#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 210 of 1
Real af
Me when the flag
I think this is easier though if you know what the min poly of a over K looks like
Are Z4 ⋊ Z2 and (Z2 x Z2) ⋊ Z2 isomorphic?
yeah they're both D_8
Makes a lot of sense, thank you
I don't think it matters which embedding into Aut(Z2^2) you chose for the 2nd semidirect anyway
but there definitely is one that just gives you D_8
I was kinda confused because I had a group isomorphic to both
And though this would imply Z4 and Z2 x Z2 are the same
I guess that's not how it works
that isn't even a conclusion you can draw for direct products in general
Swindle
although the counter examples are very uhhh "non-natural" lol
A is isomorphic to B because A x B x A x .... is isomorphic to B x (B x A x B x ...) = B x (A x B x ...)
like if all your groups are finitely generated then it's fine
I see
Craziest one ive seen is G iso to H, N normal subgroup of G, N2 normal subgroup of H, N iso to N2, but G/N is not iso to H/N2
ok so what was the more tahn 24 thing abt lol
There are 3 elements in S4 that have more than 1 cycles in their decomposition
I meant you would need to write down more than 24 cycles
I didn't mean permutations
They're all conjugate, so shouldn't matter
ah true, good point
In Z5[x] consider the ideal I = (x2 + x + 1), I want to justify why x^2+x+1 is irreducible, is it correct to justify in this way?( I actally doubt that( x-a can not divide f(x)) can not necessarily imply f(x) irreducible, by reference of (x^2+1)^2 in R[x] find roots that is not in Field R.)
Or it might be better if someone share why in Zp we just need to check f(a) not 0 by plugging a=0,1..p-1 in order to determine that it is irreducbile?
Serial-killer's-mocking-note-to-the-police handwriting
dude you think that's bad you do not want to see mine
just check to see if it has any roots (it doesn't) and then it's irreducible. I assume that's what you've done
yes, but I am somewhat confused why we can say f(x) is irreducible if there is no roots in Zp?
well it's because it's a quadratic
any factor has to be linear
Zp is a field so no roots => no linear factors
Chad
society if all partitions of n had at least one 1 in them 
Seeing "Z_5 is a field" confused me for a little bit
skill issue
if we have quartic polynomial f(x)=(x^2+1)^2 in R[x], we have (x-i)| f(x) and i is not in Field, and it seems similar to x-a does not divide f(x) if a is in field.( Which means it might not be true that( no roots-> no linear factor )can imply f(x) is irreducible if deg(f(x))>2 right?)
3
all partitions of 2 and 3 have at least one 1 in them
which is why this works
for 4 we have 2+2 as you say, so it breaks
I settled with tower formula and contradiction. As alpha is algebraic, there exists minimal polynomial of alpha over K of finite degree n. Now we factorize the extension degree, using the elements in the chain of subfields.
Now we use contradiction. Let's say [K(alpha^(p^r)) : K(alpha^(p^(r+1)))] > 1 for all the subfields. Then, [K(alpha) : K] = p^n > n, which is a contradiction. That means there has to be one r such that K(alpha^(p^r)) = K(alpha^(p^(r+1))), hence, (alpha^(p^r)) is seperable by the statement I proved in an early case.
Yeah sure
But this - as far as I know, this should stabilize somewhere? I have not proved it though.
Yes, this is just linear algebra like
take dimensions
you get a decreasing sequence of integers
But the way I'd personally probably do this is like#
Actually it is equivalent to this lol
Do you know that if L/K is an alg extension of char p fields and a in L is inseparable over K, then you can write its minimal poly in the form f(t^p)
yes, we can
I'm still trying to wrap my head around the proof but the result is indeed true
by induction on degree of the element over K, you can write f(t) = g(t^(p^n)) for a separable poly g
Hmmm...
like basically you can keep pulling out pth powers
oh yeah
and it has to stop because the minimal poly of a is, well, a polynomial
correct
so yeah you can always write a min poly in the form f(t^{p^n}) for some separable f
and then a^{p^n} is separable
I did something liike this for a purely inseperable extension
But yeah, as you can see, this is basically the same as your argument
Just more directly with min polys
Actually, how would the dimensions look here, won't that just be the same as the tower formula thing?
Sure but it's slightly more elementary
Do we take thm to be vector spaces over the preceding field alwys?
because if we just take the original field of course it will stabilize
Is there a simple expression for the size of the image of $\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z}^\times$ under the map $x\mapsto x^2$?
person2709505
What's the kernel of this map?
The self-inverse elements
Well just K
Since they are all vector spaces over that
Which are, concretely?
I want to confirm an answer of question 10 for a part I think it will be there is no n exists and for b part k=n
This is what I'm really after; I hoped my first question would be easier to answer than this. (I am XY problem-ing. Sorry about that.)
But is there really a simple way to see what these self-inverse elements are?
Basically, you need to solve an equation
x^2-1=0 I'm guessing?
Yep
Can someone help me to confirm my answer
I think I had better rethink my approach. An answer to my first question would imply something which I could use in the first step of a long guided-proof-type exercise whose conclusion is exactly the hint you're suggesting... 
Huh
I mean, it's not a hard equation, isn't it
Compared to x^2 - 2 = 0 on Z/nZ
for any set subset A of G, I want to prove that |A|= |gAg^(-1) | , so if I have a ≠ b then gag^(-1) ≠ gbg^(-1) so is it correct?
I can't solve either of those (even if I can convince myself by brute force calculation), so I can't tell which is harder
Hint: one is factorizable, the other is.. debatable
What is meant by rigid motion?
Ahg yes, you're right--- silly of me not to have thought of that earlier
Thanks
A translation
Rotation
Or reflection
Or any combination thereof
Its transformations which preserve distance
Between any mathematical objects or specific....and how we define distance?
This is for Euclidean space
Okay
And for distance it preserves standard metrics(distance) or some other types of metric ?
Standard
Okay thank you
No problem! I also overthink too often as well.
It turns out that I did manage to reduce the problem to solving (x-1)(x+1)=0, but in a more convoluted way, a few hours ago. I am only required to count solutions in Z/(2^k)Z (for the first part of the proof). Any hints?
I have reason to believe that if $x^2=c2^k,,x<2^k$ (in the integers), then $x=\pm 1,2^{k-1}\pm 1$, but I can't prove it.
person2709505
Yeah perhaps there is a way to solve it without elementary number theory
That was my hope
But you can consider when 2^k divides (x-1)(x+1)
Mhm- we can express the condition as $2^k\mid 2^\alpha\prod (p_i)2^\beta\prod (q_i),,\alpha+\beta\geq k$. We had a situation like this with the next step in the proof (the same problem but in $\mathbb{Z}/(p^k)\mathbb{Z}$, $p$ an odd prime) but couldn't adapt the proof to the $p=2$ case. Otherwise, I can try and show $x$ must have this form if $2^k$ divides our product, but no luck here either
person2709505
I am perhaps too elementary-brained but
You can consider what the gcd of x-1 and x+1 should be
2?
Since x+1-(x-1)=2 and the gcd cannot be 1 (since x must be a unit -> coprime to 2^k -> odd -> x +/-1 even)
I will have a think and come back in the morning I think. Thanks for your patient help 🙂
Cya!
Fields are required to be commutative, yes
There is division ring, which is like a field but not commutative
👍 thank both 😁
Also skew fields have the same definition as fields minus the requirement for commutativity
Can some one explain this theorem to me? I don’t understand what it means by “g-component collum matrices”, can you give me an example of such a matrix?
That anyways trivially stabilizes when the chain reaches the prime subfield of characteristic p.
Unless you're reading Emil Artin's lectures on Galois Theory
What happens there?
They say field for divison rings, and commutatiive field for fields.
It's old so that's understandable
Ahh
But the fields may not be of finite dimension over the prime subfield
I think that’s a French convention (probably a bourbaki thing), my algebra notes point it out in case we see it in other literature
Indeed
hi sorry if this is a wrong place to ask, but can someone help me argue that if range(T^n-1) is not equal to range(T^n), then T^n = 0 and T is then a nilpotent operator? where dim(V) = n
Tbh probably okay here or could go in #linear-algebra
Basically there is a descending sequence $V \supseteq \mathrm{range}(T) \supseteq \dots \supseteq \mathrm{range}(T^{n-1}) \supseteq \mathrm{range}(T^n) \supseteq 0$. Try to show that if $\mathrm{range}(T^m) = \mathrm{range}(T^{m+1})$ for some $m$, then in fact $\mathrm{range}(T^m) = \mathrm{range}(T^{m+1}) = \dots = \mathrm{range}(T^n)$. Do you see how this would help you finish?
Süßkartoffel
thanks for your response, what I dont understand is why we can say there is a descending chain of range
like I don't know why we can ensure that the range of powers of linear maps is decreasing
Dw
OH I was reading range(T^n-1) as T^n minus the identity matrix lol
Lol
I thought there was some eigenspace subtlety I was missing haha
I know that for a subgroup N of G to be normal we need gN = Ng for all group elements g, but I also came across the definition that the set of left cosets and right cosets is equal. Why is this second definition equivalent?
gN = Ng implies they are equal is obvious
but the other direction?
you just stated the same thing twice
Just think about what the cosets are
they are exactly that
"gN = Ng for all g in G" is just the statement that left/right cosets are equal
for each g you could have an h so that gN = Nh without g = h
Well you probably can’t but I don’t see why
What definition of normal are you using
gN = Ng for all g
So what is there to prove
If the set of left cosets and right cosets are equal, then gN = Ng for all g
Ah okay I see
I’m saying that the set of left and right cosets could be equal without the equation holding, if this scenario happened
oh it's a transfer thing I see
If gN = Nh then we can write g = nh (since g is an element of each side) and then Nh = Ng
I see
Wait
“gH = H iff g in H”
is true right?
Ok yea this came up before
Ok after seeing multiple proofs of “coset product is well defined for normal subgroups”
Why do people choose anything other than using the gN = Ng definition
you don’t even have to directly work with elements that way
Ye
Well sometimes you want to work with elements
Like saying N is closed under conjugation is probably usually easier to prove in practice
At least, it's how I think about it now
it's also the one that's more useful lol
I rarely think about quotient groups as actual cosets anymore, cosets are just useful for group actions as nature and the lord in heaven intended
Yeah true tbh i don't think i have ever used gN = Ng
lol
well like at least in the last couple of years i guess
Mhm
For example like
In order to find the normal subgroups of a group, a good place to start is to compute the conjugacy classes if you can
and the normal subgroups are exactly the subgroups which are unions of conjugacy classes
I see why a union of conjugacy classes that is a subgroup is normal (gNg^-1 \subset G lends well to this like you say). For the other direction, is it similar?
Oh
if N is normal then you can check that it contains each of its elements conjugacy classes
got this for free, mwahaha
i… am not sure if i’ll use it though, i just couldn’t not take it when free, ehehe
For free is nice
i don’t have many hard cover maths books actually, feels oddly luxurious
Hardback is really nice, I got a hardback copy of ideals varieties and algorithms in the springer sale and it feels so good, you could definitely kill someone with it though
i have a copy of that one from the library, it's lovely, but an entirely different feeling when it's MINE MWAHAHAHA
ahem
lang? or cox
I got it on your recommendation 
And because the comalg course I’m doing next semester uses it
lol
But it was your recommendation that made me pull the trigger, book seems great everyone loves it
actually i did like lang's complex analysis
hey, i'm really new to group theory and i was wondering about getting the product of 2 groups. i've understood how to get the product of C2*C2 and C2*C3 but I'm stuck on trying to multiply C2*C4 and can't seem to find anyone going through it step by step, could anyone help please? sorry if i phrased this badly or the solution is really simple, im very beginner level
do you know how to describe the product of two groups G1 and G2 in general?
that is, what are the elements of G1 x G2? and what is the operation in G1 x G2 ?
i have a vague idea but i don't know any actual formulas for it, i've been self-teaching so i'm probably missing out on key details
isn't it to do with multiplying the generators of each group together?
What do you understand the definition of the product of two groups to be?
Can you quote the definition?
Is this part of some exercise?
no
I'd like answers to the other questions too
the answer is no to all of them, sorry, i'll look into them to better understand what im doing
OK
Let me give you some advice that will help you learn math in the future
If you do not know the definition of something, you cannot answer questions about that thing.
As far as you know, this may as well be the "quizzleblop" of two groups. Without the definition, it is a meaningless term.
I will give you the definition of the product of two groups, and you can judge for yourself if you are happy with them:
Boytjie
So the question "what is the product of two groups" is wholly answered by this definition.
Boytjie
I hope that this provides a completely unambiguous answer to your question.
thanks, sorry for bothering you
Is this all clear?
yes
Glad to hear it
oshea (t) little cox*
Question: Use Kronecker's theorem to construct a field with four elements by adjoining a suitable roots of x^4-x to Z2? I factor x^4-x=x*(x-1)*(x^2+x+1), and there exist root 1 and 0, then how to proceed it? I only know there must be a field E to let f splits over E since polynomial can be written as a product of irreducible factors.
let alpha be a root of x^4-4, and then consider Z2[alpha]
You already have 1 and 0, so you want to ajoin a root of x^2 + x + 1
Team work makes the dream work!
Anyway, do you know how to adjoin a root of an irreducible polynomial?
don't want to talk over you + it's easier to follow one explaination than 2!
Could I get a hint for this one? https://gyazo.com/a57ded4a5859f594333b74f535e5b7c0
Well, xy has order n and x has order 2, maybe see how that compares to your definition of the dihedral group.
And away they go
(He has a new question)
Apparently there's some natural bijection between {maximal ideals of R[x]} and the upper half plane
how do I get that guy
For R the real numbers? That’s news to me. Miz do ur Spec R[x] nonsense
Yeah
no I was going to bully
I haven’t done much alg geo lol
This sounds very non-trivial to me I must be honest
But I mean irreducible polys over R are linear or strictly positive quadratics
could work with that
Fuckin got derailed from trolling into actually being useful god damn it
reduce them down to monic and then send x^2+bx+a -> (b, a) is the obvious one but it’s not a bijection
Question: what are the finite groups with the property that the sum of orders of elements is the the order of the group? G={e} obviously a solution. I proved that there is no abelian group with the property using the bounding of the sum of orders. But can we have non abelian groups with such property?
Ah, the upper half plane stuff is what I wrote as a description for Spec R[x] in an exercise
So we do need Spec R[x]
Zariski-Topologically or like
That said, it has mostly discrete topology, so it underwhelming.
Do I need a SES
Yeah I was about to say
Yeah Zariski
Impossible for nontrivial group, because there is an element of order bigger than 1
Using the class function we write |G| as the sums of the sizes of the conjugacy classes. Elements in the same conjugacy class have the same order, so it’s going to be bigger than |G|
Oh wait upper half plane
Factorize the strictly positive quadratics
Wlog one of the roots has real imaginary part
but why is that useful lol
Maybe you can act SL_2(R) on it
It’s going to be some stupid result about Riemannian surfaces or something
Yup. Le modular form has arrived
Kind of
oh it’s actually not horrible
Just proving it’s a homeomorphism
Wait strict upper half plane or including the real line
To be clear I just want a bijection that I can write down lol
Uhh artin just said upper half plane so probably not including
Send a to <x - a> and a + bi to <x^2 - 2ax + (a^2 + b^2)> lol
I like rotating shit
Have fun proving it’s a Zariski-R metric homeomorphism
Euclidean ass mf
SL(2,Z)’s abelianization is 12 cyclic
Have a good day
To start, I have to show that <x-a> is maximal.
x-a is clearly irreducible
PID
Quotient is iso to R etc etc
Then just show that it’s maximal because irreducible
I know the fact that if R is a field then any ideal in R[x] is principal
Show it’s necessary and sufficient for the principal generator to be irreducible
You want me to show that
f is irreducible iff <f> is maximal
?
- If <p(x)> is maximal and q(x) divides p(x), then <q(x)> contains <p(x)>. Contradiction
- If <p(x)> is an ideal and p(x) is irreducible, then if <q(x)> contains <p(x)>, then q(x) must divide p(x), contradiction
Circular for brevity but you get the point
Just use the def of a generator
jokes on you I haven’t actually done much ring theory at all I just pulled out of this out of my ass
and any quadratic with b^2 - 4ac < 0 is also irreducible
thank god it’s at least legible
Yes, strictly positive
Are you saying it should be > ?
Negative discriminant, which is the absval of the roots’ imaginary part
The polynomial is strictly positive
That’s what I meant by strictly positive quadratic
ok another question
this one is conceputal
how am I supposed to think of R[x]/(x^2 + 1) as the complex numbers?
I feel like I know the formalities of quotient ring and stuff
But every explanation I read online feels like a bunch of handwaving when its not
Every strictly positive quadratic is related by some real translation
I.e a real shift in X like X + c
so all of them can be “shifted” to the classic X^2 + 1 one
And if you reduce that, done
No way "modular forms" are this simple stuffs
You then have the complex numbers
Simply, R[i] = R[x] / (x^2 + 1)
It’s a 2D vector space over R due to it being an integral extension, any polynomial p(x) = (x^2 + 1)p(x) + Ax + B
So if you quotient out x^2 + 1
You are left with Ax + B, I.e Ai + B
The complex numbers
Multiplication is the same
R[x]/(x^2 + 1) = {f + (x^2 + 1) | f in R[x]}.
And by construction,
f + (x^2 + 1) = g + (x^2 + 1) iff f - g is a multiple of x^2 + 1.
Now how do I show that for every poly f there is a g(x) = ax + b such that
f + (x^2 + 1) = g + (x^2 + 1)?
If I can show that then I can write R[x]/(x^2 + 1) = {ax + b + (x^2 + 1) | a, b in R} whereby then the relation to C is obvious
This is because R[X] is a Euclidean domain lol
I guess the answer to my question is some version of "the euclidean algorithm in polynomial rings", but I've never seen a formal presentation of that, so if someone could write down the explicit statement of that or point me to a reference I'd be grateful
You’d have to prove R[X] is a Euclidean domain, but that’s not hard
consider the notion of a degree
I haven’t formally proved it, but I’d imagine some sort of linear system to be solved from the “convolution” definition of multiplication of polynomials
The solution “vector” corresponding to the remainder polynomial’s coefficients
You can show that division algorithm works for polynomials
Which, imo, is obvious for R[x]
An inductive method also probably works
I’m too lazy to write it out lmao
Just keep cancelling the coefficients like inverting a triangular matrix lol
I guess you can literally invoke linear algebra
Immediate brain damage approach from yours truly I need to pick up a book and stop bullshitting my way through abstract algebra lmao
Wlog?
no
Just pick q=0
yeah
If q=0 then r=f
but then r doesn't have a smaller degree than f -- they have same degree
It's like integer division
Linear algebra approach to integer division
7 :D
Huh
Who is that?

Ok so I understand the statement
And more or less understand the proof here
But why do you think it's obvious?
We basically can keep cancelling terms until we have a unique remainder polynomial with degree less than the divisor
Like in Gauss-Jordan elimination when you get to an Upper Triangular matrix
basically if p has higher degree than d, we change add a term to our polynomial to cancel the next highest power
We can multiply by ax^(n-m) to cancel out the highest term and keep working down inductively
I was wondering what happens if we run out of degree, but now I see that the max number of times we do this is m-n since each stage the degree goes down by at least 1, so after m-n stages the degree is at most m - (m - n) = n
We’ll have a remainder polynomial
By run out of degree I meant like we add a ax^2 term, then a bx term, then c, and then p still has degree larer than d
But this will never happen cuz of this
Another way to see this is that, as a R-vectorspace,
(1, x, ..., x^(deg d - 1), d, d x, d x^2, ...) spans R[x].
Long division or synthetic division is another way of writing it down
If you want to try it practically
Wait In R[x] the ideal (x) doesn't contain the constant polys right?
no
no as in I'm right?
So you can't specify a homomorphism by just saying where x goes
You also need to specify how R would embed, I guess
Of polynomial rings
Yep
My original question answer is no cuz of this right?
"such that hbar = h" in my picture
Yeah, unless you are considering R-linear maps
Maps the coefficients
So presumably the universal property is the same with R[x, y] (i.e. that you can determine a homomorphism if you know where R embeds and where x and y go)
but in this problem it doesn't tell you where R goes
If you want to truly prove it, you can prove it by contradiction because it’ll fix the x, y elements
Also because the universal property still applies because it’s a map from R to R lmao
Huhh
I thought when it was just R[x] we knew where the consant polys were going cuz we knew where the (embedding of) R (in R[x]) is supposed to go
But here its R[x, y] and they tell you were x and y go but not where R goes
It’s like the universal property but with two lol
This is R-linear map
sorry im gonna put my linear algebra question here cuz people in this chat may seem more knowledgeable
can anyone explain why, if A and B are commuting diagonalizable matrices, then A - B is also diagonalizable and A and B are simultaneously diagonalizable?
Did you try #linear-algebra first?
Yeah, you'd likely get better answers there I think.
Unless you are talking about representations here
yeah sorry if it was inappropriate
It's okay (I think)
can you explain
Basically, it assumes that the map R -> R is the canonical one, i.e. identity.
The author likely thought it should be obvious without specifying it.
Ah
Many mthematicians tend to do this kind of omission, so it's good to be familiar with it
Inside a polynomial ring R[x], if I wanna check whether p divides q, is there anything I can do with the division algorithm?
Like this right here
Wdym, why would you check divisibility?
yes
use the division algorithm
and then if you get 0 remainder
then it divides
edited
if you're checking if 12 divides 26
26 = 12*2 + 2
12 = 2*6 + 0
ok wait
i'm a fool
just divide it
once
and then if the remainder is 0, then it divides
Ah right, euclidean division algorithm is division algorithm
Wait nvm I'm being dumb
strictly more efficient than anything to do with the division algorithm
because you have to do multiple divisions for that
Lmao oops
ok I solved my problem
sorry to bother y'all
Consider the map phi: Z[x] -> R that sends f to f(1 + sqrt(2))
(Z is integers and R is reals)
I'm trying to find the kernel of phi (write it nicely as the ideal generated by something)
If
f(x) = a_0 + a_1x + ... + a_nx^n
and f is in the kernel of phi then
0 = a_0 + a_1 (1 + sqrt(2)) + ... + a_n (1 + sqrt(2))^n
RHS is equal to something of the form x*sqrt(2) + y where x, y are integers
we need x = y = 0
But now this is messy
messy how
maybe try considering it for just linear functions and quadratics first to get an idea of what you should be looking to prove
Just as a sanity check, despite $-$ not normally forming a group when over sets, the special case of $({0}, -)$ is a perfectly valid group right? Is this useful in any way (other than the fact that it is a trivial group)?
JJCUBER
expanding (1+sqrt(2))^n with binomial theorem seems messy
Explicitly doing so maybe. Recognizing that you can reduce it to just x*sqrt(2) + y by reducing exponents is probably enough tbh
In order to describe the kernel I need to know for what set of coefficients (a_0, ..., a_n) I get x = y = 0 tho
Well on a set with a single element, there is only one binary operation on that set, and it forms a group multiplication. So yes, you can use whatever symbol you like for it and it is a valid group.
Nope. Think about what x and y are. They're not just random real numbers... What are they?
Or uhh, maybe a bit further back, think about what each of the a_i's are.
integers
I know it's just pedantry, but a given binary operation isn't necessarily over the set in all cases.
and the a_i are each some linear combination of the n+1 integers a_0, ..., a_n
a binary operation on the set should be on the set
ah I didn't realize on and over meant the same thing in this context
Then it wouldn't be a meaningful question whether that was a group
Exactly; a Z-linear combination specifically. Hence x and y are integers
thanks
Oh
anyway i would consider the linear and quadratic cases
like when does a linear or quadratic function have 1 + sqrt(2) as a root
wait no
i was going to say polynomials factorise into linear and quadratic factors
but that feels weird suddenly
They factor but not into linears and quadratics over Q or Z. You get that over R.
yeah
Also sorry lol I confused myself for a bit there
well, consider the quadratic case anyway
that'll at least give you a large chunk of cases
examples
Alternatively, if you know some field theory this should be easy, as this is the kernal of the evaluation map f |--> f(1+sqrt(2)) defined on Q[x], intersected with Z[x].
Are we looking for f s.t. f (1 + sqrt(2)) = 0?
Is Z[x] a Bezout domain?
....
nvm, it can't be. There's a certain characterization of PIDs - An UFD which is a Bezout Domain is a PID.
Ok anyways, my original question was to show that f(x) in Z[x] is separable if the image of f(x) in F_p[x] is seperable.
I know that if instead of Z there was a field this is true under any field embedding.
But the only thing I have is this canonical projection of Z[x] onto F_p[x].
In both Z and Fp every irreducible polynomial is seperable. So the only way for f to not be seperable is if g^2 divides f for some other polynomial g. If this happens in Z, then it also happens in Fp
Congratulations 😂, how do you get it?
Wait, do you mean a polynomial in F_p[x] can only be separable iff it is a product of distinct irreducibles?
This is what I know as true for characteristic p fields
Yes, Fp is a perfect field. Meaning every irreducible polynomial is seperable
Okay. So if I have the image of f(x) in F_p to be separable, it is product of distinct irreducibles in F_p[x].
What is the criteria of seperability in Z, though
All roots are distinct?
Ok anyways
Following what you said
Let f be not seperable in Z[x].
Then f cannot be irreducible, and also in some splitting field, there must be a repeated root.
As Z[x] is an UFD, there exists a irreducible factorization unique upto associates.
Now, as each irreducibles are seperable, all of them contribute distinct roots. So, there must exist an irreducible g(x) such that g^2 divides f.
Now we consider the image of f under the canonical projection.
It's a ring homomorphism, then \bar(f) = \bar(g)^2 * \bar(h) for some h in Z[x].
Which says bar(f) cannot be seperable.
Oh then by contrapositivity, the result holds
Thanks a lot!!
Actually there is a problem with the argument. Since (px + 1)^2 is not seperable, but 1 is
Is it correct if I want an example such that order of gN in G/N strictly less than the order of G
First I thought about taking a group Z and taking any subgroup N=6Z then in Z/6Z I take 3 + 6Z which has order 2.
Secondly I thought about taking a group Z= Q_8(quaternion group) and taking the group N= < j> generated by j so in Z/N we have iN which has order 2 .....is this the correct example?
So you probably want to add a condition like the leading coefficient not being divisible by p
You want an example where the order of gN is less than the order of G? That's just always true, unless N is trivial, G is cyclic and g generates G.
oh wait i completely missed that part.
But this condition was not at all given
Oh wait
it is given
f is monic
My mistake order of gN in G/N is strictly less than the order of g in G
Then you're examples are good yes
Okay thank you
I'm actually not sure how to include this in my argument
Oh ok got it
f is monic so any factor of f should also be monic and the projected image is also.moniv
Done
Thanks now
alright so here's a thinker i'm running into with a program i'm making
i've created a function which tests a polynomial in F_p[x] for irreducibility
as part of it, i check whether f and f' are coprime -- if they aren't, i return False and print gcd(f, f') as a repeated factor
however i've come across a bug
i set p = 2 and fed a perfect square polynomial, namely x^6 + x^2 + 1 (= (x^3+x+1)^2) into the function
which gave me "NOT irreducible. Reason: Repeated factor -- x^6 + x^2 + 1"
which is
not satisfactory to say the least
which got me thinking
this thing's derivative is obviously 0
as in just the 0 polynomial
so heres my question
let f ∈ F_2[x] such that f' = 0. is f necessarily a perfect square?
and generally, let f ∈ F_p[x] such that f' = 0. is f necessarily a perfect p'th power?
if so, i could probably put in a special case here.
i don't know how to adjoin roots, probably need more explanation.
I think there was some mention in algebra textbook about how lin-combi of x^{kp}'s is a perfect p-power.
You can likely use the fact that the Frobenius map is an isomorphism.
about how lin-combi of x^{kp}'s is a perfect p-power.
this reads like the converse of what i want
so like ok
f' = 0 <=> f is a lincombo of x^(kp)
right?
and then
f is a lincombo of x^(kp) <=> f is a perfect p'th power
Yes
alright
so do you mean if we can ajoin four roots of x^4-x, then we can construct a field Z2[alpha1, alpha2, alpha3, alpha4]?( to construct a field with four elements by adjoining a suitable roots)
If p is an irreducible polynomial, then
F[x]/(p) is isomorphic to the field given by adjoining a root of p.
So in your case F2[x]/(x^2 + x + 1) will be a field with 4 elements.
i dont immediately see why if the discriminant is not square in F then x^2 + bx + c = 0 does not have a solution in F
one constructs the quadratic equation explicitly on fields of not characteristic 2 but im a little confused as to why not being able to take square roots automatically there isnt another construction that shows the existence of a root
if there is a root of the equation
then there necessarily is a square root of the discrim?
i suspect is the argument
Any solution has to satisfy the quadratic equation, so you can equate
in characteristic different from 2, that equation is equivalent to (2x+b)^2 = b^2-4c
and now it is easy to see that the equation has solution if and only if the discriminant is a square
does F2[x] mean Z2[x]? and in my case why F2[x]/(x^2+x+1) will have four elements( roots 0, 1, and roots from x^2+x+1?)
Seems like a Galois-y problem
and it seems that x, x-1 and x^2+x+1 are all irreducible polynomial, so we have Z2[x]/(x) isomorphic to Z2[x]/(x-1) isomorphic to Z2[x]/(x^2+x+1)
… what
uh... no
Consider the order of the vector spaces over F_2
I haven’t done this exercise before or much abstract algebra outside group theory but if F has finite order q, then does G = F[X]/<p(X)> have order deg(p)q because [G : F] = deg(p)?
No, it has order q^{deg(p)}
Oh shit yeah
Vector spaces over finite fields have order q^d not qd
Brain fart
I was just wondering if characteristic causes any silliness but
I guess not, it’s a Euclidean domain nonetheless
so not all these three are irreducbile in Z2[x]?
That's not the issue
They have different orders as vec spaces
You've just out of nowhere concluded they're going to be isomorphic, which is simply false.
Now it is true that F_2[x]/(x) and F_2[x]/(x-1) are isomorpic, and you should think about why.
But the other is not.
The last has a linear, first two just a constant
So they differ when quotiented
if the universe could provide me a simple proof of $G \subset \mathrm{Aut}(F), |G| < \infty \Rightarrow [F : F^G] = |G|$ I’d forever be thankful
Mizalign
Like I get it’s an algebraic extension but rrrrr
AA 
Does F2 refer to Z2? and it should because deg(x)=deg(x-1)?
it’s integral for any commutative integral ring actually
Proving it’s finite is the painful part
This isn't complete enough reasoning either
Why should having the same degree give you the same quotient?
Anyway, it's false in general e.g. $\mathbb Q[x]/(x^2 -22) \not \simeq \mathbb Q[x]/(x^2 + 1)$
Süßkartoffel
||okay 22 is a typo but it works lmao||
But basically, if polynomials and stuff you do with them only depended on their degrees, much of maths as we know it would be easy
Because the map X -> aX + b is an automorphism
Actually I’m pretty sure R[X]/(p(X)) ~= R[X]/(q(X)) if p(X) = q(aX + b) if a is a unit in R
So like I said before, quotienting out by an irreducible polynomial is the same as adjoining a root of that polynomial. Now adjoining a root of x or x-1 doesn't get you anything particularly exciting, and will give you something different than adjoining a root of x^2 + x + 1
Yes, for the reason you just said
the auto of R[x] induces that iso by first iso innit
Poggers...
I should actually do ring theory lol
By determining its dimension, we need to apply quotient remainder theorem?
I have no idea how to determine the degree of F2[x]/(x) and F2[x]/(x-1)
so you think it is enough to argue F2[x]/(x) is isomorphic to F2[x]/(x-1) because degree(x)=degree(x-1)?
no
for degree 1 it is okay because X -> X - 1 is an automorphism
But for higher degrees it’s not always the case UNLESS the field is algebraically closed
It is the case if p(x) = q(ax + b) which forces the degrees to be the same
we need to argue the degree by using extension field in general? Or using quoteient remainder is enough?
I mean I need to know how to determine the degree?
Actually I’m unsure if it’s always the case in algebraicly closed fields
No it isn’t I just reasoned through it
Probably like Qx and Q[x]/(x^2+1)?
In other words, the quotient ring is isomorphic if the polynomials are an argument shifting and scaling away from eachother
Which explains why C is iso to R[X]/(p(x)) where p is ANY strictly positive quadratic
Because you can shift the X to be x^2 + 1
:)
Dimension isn't enough either
Does the kernel of a ring homomorphism always contain the additive identity?
Yes
The inner automorphism, x -> gxg^-1
Why is that? I tried proving it, didn't get much without making assumptions on the ring.
I think I am doing something wrong.
How would you show it if you had to?
All ring homomorphisms are group homomorphisms
Ah
It's the same as showing group homomorphisms preserve identity
Im sorry i dont immediately see why still
hey, can anyone suggest few papers on Rings, Integral Domains and Fields of undergrad level
also any specific topic in this is fine
What exactly do you picture when you think of taking quotient with a kernel given a ring homomorphism?
Definition and all is fine but, I don't see it. Can someone give an example. I wish there was a book of detailed examples in abstract algebra. Like there's the book for counterexamples in topology. I wish there was something like that here too. 
Which book for counterexamples in Topology?
If k does not divide n I think it will work, right?
Seebach
Should work regardless of k I think
Yes
Is it like, making an equivalence class over the kernel to sort of make it 1-1?
You are clubbing together all maps to zero into one entity.
To make it 1-1?
Let G be a finite group and for any arbitrary subgroup N, consider the set {g | gNg^(-1) <N } then the set is closed under inverse ?
Like what does this set look like?
I think so taking the cosets of the kernel then making the ring and then find their isomorphic image
In general taking the quotient ring modulo an ideal should be thought of as setting elements of that ideal equal to 0 and considering the ring's elements with that (not sure if this will help tho)
So like, Z/nZ, all elements in nZ are thought of as 0.
Yeah
and this idea generalizes. When considering R/I, we make all the elements in I = 0 essentially
true!
but idk what you mean by visualize or what the set looks like
I think quotient modulo kernel makes much sense to do if you want to make the homomorphism have trivial kernel or something
formally the set consists of just cosets
but since I is an ideal, we can equip these cosets with the desired ring operations
I mean you basically just “factor” it out, quite similar to the name
Okay so here, for some a in kernel, you are basically taking r*a as one equivalence class? Where r is arbitrary?
where are you getting r^n?
Like operating the same element several times basically what I meant but in hindsight that looks restrictive
You're familiar with G / N where G is a group and N is a normal subgroup right?
I am but I never really got comfortable. So I am going through this for once and for all.
Balls to the Galois’s
much excite
Wait is it a rec with examples? 
I have Dummit and Foote lol
Ok so formally the elements of R/I are cosets r + I where r is an element of the ring R
@deft pecan
And what's the restriction on l?
(x + I) + (y + I) = (x + y) + I
it’s not a rec, ehehe, i haven’t worked through it yet, but i’d say it looks very promising
I has to be an ideal for this to be a ring
I recommend trying to prove that R/I is a ring if and only if I is an ideal of R
Oh okay
You can kind of “take away” the ideal or set it to 0 via the quotienting map since it’s a kernel
it seems to be very classical in style
Also multiplication is absorbed
and similar to how equivalence mod N is an equivalence relation, x = y (mod n) if and only if x - y in nZ
so you can more easily “take it away” and preserve multiplication
x = y if and only if x - y in I is an equivalence relation
For non-commutative Ring R I must be a two-sided ideal for R/I be ring?
Yes
Two sided rings are kind of like “normal” ideals as in how normal subgroups are to groups
they are kernels
Kernels of the quotient lol
Okay I'll try that
Thanks
If G had two cyclic factors C and C_0 whose orders were divisible by a prime p, then G would have (at least) p^2 elements of order dividing p. This doesn’t happen, and it follows that G is cyclic.
What is the cyclic factor ? Factor group?
does anybody know where i can look up some polynomials in F_p[x], p prime, which are irreducible but not primitive?
oop
existing convo already here
I think it is products of group
G is abelian
Means G= C× C_0 ?
Like G = A×B×....×C×C_0
But why doesn't this happen that there are at least p^2 elements of order dividing p ?
Like any (....,c,c_0) have order p
If dots are identity
You can choose c and c_0 p^2 ways
I dont understand why if abelian group is not cyclic then it should have factors
How (.......,c,c_0) have order p ? If let say c has order 4 and c_0 has order 8 and both divisible by 2 so what will be the order of (........,c,c_0) ?
Have you seen the fundamental theorem of finite abelian groups?
It depends on the order of elements it will be the least common multiple of their orders
You mean like Z_n is isomrphic to Z_n1×Z_n2..... ?
Where n1 n2.. are coprime
But how elements in C have order dividing 2?
Two?
And in C_0 also 2?
Actually I think I misunderstood your question, C and C_0 is cyclic group which has order in the form of p•k , right?
Like isomprhishm of C to Z/4Z and C_0 to Z/8Z
Yeah
Yes you can take this examples
So you can find the elements which has order 4 and order 8
We need order dividing 2
So how do you claim that there are at least p^2 elements of order dividing p?
In Z/4Z are 0,2 and in Z/8Z 0,4
But how to prove?
Do you know if a group is finite and cyclic then number of elements of order d is ?
It is Euler phi function so in C and C_0 there are p-1 elements which have order p and then you have also an identity element so you have total p×p elements
At least p^2 elements have order dividing p
G?
Yeah
Like if there is no factor groups that divide the same prime number then it is cyclic?
Factor group? And same prime number means?
Like if you take Z/9Z×Z/27Z it is not cyclic but when you take
Z/8Z×Z/27Z it is cyclic
For cyclic just need that the group must have a single generator or for a finite group you must show that there is an element which has the same order as order of G
Yes because you choose a generator (1,1) which has order LCM(8,27)= 8×27, which a order of Z/8Z × Z/27Z
How to conclude that G is cyclic
Z/9Z × Z/27Z is not cyclic but the Z/9Z and Z/27Z is cyclic and their order is divisible by 3 so your conclusion is not correct
Where it is given that this hypothesis implies G is cyclic?
You need more hypothesis may be
Okay i try to rephrase
If you have a finite abelian group thats every two factor groups orders are comprime then it is cyclic
So order is co prime
Chinese remainder theorem
Yeah
Then in case of Z/8Z and Z/27Z the orders is co-prime therefore it will work
But it goes other direction like
In this you do not need the factor group to be cyclic?
If you have two factors cyclic groups order that is divisible by the same prime number then it is not cyclic
Yeah
Okay guys i need to go
Thanks a lot
If factor group is not a cyclic group then if you take any element (a,b) it's order is not same as order of group G
Take G= U(8) × (Z_3× Z_3) then take any element from G it has atmost order is 6 not 36, where U(8) denotes the group {1,3,5,7} with multiplication operation mod 8
if b^2-4c is not a square, the equation (2x+b)^2=b^2-4c doesn't have solutions simply because b^2-4c is not of the form (something)^2
if b^2-4c is a square, say t^2, the equation is (2x+b)^2=t^2, and this has solutions: 2x+b=t or 2x+b=-t (i.e. x=2^(-1)*(-b+t) or
x=2^(-1)*(-b-t))
What does the notation Z[a + bi] mean
Like I see people talking about the ring Z[(1 + sqrt(-3))/2]
I know that Z[x] is the polynomial ring of polynomials with coefficients in Z
Just replace x by that a+bi and see what you will get
The problem I have with that is can't two elements have different polynomials representing them?
I see this type of question I do not remember where I think Artin or dummit
Means?
Like say in Z[1] we have, the polys x^2 + 1 and 2x represent the same value
(1)^2 + 1 = 2(1)
artin
Yeah
I guess I don't understand what ring structure Z[a + bi] should carry
What is a and b?
fixed real numbers
it doesn't matter if they have different representations; here you care about the common value
You can refer to artin or dummit
Z[a+bi] is the smallest subring of C that contains Z and a+bi
Oh
Okay
And it happens to be that as sets, that smallest subring equals what you get by evaluating every poly of Z[x] at x=a+bi?
Then what will be Z(a+bi) ? Fraction field of Z[a+bi] ?
I am confuse in () and []
yes, since once a ring contains Z and some extra element d, it's going to contain any polynomial expression with integer coefficients evaluated in d
and it turns out that the set of such expressions is a ring; so that's the smallest ring
it might be helpful to think about Z[sqrt(2)]
I guess my original confusion was if you interpret Z[a+bi] as the set of evaluations of every poly in Z[x] at x=a+bi, then how do you define the ring structure
yes, it's the fraction field
Okay
generally, if R is a ring, then R(t) means the smallest field that contain R and t
That's mean R[t] is subring of R(t)?
yes
Okay thank you
the operations are inherited from C, the usual addition and multiplication
Ah
In Lang it is given that t is variable or transcendental over R therefore we induce R[t] so what will be the significance of transcendental
for Z[sqrt(2)], if you take a polynomial from Z[x] and evaluate it in sqrt(2), you are going to obtain something of the form A+Bsqrt(2), with A and B integers
conversely, any expression of the form A+Bsqrt(2) is a polynomial in Z[x] evaluated in sqrt(2) (precisely, A+Bx)
so Z[sqrt(2)] is the set of elements of the form a+bsqrt(2) with a,b integers
I was thinking that since we use Z[x] to define Z[a + bi], the elements of Z[a + bi] should "look like" a_0 + a_1 * (a + bi) + ... + a_n (a + bi)^n, and that the addition would be defined like in Z[x] as
(a_0 + a_1 * (a + bi) + ... + a_n (a + bi)^n) + (b_0 + b_1 * (a + bi) + ... + b_n (a + bi)^n) = (a_0 + b_0) + (a_1 + b_1) (a + bi) + ...
But now I realize that Z[a + bi] is not those formal expressions but rather the simplified version (a complex number)
yeah, like the actual values
And the way to formalize poly evaluation is this right: If you have rings R, S with a homomorphism t: R -> S and you want to evaluate a polynomial f in R[x] at a c in S then you look at the image of f under the map phi that sends the poly x to c and restricts to t on R (i.e. phi ∘ pi = t where t: R -> R[x] is the canonical inclusion)
Most of the time S = R and "standard evaluation" means that the homomorphism t: R -> R is the identity
Prove that, if $H$ is a subset of a group $G$, then $H$ is a subgroup of $G$ iff $a * b^(-1) \in H$ for every $a,b \in H$. How would I prove the Left direction
Bizcuits
That is correct.
This proof is also a bit overcomplicated 😉
oop
Another good exercise is the following: Let H be finite subset of G. Then $H$ is a subgroup of G if and only if $ab\in H$ for all $a,b\in H$.
Kamal Saleh
proving the existence of inverse is constructive and is very helpful in concrete finite groups.
But if H is empty set?
H must be non-empty
Yeah
First you need to prove H is non empty
they should just add "non-empty" to the statement
since otherwise it is not a true statement
Yes
it also states H is a subset of G
what's the relevance of pointing out this
uhhh idk im just an undergrad struggling in abstract
wouldn't it just saying $a * b^(-1) \in H$ just mean its non empty??
"for every a,b in H"
Bizcuits
there may be no a or b in H at all
in which case it is vacuous that "ab^-1 is in H for each a,b"
o
This is a bit of a pedantic point but it does mean you should change the original thing to "Prove that if H is a non-empty subset [...]"
But otherwise the question is fine
at that point you just prove by contradiction assuming H is empty and boom which is a one liner
xDD
Like if the question has a mistake, when is it reasonable to just write down a counterexample :)
and move onto the next question
im sure they'll give you extra points but im sure someone will point it out to them and they'll correct themselves
i feel like most questions ive asked here you guys have always pointed out some kind of typo in the problem 💀 and my professor says this is his favorite class to teach
Oh for me I mean official exams where you can't even do that xd
I had an exam where they missed an assumption for example
my professor crazy tho tbh. he is drinking insane amounts of diet dr pepper and writes exams the day before giving them out. Had him for stats and he told us at 9pm the night before our 8am stats class that he has only written one problem 💀
I dont understand that man
does group theroy entail more than just subgroups, groups, permutations, and isomorphisms?
have a guess
no
Yes, it is an active field of study
Those are some of the topics you'll most likely learn in a first course
dr pepper goes hard tho
hm i am still struggling to choose something for my research project
might do group theory
rep theory
i am realizing more and more that me taking linear algebra during covid is fcking me over a lot.
also doesn't help that I was basically couch surfing during that time too 💀
ill look into rep theory a lil more. I would for sure have to brush up on my linear algebra for that.
doesnt need a lot
i can recommend serre linear representations of finite groups
thanks
and tensor products
is this a book or?
yes
okay thanks
Jean-Pierre Serre ?
yes
human chatgpt moment
Real
i get the backward direction but how do you prove the forward direction?
f(a) = 0
a is in E which an extension of F
we get that deg(h) = [F(a, b) : F(b)] where h is the minimal polynomial over F(b) for algebraic a
then f(a) = 0 implies h | f
but they have the same degree
this implies f = u * h
where u is a unit
oh but then this is true i guess? (not sure if it is but just thought of this)
product of irreducible and unit is again irreducible
so f is irreducible
coudl someone verify if i am making a mistake
looks gud
You can also adapt this just to prove both bits at once
like [F(a,b):F(b)] is the degree of the min poly of a, so since f(a) = 0, [F(a,b):F(b)] = deg f if and only if f is minimal
Maybe you could check out the second chapter from hungerford where he talks about the structure of groups.
Thanks
I'll take a look for sure
I told my professor that G cannot be an arbitrary group here, it has to have its binary operation as multiplication, but he denied and told me to find the reason behind it. I haven't been able to figure it out yet.
Why do you think G can not be arbitrary?
well it's assumed that the group operation is multiplication as you've written it. It is worth noting that the distinction in the syntax of the binary operation of a group is nothing more than convention(if the group is abelian then it is typical to have the operation be addition)
yeah I know the symbol is kinda confusing
I actually used the asterisk for posting the question, it was not used in the original question. It simply mentioned G as an arbitrary group.
no how do you compute a^m • a^n, here • denotes the group operation
You can proof that a^m•a^n = a^(m+n) by induction
ok so something is making my head spin here
In mathematics and computer algebra the factorization of a polynomial consists of decomposing it into a product of irreducible factors. This decomposition is theoretically possible and is unique for polynomials with coefficients in any field, but rather strong restrictions on the field of the coefficients are needed to allow the computation of t...
This algorithm splits a square-free polynomial into a product of polynomials whose irreducible factors all have the same degree.
why the name "distinct-degree factorization"???
the reason im asking is that i want to implement factorization in my finite field poly calculator
but like, this is kind of throwing me
also this is probably more of a programming question, but
for my factorization algorithm, i am thinking of starting out by explicitly checking the input polynomial for linear factors, and dividing those out. but i don't know if that is Worthwhile™️
This step factorizes f into a product g1g2…*gn such that gi is the product of all irreducible factors of f of degree i. In a later step these g1, g2, etc need to be further factored using another algorithm. Hence the name "distinct -degree-factorization".
oh... huh
Yeah, confusing wording on the wiki
It factorizes into factors each of which is product of certain irreducible factors, not being irreducible itself
If R is non commutative ring and we have 1= I + J where I, J are left ideals then I intersection J not be equal to IJ, right? And IJ be left ideal
Take x an element that has a right inverse, but no left inverse. Let I be Rx and J = R. The intersection is clearly Rx, but RxR = R.
So you don't even have that IJ is contained in the intersection
Oh I see
Hello all. The following is an elementary result from page 11 of "A Course in the Theory of Groups" by Derek J. S. Robinson, slightly modified and phrased slightly differently:
(1.3.5') Let $K\le H\le G$. If $T$ is a left transversal to $H$ in $G$, and if $U$ is a left transversal to $K$ in $H$, then $TU$ is a left transversal to $K$ in $H$; and moreover, the map $f:T\times U\rightarrow TU$ such that $f(t,u)=tu$ is a bijection.
And below is my proof of the above result:
As $T$ is a left transversal to $H$ in $G$, we have
$$G\in \bigsqcup_{t\in T}tH;$$
and as $U$ is a left transversal to $K$ in $H$, we have
$$G\in \bigsqcup_{t\in T}t\big(\bigsqcup_{u\in U}uK\big) =\bigsqcup_{t\in T}\bigsqcup_{u\in U}tuK=\bigsqcup_{(t,u)\in T\times U}tuK=\bigsqcup_{s\in TU}sK,$$
whence it follows that $TU$ is a left transversal to $K$ in $G$.
The surjectivity of $f$ is obvious, in light of the definition of $TU$. And the injectivity of $f$ follows from the disjointness of the union
$$\bigsqcup_{(t,u)\in T\times U}tuK,$$
combined with the fact that $tu=tue\in tuK$ (and in particular, $tuK$ is nonempty) for each $(t,u)\in T\times U$. Q.E.D.
Can you please verify my proof above? Any feedback on my proof-writing style would be appreciated as well.
I suspect that the terminology of "the left transversal to a subgroup $H$ to a group $G$" is not standard (since I have not seen it in many other standard books on the topic), so I will define it here: if $G$ is a group, and if $H$ is a subgroup of $G$, then a left transversal to $H$ in $G$ is a subset of $G$ which contains exactly one element from each left coset of $H$ in $G$. If you would like me to clarify any other notation or terminology, please ping me. Thank you in advance!
DW0987
I need some help with finding two 2 dimensional group representations r and r' of $\mathbb{Z}^2$ such that for any (n,m), r(n,m) and r'(n,m) are conjugate, but such that r and r' are not isomorphic.
Since r(n,m) and r'(n,m) are conjugate, they must have the same eigenvalues, so the only difference between the two must be the eigenvectors corresponding to those eigenvalues. Furthermore, for the two representations to be non-isomorphic, these eigenvalues have to depend in some way on the element (n,m) itself : if r(n,m) = diag(e^n, e^m) (which is a valid representation), then I want r'(n,m) to be the same map but written in a different basis, and importantly have that this basis depends on (n,m) (otherwise r(n,m) and r'(n,m) would be conjugate via the same matrix for all (n,m) and thus we would have in isomorphism).
I can't find such an r'. Any tips?
I want to find a number of ideals in Z/2024Z so I think there must be a concept of corresponding theorem but how can I find it?
which ideals of Z are contained in 2024Z
sorry, other way round
which ideals of Z contain 2024Z
I wrote:
Note that the map that takes groups to their endomorphism ring is not a functor, since there is no ring homomorphism between $\text{End}{\textbf{Ab}}(\mathbb Z/p_1) \cong \mathbb Z / p_1$ and $\text{End}{\textbf{Ab}}(\mathbb Z/p_2) \cong \mathbb Z / p_2$ for $p_1$ and $p_2$ primes.
Shiranai
quite some time ago, now I'm not sure how to understand this, other than the trivial map there are no group morphisms from Z/p1 to Z/p2, so what I wrote is wrong?
Here's one.
Let V(x) be the representation defined by r(1, 0) = [1, 1; 0, 1] and r(0,1) = [1, x; 0, 1].
If x is irrational, then r(m, n) = [1, m+nx; 0, 1] is conjugate to [1, 1; 0, 1] whenever m or n are nonzero, but the representations are not isomorphic for different choices of x.
"other than the trivial map" is sort of a big asterix here
Just because we call it the trivial map doesn't mean it's not a map
But if you want an example without the trivial map you can think about the inclusion Z/2 -> Z/4
oh right, idk why I thought the trivial map was a ring homomorphism, but it doesn't preserve the identity
thanks
Divisor of 2024, right?
And if I am right then there are only 3 prime ideal in Z/2024Z
yeah so 2^nZ for 0 \leq n \leq 10
I think the only prime ideal is (2)
for any other ideal (2^k) you can just take 2^{k-1}*2 and that disproves that it's prime
(23) and (11) should also be prime I guess
Yes
Thinking wew maybe think you said 2048
oh yeah HAHHAAH
sorry I conflated 1024 and 2048 into one number
yes you're right then


