, x^3 - 17) but isn't in (y^2, x^3 - 17)
The actual problem I was solving asked me to determine if (x^3 - 17, y^2) is maximal in C[x, y]/(y^2 + x^3 - 17), and I reduced it to this
You reduced then un-reduced it...
This is equivalent to seeing that (y, y^2, x^3 - 17) is a larger nontrivial ideal
y^2 is in an ideal generated by, amongst other things, y^2 
wait is thta the batman chess guy

It's him
Trying to think of an element not in (x - 1, y - 4) so that after adding it the ideal stays nontrivial
Theyâre from the âset of integersâ
This is also in C[x, y]/(y^2 + x^3 - 17)
Egads⊠the quotient structureâŠ.
Wait is it a comma or a +
Uhhhhhhhh
- I typoed the first time

So you need to redo the previous argument.
I'm gonna sleep so I leave this to you.
My previous argument went like this:
- let
R = C[x, y]/(y^2 + x^3 - 17). (y^2, x^3 - 17)inRis just(y^2, x^3 - 17)/(y^2 + x^3 - 17)since(y^2, x^3 - 17)contains(y^2 + x^3 - 17)- so
R/((y^2, x^3 - 17)/(y^2 + x^3 - 17)) = C[x, y]/(y^2, x^3 - 17) - then I argued
C[x, y]/(y^2, x^3 - 17)is not a field by showingy^2as nonzero withybeing nonzero
Ok, thanks for the help today
Ideal correspondence theorem tell you that it is equivalent to look for whether (y^2 + x^3 - 17, x-1, y-4) (y^2 + x^3 - 17, x+1, y+4), (y^2 + x^3 - 17, x^3 - 17, y^2) are maximal in C[x, y]. Is this ok?
Now argue that each of the quotients are finite dimensional over C
Finite algebras over C can only be fields if they are one dimensional over C, since C is algebraically closed.
This is a kind of a conversational question, but Iâm unsure how itâs supposed to be with exercises and abstract alg
For context Iâm going off of Jacobson. Most of the exercises take me a comparatively long time to do. They take around 10-15 minutes each to process sometimes, and donât come as they should immediately. Is this how itâs supposed to be going off of a textbook? Sometimes I have to look them up and the answers rather obvious
That's normal
I havenât really âstruggledâ with math related concepts before, so Iâm wondering if itâs just not a good route for me, or itâs a good thing to be challenged
I enjoy it nonetheless
15 minutes is not a long time to do an exercise lol
no they're saying it takes 15 minutes to just understand what they're asking you to do
Sometimes
Oooh đ» math is hard oooh
there's a particular exercise in Fulton Harris which I'm pretty sure I still haven't fully proceed 2 years later
It takes a bit to process though 90% of the time itâs a difference in terminology in D&F versus Jacobson
Usually I get what itâs trying to say, just canât immediately think of a route to do it
As per my last email,
Versus analysis where I usually can even for problems ahead of where Iâm supposed to be
But I wonder if thatâs a good thing, to be challenged in that way
No you should never try to do anything you find hard it's bad for your constitution
Do you have any questions about math?
like I was stuck for a while last night trying to think of a formal proof that finitely generated fields with each element being torsion is finite
Mainly because trying to show every element is some sum over Z like a module
But like, I wonder if thatâs a too âhigh powerâ approached to it, since I already am a bit ahead since I went off another textbook, not what the exercise intended
I do sometimes wonder how the exercise wants me to approach it without me going nuts and using theorems that we havenât learned yet
Like decomposition of finite abelian groups into cyclic groups
I think my insecurity is bleeding through
lol
I think Iâm too focused on extreme rigor
oh this sounds fun uhhh. If every element is torsion then 1 is torsion so ur field has a prime field F_p inside of it for some p and since it's finitely generated it has to be a finite dimensional vector space over this finite prime field ergo is also finite
Especially for a book like Jacobson lmao
does this work chat? @coral spindle chat does this work chat?
I meant group
Fields that works omao
Yeah, every element must be p-torsion, but this doesn't preclude something like F_p(x)
this still works in the group case lmao
What do you mean by preclude
x isn't torsion in that u stinker
Get a dictionary lmao
Um um x + ... + x p times đ€

Ok google look up "preclude definition" thank u
The issue is that the multiplication doesn't play ball
he ainât ballin
If every nonzero element is torsion under multiplication I think we have something
I guess the problem here is that I used "additively generated as a F_p (or Z)-module" but ur using algebraically generated
Ye
in which case I'm right you're wrong. Smell you later stinky
The field itself IS finite so obviously itâs multiplicative torsion lmao
F_p(x) isn't finite though
F_p(x) is not finite.
I mean the context of
The field itself
Which means our statement doesnât include it
:shovel_emoji: :hole_emoji:
hand hand hand
anyway can someone help me with my group theory homework
Every element is torsion under multiplication => 1+1 is 0 or torsion under multiplication => 2^n = 1 for some n
So we have positive characteristic for free
Then uh
Take all the finite generators x_1, ..., x_n
F_p[x_1, ..., x_n] is finite extension
yur
True
Last time I did field theory I keep getting derailed trying to prove Artinâs lemma with Noether normalization
Yuh bc they're roots of x_1^m - 1 for some m, ezpz
you are nitpicking and biased
Mainly because I love Noether normalization
That's nice
I don't even know what that shit is
sets were only supposed to have ONE operation as GOD INTENDED
Take a field: Algebraicly finite generation -> Module finite generation

yes module in this case is vector space but I donât want to type out two words
You're such a group theorist I love it
Slay, Wew
Slay
Wew when automorphism group of a group
What
hur dur group action that works with group hur dur curry rice
if u mean abelian group then yeah that's an upon the wit. (as the kids say)
What
Implied
god and I thought I was a proffesional bullshitter
You're being outplayed
I learn from the best
Why do we care about orbits?
Are cosets just a particular form of orbit defined by the left/right translation map
atoms, satellites? 
there's another
Right because jacobson introduces orbits, gives half an example, then says 'wow look they're cosets' and proves some stuff about cosets
Also what is a conjugacy class
the more I hear about this book the less I like it
I don't like you
orbit under the action g.h -> ghg^-1
Action?
sorry how the ever loving fuck are you discussing orbits without knowing what a group action is
what is this wack ass book
no wonder you feel like they're completely unmotivated
I'll give you an exposition if you want
Let S be a set, G a subgroup of sym S. Consider the equivalence relation x = y if there exists an a in G s.t a(x) = y. The equivalence class of x is called the G-orbit of x
Do you have a reference or some supplementary reading
right ok so that's how you do it without defining actions ig lol
section 6
I knew these stupid notes would come in handy one day
FINAL_FINAL_Final
Lol
He does talk about group actions in 4 subchapters time
I think the reason he did it now was just to show look cosets are one of these things
When is FINAL FINAL FINAL FINAL
soon
PhD thesis be like
Then I imagine we can apply our discussion of group actions and whatever to costs
Groups describe symmetries, but without an action we can't interpret the elements as symmetries. Orbits are one tool for analysing actions, whose properties reflect back on the group.
Wait those were notes for a class wew?
wow I was dog shit at writing back in 2022
these were notes in case I ever needed to teach group theory
so they're not really meant to be used for anyone else lol
but the examples at the start of section 6 are the main thing here that's useful
Ah okay I was wondering how it was possible to cover like 3 things in 12 weeks of teaching
I'll also read chap 4 I think
Thanks cutie
expect numerous typos and me randomly switching variable names without warning because I am insane
Um, did you just call Wew a cutie? He's not a cutie, he's adorable. Get it right
thanks babes
Um did you just call me babes? I am an adult not a baby smh
silence
Nvm I'm not reading chapter 4 because I hate permutations and all cyclic notation
this is quite frankely the worst opinion anyone has ever had about anything that's ever existed
Permutations are very nice indeed and I suggest you give them a second chance
Especially since they're going to provide the canonical examples for group actions
I spent 2 hours yesterday trying to read this proof in jacobson that sign isn't changed by composing with a transposition
Yes that's the one really tricky proof
Then I looked for a different proof on MSE and it made sense immediately
sgn(t) = -1
sgn(tst^-1) = sgn(t)sgn(t^-1)sgn(s) = (-1)^2sgn(s) = sgn(s)
problem??
So you're just complaining that Jacobson wrote it bad? 
is it?
Yes
Yeah people usually struggle with it
I like complaining in general I'm british
write them as permutation matrices lol
Wow imagine being british could not be EVERYONE PRESENT
it's really obvious then cause you can just bootstrap using the determinant
does he know, chat?
Ur a brit?
I don't believe it
I actually sont
wait.... ur british?
Gonna blow your mind and say that Wew is also đ€Ż
did I know... chat?
Admittedly I haven't interacted with you much boytije but you seemed too uptight to be a brit
No I'm just a prick
irrelevantgardless I have now thought of 2 different proofs :thecosmoshumswithatunemostsweet:
step 1: prove conjugation preserves cycle type
step 2: it's oh so simple....
Shrimple*
actually wait can I use something from Humphrey's to nuke this fly
There's like, 5 ways to pluck this duck
I'm pretty sure he proves that the sign map is a group homomorphism for all Coexter systems at once in that book
Neat
so I can absolutely obliterate this
I'm not gonna find this post but I remember the proof being nice
Why not, helps with group actions and symmetries
Can yoy dm me this pls bbg
Letâs say a priori we know fuck all about Galois extensions.
Assume G is a finite subgroup of Aut(F), and F^G is the fixed point subfield. Then is there a way to prove for some x in F\F^G that F is algebraicly finitely generated by F^G through the orbit of x
I know you can show itâs finitely generated as a module, but as far as Iâm aware that proof is by contradiction and doesnât actually show the basis explicitly being the orbit of x, or if it even is
Probably going to try to show any valuation morphism for an element outside of F^G from the group ring F^G[G] into F is an endomorphism
Actually no, not the group ring, just F^G[orbit of x]
Here's the route I planned about going about it:
- For any commutative ring R, and a finite automorphism subgroup, G, the fixed point subring of R^G is integrally extended by R. Because we are working with a field, this means F^G is algebraically extended by F. Any intermediate ring between F^G and F must be a field.
- Assume G has order N, Fix an enumeration of the elements of G, s_1...s_N. Consider the polynomial ring F^G[X_1...X_N], and the valuation map for each x, S_x, that fixes F^G and maps X_n to s_n(x). For some x in F \ F^G, let the image of S_x be denoted K
- Prove K must be F
I'm trying to process this
Question
I know the images of x for two automorphisms, s_n and s_m must commute since F is commutative under multiplication and addition. Naievely it seems like each s_n induces an automorphism that "permutes" the X_n and X_m. The group of which would be the Abelianization of G
In a finite group the maximal order of elements is a multiple of every other order of elements?
the order of any element in the group divides the maximal order in a finite group
How
Consider D_10. r has order 2, s has order 5
5 is the maximal order, coprime to 2
that's just bezout theorem ye
*lemma
Actually yeah, is this okay?
Does every automorphism $s_n \in G \subseteq \mathrm{Aut}(F), |G| = N < \infty$ induce an automorphism of $F^G[X_1...X_N]$ such that $s_n^{*} : X_a \mapsto X_b $ where $s_n \circ s_a = s_b$
Dyfunction Executive

R u about to expose yourself as british too
Bro has beef with fellas init
I am a bloke, fella
Wait
I had a brainwave
If $R$ is a commutative ring, and $G$ is a finite automorphism subgroup, and $R^G$ is the fixed field, then $R$ is an integral extension and a finitely generated algebra over $R^G$
Dyfunction Executive
To show $R$ is a finitely generated algebra over $R^G$, consider an enumeration $\sigma_1 ... \sigma_N$ of elements in $G$ where $N = |G|$. Let $n!m$ denote the index of $\sigma_n \circ \sigma_m$ for convenience. We can consider the polynomial ring $R^G[X_1...X_N]$, and it's obvious that there's an automorphism for each $\sigma_n$ that sends $X_m \mapsto X_{n!m}$. Lets fix some $x \in F \setminus F^G$, and consider the valuation morphism $v : X_n \mapsto \sigma_n(x)$. Consider the image of this morphism, the ring $P$.
It's obvious $R^G \subseteq P \subseteq R$, but it's also obvious that it is fixed under G. However, $R^G$ is the largest subring fixed by $R^G$, so either $P$ is $R$ or $R^G$. However, the identity is one of the group elements, therefore if $P = R^G$ then $x \in P \cap (R \setminus R^G) = \emptyset$, a contradiction. Thus the image is $P$, and the map is surjective. This implies $R$ is a finitely generated algebra over $R^G$
Dyfunction Executive
Does this work?
I don't see why it wouldn't. The image would have to be fixed, therefore either the fixed point subring or the whole ring. it can't be the fixed point subring so it'd have to be the whole
You can use Zariski's Lemma on this lmao
and immediately get Artin's Lemma, that [F : F^G] = |G|
It's also integral too lol
Why do you say that it must be either R^G or R?
Like if R = k[x, y] and G=C2 swaps x and y, then you can have a subring like P = k[x^2, y^2, x+y, xy] which is neither R nor R^G.
wait no I messed up, thanks for pointing that out
messed up a definition that I wrote down for something else
Also, it's not true that R needs to be finitely generated. For example take R = k[x1, y1, x2, y2, ...] and let G=C2 be the group that swaps xi and yi. Then R is not finitely generated over R^G.
If on the other hand R is a finitely generated k-algebra and G acts by k-algebra automorphisms, then R is finitely generated over R^G by virtue of being finitely generated over a subring.
I'm trying to remember the actually interesting statement lol
I think it is that it holds if R is a Noetherian A-algebra or smth
(And G acts by A-algebra maps)
Hey is the category of groups an abelian category?
No
The most intuitive way to see this is that cokernels âdonât existâ
Except they do, theyâre the quotient by the normal closure of the image
What you end up having is an issue with the map from the image to coimage, which will translate to the inclusion of the actual image into the normal closure of the image
also u just can't put a ring structure on the homsets
I'd argue an easier way to see it is that Hom(C2, S3) is not a group. So in particular not an abelian group.
You donât need that
what
sorry
I was thinking of End(S_3)
for general homsets yeah they just need to be ab groups
This is a little chmonka tho because you have to show that thereâs no way to equip one that makes sense yah?
Which requires a bit of tedious work
I guess itâs easier than making an example of what I said tho
Also that set is small
it's a set of size 4 it's not THAT hard
nuh uh
I think so? Because you need to then show like
That thereâs some other group such that the induced map on Homs canât be a group homomorphism or something
Idk I might be on something
no the more I think about it the more annoying it gets
the standard thing I know is showing that End(S_3) can't be a ring
Idk how you do that tho tbh
you uhhh
I mean you could bash out every possible abelian group structure
I guess there's a difference between wheter Grp is an abelian category and whether it could hypothetically be equipped with the structure of an abelian category.
no it's smarter than that
Precisely
Except actually abelian category is NOT structure
It is a property
what's that thing where no zero divisors and finite => field? you use that
Ah
then contradict with the fact that |End(S_3)| isn't a power of p
Yeah thatâs kinda annoying tho because
The proof is hard when you donât assume commutative I believe
You get it as a result but itâs blech
that's cringe lil dude
also it's an ABELIAN category why wouldn't I assume COMMUTATIVE
RAAAAAAGH
Well, that no zero divisors imply skew field is trivial, and they also have prime characteristic
So you don't need the full wedderburn stuff
ok it's Wedderburn's little theorem apparently
Is that true?
I guess so yeah
Clear
is he french per chance
đ
that's a french thing
Surely Bourbaki out of all people deserve the pronoun they 
I don't know anything about this individual
This "individual" đ
Some guy on quora said
There were very few female mathematicians in France during the formative years of Bourbaki (and there probably still are lamentably few today). The group of people that organized to become Bourbaki, and the ones that joined later, were all men.
So seems no women
I have never been more on edge
Wews mind being blown by Bourbaki
bro's edging
when does the galois group emit a ring structure?
is there anything interesting here?
the only example i can think of on the go is Gal(F_p bar/F_p) = Z hat
I thought I had an answer here but I do not
Gal(L/K) = End_K(L)^{\times} taking L to be a K-algebra (I think) so meh there's something there
My question goes like this
Let $R = K[x,y]$, and let $\varphi: R^2 \to R^2$ be an $R$-module endomorphism of the $R$-module, $R^2 = R \oplus R$ given by $\varphi((a_1,a_2)) = (a_1 + xa_2,ya_1)$. Find a monic polynomial $p$ with coefficients in $R$ such that $p(\phi) = 0$.
mycroftholmes1703
I understand we have to use Cayley Hamilton theorem in generalised form, but I am messed up about the computation
can u show us ur computations that u have so far
Surprisingly, there isn't. If a category is abelian the abelian category structure is uniquely determined.
is this true for exact categories? I would assume the answer to be no?
IK very little about exact categories.
IIRC there are two notions of exact category, one requiring an âexact structureâ and the other called a âBarr exactâ category.
The former is a structure and the latter is a property.
okay, I see. I havent heard of the latter. What I am thinking of is a structure on the category, thanks!
You can have many different exact structures on the same category
Any additive category admits an exact structure though, and being additive is uniquely determined for the same reason being abelian is.
Originally I thought I just I have to show is that any even permutation can be written as an even n number of 2-cycles, and then you can merge pairs of two cycles to form n/2 3 cycles, but I'm not sure how to prove that this will always be possible. Does the proof involve using inverse 2-cycles?
So every even permutation can be written as the product of an even number of 2-cycles. So if you can prove that the product of any pair of 2-cycles is a product of 3-cycles you're done.
The product of overlapping 2-cycles is a 3-cycle, so then you're done. Then you just have to write a disjoint product of 2-cycles as a product of 3-cycles.
how to count number of irreducibles in form of ax^2+bx+c over Zp where p is prime? I count the result when a=1. (p*(p+1)/2). I need a result when a is not 1.
oh wait, even number of 2 cycles with two possible formats, (a b)(b c) => (a b c) and (a b)(c d) => (a b c) (b c d)
so you can just say that any pair of evens can be represented with only 3-cycles
If a is nonzero then
ax^2 + bx + c = a(x^2 + b/ax + c/a) so that's just p-1 times the number of such with a=1.
If a=0, then you're just counting bx+c
Exactly
Is it because monic polynomials is irreducible, so ax^2+bx+c is irreducible as well? And does it happen in all field or just in Zp?
Yeah, that's true in all fields
Another question is: if a=1. And I write x^2+bx+c=(x+s)*(x+t) to find its reducible polynomial, and I have already counted number of cases. But I am confused about if it is possible to have the case when we can't factor it into roots but we can still write it as reducible polynomials.
And must all polynomial be either reducible or irreducible, is there any possibility of being not reducible and not irreducible?
Being reducible means that you can write it as a product of polynomials with smaller degree. Being irreducible means you can't, so that's the only two options.
If the polynomial is of degree 2, then reducible means it's the product of degree 1 polynomials, hence we can factor it completely into it's roots.
OK, I got it, it should also be the same as it is of degree 3. Really appreciate that
Question: What is the difference between the field Zp and field Zp(t). Does the latter one represent rational functions?
This is a worrying question because it reveals that you don't understand the latter notation
Are you familiar with the notation R[x], where R is a ring?
If F is a field, then F(t) is similar to F[t] insofar as it contains polynomials, but as you say, yes it also contains quotients of polynomials.
Indeed F(t) is the ring of so-called rational functions on F.
So it should be clear that it's completely different.
.â
Bro really said "no bitches"
so is it correct to say F(t)={q(t)/r(t): q(t), r(t) belongs to F(t)[x]}?
For proving this homomorphism, what would the product be for phi(gg') = phi(g)phi(g')?
is it addition or multiplication
can someone give me a bit of a hint on this? not sure where to start
Assume that sigma transposes a and b WLOG a<b. So consider that is sgn(sigma(i),sigma(j)) for any two numbers i,j.
There's a few options:
- If i and j are both not a and b, then sigma does nothing to them and so sgn(sigma(i),sigma(j))=sgn(i,j)=1.
- If i=a, then for j<b we get -1, for j=>b we get 1, so we get a contribution of (-1)^(b-1)
Can you list the other options and see what the total result of the product is?
bourbaki â€ïž
Bourbaki â€ïž
You need to show $\varphi((n_1,n_2)+(m_1,m_2))=\varphi(n_1+m_1,n_2+n_2)=\varphi(n_1,n_2)+\varphi(m_1,m_2)$
kevinhardy2
i feel like it's pretty straightforward with $n_1 + n_2 +m_1+m_2$ for both of them. Am I messing something up or just overthinking?
x496
No, that's it. Do note that you used the fact that Z/2 is abelian. In general, for any abelian group G (say with the group operation written as addition), the map
G Ă G -> G : (g, h) -> g + h
is a group homomorphism.
Let x_1, âŠ, x_n distinct elements of F (or more generally elements of a ring whose pairwise differences are all invertible?).
Is the n by n Vandermonde matrix
1 x_1 ⊠x_1^{n-1}
1 x_2 ⊠x_2^{n-1}
⊠⊠⊠âŠ
1 x_n ⊠x_n^{n-1}
right-invertible?
if I remember correctly, to consider a ring R as an R/I module, we need I to be contained in ann(R) (can't remember the proper notation, but ir=0 for all i in I and r in R). can someone give a nontrivial example of such an R and I? i can't think of an n such that R=Z/nZ would have a nontrivial annihilator
it's been a while since I've done any algebra so Z/nZ is my go to. but maybe PIDs only have trivial annihilators or something i honestly can't remember
actually that's probably true, but I can't remember that many interesting examples of rings. are there rings that have nonzero elements that zero out all elements of the ring?
or I guess since 1x=x for all x, then such an element can't exist?? i.e. there's no nontrivial way to consider R as an R/I module??
maybe I should go look back at my hw from years ago bc we had a problem on something like this
annihilators (ideals of R) are defined for subsets of R-modules
the most canonical way to treat R as an R/I module is also kind of boring: via extension of scalars along R -> R/I, in which case the R-module R turns into the R/I-module R âR R/I = R/I
there's also "coextension of scalars" which replaces R by R-Mod(R/I, R), which you give an R/I-module structure by requiring linearity
but idk what you can say about this (because i haven't studied it)
writing homsets with the name of the category
yeah let me write "by Hom(R/I, R) (the R-module of R-module homomorphisms)"
not when we're talking about how R can be an R/I-module or whatever
R/I is an R-module through restriction of scalars anyway
where do you use Zorn's lemma? I didnt use it, idk if I clowned
- Take x not in N(A), quotient by N(A) so you can assume N(A)=0
- If x!=0 the set (1,x,x^2,x^3,...) forms a multiplicative system and the prime ideals in A not containing x are in one-to-one correspondence with the prime ideals in A_x
- A_x has prime ideals because 1/1!=0/1, because otherwise there would exist an n such that x^n=0, which is only possible if x=0, a contradiction
mmh ok ig I need that a nontrivial ring has prime ideals
I have a question to find the number of monic, cubic polynomials in F_3[X] which have no root. Obviously thereâs 27 polynomials which may or may not have roots, and I could just evaluate the polynomials and work out which coefficients give me roots, take however many of those there are, and take it away from 27. But this feels really inelegant and kinda infeasible for any larger fields (by hand at least)
So Iâm wondering, is there a nicer way to do this that Iâm missing?
If you can count the number of polynomials with 1, 2 and 3 roots, then you can just subtract that from the total number of polynomials
I think it's a bit faster with PIE.
This is what I was trying to say sorry if it wasnât clear, I was just wondering if thereâs a more direct way than this because it feels like itâd suck for anything much larger than F_3, even even for F_3 itâs not exactly elegant
PIE?
principle of inclusion and exclusion
the advantage is that you can find the number without classifying polynomials
and it works fine on anything larger than F_3
Iâm not sure that I see how I would use that in this situation, could you elaborate?
let A={polynomials that have 0 as a root}, B={polynomials that have 1 as a root}, C={polynomials that have 2 as a root}
you want to find 27-|AuBuC|
|A|=|B|=|C|=9 (because you can choose the first two coefficients arbitrarily, but the last one is fixed)
AnB consists of polynomials of the form x(x-1)(x-a), where a is 0,1 or 2, so |AnB|=3, and similarly |BnC|=|AnC|=3
and finally |AnBnC|=1 (the only element is x(x-1)(x-2))
Ohhhh yeah thatâs way nicer!
this should work over any finite field K
Thank you very much, thats definitely a much cleaner approach than having to just blindly calculate
The step I wasnât seeing was how to deal with the intersections but that feels obvious now Iâve seen it
@elfin wraith what's interesting is that with this approach we can find that if |K|=q, then the number is (q-1)^3, which makes me think there might be an even faster way to count
or maybe it's just a coincidence, idk
In question 3, I showed that I have (1 k) for all k=1,2,......,n , so I can generate any permutation.
Is it correct?
And for question 4, I showed that there is (i i+1) for all i=2,......,n-1).
That is quite interesting, thereâs almost certainly something there but I donât see it right away. I wonder if it generalises and for a monic nth degree polynomial you have (q-1)^n
I might play around with that on sage later if I have the time (and remember to)
I think the case n>3 is different. The argument I used for counting |AnB| will no longer work, because unlike in the previous case, the third factor is no longer linear.
or maybe it will still work
yes, I guess that last factor should be chosen arbitrarily, so we can count
nike, for n=4: (x-a)(x-b)(x^2+cx+d), with c,d arbitrary
Yeah it would definitely require some thought, but there could be something there
Not sure it has much use other than general interest but still
It doesn't get worse with the size of the field in any way.
If the field has size q, then there are q(q-1)(q-2)/3! polynomials with exactly 3 roots. And q(q-1) with exactly 2 roots. The ones with exactly 3 roots are the q ones with a triple root, and those that are a multiple of an irreducible quadratic polynomial. So you just have to count the quadratic polynomials in a similar way.
Oh yeah, I definitely didnât see that, i donât think I was saying what you were saying after all.
That is probably even easier for larger fields than using inclusion exclusion
Either way my takeaway here is that I should think more carefully about how we I can write the polynomial to make the roots appear more clearly, so thank you both 
You can even write the whole thing out as a polynomial in q without every specifying what q is
I just remembered that there was this question in an Olympiad in my country
for a finite field with q elements, it was asking for the probability that a polynomial of degree n>=q doesn't have any root
A cubic polynomial is irreducible iff it has no roots, so if f is such a polynomial then f is the minimal polynomial of an element in the field of order q^3.
So if x is an element in the field with q^3 elements either x is in K or the minimal polynomial has degree 3. And in that case x has 3 conjugates, so the answer should be (q^3 - q)/3
So same argument would work if you replace 3 by any prime (to count the number of irreducible polynomials)
that's a very nice argument
are you from Romania lol
yes
Romania's olympiads are so unique
yes, that works
hmm, I think you are missing cases in which the polynomial is irreducible even in the field with q^3 elements
the solution of the problem I mentioned find the number of polynomial with degree n>=q to be (q-1)^(q+1)*q^(n-q)
if we only want the monic ones, we should divide this by q-1, and for n=q=3 this becomes (q-1)^3
It's probably correct, but it's hard to say without seeing your work
I'm not directly counting polynomials, im counting elements that have minimal polynomials of degree 3.
For q=3, (q^3-q)/3 = 8 which indeed matches (q-1)^3, but it shouldn't be (q-1)^3 in general.
Find the roots of f(x)=x3 + x2 â 1 â Q[x]. I realize that there should be no rational roots by rational roots theorem. Hence I determine that f(x) is irreducible and find its extension field Q[x]/(x^3+x^2-1). But it seems to me that there will be too heavy if we find elements in this extension by supposing u is a root of f(x) and u^3=1-u^2 and find all elements and plug these values into f(x)? So I am doubting if there is some easier method to find its roots in extension?
Ah, I understand now. Also, I see what the problem with my (q-1)^3 is. In the case q=3 there were 3 sets that I used to apply PIE. But in general there are q, so the answer should be q^3 - Binom(q,1)q^2 + Binom(q,2)q - Binom(q,3), which is indeed (q^3-q)/3.
use Cardano
can you describe what it is?
since this is the first time that I heard this name
@stark helm here is a step by step explanation: https://www.math.ucdavis.edu/~kkreith/tutorials/sample.lesson/cardano.html
and here are some worked out examples: https://brilliant.org/wiki/cardano-method/
On what form do you want the roots? Like as radicals? Or do you want the two other roots described in terms of one of the roots, or how?
just the roots as we construct extension , the diagram is the original question
I'm not sure what you mean by that. Like the polynomial has only one real root, so the extension Q[u]/(u^3 + u^2 - 1) contains only one of the roots.
You can describe the minimal polynomial of the other roots in Q(u) I guess...
"Find" isn't really a technical term. Maybe it's clear from the greater context of your exercise set, but on it's own it doesn't really mean anything.
So i was trying to prove the second isomorphism theorem, and I came across something a little strange. Let $S$ be the normalizer of the subgroup $N$.
For $(SN)/N:={ xN, x\in SN},$ for any $x\in SN$, $\exists s\in S$ and $n\in N$ s.t. $x=sn$. So $xN=snN=s(nN)=sN$. So this suggests that every element in $(SN)/N$ can be represented as $sN$ for some $s\in S$. But, it that were true, then it suggests $(SN)/N$ is isomorphic to the quotient group $S/N$, which doesn't sesm right.
So...I think my logic is flawed somewhere and I could appreciate some help identifying the issue
dackid
You can't quotient S wrt N since N is not necessarily a subgroup of S.
If it were then you'd just have your result via the second iso theorem
Ah, I see. So although each element in (SN)/N can be represented as sN for some s, which kinda looks like what S/N would, S/N doesn't always exist since N need not be a subgroup of N
Ah you said normalizer. In any case what I said stands, NnS=N so this just results from the second iso theorem
Right. If N is normal in S, then what you have shown is correct, it just happens to be the result of second iso
Well, I was working on proving the second iso, and that sN thing came up, so I just wanna make sure my thoughts are justified.
But yeah, if N is a subgroup of S, then (SnN)=N so (SN)/N iso to S/N due to the second isomorphism theorem.
Thank you for the clarification sqeral. That helped a lot
Ofc đ
Kakaka
which is isomorphic to $\mathbb Z_{12}$
Kakaka
This isn't true
You can certainly try to say false things
But they will be wrong
can someone please give me a more intuitive explanation of congruence relations
can u relate it to congruence equivalence relations in modular arithmetic/number theory?
Yes
Let G = Z and H = nZ = {nz | z in Z} where n is some integer
Then congruence on H is congruence mod n
That's really the best intuition you're going to get.
how do i prove a group is acting on a set
Using the definition of a group action
congruence relations let you take quotients
if you have a congruence relation on a group it partitions the elements of the group into equivalence classes
the equivalence class of the identity defines a normal subgroup, and the quotient by the congruence relation is the same as the quotient by that normal subgroup
No, they do not.
This only happens if H is a normal subgroup.
But you may note there is no such assumption here.
H should be assumed to be a normal subgroup here
I don't see why that would be the case. There is no barrier to defining this equivalence relation, which defines the cosets.
the reasonable notion of a congruence relation is an equivalence relation on the underlying set which is compatible with the group structure in the sense that a~a' and b~b' implies ab~a'b'
I am aware in universal algebra that the word congruenceâyes well there you go.
in which case such a thing corresponds uniquely to some normal subgroup
But this is not saying that.
right okay
sure I guess more generally you can talk about congruences where a~b means a^{-1}b just lands in some subgroup H, rather than a^{-1}b being the identity
you can still talk about quotients, they just won't be groups anymore, they'll be sets of cosets
taking quotients by subgroups and talking about sets of cosets is still a good thing to talk about, so that gives some intuition in this more general setting
it's just a bit weaker of a notion since you're not quite demanding that the equivalence relation is compatible with your group structure as is the case for the more restricted notion
I completed part a, what exactly is part b asking me to do?
What part of the question confuses you
like can i just say that theres no surjective group homomorphism because sym is not abelian?
No
Why would that follow?
You should consider the hint, and other facts you know about the symmetric group.
I know there's sign homomorphism from Sym-> z/2
oh i see
we showed phi z/2 x z/2 -> z/2 and we know there exists surjective from Sym-> z/2
so we assume there exists surjective homomorphism Sym-> z/2 x z/2, and use h1 (a,b)=a and h2 (a, b) = b to contradict that?
is that sequence of steps logical
how about saying finding complex roots?
Both question?
I am not sure how to write in correct way
Simple exercise: Let $G$ be a group with subgroups $H_1$ and $H_2$, both with finite index, then $H_1 \cap H_2$ must have finite index. Also let $G/H$ be the set of equivalence classes / cosets, doesnât need to be a group for this lol.
Immediately the Cartesian product $ G/H_1 \times G/H_2 $ has cardinality leq $[G : H_1] [G : H_2]$. Consider the âdiagonalâ subset $D$ of pairs $(xH_1, xH_2)$
Itâs easy to see that $x(H_1 \cap H_2) = xH_1 \cap xH_2$. So therefore $[G : H_1 \cap H_2]$ is the cardinality of the image of the following map $D \twoheadrightarrow G/(H_1 \cup H_2)$, so therefore it must be less than or equal to $[G : H_1] [G : H_2]$ by transitivity and the domain being finite. Is this a valid proof?
Dyfunction Executive
Next is this god awful exercise that for two subgroups of a finite group $|HxK| = |H| [K : x^{-1}Hx \cap K]$
Dyfunction Executive
which is scary but Iâll try it in a bit. I assume you have to stratify HxK, into hxK and show |hxK| = [K : x^-1Hx \cap K] or something
do I need to first count the number of homomorphisms
Actually
Maybe we need to look at the cokernel?
do not know what that is
codomain/img
current attempt, although, I am not sure whether this the right approach:
Let $f(x):=x$. We require $f(63)=64x\equiv 0 \mod 147$; that is, $63x=147k\iff 7\mid x$. So we have 21 distinct homomorphisms.
If we consider a few, say,
$f_7(a)=7a\in \mathbb Z_{147}\implies |img(f_7)|=\lfloor \frac{147}{7}\rfloor =21$,
$f_{14}(a)=14a\in \mathbb Z_{147}\implies |img(f_{14})|=\lfloor \frac{147}{14}\rfloor =10$,
$\vdots$
$f_{7t}(a)=7ta \implies |img(f_{7t})|=\lfloor \frac{21}{t}\rfloor$ for $t\in{0,...,20}$(verify inductively).
Thus, setting $\lfloor \frac{21}{t}\rfloor=7\implies t=3$ as the unique $t$ within our specified range. What other 5 homomorphisms with images of size 7 am I missing?
Kakaka
img is a subgroup and it has index 21
Why must f(63)=64x=0 mod 147?
why does this imply 63x = 147k?
Ah
so by homomorphism additivity
f(1)=x
63x=64x
Kakaka
mapping identity to identity
Anyways, image is size 7, so index of image is 147/7=21.
what good does index do me
it's the number of cosets right
yup. you can also take the quotient cuz abelian
Wait
Duh
What am I doing
wat
Yes, it's generated by 1
So, we need to look at where 1 goes, as you say
A prior we have 147 possibilities
We can narrow this down.
7f(1)=0
huh
Well, the image is of size 7
so, f(1) generates the image, and the image has size 7, so 7*f(1)=identity=0
=147 in Z/147Z
why does f(1) generate the image
ok
so f(x)=nf(1)
For group of 147 elements, wouldn't it good to inspect the 7-group?
Or are you guys doing something else
So, we need to look at all numbers x mod 147 such that 7x = 0
Ah sorry, so you guys are working with Z/147Z.
e.g. x=0, x = 21
im trying to find the number of homos with this restriction
x=42, x= 63, x = 84, x = 105, x = 126
Where have I fucked up?
I count 7 homo's.
Oh
Yeah, this is a necessary, not sufficient, condition.
e.g. f(1)=0 leads to an image of size 0
so we need to check the cases f(1)=21,42,63,84,105,126
Well
We have a problem
If we kept going we'd get a lot more cases
nvm
126+21=0
duh
would euler's totient function help
because 21 | 147
where do we need it?
idk
This is additive group
Point is that f(1) = multiple of 21 mod 147
So, besides f(1)=0, there are at most 6.
We need to check that the rest actually have images of size 7.
hold on, f(1)=0 \implies f(a)=0, mapping everything to zero
so, 21,42,63,84,105,126,0 has the right size.
42,84,126,21,63,105,0 has the right size
so image is size 1?
this is why f(1)=0 doesn't work, the image has size <7
f(1)=21 works, as it generates the entire group {0,21,42,63,84,105,126}
This group is isomorphic to Z/7Z
so everything but 0 generates it.
Therefore f(1)=42, or f(1)=63, or etc., also work.
And thus we have 6 homomorphisms.
So...is this the 7-group?
{0,21,42,63,84,105,126}?
I don't think we need Sylow here?
That is, in full, here's the cleaned argument:
f(1) generates the image. image of size 7 => 7f(1)=0=147. thus f(1) is a multiple of 147/7=21 mod 147. the multiples are
{0,21,42,63,84,105,126}, which itself is a subgroup of order 7, isomorphic to Z/7Z. So, we need to find the generators of this subgroup. There are 7-1=6 of them
Oh did u use Lagrangeâs theorem
Otherwise what is 21?
Before, I determined that 21 was the number of homorphisms
hmm...where did I use Lagrange?
But this 21 that youâre using seems to be representing something different
Ah, to show that 7f(1)=0.
Since a^|G|=identity, let a be f(1) and we have |G|=7 for the image subgroup.
?? 21 is the representative of the equivalence class of 21 mod 147? wdym
shouldn't there be 147 homomorphisms, assuming no restrictions besides that we have a homomorphism?
I am unsettled a bit by the fact that I never used any detail about the domain except for the fact that it was cyclic.
Why did u do 147/7
Well
7f(1)=0=n*147 for some n
so f(1)=n*21
That's why.
1 is not the identity
Additive groups.
e.g. imagine Z/2Z to Z/4Z via sending 1 to 2
You don't need to delete a message making a claim that is incorrect!
is this channel open?
not sure if their og question was answered
i'll just ask then. trying to prove that if $\func{f}{R}{S}$ is an onto ring homomorphism and $I$ is a maximal ideal of $S$ then $f^{-1}(I)$ is a maximal ideal of $R$ (and i'm not allowed to use the FHT)
eigentaylor
i concluded that if $f^{-1}(I)$ is strictly contained in another ideal $J$, then $f(J)=S$, since $f(J)$ is an ideal bc f is onto(?)
eigentaylor
yeah, surjections take ideals to ideals
okay cool
i'm rusty on working with maximal ideals so i dont remember how you usually prove something is maximal. i was struggling to come up with some sort of contradiction when i assume that J is not R, and i wasn't able to think of a way to show that 1_R is in J somehow (those are the two ways i remember lol)
you prove that an ideal is maximal by proving that its quotient is a field
yeahhhh i already did the proof the FHT way. it was much easier for me lol. trying to do a direct proof
quotient rings are so helpful it is kinda annoying to try not to use them
does this work?
if $J\neq R$ then there is some $m\in R\setminus J$ such that $f(m)=f(j)$ for $j\in J$. then $f(m-j)=0\in I$
$$\implies m-j\in f^{-1}(I)\subset J\implies m-j=j'\implies m=j+j'\in J$$
contradiction
eigentaylor
Kakaka
isnt it just $\gen{x_i}=\bdef{x_i^k:k\in\bZ}$?
eigentaylor
so $<1>=\mathbb Z_{99}$ since it's a generator?
Kakaka
hence it's not a proper subgroup?
yeah as an additive group
is there a quick way to check
wtf
can I do better than just trying everything 2,3,...
for an additive group of Z_n <x> is just {kx: k in Z}
sorry, im very new to group theory
take an easy example of Z_6. what is <1>, <2>, <3>,..., <5>?
you already know that <1> is the whole group. so see what happens for the others
my algebra friend says Z_6 is the best goto example lol
and how am i supposed to check that it's a subgroup
just group axioms?
its always a subgroup
or is there a trick
Claim: subset of cyclic is always a subgroup?
proof: associative â, identity â, inverse â
right?
what about {1,4} as a subset of Z_6
assuming it contains the smaae identity
then your claim is false
withj this added restrcion?
{0,1,4}
mhm. there are two other requirements
no inverses for 4
yeah but something more fundamental is missing
not closed
every subgroup of a cyclic group is cyclic though
then where did u pull this from
oops
that happens to be exactly this set
(all powers of the generator)
groups cant tell the difference
ture
powers mean multiples for additive groups
yes
this is also wrong
thats true
so then we have
1 and 5 that generate all of Z_6
2,3,4 do not.
can you see a pattern?
oh so everything except 1 and its inverse
what relation does {1,5} vs {2,3,4} have with 6
yeah but try to see the underlying pattern
what happened with 2,3,4 that meant you stopped before you got all the elements?
with 2 it was 0,2,4 and then you stopped. why?
yes
so proper divisors of n and its mutiples?
right. another term for that is elements not coprime to n
yeah
so gcd not 1
and that checks with {1,5} and {2,3,4}. the first set is numbers coprime to 6, and the other has a gcd that isnt 1
so I can take ÂŹ euler's totient function
yeah that's right
ok
n-phi(n) specifically
id say its more that theres a lotta overlap with number theory
yeha a lot of these theorems, I like to think as generalisations of number theory concepts
like multiplicative order
pre cool
as someone who liked number theory but is scared of advanced group theory, i agree with this
ok but like
you dont need group theory to learn number theory or the other way around, but knowing one helps in learning the other imo
maybe i will like group theory
it's just that i laernt number theory already
and it's only liek week uno of me learning group theory
too early to tell
undergrad group theory is fine. i like ring theory and modules a lot better. but then i started learning sylow stuff and i just noped out of there and became an applied mathematician ||that's not exactly how it happened but kind of lol||
but basic group theory isn't too bad. it's pretty cool.
i think that will happen to me xD
hopefully PDEs into phd later
got scared of real math
wait
consider all the generators of $\mathbb Z_{25}$
Kakaka
so all residues that aren't 0,5,10,15,20
so 7 is one
but if 7 were a generator, then shouldn't we be able to construct 1 using only multiples of 7?
that is, 7t+7l=1
but by the extended euclidean algorithm, no such bezout coefficients exist
oh mod 25
$(-7\equiv 18) - (-42 \equiv 17)=1$
Kakaka
.close
You still haven't said what "finding" means. Like do you want the decimal expansion of the real and imaginary part? Do you want a description with nested radicals? Do you want their minimal polynomial in terms of the real root?
7t+25l=1. and indeed, 7(-7)+25(2)=1. just as 7(-7)=1 mod 25
yeah sure
do u have a tip for this Q
Let $a,b$ be elements of a group $G$. If $a$ has order 15 and $b$ has order 24, what are the possible values for the order$ <a>\cap<b>$?
Kakaka
Kakaka
this is also a subgroup as all intersections of subgroups are also subgroups
do I need to use Lagrange's theorem somehow>
Lagrange theorem certainly helps, I'd say
this is kinda out of my wheelhouse. my group theory sucks

