#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 211 of 1
it makes sense that groups act on sets since groups are group objects in Set but the category of abelian groups doesn't seem very deeply related to Rings
I mean, what's special about abelian groups that make it the right category for rings to act on
“Acts on” like a group action sense but it also distributes
I feel like this way of thinking is backwards
I’m pretty sure there’s “group modules” where groups act on another groups in a same vain
I would say rings are defined as such because...
Rings are monoids in the category of abelian groups, so if that's your justification...
I did not know that!
then yes, that'd be a pretty convincing justification for me
thank you
But I think a better explanation is just that a ring has two operations. The multiplication becomes the composition of actions, but then addition should correspond to something
Currying moment
Didn’t know there’s a notion of a “monoid in a category”
but even then at this level, if you take multiplication to be the composition of actions you're already working with monoid objects :p
Homie’s going to be mortified by C* algebras
Really it just comes down to End(A) being a ring when A is an abelian group and a monoid when A is a set
I can’t even think of how many fucking layers of binary operators are in one of those fuckers
Thus it makes sense to define actions of rings and monoids on abelian groups and sets respectively.
And group action is just a special case
good point, though we would also like it to be universal somehow? I.e. that rings act on a category C such that End(A) is a ring for each A in C. Not sure what the universal property should be, I'll be thinking about that
I'm not sure what kind of property your looking for. An X-action of R on A is just an X homomorphism R -> End(A). So this makes sense whenever End(A) has the necessary structure to define an X homomorphism.
I guess you can also define actions internally. In which case a ring action is just a monoid action in the category of abelian groups
Though I don't really see any universal property in sight
And there are only 3 maximal ideal in Z/2024Z ?
Not quite what I was looking for but I got: There is a forgetful functor F: Grp -> Sets such that for every group G, there is a canonical action f: G -> End(|G|) such that any other action G -> End(X) factors through it. Similarly with the forgetful functor Ring -> Ab
this doesn't really characterize Sets or Ab though but eh good enough
the fact that the tensor product does not appear in my description above further indicates that I'm not using all the data required
Guess it appears indirectly in that when you think of End(A) as an abelian group you're using the monoidal structure of Ab
oh right mb
yeah I think this is as good as it gets, with no universal property in sight
Z[[x]]^3 
Is x^2 + 1 irreducible in F_49[x]?
Mods...
Triple the power, triple the ideals! Buy the new power series today!
Does Z[[x]] even have a unique maximal ideal
no
don't (p,x) work
it's only the power series over local fields that are local
When would it be irreducible?
ok
Or rather, when would it be reducible? What would that mean, more concretely.
this is wrong btw, got it the other way around. It should be: For every set X there is a canonical action S_|X| -> End(X)
Never mind, it is.
As x^2 + 1 is a degree 2 polynomial, it is reducible iff it has a root in F_49. I couldn't find a root, so I thought I was tripping and ran a simple python code, and none of the elements in F_49 returns 0 by evaluation on x^2 + 1
and lmao funny story this was in a graded assignment and i basically somehow proved that for a finite field F with characteristic p > 2, x^2 + 1 has a root in F iff |F| = 1 mod 4
Only after 2 hours after deadline was passed i got this
huh I'm confused, then what's the root?
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Quadratic_reciprocity#Supplements_to_Quadratic_Reciprocity you might be interested in that!
In number theory, the law of quadratic reciprocity is a theorem about modular arithmetic that gives conditions for the solvability of quadratic equations modulo prime numbers. Due to its subtlety, it has many formulations, but the most standard statement is:
This law, together with its supplements, allows the easy calculation of any Legendre s...
Might be a bug in your code then
One construction is F49 = F7[x]/(x^2 + 1), so then what the root is is pretty easy. With another construction it would be a bit more work to find it explicitly.
Okay thank you
yeah.... Let me actually check real proper
.....ok anyways me idot. F_49 is not Z/49Z. It's Z/7Z x Z/7Z, with multiplicative group as Z/48Z.
Yes, as a module
But yeah you can just check that Z/48 has a primitive fourth root of unity
It does, it's 12 right
yeah that's one of them
Anyway one nice way to do it which is basically what jagr is saying is like
Yeah what I was gonna say was that you can just consider the splitting field over F_7
Like it's a degree 2 extension i.e. F_49
It's a bit misleading to call it i. There are no complex numbers in this field. There is a primitive 4th root of unity but it's not the same one as in C. Perhaps pedantic but it's worth mentioning this, for instance if you try and find 'i' in a field of characteristic 2 you run into problems.
I'm actually wondering how the root is actually like
Well construct F_49 as F_7[x]/(x^2+1) and it's just x + (x^2+1) 
lmao
Letting \bar F_7 be the algebraic closure of 7, it's a fact that the group of units of this field is isomorphic to (Q/Z)_{7'}, which are the 7-regular elements of Q/Z. This means that these are the elements of Q/Z whose order is coprime to 7.
So you can picture it in that way.
It's not easy 
No
This one's a circle i think
yeah
What I get is Q/Z is like an infinite group with each element with finite order
Because (a/b)^b = 0
Where 0 is the identity
Yup
What is this even 💀
not being an integral domain is a problem
skill issue
Wew I am going to send you a bouquet of roses. Now tell me your home address
:fakenews:
this works, right?
yeah I buy it
i just didn’t know if it was more proper to say it was irreducible in Z_3 so it’s irreducible in Q
I mean, equating it to the 8th cyclotomic polynomial is very extra but it still works
one day he asked us why the 5th one was irreducible without acknowledging it was the 5th one so i felt that i should show him i’m acknowledging them more
I know the irred over Z => irred over Q as Gauss' lemma but it's usually just a corollary of the big boy Gauss' lemma
i am very much enjoying how this book takes as a starting point, the fact that group theory originated in the study of equations (solvability of the quintic)
the introduction is a great, short read
For anyone wanting to check, does this look good? My tutor wanted me to find the order of both of those Galois groups, and I presume he wanted me to determine them using the Galois Correspondence.
He gave me a problem earlier where I had to find the Galois group of a primitive 3rd root of unity, which i’d already established, so I simply just said that G is isomorphic to S_3 for simplicity.
wait does having no roots in mod 3 even help since it’s a quartic, so roots doesn’t imply reducible?
they're relying on x^4+1 being irreducible in Z/3Z which is not the same thing as having no roots mod 3. So technically maybe they should be proving that as well instead of assuming it.
hm so i should really be assuming it factors in some way and getting a contradiction
like with the coefficients not being in Q
maybe, I'm thinking probably there's a trick using the fact that it's a quadratic in y=x^2
It might be better to just show directly
(x2 + ax + b)(x2 + cx + d) =
x4 + (a+c)x3 + (ac+d+b)x2 + (ad+bc)x + bd
Means a = -c, b=d=±1, (ac+d+b) = -a^2 ±2 = 6. Which is impossible.
thank you. i knew i could take this approach but I was trying to get around a direct factorization like this.
thank you. i knew i could take this approach but I was trying to get around a direct factorization like this.
Can someone explain me something
I have the polynomial f=X^p - X^(p-1) + a_(p-2) X^(p-2) +...+ a_1 X +1 in Z[X]
With p prime and p divides a_1,a_2,...,a_(p-2)
And I want to show f irreductible in Q[X]
And i took the residue polynomial of f in Z_p[X]
Which is g=X^p - X^(p-1) +1
and the artin-scheier polynomyal h=X^p - X +1 is irreductible over Z_p[X]
And here I got stuck
And in the solution they say g=X^p h(1/X) is irreductible over Z_p[X]
Can we do this thing with 1/x ?
And can someone explain why we do this
Is there a theorem that says we can use this even if h(1/x) is not a polynomial
If f is irreducible in Z[x], by Gauss lemma you should be done, as the polynomial is already primitive (that is, the gcd of coefficients is 1)
I know that we can use the Gauss lemma this is why I took the residue polynomial over Z_p
To prove f is irreductible over Z
But i dont understand the part with h(1/x)
The thing is the X^p
Basically it is like
Just reordering the coefficients
(You'll see what I mean)
Hmmmm
And you can check that a polynomial is irreducible iff it is irreducible after reordering coefficients like that
This is harder than I thought
It is so akward to write g as a product of two things and one thing is not a polynomial
But yeah, it induces ring homomorphism (isomorphism?)
Yeah it is a little
Wait, what does that mean
Wdym
I don't exactly understand what you meant by reordering coefficients. In what particular way, or is it just any permutation
I don't think so
Oh?
No I mean that specific way
Ah, it is only monoid homomorphism
like f(x) -> x^(deg f) * f(1/x)
Wait, maybe not?
Hmm, why?
Ah, so it cannot be ring homomorphism
Well okay that shows not an auto
So this is just reversing the coefficients
Yeah basically
So we are stuck with monoid homomorphism..
It's enough for the thing I said
I've not thought about whether it gives an actual auto
And how this proves the "reversed polynomial" is irreductible because h is irreductible?
Well if you let f* be the reserved poly then like
if f = gh then f* = g* h*
and vice versa
And then you can check stuff with degrees etc
I don't think the direction "reversed is irreducible so the original is also" is true
It only works for one direction
Hmmm, x^n pose an issue
The problem here is due to the failure of bijection, I guess
So basically, it should go like:
If f is irreducible, then f* is irreducible.
Yeah but h(1/x) is not a polynomial.. ugh... so g was the polynomial we wanted to prove is irreductible we wrote g as X^p×h(1/x) and h is irreductible. But X^p×h(1/x) is g* so g=g* in this case. But how h irreductible means g*/g is irreductible... I understood this trick is to reverse the polynomial but I dont understand how h(x) irreductible implies g/g* irreductible
What is g and g*?
Ahh
And in this case g=g*
Then since g is irresucible, g* is irreducible
Doubt that
and of course g=g*=X^p × h(1/X) where h(X)=X^p-X+1 which is irreductible but how this implies g* or g is irreductible becuase h(1/X) is not a polynomial if it was let's say something like g=X^p × h(x) I would say yes it is pretty clear why g is irreductible
How g is irreductible this is what I dont understand :)))...I feel so dumb
This
So h = g
Ah, so h = g*
How
Huh
Yes sorry
Ok and we know that is irreductible
How this implies g irreductible
This
Yeah but h(1/x) is not a polynomial
K finite field with q elements show that if q = 1 (mod 4) then f=X^4 + 4 has 4 roots in K
Clearly q=p^n with p prime
4 divides q-1
K* cyclic so there is unique H subgroup of K* with 4 elements
p≠2 so if z is a root of f then -z is also a root of f with z≠-z
Any hint
I can help half of it…
You only need to consider cases when p=1 mod 4, K=Fp and p=3 mod 4, K=Fp^2=Fp[x]/(x^2+1)
(recall that Legendre symbol (-1/p)=1 when p=1 mod 4, =-1 when p=3 mod 4). So both cases you have i from K such that i^2=-1. So if you can find a root z in K as you said, you would have 4 roots z, iz, -z, -iz
But I don’t know how to find one root z either….
interesting
Um I have a question
If f=X^(p-1)+...X+1 is the cyclotomic polynomial with p prime we know this is irreductible in Q[X] but then f(X^n) is irreductible in Q[X] for every n?
1+x^2+x^4=(x^2+1+x)(x^2+1-x)
Yeah
Im still struggling with this
It might help to think about what the complex roots of this polynomial is
So I should find an element z in K* s.t. z^2=-1
Yeah, or at least determining if such an element exists. But do you see what the complex roots are?
-1-i, -1+i, 1-i, 1+i
It has something to do with legendre symbol?
Maybe you can do something with the legendre symbol, but there is a very simple group theory solution.
So then you see that x^4 + 4 has roots iff x^2 + 1 has roots
Indeed
Real
I feel so dumb
We dont have injectivity
I would say the element must be a where a generates that subgroup
That's right, if x has order 4, then x^2 has order 2, thus equals -1
But how this implies x^2 = -1
Oh
Im idiot
Yeah
The only element with order 2 is -1
How can i prove the polynomial x^8 - 16 has at least one root in K
If q the order of K is =0,1,2 (mod 4) we are done
If q=3(mod 4)
Hm
X^8 - 16 = (X^2-2)(X^2+2)(X^4 + 4)
So this has roots if x^2-2 has roots or x^2+2 has roots or x^2+1 has roots
whats K
Finite field with q elements
i cant think of the elementary solution rn
I have a doubt there is a question which states that if V is infinite dimensional, then there always exists at least one linear independent sequence V1,V2,......, Vn for all positive integers n.
My friend said that if we take contrapositive statement such that there exist an integer say m such that any sequence u1,u2,.....,um are linear dependent, then he said that since it is linear dependent hence there exist non-zero u_k then he showed that we can write v_k in terms of remaining ones, and this v_k is arbitrary because we take any sequence of length m.
Now my doubt is, how can I show that for any arbitrary vector v there always a linear dependent sequence of length m where coefficient of v is non -zero.
What are you doubting?
What does v coefficient mean in a linear dependent sequence? Is v,v,...,v m times a linear dependent sequence of length m with non-zero v coefficient?
I need some element like sqrt(2)
And i dont think the cyclic subgroup of order 4k+2 has some particular magic properties
Nope... I should start learning some galois theory I think it might help for my olympiad
Last paragraph
Means I want to show that for any arbitrary vector v there is list of m-1 vector which span v
what does spanning a vector mean
and what about the second question in my first message
thats not a doubt, thats a question
Not necessarily, consider Z3
Means there is some finite vector V1,......,vt such that I can write v=a1v1+ a2v2 + .....+ atVt
For your second question we assume any m length sequence is linear dependent so I think yes
What is the difference between these?
I believe the correct way of saying it would be "a sequence which span contains v" then
so your question is answered?
Can you please explain more ?
v is arbitrary and I want to show that there exists a finite list which span v
some set of vectors span a subspace, so spanning a single vector doesn't make a lot of sense
v is a finite list that spans v (using your definition)
No I want a spanning list for vector Space V
"a sequence whose span contains v" is the grammatically correct way btw
thanks, English is hard 😅
ok this wasn't clear at all
then a base of V would work?
That means a sequence v,v,......,v m times is a list which spans v right?
using your definitions, yes
Base means basis right, that is question how I create a spanning list
yeah sorry I can't speak english apparently
So my friend's proof is correct?
Yeah
well the fact that any linear dependent sequence contains a non zero element is false, 0 0 0 is linear dependent
Can someone find an elementary solution to the problem with the polynomial X^8-16 ?
if char(K)=2, then 0 is a root
if char(K)=/=2, we have:
case i) if 2 or -2 is a square, then the polynomial has a root
case ii) if 2 and -2 are not squares, then -4 is a square (refer to the fact that K* is cyclic to see this)
so there is t such that t^2=-4; but then (t+2)^2=4t, so ((t+2)/2)^2=t ||a/2 simply means a*2^(-1) ||
so you have t=s^2; and then s is a root of the polynomial
But i didn't say that, I say non zero coefficient
no you said u1 .. um are linear dependent, which means they are vectors, then you asid u_k is non-zero, which is false
Oh sorry I mean there is u_k which has non zero coefficient
Can you explain the part with t^2=-4. Why we get this from K* cyclic?
K*={1,a,a^2,a^3,...,a^(q-1)}, for some a
is 2 is not a square, then 2=a^(odd)
the same for -2
so then -4=a^(odd)*a^(odd)=a^(even)
In the group axioms, do we need a unique neutral element or would it also be fine if we knew every element had a different neutral element?
Show that the neutral element has to be unique
Also if a so called “neutral” element didn’t fix everything it just doesn’t satisfy the definition of being neutral so idk what that second part even means
Basically my question is if our neutral element is allowed to behave like an inverse, where everything in our group has a different neutral element
Show that the neutral element has to be unique
Do we have to?
What if we know every element has a neutral element
But not necessarily the same one
Isn't that fine too?
If x is neutral then by definition of being neutral ax = a for all a
I think this might be able to happen in Boolean monoids
Since x^2 = x for all x there
So every element acts like it’s own “neutral” element
@cloud solar another way to deal with the second case is to factor X^4+4 as (X^2+2X+2)(X^2-2X+2)
and since the discriminant of these quadratics is -4, a square, they are going to have solutions
the whole idea behind this problem is that at least one of -1,2,-2 must be a square
I understand
This is interesting
I saw something like you can show a map between two groups is homomorphism if you can show that the generators of both groups have the same relations, but I'm confused as to why this method shows the map itself is homomorphism?
since this method does not comment on the map itself
like this?
that lowercase r should be an R that's a typo in these notes
wait, no that's right. It's just written weirdly
waiting
im not sure actually
well if the generators of H satisfy the relators R then just any embedding of X into the generators of H will work
i see
if the generating set of H is smaller than X then uhh
So as long as the generators of one set X and the generators of a set H satisfy all the same relations then any function from X to H will be a homomorphism?
oh no that's not what you mean - you literally mean "the set of relators in both groups are the same"
i meant the generators are different but the relations are the same
well then this is just relabelling your generators
any function from X into the set of generators of H - annoyingly the theorem doesn't give this set a name lol
ok from the top
ok nevermind I'm just restating the theorem I've already posted
i think i understand
my question was in regards to this problem https://gyazo.com/2fb930c16032c0fde2c85324f0eb7754
oh for fucks sake that's so much simpler
just post your actual problem in the future
i'll look up a proof of this method online
i didnt know it had a name
Substition Test
yikes
D_2n = <a, b | a^2 = b^n = 1, aba = b^-1>, set c = ab then D_2n = <a, c | a^2 = (c)^2 = (ca)^n = 1>
our group G is <x, y | x^2 = y^2 = (xy)^n = 1>
these are isomorphic with iso x -> a, y -> c
My book says:
The free R-Algebra on a set A is isomorphic to the monoid ring over the free monoid on A,
this was in the context of a finite A, is this not the case too for infinite sets A?
I think it's true for infinite A.
Is this real chat
Ah wait I missed the part where x and y generate G
I was flabbergasted for a moment
what book is this one exactly i see that he has published multiple books
Algebra
Algebra, by Hungerford.
yoo dudes whats up
remember me
algebra is better than analysis
im tryna study analysis rn
I'm doing row and column operations on a matrix to get something which presents an isomorphic Z-module, but I'm stuck on the third step. Does anyone know what is happening for it? Why does the matrix change dimension?
Is there a ring whose ideals look like $I_1\subset I_1\subset\cdots\subset I_n\subset\cdots\subset \frk p\subset(1)$ where $\frk p$ is the only prime?
Croqueta
I think I've figured it out but would be worth clarifying. These are the allowable actions to preserve module isomorphism:
- Multiply row/column by unit
- Add any multiple of row/column to another row/column
- Swap rows/columns with other rows/columns (composition of above two)
- Delete or add a column or row of zeroes
- If j-th column is e_i, delete row i and column j
Is that correct?
What do you mean p is only prime?
it has no other primes
idk this is pretty stupid
everything would be nilpotent
Sure, there are plenty of examples. A fairly simple example is k[x]/<x^2>, where k is a field. Here the only ideals are 0 <= <x> <= <1> by the correspondence theorem.
Such examples tend to be fairly useful actually, because they are simple and easy to understand
Note that not everything is nilpotent; only the nonunits are
Well idk precisely that this is super common to have only one prime, more common to only have one maximal ideal (i.e. local rings), but the principal is still the same: easy to understand and naturally arises from quotienting and localization
sure
If you’re Noetherian this basically says you’re an “infinitesimal thickening” of a field
Geometrically, a point (field) with some fuzzuzz
this doesn't work, you should have I1 subset I2 subset ... subset In susbet ... for all n in N, and then at the very top the prime p
You want those all proper?
proper subsets? yes
ye the inclusions should be proper
No. Such a ring would satisfy the descending chain condition but not the ascending chain condition. However, for rings, it is known that DCC ==> ACC (and dim = 1 0) on ideals (if these are to be all of the ideals)
Uhh for commutative rings i guess
idk and idc about noncommutative ones
yeah I was just worrying about commutative ones
(see for instance Atiyah-Macdonald Theorem 8.5)
Dim 0
Not dim 1
Oh right
i was thinking PIDs had dim 1 i guess
ye
I had read that theorem somewhere, but just forgot lol
:3c
PID
PID.
I was just trying to see if the most stupid non-noetherian ring with just 1 prime would be possible
This is chinese-remainder theorem (CRT)
Is my assesment right that the "elementary" form of CRT (the first one stated) is just the statement that the below map of rings is a bijection
So in fact the "ring isomorphism" statements tells you more (that ring structure is preserved)?
Basically, yes
But the elementary statement is basically the same thing because the map clearly is a homomorphism
Ok I see
X is a finite set, R is some ring. Does this look like an isomorphism map?
F(x,R) is the ring of functions from X to R
This is the question statement in case my shit handwriting is getting in the way.
i can't read your handwriting
can you tex it
That is the right map
Yes that's correct but uhh depending on how you define n-tuples it's a virtually tautological question
If H and K has a finite index in G then H intersection K has a finite index in G, any hint?
probably consider cosets of H & K in H
Then I have a statement which states that the number of distinct Cosets of the form hK , for h an element of H, is the same as the number of distinct Cosets h(H intersection K) for h an element of H
And why do I consider the cosets of H intersection K in H , I want Coset of H intersection K in G ?
|G : H| |H : H&K| = |G : H&K|
But I want also proof that for any H< K<G I have | G: H| = |G:k| |K:H|
you can prove that
I am stuck here
Can you explain to me when G is infinite then how can I estimate|G: H|
it's just a number
consider Z: {0, 1, -1, 2, -2, ...}
and then consider 2Z:
{0, 2, -2, 4, -4, ...}
then 2Z has index 2 in Z
sometimes it might be infinite of course
but when it isn't
Yes
Let g1H=g2H means g2^(-1)g1 an element of H so it will be an element of K so g1K=g2K then what is the next step if these are correct?
consider the representatives of K in G, and the representatives of H in K, and try and connect these to the representatives of H in G
Do I show that first it has a finite index or I assume that?
And I think for any gH , and I know the cosets of k partition G so g I can write g= g_s•k1, where k1 is an element of K and also cosets of H partition K so I can write k1 = k_t•h1 .....is it correct way ?
you can assume it
it's just that it's fairly trivial to see that if either of them have infinite index then the overall thing will have infinite index also
so you can just consider the finite one
Yes but in case of H intersection K I should first show that it has a finite index I think
I am kinda bad at it. But I'll try. So the map basically takes any function, $f_i={(x_i, r_i)| 1<i<n, r_i \in R}$ to $(r_1, r_2,....,r_n) \in R^n$
take a coset of HnK, say a(HnK)
notice that a(HnK)=aHnaK
so essentially a coset of HnK is the intersection of a coset of H and a coset of K
CHTRGPT
Eh? What way do you have in mind?
Thank you but now I want a hint for if h<k<G then |G:h|= |G:k| |k:H|
Nice point
did you figure how to solve the original problem?
Any hint for this?
consider the representatives of K in G, and the representatives of H in K, and try and connect these to the representatives of H in G
I tried this but didn't figure it out
Look at the second paragraph
@crystal vale isn't this just a consequence of |G:H|=|G|/|H|?
oh, nvm, G is not necessarily finite
No if G is not finite
im trying to find the group table for the permutation group s3
would <1,2> <2,3> = <2,1,3> be right?
I think so yeah
Would <1,2> <1,2,3> = <1,2,3> also be correct?
No
Not even when doing it the opposite order to composition?
what should it be?
<1, 3>
why
1 goes to 2 in <1, 2> and then 2 goes to 3 in <1, 2, 3>
So 1 goes to 3 in the product
2 goes to 1 in <1, 2> and 1 goes to 2 in <1, 2, 3>, so 2 is fixed in the product
When the regular action is not free 
what if u do it the other way round
With composition read from right to left, the product would be <2, 3>
I'm just saying one way of defining n-tuples in R is as a function {0, 1, ..., n-1} --> R lol. With this definition, it's essentially immediate that functions from an n element set are the same as functions from an n element set
Ok thanks
I dont' get this definition
A_k(V) are the alternating k-tensors on V
why can we stop the direct sum at a n?
Ah yea basically
Yea that makes sense
But explicitly proving that homomorphism was a bit eh for me ig.
My prof is very particular about notation.
Last problem session he made me hunt down every single bracket I missed on the board.
There has to be two same elements in the basis
When k>n
unless I'm mistaken, A_n has only one tensor, the determinant
In a field of characteristic $p>0$ why is it that one can write an inseparable polynomial $f$ as $f(x) = g(x^{p^n})$ for some irreducible polynomial $g$ ?
piss_master49
- A polynomial is separable iff (f,f')=1 (valid over any field).
- Thus if f is irreducible, then f is inseparable iff f'=0.
- In char p f'=0 iff f=a_0+a_px^p+a_2px^2p+..., i.e. iff f(x)=g(x^p) for some g.
- Thus in char p an irreducible f is inseparable iff f(x)=g(x^p) for some g, which is necessarily irreducible (otherwise f would be reducible).
- Now repeat this until you can't anymore (total induction on deg f, if you want to be formal).
precomp.... with da frob.....
If H and K are normal in G and H<K( h be a subgroup under K) then K/H is normal in G/H ...... I showed it, but I am thinking about why we take H<K if we do not have this condition then what happens? Then K/H is not defined?
yeah like, how are you supposed to quotient by a group that isn't a subgroup
the cosets of H have to partition K, so if any part of H isn't in K this is a contradiction
To show K/H is a subgroup in G/H we need it, right?
for K/H to make sense at all you need it
Yes but I thought if K<H then it was just H right?
in order to form a quotient object we need an equivalence relation that plays nicely with the operations associated with that object. It turns out for groups that these equivalence relations are in correspondence with normal subgroups. If we take a group that's not even a subgroup the quotient is ill defined
you could just blindly define for arbitary K/H to be the set of equivalence classes under the relation a ~ b <=> aH = bH but this is just a quotient set
Yes but I just take K/H as a set of Cosets of H in K not as a subgroup
And this?
Oh then this single H is not subgroup in G/H
It just an element
But in G what is K/H if K<H ?
what
if you really want to do this completely pointless construction, do this
and K/H doesn't live in G
If I want to make a set of Cosets of H by an element in K then ?
Then this set contain only one element H, right ?
ugh ok so im back on my bullshit with the polynomial calculator thing
currently tackling factorization
In mathematics and computer algebra the factorization of a polynomial consists of decomposing it into a product of irreducible factors. This decomposition is theoretically possible and is unique for polynomials with coefficients in any field, but rather strong restrictions on the field of the coefficients are needed to allow the computation of t...
Many algorithms for factoring polynomials over finite fields include the following three stages:
- Square-free factorization
- Distinct-degree factorization
- Equal-degree factorization
im kind of struggling to see how this translates into a programmatic organization of the full factorization function
im gonna try to write some pseudocode here
to try and see if maybe that works
def factorize(f):
# list_sqf is a list of squarefrees whose product is f
list_sqf = factorize_squarefree(f)
# list_ddf is a list of polynomials whose product is f
# and those polynomials are each the product of several
# same-degree irreducibles
list_ddf = []
for g in list_sqf:
list_ddf += factorize_distinct_degree(g)
# list_edf is a list of polynomials whose product is f
# and which are all themselves irreducible
# obtained from each element of list_ddf
# with equal-degree factorization
list_edf = []
for h in list_ddf:
list_edf += factorize_equal_degree(h)
return list_edf
is this the correct structure?
it still feels like a beast to implement
it is making my head spin so bad.
ping me if anyone replies
Looks like you're missing a += in the list_ddf step, but otherwise the structure overall looks good to me.
One thing I noticed when looking at the wiki article is that their first "equal degree factorization" algorithm (Cantor-Zassenhaus) needs the input h to be a product of at least two irreducible factors of the same degree. When you iterate over list_ddf and pass each element to the equal degree factorization method, you might pass on an irreducible polynomial. I wonder what happens in the algorithm in this case, I haven't checked.
Also, in the same stage, they say on the wiki that the finite field needs to have odd degree, which the other stages don't - so you might need special handling of the even case.
the finite field needs to have odd CHARACTERISTIC you mean
Yeah, that's what I meant.
you might pass on an irreducible polynomial. I wonder what happens in the algorithm in this case, I haven't checked.
i mean that's not really an issue, i can just insert an irreducibility check somewhere.
cause i already have that implemented.
Good, so only the even characteristic thing might need some special handling. Didn't look like they mentioned it on the wiki.
Except for telling us to read Knuth's book. 😬
i’ve only had a look at vol 1 but it’s pretty nice
Does it still hold up? When I took Algorithms, we used one of the modern books (CLRS).
I'm getting confused with group morphisms f : Zm -> Zn. Clearly, any such morphism is determined by the image of 1. Since m * 1 = 0 on the left, then we should have that m * f (1) = 0 on the right. i.e. m*f(1) = 0 mod n. Conversely this last condition induces a group homomorphism. I'm failing to characterize nicely this last condition
are ther any formulas for solving mx=0 mod n?
Do you know when a map Z -> Z/n factors through the quotient
Oh sorry yes
what's the basis of A_k(V)?
yes
take d=gcd(m,n)
then m=ad and n=bd for some integers a,b with gcd(a,b)=1
try to solve from here
Ye
oh I think that's discussed in the following subsection, guess I'll check that one out!
thanks
Hello chat do you know any cool applications of Chinese Remainder Theorem
Proving that the totient function is multiplicative
ohhh
wait
it's because A_k(V) is just the 0 k-tensor when k>n

If K finite field and f a polynomial in K[X] with deg >=1 show there is n>=1 s.t. f(x^n) is reductible
I think I need to pick such n that has something to do with char
exactly
oh god i’m stumbling over very elementary facts… like, three points uniquely determine a circle
oop wrong channel sowwy
Hmm
This is technically a linear algebra problem lol
I would call it an algebraic geometry problem.
blessed including the three colinear points case
Not if you use the vector space of homogeneous polynomials of a specified degree :troll:
Right.
For this question, is it correct to construct a field Z2[x]/[x^3+x+1] by aruging x^3+x+1 is irreducible. Then assuming u be the root of x^3+x+1. and u^3=u+1. Therefore, we have elements 0, 1, u, u^2, u^3=u+1, u^4=u^2+u, u^5=u^2+u+1, u^6=u^2+1, is it a complete statement for this one?
and also for this one, I tried it by assuming that an+a_n-1x^+...a0x^n is reducible(is that a correct start and how to proceed if it is true?)
if p(x) is your original polynomial
Then p(1/x) x^n is your one with the coefficients “flipped”
That might help?
it helps
I haven’t done that exercise before I just pulled it out of my ass, glad that helps, gonna use it if I get to it in Dummit & Foote
Sorry for interruption, but is there a reason why (on a field F of ch. 0) xCk and x^k seems 'similar'? Like, they both spans the polynomial space F[x], and they have 'same asymptotic behavior' considering R and C case.
Yep. Idk, maybe there is no real reason or something?
one question, if p(x) is reducible in F[x], p(1/x) will definitely be reducible over F[x] right?
I consider substitue 1/x as u
p(1/x) does not lie on F[x]
Then we construct p(1/x)*x^n for p(x), i am a little confused about how will it be valid here?
it seems that there is no better to flip the coefficient
Yep, you basically need to flip the coefficients
Maybe it helps to sleep on the reducibility?
what does that mean?
Sorry, I mean think about when a function is reducible
And its relations to flipping the coefficients.
When we can factor it into two polynomial with more than 1 degree, then p(x) is reducible
it explains that you’d flip the factors too
x^np(1/x) = x^n(a(1/x)b(1/x)) so your x^n would distribute between the degrees of a and b, “flipping” their coefficients too :)
Ohh, that's a great insight
that’s how I interpreted it
so when we have p(1/x)x^n, since we know p(x) is reducible, then p(x)=a(x)b(x), and p(1/x)x^n=a(1/x)b(1/x)*x^n. and we can see that x^n will distribute to a and b seperately, is it true?
x^n will definitely have enough degree to distribute here
Hmm, which part is confusing you here?
i think I should understand now, before that it seems somewhat counterintuitive that p(1/x)=a(1/x)*b(1/x) can be argue directly
Ahh, def take time. Usually it takes a while for concepts to stick
let S(p) be the multiplicative operation that sends a polynomial p to the polynomial of same degree with the coefficients swapped.
You can show S(pq) = S(p)S(q) as shown
It’s also an involution, I.e S(S(p)) = p
Assume p is irreducible, but S(p) = ab.
S(S(p)) = S(a)S(b) = p
But p is irreducible, and S preserves degree. Contradiction
I had bumped into some counterexamples for this
Compute S(x^2)
Yeah, things messy
Yeah, that's why this map works in this specific case
I guess S is some kind of retraction lol
Perchance
.
K has p^t elements
and (f(a))^(p^t)=f(a^(p^t)) for every a in K
Hm
Any hints
@south patrol
I mean, you have the answer right there.
f(x^n) = f(x)^n when n=p^t
Yes but can we apply the rule (a+b)^n=a^n +b^n even for the variable X?
Try thinking about an example, if n=2, what is (x + 1)^2 ?
Let K be a field with 3^n elements. Show that f=X^4+X-1 is reductible iff n even
If f reductible then f has a root in K* or is just a product of two polynomials with degree 2
Both of those cases would make f reducible yes
For the case when n is even can we say that there is a subgroup of K* with 8 elements
A possible hint could be that ||the same statement is true for any degree 4 polynomial that is irreducible over F3 (or any polynomial of degree 2^k really)||
You can say that, sure
But idk if that helps
Even more general: ||if F is a finite field, f is an irreducible polynomial of degree d, and K is a degree n field extension of F, then f is irreducible over K iff n and d are relatively prime||
Should I use the field extension of the polynomial f
It has order q^d where q is the order of K and d the degree of f
Yeah, if adjoining a root of f gives you a degree d extension, then f most me irreducible.
Where can I find a proof of this
.
This is pretty nice
Well if K(a) has degree d, then the minimal polynomial of a has degree d, hence equals f
Hello, below i'm posting a proof that if G is a p-group and H is its proper subgroup then H is a proper subgroup of its normalizer. I don't get highlighted part, why existence of this fixed coset other than H implies that gHg-1 is a subgroup of H. Thanks for help!
Link to this question on sx: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/168963/proper-subgroups-of-finite-p-groups-are-properly-contained-in-the-normalizer
Hgh=Hg for all h -> Hghg^-1=H for all h
You know Ha=H implies a is from H right
okay, im just stupid, thank you
What are some simple examples of R-modules that are not R-algebras? I am trying to understand the difference between them a bit more.
This is kinda not the right question to ask
It’s not really an “explicit” difference because one is sort of a “refinement” of the other
Something is an algebra when we choose to endow it with that structure
The complex numbers and R x R (as a ring) are isomorphic as modules, but NOT as algebras
Anytime you consider “an R-module” it isn’t coming with any sort of ring structure so it isn’t an algebra
You can ask something like “what is an example of an R-module which cannot have an R-algebra structure compatible with the module structure”
Take R non-commutative and take I a left ideal, then R/I is an R-module, but not an R-algebra (not in any way I know at least).
This is one such example in the case of R = Z, because Z-modules are abelian groups and Z-algebras are commutative rings
like (x,y)(a,b) = (ax,by) for R x R
But (x,y)(a,b) = (ax - by, ay + bx) for C
They have the same structure as a module, which in essence is just an abelian group with your ring structure “acting on it”. However, there can be many algebras “on it”
the isomorphism itself is (x,y) <-> x + yi
Can you explain it more please?
Wow, I've wondering about this for quite a while. Thanks!
K(a) = K[x]/(p(x)) where p is the minimal polynomial of a. So if K(a):K = d, then the degree of p is d. Since a is a root of f, p divides f. But p has degree d, so p=f.
Thanks
I am struggling to see how a+b = 0 \in C when a+b \in A \cap B, for A, B submodules of C
probably because that statement isn't true
A = <(0,0,1), (0,1,0)>, B = <(1,0,0), (0,1,0)> as sub Z-modules of Z^3
ic. then im overlooking something
Where/how did you get this question?
So i want to show that for the canonical map $A \oplus B \to C$ the kernel is $A\cap B$
Eso
Is isomorphic to?
no
A intersect B is not a sub module of A oplus B
the idea of even writing K (+) L when K, L have non-trivial intersection doesn't make sense to me
well
||try a -> (a, -a)
Where does that map to in K + L?||
unless we're just formally taking a coproduct
wouldnt it be like a cartesian product kinda
well yeah R-mod has biproducts so they're isomorphic but I just don't understand what the construction is supposed to be here.
Micose seems to get it so listen to her
hmm i suppose it is isomorphic to K \cap L then rather than equal
shouldve looked at it like a single element rather than a sum
Hello everyone I have a question and I can’t figure out the solution. Suppose we have two polynomials f(x),g(x) in Q[x] which don’t share any common complex roots, why does this imply that the gcd(f(x),g(x))=1? If I understand correctly since the polynomials are over a field to prove the statement we only need to show that the gcd is a constant and that’s what I don’t get. Does not sharing any complex roots mean that they don’t share any roots?
yes
Why? Because we think real roots as complex roots too?
Real roots are indeed complex roots
The idea is that if h is a common divisor of f and g, then any root of h would be a root of both f and g
Any non-constant polynomial has a root, so there you go.
Great, I get it! Thanks! The thing I’m saying about the gcd being 1 if it’s a constant is true, right? Because every non zero number in a field is invertible….
That's right
do icosahedrons and dodecahedrons have the same symmetry group or did i make a mistake somewhere when deriving one of them
Vertex or face?
vertex
Think about it
same order but different group
Rotating about a vertex has order 3 in one, 5 in the other :)
Wait
I am incorrect
They do have the same symmetry group up to iso
There’s really “two actions” which I actually think are generators. Rotating about a face and rotating about a vertex
but rotating about a face is rotating about a vertex in the other
oh yea
So that provides an iso
they do
this comes from the fact that they're dual to each other
if you take the 12 points at the centres of the faces of a dodecahedron and connect them iff the faces they came from shared an edge, you get an icosahedron
and the same for if you take the 20 points at the centres of the faces of an icosahedron
What’s the presentation of that group lol. I know there’s the vertex and face rotations lol
the way i was drawing it, it was basically a graph, and the group actions were like permutations of the graph that preserved adjacencies
and drawing it like that led me to notice you could draw it alternatively like this
but it seemed too crazy to be left unchecked
Thank you chat
Do you think 6 is correct? I wrote the root a, a^2, a^3=a^2+1, a^4=a^2+a+1, a^5=a+1, a^6=a^2+a.
Think you're missing 1 and 0 there
does F(a) mean find number of roots of f(x), so why 0 and 1 should be add?
probably I understand it wrong?
F(a) is the field you get by taking F and adjoining a.
f can't possibly have more than 3 roots, it being degree 3 and all
For example f(a^3) = a^6 + a^3 + 1 = a^2 + a + a^2 + 1 + 1 = a shows that a^3 is not a root.
Then how to express 1 and 0 in terms of a?
it seems a constant coefficient, so I am confused if we need to express it by appearing some a
You have a^7 = 1, if you insist on expressing it in terms of a. 0 is obviously not a power of a
For this one, I can quickly know that a and a+1 is a root of f(x), therefore, i factor f(x) into (x-a)(x-a-1)(x^2-x-a^2). another elements of E should be 0, 1, a^2, a^3, a+1, a^2+a, a^3+a^2, a^3+a+1, a^2+1, a^3+a, a^2+a+1, a^3+a^2+a, a^3+a^2+a+1, a^3+a^2+1, a^3+1, but no additional elements match roots of f(x). is that correct?
since if f(x) has a root a in E, then we must have (x-a)|f(x)
for prime ideals, are the notions of “principal” and “contains a prime element” equivalent?
Nope: x is prime in K[x,y], but the maximal (in particular prime) ideal (x,y) that contains it is not principal.
Check f(a^2)
Do you study in Norge @rocky cloak?
PhD? Not trying to dox you, just curious about Scandi academia.
I'm doing a PhD yeah. And you can dox me if you want
Don't think it's hard to connect my username to my real name with some google-fu anyway
How is it? Did you stay home for reasons of comfort or is it a good place to study?
I certainly think it's a good place to study, but I guess I'm here more for my personal life yeah
What about your self, have you journeyed far from home?
Not really, kinda dreading it :/. I'm a very domestic person.
So you're about to?
f(a^2)=a^8+a^2+1, which means a^2(a^6+1)+1=a^2(a^3)=a^5=a^3+a^2+1?
Dunno yet, will see
And do you remember what a^3 + a^2 + 1 equals?
What do you do btw, smth algebraic?
I finally learned semisimple theory about half a year ago, took me a while. I mean semisimplicity, Artin-Wedderburn, etc.
a, a^2, a^3, a+1, a^2+a, a^3+a^2, a^3+a+1, a^2+1, a^3+a, a^2+a+1, a^3+a^2+a, a^3+a^2+a+1, a^3+a^2+1, a^3+1
Yeah, on the homological side semisimple algebras are completely uninteresting 😛
Does this intersect with cryptography in any way? It feels combinatorial/computational enough for there to possibly be something, maybe.
There's lots of relations with combinatorics, don't know about crypto, but maybe
I made mistakes, but it will be a^8+a^2+1=a^2*(a^6+1)+1=a^2*(a^3+a^2)+1=a^5+a^4+1=a^2
it should be the correct order
(x-a)(x-a-1)(x^2-x-a^2) this is what I do for factorizatoin
Is there a constructive way to do this? I said you can find F_p^n as the splitting field of X^p^n - X over F_p. This extension is separable since the minimal polynomial of each alpha in F_p^n would have to divide X^p^n-X, and that polynomial has distinct roots (so any divisor would also have distinct roots). Thus, there is a primitive elment alpha so that F_p^n = F_p(alpha). Since |F_p^n : F_p| = n, the minimal polynomial over alpha has degree n
@rocky cloak be honest, how cringe do you consider the current (past 15 years or so) pop-culture hysteria around vikings and Norse myth
Is there a current pop culture hysteria?
Well it's dying down, but for a while it was pretty strong, shit was everywhere.
a^8 + a^2 + 1 =
a^4(a + 1) + a^2 + 1 =
a^5 + a + 1 + a^2 + 1 =
a(a+1) + a + a^2 = 0
Guess I didn't really think much of it then
So when would this dreaded moving of yours potentially come @glossy crag ?
Dunno, possibly in April, if I can get some extraneous shit done by then. I likely won't be able to, so this would get moved back to the next semester.
Are you in a PhD now?
Lol no, I'm finishing my bachelor's. Fukken wish, still a long ways to go.
Makes sense, and then you'd want to do a master somewhere else?
Yep.
The itinerant academic lifestyle is something I dread overall.
OK, then since we have factorization (x-a)(x-a-1)(x^2-x-a^2), is it complete enough?
I can not figure out how to express something like x-a^2
Cuz you can't study what you want there, or good with some variety or
What do you mean express?
Bit of both. Our faculty has (what I feel like) is a pretty big name in Lie groups, but I'm not really interested in that, otherwise I would stay and scramble about his feet 100%.
So what are you interested in?
Not Lie theory (which is a shame, because he's a great lecturer and enormously knowledgeable). Just algebraic stuff in general, want to get a taste of "serious" number theory and our guys don't offer that.
i mean since we have root a^2, is it ok to try factorize x^2-x-a^2?
Yeah, but you might have a mistake in the factorization you have so far.
I think it should be
(x - a)(x - a-1)(x^2 - x - a^2 - a - 1)
that seems far more reasonable
So where do they do the serious number theory? Do you have some places in mind?
Bonn prolly.
Nope, just study here (in German).
So then you have already journeyed far from home
Well no, because my family is here with me, lol. I am lucky in this respect.
I guess traveling between big cities on the continent can be pretty short trips anyway.
Like my family lives 8 hours away, even though they're also in Norway
Woof.
What, do you travel up and down "the spine"?
The spine?
Ah no, they live in the south
like the "outermost" bit
Because I can't imagine how else you might get distances of 8 hours (unless you're walking home).
my 8 hours lives families away.
Is it really 8 hours down to e.g. Oslo?
Trondheim-Oslo is about 7 hours by either train or car
REALLY? Either I have wildly underestimated the scale of Norway or you guys travel by oxcarts.
If the weather is bad it takes a while longer by car
It's 500km
Maybe he travels up to Tromso and takes a plane.
Norway and Germany have about the same area I think
nice
Is it possible to define the characteristic polynomial coordinate-free 🤔 ? I expect there is some exterior algebra definition as for det, but I don't know it.
Figures.
Ours is a shaming culture.
but it makes sense since you can define the determinant and the trace coordinate-free, and these are two coefficients of the characteristic polynomial
the other coefficients are defined in a similar manner
maybe there is a (-1)^k missing there
Could be, the coefficients are this times the sums of principal k-row minors, which I expect what the trace of \Wedge^k f is
do you think there are four roots instead of three?
so for k=1 you get trace(f), and this should be multiplied by -1
so yes a (-1)^k is missing
so since x^2-x-a^2-a-1, does x-a^2 must be one of the factor here?
A degree 4 polynomial you should expect to have 4 roots yes
Then I get a, a+1, a^2 and a^2+1
so we factor it as (x-a)(x-a-1)(x-a^2)*(x-a^2-1)
9 question, I think there is no eigenvaule , right?
Nah there's an eigenvalue
wait uh
@crystal vale P(R) is polynomials over R right?
or is it space of differentiable functions?
It is polynomial over R
yea ok there is exactly one eigenvalue
I'll leave you to figure out what it is, but there is one
For non-zero vector ?
Thank you
Does anyone have a small hint for this one
Tried a bunch of things none of which worked
A small hint could be to consider the minimal polynomial of alpha over F
A slightly bigger hint could be that ||F is uniquely determined by this minimal polynomial||
Can anyone look over this proof (p is a prime ideal)
Let $R$ be a commutative ring. Let $I$ and $J$ be ideals of $R$ and let $\mathfrak{p} \in \text{Spec}(R)$ with $I \cap J \subset \mathfrak{p}$. Prove that either $I$ or $J$ is contained in $\mathfrak{p}$.
\begin{proof}
Let $i \in I$ and $j \in J$. Then $ij \in I$ and $ij \in J$, i.e. $ij \in I \cap J \subset \mathfrak{p}$. Therefore $i \in \mathfrak{p}$ or $j \in \mathfrak{p}$. Hence $I \subset \mathfrak{p}$ or $J \subset \mathfrak{p}$.
\end{proof}
gian
@chilly ocean the last conclusion is wrong, but it can be fixed
How?
the problem is that as you let i and j run through I and J, you indeed obtain that i is in p or j is in p, but you don't necessarily have the same case every time, so you can't conclude that one of those inclusions hold
assume that neither I nor J are contained in p
so then you can find i in I-p and j in J-p
and the rest is just the same
i will give that a try
I'm confused by what this means
do you mean like I/p
The question lets us assume that $I \cap J \subset \mathfrak{p}$. But $I-\mathfrak{p} \cap J - \mathfrak{p}$ is not necessarily a subset of $\mathfrak{p}$?
gian
I'm confused by your notation
@chilly ocean I mean \setminus
just like you did before
so you get that i is in p or j is in p, which contradicts our assumption
oh i get it
Assume towards contradiction that $I \not\subset \mathfrak{p}$ and $J \not\subset \mathfrak{p}$. Let $i \in I$ and $j \in J$ such that $i,j \notin \mathfrak{p}$. Then $ij \in I$ and $ij \in J$, i.e. $ij \in I \cap J \subset \mathfrak{p}$. Therefore $i \in \mathfrak{p}$ or $j \in \mathfrak{p}$. But this is a contradiction, hence $I \subset \mathfrak{p}$ or $J \subset \mathfrak{p}$.
gian
Thank you!!!!! @dire siren
Can someone explain me this problem: G group with 4n+2 elements show there is a normal subgroup with index 2
I know I should use Cayley theorem
There is f isomorphism f:G->S where S is a subgroup of S_(4n+2)
And if I pick an element of order 2 from G let's say a then f(a) is gonna be a permutation with order 2
So f(a) is a product of disjoint 2-cycles
But why there are 2n+1 disjoint 2-cycles in this product?
And the 2-cycles are also from S? Or just somewhere in S_(4n+2)
can I think of a normal subgroup S as a subgroup where it's normalizers is the entire group G
yeep 
meep
thanks
Well yes such things exist lol
You can just take any subgroup with nontrivial normaliser, then just look at the normaliser
The normaliser in the normaliser is the whole normaliser!
So at the very least, you have a strategy for finding an example
Clarifying this slightly poetically cryptic statement:
If $H \leq G$ then setting $K = N_G(H)$ we have firstly that $H \unlhd K$, and secondly that $K = N_K(H)$.
To write this even more directly: $N_{N_G(H)}(H) = N_G(H)$.
Boytjie
Wait lmao I misunderstood the question 
I haven’t really used Normalizer outside of one question lmao
OK
Yeah lol
It's not "is it possible to think of an example of...", it's "is it correct to think of..."
Mb
I’m too lazy to mathematically work this out symbolically right now but is the normalizer of a subgroup S, N, the largest subgroup of supergroup G such that S is normal in the subgroup
Yes.
cool, was making sure my old interpretation was right lmao
Which was absurd, but I considered the normalizer N(S) for subset S of G to be the largest subgroup of G such that <S> is normal in it lol
That is also fine.
Just a bit insane
Not really.
After a while I started getting annoyed with pure symbolic descriptions
Why would that be absurd or insane?
Monomorphism I think
Needless overcomplication
No?
But cayley theorem says isomorphism
That's s completely valid way to understand the normalizer. If anything, it highlights the point of the normalizer
Mfw having more than one way to understand something makes it insane
(writes down reasonable extension of definition) those fuckin algebraists are off their rockers
Cayley’s theorem states that it’s isomorphic to a SUBGROUP of S_|G|
Yeah that's what they fucking wrote in the first place
"G is isomorphic to a subgroup of S_{4n+2}"
yeah
.
S subgroup
I misread it sorry homie
@cloud solar I think you have to use the actual construction given in the proof of the Cayley theorem rather than just Cayley theorem
Action from G to G just the regular multiplication right?
yes, g is sent to phi_g, where phi_g is multiplication by g to the left/right
and then notice that phi_g doesn't have fixed points
I was more focused on the subgroup inclusion lattice esque structure for a while and someone told me to not do that lol
Unless g is e
yes
in your case, g is an element of order 2, so that's enough to guarantee that there are no fixed points, and so the number of 2-cycles must be 2n+1
Ohh
I understand
We need to have the maximum number of 2-cycles otherwise the permuation has a fixed point but thats false because a has order 2 (≠e).
And the sign of the permutation phi_a must be odd (the sign is (-1)^(2n+1)
So for every order 2 element in G we get an odd permutation
And G iso to Imf where Imf subgroup of S_(4n+2)
And now we can take function pi:Imf->{-1,1} pi(sigma)=sgn(sigma). This map is surjective. This is a morphism so by first isomorphism theorem Imf/ker(pi) isomorphic with {-1,1} which is isomorphic with Z/2Z
So ker(pi) has index 2 in Imf.
But since G is isomorphic Imf so ker(pi(f)) has index 2 in G
So our normal subgroup of index two is the kernel of the morphism pi(f) right?
I am still sorta obsessed with the ideal structure of R[X] based on R
google "algebraic geometry" for more information
It can be shown prime ideals in R[X] way “lay over” prime ideals in R, and Noetherian-ness is inherited from R, so is Jacobson-ness
Too scary
The main proofs I’ve seen are using the leading coefficient map (which I don’t like because it’s not a ring homomorphism lmao) or using the prime laying over property but that requires choice for showing that every ideal is contained in a prime ideal (via the maximal ideal) so that needs strong choice
these are such nothing objections
:(
Ooh fun!
Proofs of?
Hilbert basis theorem?
Yes
I actually feel wondered about if K={e,} it seems that {e }is also a normal subgroup of H, can someone explain why this is wrong?
The most confusing stuff is that I can prove it, but also can figure out an counterexample( that seems true)
if you're picking K = {e} then H/K = H needs to be abelian.
Is there a way im supposed to know the group operation they're considering the homomorphisms under
cuz they don't specify
and idk whether we're considering the kernel to map to the additive or the multiplicative identity
Yes, it should be clear
it's immensely obvious from context
ok
true
Z/8Z isn't a group under multiplication, for instance
Let $A = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 0 & 1
\end{bmatrix}$ over $V = \mathbb{F}_2$. Then $\rho : \frac{\mathbb Z}{2 \mathbb Z} \to GL(V)$ given by $\rho(0) = I$ and $\rho(1) = A$ is an irreducible representation right? I'm confused because $A$ is a root $X^2-1 = (X+1)(X+1)$ and I was told that when this happens then the matrix is diagonalizable. But it doesn't seem to be the case as the only eigenvectors of $A$ are multiples of $\begin{bmatrix} 1\0 \end{bmatrix}$.
aaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa
When the eigenvalues are all distinct, yes it is diagonalisable. But that isn't the case here!
oh yeah ofc
Indeed uh
A matrix is diagonalisable iff its minimal polynomial is a product of distinct linear factors
Here the minimal poly is seen to be (x-1)^2
indeed it cannot be x-1 since x is not the identity
yeah
I guess its because I was first taught over perfect fields (char 0 even)
so minimal poly product of more than 1 linear factors => distinct factors
Well F_2 is a perfect field
oops
(any finite field is)
yeah uh
I'm not sure what you mean by this
i guess the algebra GL(F_2^2) isn't perfect in some sense then?
I'm not sure what that'd mean either hm
I think it's just that you didn't realise x^2 - 1 doesn't split into distinct factors over F_2, which is fair enough right
Can the minimal poly of a matrix over C be a product of more than 1 equal linear factors?
Also, I assume you mean V = F_2^2
Yes
Any non-diagonalisable matrix
For example, non-zero nilpotent matrices exist
and their minimal poly is x^n for some n > 1
right, of course
(This is true over any field since you can always do
[0 1 ]
[0 0])