#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 212 of 1
But yeah uh this is not irreducible I think
Because you have an eigenvector
However, it is indecomposable
oh i thought irreducible meant not a direct sum
I think
I confused irreducible with indecomposable
Dw
I'm guessing over char 2, C_2 has no irreducible non-trivial reps
correct
does it have other indecomposable ones other than this one and the trivial one?
society if F_p contained pth roots of unity
mjau
no that's true, a simple eigenvalue argument works
oh wait uh p-groups in general? not sure
Maybe abelian p-groups
oop sorry wrong chat
But that isn't much fo a generalisation then lol
ok no it has to be true
Is it true by like
over a splitting field there's only one irreducible brauer character
actions of p-groups having fixed points ish
Oh
Based
Sure
Oh yeah we can just work over an alg closed char p field and prove it there
Idk what those are 😭
the indecomposables are more interesting anyway
something something cde triangle...
something something p-modular system...
Bobby Fusions
no they're actually quite simple. You restrict to the p'-elements of your groups and pretend your roots of unity in ur alg closed char p field exist in C
then the brauer characters are the class functions from the p'-elements to these roots of unity such that the preimage in the char p field do geniunely corrispond to trace functions of irred. reps over ur field
Are indecomposable decompositions analogous to abelian group extensions like irreducible decompositions are analogous to direct sums? So irreducibles are much simpler but you can't build as much stuff using just them
Lol
I'm not sure I follow this, indecomposable means you can't write it as a direct sum so the analogy would be split abelian group extenstions
and as you say irreducibles corrispond to simple modules and unless your group algebra is semisimple you can't build stuff out of them
if the group algebra is semisimple then every rep is a direct sum of irreducibles?
what does it mean for it to be semisimple?
exactly what you said
lol. are there any nicer equivalent conditions or important special cases that imply it?
for group algebras if the characteristic of the field doesn't divide the order of the group your algebra is semisimple
but you probably knew that one already
can it divide it and still be semisimple?
no
it's equivalent to having zero jacobson and uhhhhhhhh being...
it's either noetherian or artinian
I'll say artinian because then it's definitely true
yur
this is too few reps to me, I want more! What if instead of over a field, we consider reps over a ring? Is there a well defined notion of representations on modules? Will there be rings where C_2 has more indecomposable reps?
oh god you're actually going to make me think about Z/4Z[C_2]
I was thinking about that
it definitely has at least 2
there's 2 one dims
uhhh
is
(1 2)
(0,1)
still indecomposable?
I hope so
C_2 = <g>
v in Z/4Z^2 (ewwwwww)
g.v = g.(v_1, v_2) = (v_1+2v_2, v_2)
yeah I think it's indecomposable
<(0, 1)> isn't fixed, good enough for me
lmk if you figure it out lol
hm oka i will look this up further
u
Okay thank
It's cool how like
modular rep theory turns up in topology / homotopy theory apparently
Omg really?? how
oh homotopy
algebraic topology doesn't count as topology to me lol
i'm honestly not completely sure, but representation theory comes up because of actions of symmetric groups being kinda inevitable
Oh lol bruh, do you have like pointset topology in mind
Yeah fair lol
pointset topology is combinatorics not topology
oh yeah it does but I don't remember why
do you still have the vector bundle - rep corrispondence over BG? questions questions
Benson 2 probably has a chapter on this
yo, anyone know what the K is?
Wha- how? I feel like that about algebraic topology is the one who is like combinatorics since it uses simplexes and stuff like that
a field
oh, wait is it just any arbitrary field
ur literally looking at sets of sets how is that not combinatorial lol
Depending on the context either an arbitrary field or either the real or complex numbers
and the simplices are just in the background, you almost always blackbox them and just work with generalised homology theories or whatever
Isn't that all of math lol
but it wasn't a negative towards pointset, I love the combinatorial aspects
yes but you're actually giving a fuck about them in pointset
Consider yourself judged.
it's very "on the metal" to borrow a term from CompEng
explodes
Lol
isn't point set topology logic
I was thinking more like show that open connected subsets of R are path connected
Or show that Q is not a countable intersection of open intervals of R (?)
So many interesting takes on point-set topology coming up here 
in an ideal world we wouldn't have to teach it ever but unfortunately we need to be """rigorous"""
This guy gets it
Can somebody check these two abstract algebra questions on ring modules?
Given this condition and if I want to prove Sn is not solvable, is it true to argue that because An must a normal subgroup that contain all three cycles(even permutation), so there must exist H as normal subgroup that contain all three cycles, then all K as normal subgroup of H such that H/K abelian must contain all three cycles, which contradicts the sequence that e<G1<..<Sn
I take mapping from G-> G/M × G/N such that g->(gM, gN) and I think its kernel is M intersection N but I want to know where I am using G=MN condition?
Surjectivity
Is it correct to argue that since An is generated by three cycles, then if a group contains all three cycles, then the group is either An or Sn?
For the first part:
I'm not sure what it means for L_α to be associative.
To be clear, since it's asked to show that L_α is a left R-module, you need to define addition and scalar multiplication R × L_α -> L_α operations on L_α and show that under addition, it is an abelian group and that the axioms of a left R-module are satisfied.
As I think you have realised, both of these maps are supposed to be the same as the ones on R, restricted to L_α, i.e., a + b in L_α is the same as a + b in R (you need to show that this lies in L_α), and for r in R, s in L_a, r . s is defined to be rs (you need to show that this lies in L_α and not just in R).
All that's left after that is to verify that L_α under addition is an abelian group and the scalar multiplication satisfies the axioms of a left R-module.
For the second part, the statement is not true for any subgroup L of M. Try to figure out what condition L needs to satisfy for it to be true.
Thank you, if i am correct MN defined as finite sum of m_i•n_i, right?
These computations seem to have ideas relevant to the solution but are conceptually off: it is not true that 1.a = 1 . aα, or r.(a+b) = r(aα+bα), or (rs) . a = rs(0) in the first part, or that (rsf, rsg) rsf - rsg, for example.
I'm not sure if I've understood you correctly, but yes, you can use this to show that S_n is not solvable (for n >= 5).
Take H to be the subgroup of S_n generated by all 3-cycles (IDK if you know that this is A_n for n >= 5), which is non-trivial.
Then this statement shows that the commutator subgroup of H is H (by taking K = commutator subgroup), which shows that H is not solvable.
Alternatively, if you have a subnormal series for H with abelian quotients, you can take K to be the penultimate subgroup (just before H) to get that K = H, a contradiction.
Since subgroups of solvable groups are solvable, if S_n were solvable, H would have to be.
(Incidentally, if S_n were solvable for arbitrarily large n, then every finite group would be solvable, being embeddable in all sufficiently large S_n.)
Actually I don't know any stuffs about commutator subgroup or subnormal series, probably the stuff I can see is that we never get an identity
No I think MN is not defined as finite sum
if the sequence require e<G1<...Sn, I never can get e here
Then … what's your definition of solvable?
For any (sM, tN) what will be my g?
That's what I'm calling a subnormal series (the sequence) with abelian quotients (because G_i/G_{i-1} is abelian).
No, that's for subgroups of a ring usually.
MN := {mn | m in M, n in N}. This is a subgroup of G if M, N are subgroups, one of which is normal.
Alternatively, if you have a subnormal series for H with abelian quotients, you can take K to be the penultimate subgroup (just before H) to get that K = H, a contradiction.
You mean take K<H and get K=H, where k has already contain all three cycles and H=An, then there should no be any group that contain all three cycles, so K does not exist?
Well, you need gM = sM <=> g = sm for some m in M and gN = tN <=> g = tn. Thus sm = tn.
Conversely, if sm = tn for some m in M, n in N, then you can just take g = sm = tn.
So when can you find m in M, n in N such that sm = tn?
I mean take K = G_{n-1}.
Then K/H is abelian, so K = H, which is a contradiction (first remove repetitions from your subnormal group if necessary so that G_0, …, G_n are all distinct).
Yes
OK, so if K=G n-1, and H<K, (since H contain all three cycles which means An), then H=K
I get the answer online but I am not sure about when I will find m in M , n in N such that sm=tn? But here where we used G=MN so I think there must be a use of it
Correct; there is.
Uhm... let's say I have a field of characteristic zero, and L/K is a galois extension with Klien 4 as the galois group. How do I show L = K(√d1, √d2)?
H < K because H is generated by the 3-cycles and K contains all the 3-cycles.
Do you see why K = H is a contradiction?
because they should be An?
No.
In characteristic 0 (or not 2), any quadratic extension is obtained by adjoining a square root (the quadratic formula shows that a root of any irreducible quadratic polynomial can be expressed in terms of a square root).
Can you think of a way to use this?
can you explain it?
How did we choose K?
by saying containing all three cycles?
No.
We defined H to be the subgroup generated by the 3-cycles.
We showed that K contained all 3-cycles using the fact that you showed a screenshot of in your first post.
But how did we choose K?
I do know the fact that for a field of char 0, K(a, b)/K has galois group of form Gal(K(a)/K) x Gal(K(b)/K).
So it boils down to find elements a and b which are not perfect squares because each of them will generate a extension of degree 2.
So how do we proceed?
Problem is, I don't see how to
in that case K<H, I only know K is normal subgroup of H, and H/k abelian implies all xyx^-1y^-1 is in intersection of subgroups of H?
I'm not so sure about that.
I think the correct statement is that if L1, L2 are Galois extensions of K whose intersection is K, then the composite L1L2 is Galois over K and Gal(L1L2/K) is the product of Gal(L1/K) and Gal(L2/K).
So if K(a) and K(b) are both Galois over K and their intersection is K, then what you wrote is correct.
OK, the second paragraph is the right approach though.
Do you know about the Galois correspondence?
I'm not sure what intersection you are talking about, but my question is much simpler. What was the definition of K?
I actually have no idea
You want to use that G = MN. So try to rewrite the desired condition sm = tn as something = product of something in m and something in n.
Okay thank you
Stay tuned for next week's episode Read above and find out then.
the intersection should be this
Where did you bring K from
Yes. What i see is, I can have an intermediate extension L/E such that the Galois group is the cyclic group
I feel pretty confused if it means intersection of all the subgroups of G has every elements of the form xyx^-1y^-1. Or we just pick all subgroup that contains the form of xyx^-1y^-1?
That doesn't matter for this.
Then by tower formula E/K also has cyclic group of order 2 as the Galois group
Seriously, you just need to recall how K was defined.
K is a normal subgroup of H such that H/K is abelian, and it contain all three cycles?
Yes, but how did I pick the K to apply this result to, to prove that S_n is not solvable?
So you can find quadratic extensions of K if you can find subgroups of Gal(L/K) of index 2. And it's easy to find all of those.
K=An or Sn?
No.
Will H=An?
.
Yes.
I actually feel wondered that if H is generated by three cycles, isn't it represent that it contains all three cycles?
and also An contain all three cycles if H=An
why K/H is abelian
Because by assumption, the series has abelian quotients and H/K = G_n/G_{n-1}.
I want to prove that If G is an abelian simple group then G is isomorphic to Z_p for some p.
So it is given that G is an abelian simple group thus |G|>1 , hence there exists an element x, such that x ≠ 1 , and G is abelian , <x> is a normal subgroup but G is a simple group, hence <x>= G.
Now i will prove that G is finite, so if G is not finite that means x has infinite order , and <x>=<x^n> for all positive integers n , so x= x^(ns) then x^(ns-1)=1 it shows that x has finite order, so G is finite.
Let |x|=n
Now let G={1,x,.......,x^(n-1)} since |x^k|= n/gcd(n,k).
But for all <x^k>= G , when k≠1.
So for k≠1 , x^k has order n , it implies that gcd(n,k)=1 for all k<n, hence n is prime so it is isomorphic to Z_p.
Is it correct?
Yess, I just did. I found an intermediate subfield which is literally just K(√d1). Then rest holds
Because L = E(√d2) and E = K(√d1), so, L = K(√d1, √d2)
so we have H/K abelian and H=G_n, but how is it related that H/K abelian with K/H abelian?
Where did K/H come from?
come from three cycles?
K/H doesn't matter here at all.
We have H/K abelian so your screenshot tells us that K contains all 3-cycles, so K = H.
Then H=An and it means H is the smallest group containing all three cycles, is that true?
H was defined as the smallest group containing all 3-cycles, so yes.
Then one more question, since sequence of subnormal series never reaches e because all K=H, then it contradicts right?
Yes.
Got it, really appreciate your help
There is a question in which they want to prove that for a finite abelian group has a subgroup of order n for each positive divisor n of its order and use Cauchy theorem.
I thought if I show that there is always an element of order n then it will be proof, but I do not figure out how to show this.
Isn't the first statement just Lagrange's Theorem
Or maybe I'm missing something
No
Its converse
This exercise requires Choice, right? Since you’d need to prove that every element of R - M is outside every proper ideal, and so you have to assume choice to say that any ideal is contained inside of a maximal ideal
Not for the second part: any proper ideal must consist of nonunits and hence be contained within M.
I see
For the first part, if r in R - M, then Rr + M => rs in 1 + M. If you can show that 1 + M consists of units then r is a unit.
Not sure if that can be done without AoC though.
Is it ok to just use choice if I see a method that uses choice first
Yes.
(almost always?) you don't need to worry about whether Choice is necessary unless you want to.
Ok, thanks
Let G be a group with finite exponent e (i.e., e is the smallest positive integer such that g^e = 1 for all g in G). Must G have an element of order e?
Note: this is easy to show for abelian groups, so one might as well focus on the non-abelian case.
In S(7) what will be the exponent?
Yes. {ord(x): x from G} is a finite set, whose elements are factors of e. Exponent is clearly the largest element of this set
In S(7) what will be the exponent? I think it is not true
You mean symmetry group S_7, permutations of 7 elements?
Yes
Oh my bad
e is LCM of elements of that set
Exponent is LCM of all orders
Yes
Yeah I am dumb
S_3 too
Yeah
6
In general it can be very hard to do algebra without choice, so I would recommend not ditching axioms.
Oh, any non-cyclic group of squarefree order will work then 🤦 (or in general, I think a finite group has exponent equal to its order iff its Sylow subgroups are cyclic and such a group need not be cyclic/abelian/nilpotent).
I want to prove that if all the composition factors of G are of prime order then G is solvable, so all composition factors prime order means they are Abelian so it implies G is solvable, right?
420, u forgot about the 5-cycles
But for Converse, if G is solvable then all composition factors of G are of prime order.
Let chain of subgroups
1=G_0 <.........<G_s=G so if I let this chain be the composition series the G(i+1)/G(i) is simple group and from G solvable it is abelian so we know that if K is abelian and simple group it is isomorphic to Z_p, so its composition factors will be cyclic, but this is not correct, please correct me
I thought I missed something, thank you
The composition quotients don’t need to be abelian?
But I want to show that composition factors are of prime order so it is a simple group so if I have them are Abelian then they will isomorphic to Z_p
Right so you’re doing a refinement thing
Refinement?
So you start off with just a subnormal series and then keep inserting factors until you reach one of maximal length
I just picked a chain of solvable G then I assume that it is a composition series hence all factors are simple group
I assume you meant to say simple?
If I am understanding your definitions correctly then
solvable <=> there is a subnormal series with abelian quotients
and
all finite groups have composition series (subnormal series with simple quotients)
but you don't know that there is a single subnormal series with both properties.
You can show that there is one by doing as @ wewladstbh#0 suggesed and refining a subnormal series with abelian quotients by inserting factors until it has simple quotients.
they definitely have to be simple, that's part of the definition right? We're showing they have to abelian so Notknow's proof seemed circular to me
in a general subnormal series they don't need to be simple though, that is correct
Ah.
Well, in the end, I think we were saying the same thing.
yur
Nice
I don't know how to insert factor
if your subnormal series isn't a composition series then somewhere there will be a H_i that's not a maximal normal subgroup of H_i+1, so you can put the maximal normal subgroup in between them and form a longer series
I think I've recalled the standard proof of this though, you use induction on |G| and the fact that subgroups and quotients of solvable groups are solvable, assume your result holds for all H smaller than G and then do this
You use the fact that if H_i+1/H_i is not a simple group then H_i is not the maximal normal subgroup in H_i+1, right?
yus
I want to prove that if T is a linear map from V to V then if T^m is injective then T is injective, where m is a positive integer so Iet T is not injective that means there exists u≠0 such that T(u)=0 so T^m(u)=0 , hence T^m is not injective, is it correct or I missing something?
its fine but we can do it without contradiction
Eh, it's fine.
This is very benign as uses of contradiction go.
Actually I'm curious, what are the other approaches?
Definition of injective: T(x) = T(y) implies x=y.
Assume T(x) = T(y), then T^m(x) = T^m(y), which implies x=y
direct, the wording is just the same without the framing of contradiction
contrapositive alsobeit
It's not contradiction
Proving the contrapositive is implicitly a proof by contradiction I guess
proof by truth table
Like what you end up proving is that if
T^m is injective then T is not not injective. Then the final step that not not injective implies injective is a proof by contradiction.
doesnt matter if you call it contradiction or contrapositive. theyre essentially the same as jagr said
on top of that they even gave a proof that simply uses the def of injective
Personally I'm fine with assuming LEM whenever, but I guess it's nice to avoid when not needed
based on this we see T need not be linear (nor V be a vector space). the claim holds for any function from a set to itself @crystal vale
composition of monomorphisms is mono 
in this case its more about fg mono implies g mono
Okay, thank you
why?
why am i being nerd emoji'd
I'm not so concerned with the intricacies of what implies what, so I'm fine with just assuming whatever allows me to easily do cool math.
To be fair there is a nice point I saw online about how proofs by contraposition are often nicer in terms of what you get out
Like, if you do a proof by contraposition then everything you prove in the course of your proof can be an interesting result in its own right
Whereas with a contradiction you can't take stuff out of it in the same way since you assumed nonsense
yur contrapositive is nicer
Sometimes people assume ¬A but then prove A without using that assumption so might as well remove the assumption entirely
Honestly, if I have some statement that I think is true, but don't know how to prove it, I literally just go by contradiction and then if I don't use the hypothesis then I will just rewrite the proof
if i have some statement i think is true, i sometimes just don't bother proving it, MWAHAHA
Also, if you have use contradiction then whatever you show in your proof is just nonsense and has to be thrown out. At least with contrapositive you can have meaningful steps along the way
isn't that what I said
Jk i am not offended by agreement
This is also a stack exchange answer right aha
I am wondering if there is a field A with four elements and a field B with eight elements, and i argue that because A/{0]=A*( multiplicative group) has three elements, B/{0}=B* multiplicative group has seven elements, then A* is not subgroup of B* by lagrange theorem, and therefore saying A is impossible to be the subfield of B, am I correct?
I am considering if A is possible to be isomorphic to the subfield of B
It certainly seems like you’ve proven that it isn’t
There’s also the linear algebra argument
I want to prove that a field with four elements can not be a subfield of a field with eight elements, my proof is valid right?
I don't think you are confused about the concept of proof by contradiction
Your proof is fine
Actually this has got me thinking
If I were you (Wew) rn I would say something like "wholesome epic chungus tower law" idk
Taking unit groups is a adjoint functor
So it should preserve inclusions I think
Unless I’ve got which adjoint it is backways
Anyway
Yur
You need slightly more justification
yes
Actually no I think I was being pedantic
Lol
I just needed the word “right” tbh. Now is the tensor product right or left
But I would say that if A is a subfield of B then A^x is a subgroup of B^x
It’s right. Both “tensor” and “right” are red words so it has to be right
That is obvious tbf
Tensor is left adjoint to hom. Think currying!
I hate this fucking bullshit
YEAH SO ITS RIGHT EXACT
yeah
SO WHY IS IT ON THE LEFT
Hom(a x b, c) <-> Hom(a, Hom(b, c)) ergo tensor left, hom right epic chungus
left adjoints are right exact
see bc it's on the left ya dingus
This is like the electron having negative charge
left derived functors are right kan extensions
Or the fuckin semidirect product symbol
Lol
Who knows which way round it goes just flip a coin
With semidirect product i learnt a trick
it is like the normal subgroup symbol with extra decoration
Yes I know the normal subgroup thing
Stop MANSPLAINING TO ME
I might cry
Anyway
I prefer the linear algebra argument
You mean the tower law argument NERD
If A is a subfield of B then B is a - SHUT UP BOYTJIE - a A-vector space and thus has to have order equal to a power of 4
yes exactly
Oh yh why did I call it the tower law
I think it's like
Oh no wait I remember why
if you're doing it relative to the prime field
ye
I am simply too good for you bitches
This was fun because like
[B : A] = [B:A][A:A] upon
when i was taught about ifnite fields the prof didn't do this proof and it was way longer
he was proving like
F_(p^m) embeds in F_(p^n) iff m|n
with what you said being one direction lol
the name semidirect product gives me nightmares
Actually what he said was the other argument here in retrospect lol
like p^m -1 | p^n -1
implies m|n
i think
Semidirect product of fusion systems
Tbf you have to show that if A is a subfield of B then B is always a vector space
That’s not strictly obvious at first glance
It might even be an A-algebra 
The sus chungus...
I wonder if anyone has tried to study the group of automorphisms of B as an A-algebra
No.
Probably not :letrollface:
Probably some really sensible people who would never fight a duel
If anyone at all
Tbf whenever I say Galois group thays what I mean
I don’t care about the extension being galois
I can barely even remember what that means. Just give me the automorphisms you pendants
I must do… cohomology
why are we allowed to let G be abelian
Iirc the logic is you’ll eventually hit G/[G,G] anyway so just start there
Wait G is a general finite group?
Meh it probably still works by the same logic but this is weird
I think the point is just: say you have some inclusion H < G in your tower, where G/H is abelian. Then you can just find a cyclic tower of G/H and pull back
Stop saying “pull back” to the undergrads
But yeah I think that’s more to the point
pullbacks uwu
at this point i forgot all group theory
Remember when authors say “clearly” they don’t mean it’s clear
They mean they can’t be bothered to write out the details
that's the charitable assumption, really they're gaslighting you 😛
Where the author says "clearly" is where the reader spends 70% of their time
Disagree. Easily 90
Lol
$K[V]$ is the coordinate ring of $V$ . Why can it be embedded in $L$?, I know that the polynomial ring in $n$ variables can be embedded in $L$ but I don't know how the quotient is embedded.
eduardo291299
You might get better answers for this in #algebraic-geometry.
(I'm guessing that it might also help to specify what V and L are.)
$V$ is a K-variety and $L$ a field extension of $K$
eduardo291299
Hatcher says that the abelianization of this group is g copies of Z. How could I show this?
[a,b] is the commutator here
That’s the abelianisation of the free group on g generators, which is the free abelian group on g generators which is Z^g
Not quite Wew, e.g. there is no relation [b_1, a_2] present
Ah true
But when you abelainise you just add those in
It’s also on 2g variables
pi_1(M_g) looks like Z^2 * Z^2 ... * Z^2 (g times) where * denotes the free product. So I would actually expect that the Abelianisation looks like Z^2g?
oops you're right
Anyway as wew alludes to, you can just use the correspondence theorem together with the knowledge that the Abelianisation of the free group of n variables is Z^n.
my problem is that when abelianizing, there's some stuff that has already been made go to 0, e.g. [ai,bi]. It seems like then the abelianization of Pi_1(M_g) could be smaller than Z^2g
Slam the universal property triangles together until it works
No. If it’s already zero then sending it to zero doesn’t change anything
It’s the set of relators not the multiset!
hmmmm I'll think a bit more about that, thank you
me when your diagram is a simplicial complex
(You can also see this by using one of the elementary tietze transforms)
I would just say that any map pi_1(M_g) into an abelian group factors uniquely through Z^2g
Like hopefully that is clear
Beat you to it
You’re so category brained it’s unreal
But yes that would work 
I guess my problem is: Is the abelianization of G=< A | R> the same as K=<A | R \cup {[x,y] | x,y in A}>? These don't seem to be immeadiately the same
the one on the left can be constructed as < A | R> / normal subgroup generated by the [x,y]; but it's not clear to me that the thing on the right is a presentation for this
R is a subset of your second thing. This is just set theory
Lol
I feel this is so simple and obvious yet I don't get it lol, I'll just return to it later
ty
How did they derive the circled congruence?
I tried expanding the binomial but I don't see why p^α divides the omitted terms
That "p>2^2" is unclear to me anyway, as the purpose is proving the thing for p>2.
\alpha >= 3 instead is needed because this is an inductive step and the base case was \alpha = 2
Or just p^(\alpha-k) divides binom(p^(\alpha-2), k) is enough, but still I don't understand how to derive it eventually
@olive granite
#elementary-number-theory is the right channel
you actually want binom(p^(a-2), k) to be divisible by p^(a-k); to prove this, use p-adic valuation and Legendre identity
so we want to prove that v_p of that binom is at leat a-k
now, v_p of that binom is v_p((p^(a-2))!)-v_p(k!)-v_p((p^(a-2))!)
and we have v_p(n!) = (n-s_p(n))/(p-1), where s_p(n) is the sum of the digits when n is written in base p
Oh, thank you. If you want we can move to that channel.
Is it the legendre identity? Why did they omit these steps, anyway, they don't seem that trivial to me, or is it a well known fact?
I don't know why they skipped the steps. By any change, are there any similar calculations done before?
also, there is a chance I might have made an error
I checked but no, it doesn't seem. I'll try to see what I can do with your suggestion
@olive granite maybe forget about that approach; I think I have something that works better
Oh ok
Write the binomial as $\frac{p^{\alpha-2}(p^{\alpha-2}-1)(p^{\alpha-2}-2)\ldots(p^{\alpha-2}-k+1)}{k!}$
Filip
so we want to prove that the exponent of p in this thing (notation v_p(...)) is at least a-k
v_p(nominator) is at least a-2
and v_p(k!), by Legendre, is (k-s_p(k-1))/(p-1) and this is at most (k-1)/(p-1)
now v_p(fraction)=v_p(nominator)-v_p(denominator) >= a-2 - (k-1)/(p-1)
and a-2 - (k-1)/(p-1) >= a-k, q.e.d.
Awesome! I think I understand. So v_p(k!) is at most that quantity because s_p(k) is at least 1 right?
yes
Thank you very much, that's a very nice identity
you're welcome
btw, as a remark, for k=p, the exponent of p in that binom should be a-3
it's not relevant for the solution, but it answers this question
Totally right
Hey guys are there collections of galois theory problems?
I’m sure a textbook on Galois theory would lol
pick an irreducible polynomial and work out the galois group, do this for 200 different polynomials
Express cos(2pi/17) in radicals
Like problem book with different kinds of problems
Oh jesus fuck not this fucker again
inb4 there are 2 people asking how to compute galois groups for 3 years
This problem took me a long ass time to write out
ok now do it for 65537

reverse
Honestly the Gauss sum was the hardest part
why is there a role called "old abstract algebra"
as opposed to new abstract algebra?
correct
the new roles are only avalible to grad+
where are the new roles
First google search yields this https://link.springer.com/book/10.1007/978-3-319-72326-6
Thank
but you can probably find most of the material in usual Galois theory books
a nice problem if you haven't seen it is to calculate the degree of Q(zeta_n)
waow big long list
I am learning it from notes of J.S Milne
He moved to L functions
Took the L
bro started computing galois groups before i even got into math
and only switched to computing L functions a couple of months ago
Hi, in this problem the book specifies that K is a subset of I. But it didnt seem like I needed that in the proof. Am I missing something?
And still has zero idea how to do it
Well the notation I/K is usually defined only to be when I is a superset of K. If you ignore that, you do actually get a similar result, but the ideal containing K you are actually looking at is I+K
i cant think of a non trivial way to define I/K if K is not a subset of I
Well it's immediately obvious.
It's just i + K for i in I
You get exactly the same quotient set in the end
@coral spindle Ok thank you that makes sense
let K be of char=p>1. Why is x^p-t^p irred in K(t^p)[x]?
is it because the only root is (possible \pm) t which is not in K(t^p)?
im looking at a proof that K(t)/K(t^p) is a non-seperable extension
and the book says that x^p-t^p is irreducible over K(t^p)[x] but shares roots with its derivative in K(t) hence it is not seperable
but dont we have to show that the minimal polynomial is not seperable
and the minimal polynomial of t over K(t^p) is just x-t
which is coprime w/ 1
also, are the only field extensions of finite fields F_{p^m} \subset F_{p^n} where m<=n
by Eisenstein, I think
i see
Ah so it is
x^p - s in K(s)[x]
Yea eisenstein (as always for irreducibility)
also, why is K\subset L purely inseperable <-> every alpha \in L is a root of some polynomial x^(p^n)=a, n>0, p=char(K), a \in K
Which direction are you having trouble with?
can an action of a group ever be faithful on a set smaller than the group?
Yes
Think of nice groups which act on sets... you already know a very nice infinite family
hmm I'm not sure, I don't know of many examples of groups acting on sets I don't know much of anything about actions yet
if I have an infinite group acting on a finite set then the function from the group to the endomorphisms can't be injective no?
You absolutely do know of an example of a group acting on sets. You know infinitely many examples.
Think for a bit of some of the first groups you learn about
well I thought of adding or multiplication but there the target set can't be finite
What are some finite groups you know of.
permutations, cyclic, matrices over cyclic with multiplication uhh
Tell me about permutations
What does the permutation group Sym(3) look like
And how does it relate to the set {1,2,3}
is Sym S?
ah huh right you're right
xD
not that I was suspecting you weren't I mean
so the group can't be larger than the target set size factorial?
It cannot
This is because a group action of G on a set X is actually a group homomorphism G -> Sym(X)
I initially got confused by this
Faithful actions are those for which the kernel of this map is 0
just from the text given it does not seem to me that the second example is a counterexample of the first since both have cardinality 2^n I thought but idk I'm underslept
thank you for the answer
(a, b, c)(d, e, f) = (a + cd, b + e, cf).
does anyone know how to show this a binary operation in congruence classes of modulo 5 field
where c isnt 0
i dont even know how to show it commutes
if its a binary operation it has to commute no?
No
“A binary operation” is so vague it literally automatically satisfies it
A binary operation is just a function
So tadah, it's a binary operation
Elaborate on your question, there's context missing clearly.
the question just says to show its a binary operation
where the group is (a,b,c) st a,b,c are in f5
Show the full question to us.
nvm
i understand for some reason i was looking at defn of a ring
instead of binaery operation
this was the question if u care
c =/= 0
indeed it was nontrivial to show this precisely because you needed to specify the set being operated on more clearly.
A classic example of the xy problem
You should have shown the question from the start
that makes it annoying though cause now I can't just immediately show everything by linear algebra
how would you have shown it with lin alg if it was
bcus under the field it would be a vector space or something?
Wew is being facetious
oh im not experienced enough for the memes ahahahaha
Not really. You could write the right multiplication by a certain element as a matrix
Yes and this immediately shows everything 
Representation >.>
What representation
Nevermind, likely I misread the joke
But if I and K are not related to each other and I want to find a set of cosets of I in K or K in I , then it makes sense or not?
So do you prefer rings or groups first
Ring
Morphisms
Groups
I am not able to find a counterexample of the second
For the first i think H intersection K \in {H,K} simply means one is a subset of the other so I was able to get through i guess
<S> here means subgroup generated by S
Ok nvm i just found an example using vector spaces over F_2 for the second
We consider ((0,0),(1,0)) ((0,0),(0,1)) ((0,0),(1,1)) right?
Yeah, the second is just the non-cyclic group of order 4, and all its proper non-trivial subgroups (which is what you wrote)
The dihedral group D_n has order 2n because we can identify each rotation with a reflection. When we consider, say rotation by pi radians and reflection in y axis, these two function R^2 - > R^2 have exactly the same domain and image. As functions (subsets of R^2 \times R^2) they are equivalent. Why do we then say the dihedral group has order 2n and not order n?
Pretty sure rotation by pi degrees and reflection in y axis are not the same
(1, 1) goes to (1, -1) by the reflection and to (-1, -1) by the rotation
Oh right!
I think Sigma = {v, w} and G = Sigma^*, H = {v}^*, K = {w}^* and L = G would work also or anything where one of the subgroups contains the other 2 and the other 2 are disjoint
oh this is a good way to put it nice
I'm a bit confused as to the geometric significance of conjugation is
Like if srs^-1 = r^-1 or something, what is this saying and does s being the "conjugator" mean anything
for dihedral groups
a good example is the fact that to change basis in linear algebra you conjugate by a matrix
you can think of it as "going somewhere, doing something, then coming back" I guess
and that we call conjugate matrices "similar"
yeah i thought it was similiar to the idea of similiar matrices
continuing with this, diagonalisation writes one matrix as a conjugate of another, as does triangularisation
i guess geometrically i thought of it as you can restate a symmetry in terms of a composition
but back to groups, the obvious example is that quotients are only well defined when you quotient by a normal subgroup, which is a union of conjugacy classes.
yeah so once you learn group actions and formalise this notion there's loads of nice things to do with conjugation. For example, if two group elements are conjugate then they fix the same number of points
D_n isn't the best example of this because things either fix everything, 2 points, or nothing lol
i see
Sorry for the stupid question, but are group actions and group operations synonyms?
no
What is the difference?
well for one group operators are G x G -> G, group actions are G x X -> X for any set X
for example let G = S_n and X be a set of size n
then there's a canonical group action S_n x X -> X given by permuting the elements of X
I see thanks
hello :)
im brand new to group theory (literally started my course last week) and came across this q
parts i, ii and iii done with no problem and i showed isomorphism between S1 and SO(2)
(if my course's notation is different from yours, S1 is the complex numbers w/ modulus 1, SO(2)=O(2)=2x2 orthogonal matrices)
and my idea for showing the second isomorphism isn't true was to compose isomorphisms so that by contradiction it would mean $S^1\cong S^1\times {\pm 1}$
george clooney real account
now this should be the easy part: prove that claim is obviously false
but i'm not sure how to, in general, prove two things are not isomorphic, all i did was make the "not isomorphic" problem easier lol
You need to look for a property preserved under isomorphism that one group has and the other doesn’t
i can't use cardinality because theyre both uncountable ;-;
For finite groups you usually compare elements of a certain order
i havent learnt what those properties are
this is the very first isomorphism question i have ever been exposed to
Maybe look at the number of elements of order 5 (solutions to z^5=1) for example
so S^1 has e^2api/5 with a =0,1,2,3,4
and S^1 i guess has (e^2api/5, 1) and (e^2api/5, -1) for a=0,1,2,3,4
so LHS has 5 of them, RHS has 10 of them, so not isomorphic?
oh lol oops
If you use an even number instead of 5 this works though!
no ur right
okay cool lol i'm just doing baby math mistakes like -1^5=1 lmaoo
so just choose elements of order 2 basically
Prove that if x has order n and phi is an isomorphism then phi(x) also has order n most importantly
S^1 has 1,-1 and S^1 x +-1 has (1,1),(1,-1),(-1,1),(-1,-1)
as elements of order 2
and then unequal amount so not isomorphic?
coolcool
okay cool that dioesn't look too bad
tysm !!
👍
loving group theory so far, my second fav course after set theory hehe
It gets better! It’s awesome
Also this is crazy lol
oxford university🤷♂️
they hate their students
Wow Oxford! Nice
my professor is rly good at explaining it tho, we kinda whizzed past all of the preliminary definitions in like 15min without making anyone feel too out-of-breath
so ik that when we get to higher group theory stuff it'll be pretty palatable
would u say this is a reasonable proof?
forgive the weird sideways inequality signs i tried to make a primitive kind of equality diagram to make the connection simpler
Not quite
You’ve shown that |phi(g)| <= n (technically |phi(g)| | n) but you haven’t ruled out that it could be less
ahh true
okay cool lemme try the second bit
wait doesn't it just follow from inverse mapping
💤💤💤
Does the same proof show that if K=Q(zeta), zeta primitive n-th root of unity, then if L=K(Sqrtn) for some a \in K, Gal(L,K) is cyclic?
because Gal is a subgroup of Z/nZ, hence cyclic itself
assume my claim/proof is right. then is the converse true? a cyclic extension is of this form?
Do you mean replacing p with general n?
I think adjoining the 8th root of unity leads to a non cyclic Galois group(?) since (Z/8)^x is not cyclic
that isn't what they're asking though
yes, sorry
Pointing out that Gal is a subgroup of (Z/n)^x, not Z/n
No they are correct
You are doing Q(zeta)/Q right
Yeah
Hello1 is doing Q(zeta, nth root)/Q(zeta)
then its multiplicative yeah
Oooh
proving abel
Anyway, no the same proof does not work, since they critically used the fact p was prime
i dont need to be Z/nZ, just cyclic
Ah then agreed yes
this wasnt expliclty mentioned so wasnt sure
It's cyclic and you can just identify what it is using the splitting field
how
oh, so like the subgroup {0,1,2} is sqrt(a)*zeta^0, sqrt(a)*zeta^1, etc?
by the fund theorem
The proposition is not quite correct technically as written since you should force x^p - a to have no roots but yes
Idk what you mean
Just calculate the order of the splitting field of x^n - a over Q(zeta)
I need to remember how you do this here though
is this because then the extension isnt normal?
and then Gal=0
where is this hypothesis used though in the proof
Well they say the Galois group is the trivial group or Z/pZ itself
And the Galois group has the order of the extension
i see
So they are tacitly assuming the extension is not of degree 1 lol
But yeah slightly pedantic point but kinda important when we wanna generalise to other n
Anyway like you can check that x^n - a is irreducible if a is not an nth root
By Eisenstein basically
ye
i fink
Isn't that what you have just computed
im also confused on the notation, n, a_0 etc
is n the deg of the poly?
are the a_i roots?
Okay yeah I agree that is kinda badly written
do u know whats going on here
Well it's solvable by radicals
also i think this only shows (<-) 
so you can just write it where each field is obtained from the last by adjoining nth roots ig
oh yeah lol
what are the n and ai?
n is just random and a_0 an element of K_0
are the ai and n just arbitary elements that we adjoin the n-th root of until we get L
do you mean K
ok so start with K, add some (n) roots of unity, add sqrtn, repeat process until L. guaranteed to eventually terminate since roots given by radicals. Then the corresponding subgroups are all cyclic, the quotient is then cyclic (idk why prime order), and terminates at 1 thus solvable
i dont get why K(sqrtn) \subset L
or even why adjoining roots of unity to K is a subset of L
ah, i think this may be because the extension is normal? x^n-1 has a root in L thus all roots are in L
need to show that x^n-a_i=0 has some root in L
or maybe just put L in a radical extension of K, and then take the a_i guaranteed by defn
In the solution (second image), can someone explain the step $\phi(M) + I\phi(M) + I^2N = \phi(M) + I^2N$?
Henry
phi(M) is some sub module of N, so it’s closed under multiplication from R, in particular Iphi(M) \subseteq phi(M)
this is unaswered btw
ohhhhh i see
I was trying see how $I\phi(M)$ is a subset of $I^2N$, but I came to the conclusion that $I^2$ is a subset of $I$, not the other way around
Henry
Let f be a degree n monic irreducible seperable polynomial in K[x] where K is a field. Let L be the splitting field of f over K. I know that L/K is Galois. But, would I be right to say that n = |Gal(L/K)|?
No of distinct roots of f in an algebraic closure of K should be the no of K-algebra embeddings of K(alpha) into the closure, and the Cardinality of the automorphism group in general is less than this as it's mostly a subgroup. But for Galois group, do we achieve equality?
Oh right
For every K-algebra embedding of L to a fixed algebraic closure of K, as L/K is normal (because splitting field), it induces an automorphism on L.
So it should be equality in this case
My bad, should have figured this out a long time ago
[L:K] = |Gal(L/K)|, but that needn't be the degree of f
The example Absta gives is an example
I should point out that this is only true for Galois extensions, but if you take the splitting field of a separable poly then that gives you a Galois extension
Yeah, permutation of roots can be wonky
You can switch them around without anyone noticing, in more ways than cyclics
Isn't that Galois?
Oh shit.
Degree 6
Wait then where did I do wrong
Every K-alg homomorphism from L to K closure should be an automorphism
L is normal
That means |Hom(L, K bar)| <= |Gal(L/K)|, and also in general, |Gal(L/K)| <= |Hom(L, K bar)| as every K-automorphism of L is also an embedding of L into K bar
This is infact true for all finite normal extensions
Cardinality of Hom(L, K bar) is simply the seperable degree, and is equal in this particular case as L/K is also seperable.
But there's the irreducible condition right? In this case, Gal(L/K) acts transitively over R_L(f), that is the set of roots of f in L.
f can have at most n roots, so it acts as some transitive subgroup of S_n
...oh right. This doesn't say it needs to be equal.
But how do we say n divides this?
If there's an order n element we are done
Do we say this
Is the rational canonical form good for anything besides proving Cayley-Hamilton and that similarity of matrices does not depend on the base field? I feel like I've never seen it used for anything besides this and it's nowhere near as powerful as e.g. Jordan form.
An exercise literally asks me to prove this when f is irreducible.
Hmm
Even in your example, 3 divides 6
If it has the same exact degree as the degree of the polynomial, then yeah we are done
But your counterexample said that is not always the case
You are aware that the size of the Galois group is the degree of the splitting field, yes? And you know the tower law?
Hopefully you also know the degree of the extension achieved by adjoining the root of an irreducible polynomial
pizza tower law
Let G be a group with 2023 elements. How can I find the number of elements x with the property that x^7=e. How can I find the number of elements x with x^(17^2)=e
Lmao
Nice
I know the number of elements with x^7=e is 1(mod7)
But I dont think this helps
And the group may be non abelian
Yes.
So, you want to mean that
[L:K] = [L:K(alpha)] [K(alpha):K] = n * [L : K(alpha)].
If L was somehow a simple extension and alpha was that particular adjoined element
Then only [L:K] = n
The order of a subgroup has to divide the order of the group, so your 7-sylow subgroups are cyclic of order 7
likewise your Sylow 17-subgroups have to be order 17^2, which is a square of a prime, and so are also abelian
Ok right
But for example
All the elements of order 7
Are in that 7-Sylow subgroup?
Yes I am idiot this is true
n7 divides 17^2
one sec
And n7=1 mod7
yes I don't need the sylow theorems to be mansplained to me thanks
just hard to think about 289 and multiples of 7 in my head
yeah ok I can see it now. Strange
oh yeah duh, your entire group is abelian hahaha
How?
all of your sylow subgroups are normal and abelian
And that implies the entire group is abelian?
all your sylow subgroups are normal iff your group is nilpotent, and thus is the product of it's sylow subgroups
there's also some theorem where |G| = p^2q with q not 1 mod p^2 and p not 1 mod q then you conclude this but it's literally the same thing
But you’re trying to prove that n divides the order of the galois group yes?? Think about how to use this fact.
You’re basically there, I have nothing else to add really
I know this result
But I think it was p^2q with q not 1 mod p
And q>p
For abelian
And pq with p<q and q not 1 mod p
For cyclic
I've just googled it and it agrees with me, but yours still works with p = 17 and q = 7 so w/e
Oh
How to find out if Z2 x Z5 x Z8 and Z4 x Z20 are isomorphic or not?
@coral spindle
I think I was there
One thing you can do is try to figure out the maximal order of an element in each. If it's different they can't be isomorphic.
Hi, I was reading a bit of rings,
I came across the Ring of real quaternions, In the book(Topics in Algebra, Herstein) it is stated that
ijk = -1
However, when I did vector calculus, I have used ijk = 1, are these two different?
Please clarify!
It is standard to have ijk=-1 but you could also choose a different basis for the quaternions — substituting -i for i, for example — and you would get the same formulae but with ijk = 1. I have never seen anyone actually do this though.
What is basis for quaternions?
1, i, j, k.
If you don't know what a basis is in terms of linear algebra I can't really explain more than that.
I know basis in linear algebra, just wasn't sure if it was the same here
It's the same here.
Are quaternions and the direction unit vectors the same thing?
What do you mean by this
What are the direction unit vectors
Is 1 a direction unit vector?
I don't know how to rigorously define these things
The unit vectors pointing in the x, y and z directions are defined as i,j,k respectively.
Is 1 a direction unit vector then?
Because then no, clearly not
Because 1 is in the quaternions
I want to convey to you a very important idea that will help you understand algebra.
It does not matter what things in some algebraic structure are, it matters how they relate to each other.
The quaternions would still behave the same if they were bits of shoestring.
As long as you had elements you called 1, i, j, and k, and you had all the equations hold, they would be the quaternions.
that being said, if you take the standard inner product on R^4 and just slap it on the quaternions, then i j k all have norm 1 and are orthogonal
this is of course implicitly choosing your basis to include i, j, k but as boytjie said earlier who chooses a different basis lol
Historically the names i, j, k for the unit vectors derives from the quaternions. The quaternions predate linear algebra, and inner product and cross product where formulated in terms of quaternion multiplication.
dang I didn't know that
I did imagine that right-handedness of the coordinate system aligned with ijk=-1 but this explains it
neato
Funny considering you can get the cross product fairly directly from determinants
Is this a common construction on groups? Does it have a name?
Hi, can anyone help me find a ring with an element that is irreducible but not prime?
This looks like a standard biset construction but more generally it’s just a pullback
I don’t know how this relates to G-principle bundle nonsense though sorry
It's a good idea to look at extensions of Z by some square root, so try looking at rings like Z[sqrt(n)] for some integer n, which may be negative! You will be able to find irreducible elements, and prove they are irreducible, by looking at their norms. Give it a shot!
I'm unfamiliar with the notation, what do you mean by Z[sqrt(n)]?
I only know Z[X] as ring of polynoms with coefficients from Z
I mean the subring {x + y sqrt(n) | x, y in Z} of C.
If you've never seen this, prove it's a ring now. It's nontrivial
Ah, we used Z(sqrt(n)) for that 👍
You're right, I got confused 🙂
The notation made me think it was a pullback but what is the ambient category? E is a right G-set while F is a left one
good question, apart from the obvious boring answer that we can just consider a left/right G-set as a right/left one by acting on the other side by g^-1 I think it's a pull back in the category of (G,G)-bisets
where we consider a left/right G-set as a (G,G)-biset with a trivial right/left action
Thanks, I'll think about that
Could you say where do bisets arise? First time I meet this concept, I found https://link.springer.com/book/10.1007/978-3-642-11297-3 but they don't talk about its motivation
well the simpliest case I know of is double cosets K\G/H
which come up in like, Mackey's theorem
I only know about them because my phd research uses them so they're not a very common construction it seems
I see, thanks
Let F be a field, G a finite automorphism subgroup of Aut(F), and F^G the fixed-point subfield. Is there an automorphism of F^G[X_1...X_N] that extends each of G's elements that just "permutes" the indeterminates?
do fields have the Schröder–Bernstein property ?
I keep trying to think about it, I know G embeds into S_|G|, and S_|G| is an automorphism subgroup of F^G[X_1...X_N] that fixes F^G and permutes the indeterminates
but I'm unsure if that guarantees that for a valuation map and an automorphism s (and it's isomorphism-image) s* that v(s*(p)) = s(v(p))
I am a moron nevermind
no
algebraically closed fields probably do
but for instance C(continuum many variables) embeds into C
or just C(t)
The theory of acfs (in a particular characteristic) is categorical in all cardinals, right?
So indeed yes, since they would have equal cardinalities
i do know some of these words
but yes algebraically closed fields are classified by prime field and transcendence basis size
so they are basically fancy sets, and so schroder bernstein holds
Yes so indeed they're categorical in all cardinals for that reason lol
Categorical here just means that if a model has a particular cardinality, then it is unique with that cardinality up to isomorphism

Hey so, going off this again
Let F be a field, G a finite automorphism subgroup of Aut(F), and F^G the fixed-point subfield. If we have an element of F, x with a full orbit under G, then is F^G(s_1(x)…s_n(x)) always iso to F, where s_n is an enumeration of G
If "full orbit" means the orbit has size |G|, then yes.
[F:F^G] = |G| and G permutes the roots of the minimal polynomial of x, so is the minimal polynomial of x has |G| roots, then F^G(x) = F.
I was going to try to prove [F:D^G] = |G| through that & integrality/algebraicity
One thing you can do is prove that F/F^G is normal and seperable, hence a Galois extension.
I was trying to find a weird back route to Artin’s lemma by proving F is a finitely generated F^G algebra then proving it’s a finitely generated module by virtue of Noether Normalization
Instead of the usual Artin’s lemma proof which is vector space magic
I am trying to come up with a contradiction by showing there can’t be an intermediate field that it gets mapped to
Does "symmetry" in group theory refer to the actual bijections themselves?
else, what is a "symmetry" referring to precisely?
i.e., mirroring a pentagon vertically preserves the figure in a plane
so is this referred to as a "symmetry"?
the symmetry is an isometry from R^2 -> R^2 that fixes the image (eg a pentagon will "stay the same" after applying the map)
but you're probably looking for the idea of "permutation"
these will form a group under composition
did you watch a 3blue1brown video perchance lol
Most of the times you can think of symmetries as bijections that preserve some property/structure of an object (or nothing at all, that is the case in Sn)
With this, you can get all the "possible symmetries" of a shape in the plane (note that this is a VERY SPECIFIC VERSION of the notion of symmetry, but it will work for now), which are translations, reflections, and rotations. Note that for any particular "thing" in the plane you don't get translations in your symmetry group unless your thing is unbounded, so that's why D_n for example is only rotations and reflections, since polygons are bounded (ex. suppose you have some set X a subset of R^2 such that there it's bounded on the right and there is a single point that has the biggest x-coordinate: where is the "rightmost" point going to go if you translate to the right? What will map to the "rightmost point" if you translate to the left?) (an example of where translations would be in your group is if you have a "tiling pattern", like the set {(x,y) | x or y is an integer}, then we can say that translations "up" or "down" or "to the right" or "to the left" or some Z-linear combination of these is in our symmetry group)
you can expand this notion of symmetry to mean "a group acts on a set which has structure", which is sort of the most "general" notion of symmetry. When X is a finite set, you get the symmetric group S_n as the group of symmetries of X. When X is a "riemannian manifold with the additional data of a set inclusion" you get the usual notion of "symmetries" that you're familiar with. Symmetry is literally everywhere in group theory. You can rephrase "normal subgroups" and "cosets" in the language of symmetry if you wanted to. You can have groups act on manifolds. You can have groups act on groups. You can even have groups act on themselves. In fact, when you let a group act on itself and explore the consequences, you get a nice theorem that says "every finite group is a subgroup of S_n"
(cayley)
@minor wraith I'll probably leave it there because I have to sleep, but you should take away the lesson that "symmetry is literally intrinsic to what it means to be a group" and that you could literally define a group as "a thing that acts on a space" and people would more or less be happy with that definition, and you can expand the notion of "symmetries of a thing" to mean "a group acting on that thing in a nice way" and people would be happy with that as well.
if you have any questions about it I'll probably respond just ping me or something
I never really cared much for the "groups are symmetries" philosophy
you mean the “geometry and representation theory” philosophy?
I really do think that the perspective is helpful pedagogically, and it has the ability to stay rigorous, as long as one is willing to expand on what they consider to be "symmetry"
the entire point lol
I am trying to convince someone who is unconvinced
“i dont agree with [standard thing]” followed by zero elaboration doesnt warrant a thoughtful response imo
maybe not
maybe it doesn't I was just thinking out loud I guess
i think saying this as a slogan and not explaining doesnt help that much
like intro group theory courses often dont do group actions which is bad i think
Guys, could someone give me a hand finding the neutral?
in part bc omitting that language frustrates the instructor’s attempt to explain the geometry

diagonal matrix with 1s on diagonal
i can imagine a group theory course built around some central example would be good
but maybe too slow
I had the opportunity to substitute for an professor who was teaching algebra
I'm upset that I didn't do it
would have been a really good experience
its also hard to find good examples that are suitable for the level of a student who needs to be learning group theory
yeah ive never taught it either
seems interesting
I think studying A_n does a disservice to introductory AA students
yes
the undergrad course used the wallpaper groups as examples
for sure
actually maybe a course could do linear algebra with group theory flavor and then the rep theory of S_n
maybe too hard
I think there are like three or four groups that ought to be studied in-depth: S_n, D_n, the basics about GL(n,R), SL(n,R), PSL(n,R) i think are probably good ones
uh there are probably more
well cyclic groups lol
maybe also GL(n, Fq)
like you can talk about cyclic groups and basics for like 10 weeks and then just do examples for the last 5
or however long it would take to do the very basics
i think its a function of what basics are important
idk I'm not a pedagogy-head
it's nice to use the sylow theorems to classify small groups or whatever
but they need to be done
I think this should be left for the qual course and if people are interested in it they can do it
i hate the theory of finite groups
just like
maybe some basic covering space theory is doable
You know what in retrospect maybe I just didn't care much for group theory
lol
or like playing with teichmuller space
that is much more reasonable lol
i wonder how often people teach group theory following the historical order
and do galois theory first or whatever
lmao

