#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 206 of 1
Shouldn't the quotient be S3? The quotient of a group by its center is never cyclic.
Ah yes ofc
I was just checking that the quotient worked, but this makes it simple
Right, so the only group of order 12 I haven't checked yet is A_4. The dihedral group Dih(12) does have a normal subgroup isomorphic to Z/2Z, but its quotient is S_3.
And according to GroupProps at least, A_4 has no cyclic normal subgroup, so we can kick that out easily.
OK! So an argument.
The generator of $\bZ/6\bZ$ lifts to an element $g \in G$ of order either $6$ or $12$. If it's order $12$, then $G$ is cyclic and we're done, so assume it is order $6$. Let $h \in G$ be the generator of the normal subgroup isomorphic to $\bZ/2\bZ$. Since this is indeed normal, we must have $ghg^{-1} = h$, since $h$ is the unique nontrivial element of the subgroup. So $g, h$ commute and since $G = \langle g,\ h\rangle$ the group is Abelian.
Boytjie
how can i proove that if a non comutative ring if element in R has 2 different right inverse then a has infinilty many right inverses
Hint: what property does the difference of these inverses have? If there are infinitely many elements with this secret property, you can find infinitely many right inverses.
gross...
No u
I am trying to prove that the set of integers modulo 13 does not form a group with respect to multiplication
Did I do this right ?
No.
oh
Because the operation
with respect tois multiplication,
It is not multiplication; it is multiplication modulo 13 which is significantly different.
There is no reason that a^-1 would be equal to the inverse as a rational number.
Hint for actually showing this: think about the element 0.
can you give an example ? I don't understand
Modulo 13 we have 4x7 = 1, but in Z we have 4x7 = 14. These are evidently completely different operations.
hmm ok
This is one of those times that pedagogy annoys me. It is so much easier to see this as the quotient group Z/13Z, yet we are chained to remainders...
That is just the notation for an inverse element
Saying a^-1 = 1/a is incorrect, as I stated.
why did you cross out with respect to ?
Because it was ungrammatical
I suggest you think about my hint here.
oh but that is the question in my textbook
ok
i don't get why I would need 0
i know I would need 0 during the identity axiom
but don't get why i would need it during the inverse axiom
oh is it because there is no inverse of 0 ? @coral spindle
Prove it
Does 0*0 equal 1?
oh why does it have to be 1
Recall the definition of inverse
The inverse of g is an element g^-1 such that g * g^-1 = g^-1 * g = e, the identity element
oh yes. But if I was doing addition, then it would be 0 right ?
i see that's where i got mixed up
0 has no multiplicative inverse
Since the multiplicative identity is 1
And there no number x such that 0x = x0 = 1
I see
thanks a lot
what does this mean?
I know the Z is the integer set
but what does the 23 denote
Z modulo 23.
Integers mod 23.
oh ok thanks
If you don’t know how basic arithmetic in Z_n works, if you have a number (say k) greater than or equal to n, it’s the remainder of k/n. Furthermore, Z_n can be denoted (n/nZ, +), as it contains all integers from 0 to n-1 (has order n), and is also an additive group.
n/Zn
You mean Z/nZ, I think.
Sorry typo
How can i find all composition series for S3 x Z3
How does this help with the direct product
Because GxH/H = G
thank you
No. If you are being especially stringent with notation, you may prefer to write (G x H)/({1} x H} \cong G.
Ok so N = {e} x H
Is N solvable?
Im an idiot
Sorry i can’t see this
It seems its just G x H
Not G
Er wait
You should be able to prove this yourself and I suggest you take the time to do so. I assure you there is no mistake.
Find the multiplicative inverse of each nonzero element in ℤ23.
I used Fermat's little thereom for this. Is this the right approach? Seems too easy
all the way to 23^(23-1)
That's technically correct, but the question probably wants you to calculate the remainder of the inverse modulo 23, so simply saying that the inverse of 5 is 5^21 is not sufficient.
I feel like you haven't responded to my comment at all
I'm saying the inverse is 3^(23)-1
3
Firstly, this is simply wrong. Secondly, from my comment again:
[...] the question probably wants you to calculate the remainder of the inverse modulo 23, so simply saying that the inverse of 5 is 5^21 is not sufficient.
but there can exist more than one inverse for a number right ?
No.
Exercise: prove that in any group, there is only one inverse for any particular element.
but how come 3^(23-1) mod 23 = 1 ?
Because they are the same mod 23! They are the same element of Z_23.
This means that $3^{22} \equiv 1 \mod 23$, i.e. the inverse of $\overline{3}$ is $\overline{3^{21}}$ in $\mathbb{Z}_{23}$. But what he's saying is that you probably want a more ``satisfactory" expression for $\overline{3^{21}}$.
Yuese
So you would want it to be represented by some number between 0 and 23, i.e. you want to calculate $3^{21} \mod 23$.
Yuese
oh i see
Note that we're still stuck at the stumbling hurdle of believing that 3^22 is the inverse of 3 in Z_23, but thank you for elaborating.
yup still don't get that part
Maybe you should carefully think about what the definition of inverse is
So, in the above example, you can calculate that $\overline{3^{21}} = \overline{8}$ in $\mathbb{Z}_{23}$, so $\overline{8}$ is a good representation for the inverse of $3$. However, I think you know that $\overline{8} = \overline{31} = \overline{54} = \dots$. My guess is that you are confused in thinking that these are \textit{different} inverses of $\overline{3}$, which isn't true, as they are all the same element.
Yuese
And as the others pointed out, the inverse in a group is always unique.
I see. So, I just want the smallest possible value x that gives me x mod 23 = 1?
More or less. There exist infinitely many $x$ such that $3x \equiv 1 \mod 23$, and they all differ by a multiple of $23$. So you want to choose the (unique!) one which lies in $[0,22]$.
Yuese
I see
But if you think about $\mathbb{Z}_{23}, \cdot$ as a \textit{group}, then $\overline{x + 23k} = \overline{x}$ for all $k \in \mathbb{Z}$. In that context these are all one and the same element.
Yuese
Yep. As a hint, you might want to see that $3^{21} = (3^3)^7$. What's $3^3 \mod 23$?
Yuese
Because in this way, we see that $3^{21} \equiv 4^7 \mod 23$ (we can replace the $3^3$ by $4$ as they are the same $\mod 23$). This reduces the number already by a considerable amount.
Yuese
I can't understand that intuitively
What I did is
[ 3^{21} = (3^3)^7 \equiv 4^7 \mod 23].
Because $3^3 \equiv 4 \mod 23$ (which you found), we can ``replace'' them mod $23$.
Yuese
It takes some getting used to. The mechanism at work is that when you multiply two numbers, their remainders upon division also get multiplied, in a sense.
What is the automorphism group of $\mbb Z/p^n$ for primes $p$ and any integer $n > 0$?
rbmuk
The automorphism group of Z/n is (Z/n)^\times
I.e., the group of units.
(I suppose if we're being pedantic it's isomorphic to that group of units!)
It's the cyclic group of order p^n-1(p-1)
Is it $Z/\cph(n)$ in general?
rbmuk
it's not for p=2
yeah
Yeah
If g is a primitive root mod p^2 (exists for any prime), then write
x = g^(p-1) = 1 + pa
Where a is relatively prime to p. Then
x^p = 1 + (pC1)pa + (pC2)(pa)^2 + o(p^3)
If p > 2, then (pC2)(pa)^2 is a multiple of p^3, so x^p is not 1 mod p^3, thus g is a primitive root mod p^3 and you can inductively show that g is a root mod p^k. If p=2, then pC2 = 1, and the argument doesn't work.
Hi everyone I'm going to start studying Abstract Algebra by David Summit anyone care to study it with me
How is a fraction field Q(x_1, ... , x_n) in indeterminates x_1, ... , x_n defined by? Is this like a fraction field of the polynomial ring Q[x_1,...,x_n]?
Yes, precisely
And something like Q(a_1, ... ,a_n) would be a field extension of this if the a_i's are roots of all possible polynomials here?
no
for p(x)=a(x)*b(x), why we can say both a(x) and b(x) are non constant polynomial?
I know that if R[x] is Z[x], then it is definitely correct
but if we can factor that into a constant like 1/3?
I just consder must some constant like 1/3 have inverse in R?
If say a is constant, then it would also be a common factor for the coefficients of p, but you assumed the gcd was 1
yes, the gcd is 1, but the divisor might also be 1/2, 1/3 since it is the common divisor less than 1?
'Greatest' is with respect to divisibility, so 1 is not a 'bigger' divisors than 1/2.
Saying that the gcd is 1, means that the only common divisors are units.
Surely 1/3 has 3 as an inverse, or what does 1/3 even mean if not
because I don't know gcd is 1 means the only common divisors are units
We say that d is a gcd of a and b iff both a and b are multiples of d and for any common divisors d' of a and b we have that d is a multiple of d'.
So in particular if the gcd is 1, then any common divisors d' must have 1 as a multiple, i.e. there exists a k such that d'k = 1.
'unit' just means something that has an inverse
Confused on how to find all composition series of S3 x Z3
What part makes you confused?
I mean what’s the process
Do i just start by finding normal subgroups of S3 x Z3
You can start by finding all the normal subgroups sure
Then just look for chains where the composition factors are simple
Well how would you start
Is there a more efficient way
I mean what even are the normal subgroups of a direct product
Wrt the normal subgroups of S3 and Z3
Certainly the product of a normal subgroup from each factor will work, but there can be others.
Another thing you can do (at least if you know the Jordan-Hölder theorem) is to first find a single composition series and identify what the composition factors are. Then a maximal normal subgroup will be the kernel of a surjective map into one of the composition factors, so you can find that instead.
But for an example like this, it's so small I guess just finding all the subgroups and checking which are normal is reasonable
Will all composition series have the same length?
They will have the same length and the same composition factors (possibly in different order)
That's the Jordan-Hölder theorem
But isn’t {e} < G a composition series
A composition series is usually defined as a chain of submodules
{e} = G0 < G1 < ... < Gm = G
Such that Gi+1 / Gi is a simple group. So this would only be a composition series if G is simple.
If you're working with another definition, then I guess you might have even more series to worry about.
Are there any theorems on how to get composition series of a direct product if you know composition series of the components
So if N is a maximal normal subgroup of G, then NxH is a maximal normal subgroup of GxH. So given a composition series of G and H you can interleave them to get a composition series for GxH.
But there can be other composition series. For example in Z/2 x Z/2 the subgroup generated by (1, 1) is a maximal normal subgroup.
Ok so hold on {e} < A3 < S3 is a composition series?
Can you guys help me figure out what number 7 is even asking? What is the operation of the group?
I know what a power set is, is taking the power set the operation of the group? It doesn’t make a whole lot of sense to me
The operation could be symmetric difference. I'm guessing whatever you're reading has defined a group operation on the power set earlier.
Any chance P refers to permutation group or something else? I've not personally come across power set notation where the set is written as a subscript.
@rocky cloak does upvote mean yes
Upvote means yes yes 🙂
Ok
So
Lengths of c series of S3 is 3
Z3 only has trivial subgroups so {0} < Z3
Can we say what the length of series will be in direct product ?
Yes, see if you can compose these two series together into a series for S3xZ3
You're close to something, but what is
S3xZ3 / A3x(0)?
Not quite
So in general GxH/NxM = (G/N)x(H/M)
This should feel reasonable
So then the quotient here becomes Z2xZ3, so we should be looking for a bigger subgroup.
What do you mean bigger
Like containing A3x(0)
Man im lost
Alright, I have to go to bed soon, so I'll just tell you.
(e) < A3 < S3 and (0) < Z3 compose to give the composition series
(e)x(0) < A3x(0) < S3x(0) < S3xZ3
The first has 2 inclusions, the second has 1 and their composition has 2+1 = 3
So this can be generalized
Yeah, it even works for any extension, not just direct products
Ok
And so
That single composition series is all the composition series?
Theres no others?
No, there's a bunch of them
Even with this composing trick you can do
(e)x(0) < A3x(0) < A3xZ3 < S3xZ3, or
(e)x(0) < (e)xZ3 < A3xZ3 < S3xZ3
Then you also have subgroups that are not of the form GxH for G and H subgroups of S3 and Z3 respectively
Ye
As u said before
But they all have 3 inclusions
And is there a way to tell how many there will be
I count 5
Sure
Is Z(S3 x Z3) normal?
The center is always normal if that's what you're asking
The center is just (e)xZ3
So you have A3xZ3 which is just isomorphic to Z3xZ3.
If you look at the subgroups in there you have the two trivial subgroups and then you have 4 more.
Those generated by (1,0), (1, 1), (1, 2) and (0, 1) respectively.
The first and last are Z3x(0) and (0)xZ3, but the other two are non-trivial.
In general when you're looking for subgroups it can be an idea to just look at the subgroups generated by a single element to start with.
Do the polynomials in the variable x squared inject into polynomials in a single variable? $k[x^2]\xhookrightarrow k[x]$
HausdorffT1
Yeah that's what I mean $(x^2)^3+x^2\mapsto x^6+x^2$ for example. Basically what you said
HausdorffT1
Like, y=x^2 gets send to x^2
I mean yeah
Yeah
argue by degree ig, only element send to 0 is 0
Yeah
Oooooh okay actually I guess that works thank you!
This is trivial basically
i mean
it is just an inclusion
of a subset
(if you define it as such)
this is definitely "freedom of identification" territory
Well it depends
on how hausdorff is defining k[x^2]
to me that is the subset of k[x] generated as a k-algebra by x^2, so this is trivial
My thought was k[y] and iota sends y to x^2
Oh sure
I mean, i stressed about more "trivial" stuff before
Yeah sure, I just thtought it'd important to ask cause like
Depednign on how it's defined there may be a different answer
what is the answer in the subset case?
Well then it is pure set theory
Inclusions of subsets are always injective?
now that would be something that would confuse me "wdym there is something to prove here"
Hm i'veb een thinking recently like a lot of problems are best solved just by thinking about what you are actually talking about more
like with harder problems too i mean
making everthing very explicit and hands on
The singular value decomposition of math problems
lol
Well the example I was thinking about recently was cellular homology
Like if you unpack exactly what we mean when we say it is free on the cells then the cellular boundary formula becomes almost a formality
but otherwise the proof is unenlightening imo
the mitochondira is the representing object of the cellular homology functor
He's so real for that...
I feel this might be even clearer with singular homology
There you are hard stuck until you find the right perspective
Wdym
When you are dealing with all continuous functions it becomes essentially to proceed besides with some canonical choices which makes things work
Find the multiplicative inverse of each nonzero element in ℤ_23
so, I am working on 3 right now. I figured out that (18*9) mod 23 = 1. So, does that mean 9 and 18 are multiplicative inverses of 3?
No, it means they are inverses of each other
so, I am doing this wrong ?
I put the question here
I figured out that (18*9) mod 23 = 1.
But you're trying to find the multiplicative inverse of 3. What does this have to do with 3?
Sure but what are you doing
I want you to write down the definition of the multiplicative inverse y of an element x. What property does y satisfy?
according to me, the multiplicative inverse states that for each value a in G, there exists an element a' such that a*a^'=1.
That is the inverse axiom
And indeed, this element a' such that a * a' = 1 is called the inverse of a.
So you are looking for some element — let's call it y instead of a' — such that 3y = 1 mod 23.
Clear?
Search for such an element y.
I see
is fermets little theroem the wrong way of doing this
is there any other easy way
Well you only need to do up to like 12 as e.g. 13 = -12
Yes, you can just check the options.
And then I would just stare at it honestly
Like e.g. you can see that 2*12 = 24
Fermat's little theorem would be a pain as there are elements of very high order
maybe a table would be better?
I do think just inspection is fastest
okay.
Even if you restrict to like 1 up to 12 you'd be drawing a 12 x 12 table
and doing lots of unnecessary computations
Though you could try a table in our head I guess lol like go through options as boytjie said
What about <(2,2)>?
same as the one generated by (1,1)
since (2,2) + (2,2) = (1,1) and (1,1) + (1,1) = (2,2)
is this a better definition of multiplicative inverse: The multiplicative inverse states that for each value a in G, there exists an element a' such that a*a^(-1)=1.
I guess a funny way to think about it is that Z/3 is a vector space and a subgroup of (Z/3)^2 is just a subspace
Yeah but
This is a worse version of what you previously had
He said this
Why didn’t he include (2,2) in that list
No, that's a malformed version of the inverse axiom, which states that an inverse always exists.
I am well aware what an inverse is
is this the wrong wiki page ?
No the wiki page is fine (if slightly informal)
because wiki said a^-1
Tbf I would also add that a' a = 1 as well
i guess i messed up on the for each part?
Are there any spare hammers around with which to bash my head in
Well that is just notation
I have nothing to add but I wanna say, that nickname of "The-Elite" is quite unsettling to me
sorry guys
Writing a' is better from some points of view, since you are just saying an inverse exists (and then you can prove it exists)
rather than explicitly having to give an inverse
but i wouldn't worry about it much at this point
I am wondering that why d can be decompose uniquely into product of finite irreducibles can imply that p' can be factor uniquely into irreducibles in R[x]? Also why we can also assume that the gcd of coefficient of p(x) is 1?
The decompositon of d doesn't imply that p' also decomposes uniquely
They're just saying that since we know d decomposes uniquely, then it suffices to show that p' decomposes uniquely
And then if the gcd of the coefficients isn't 1, we can pull out the gcd as an element of R
@stark helm
Consider the map $\phi : \mathbb{Z}_2 \to S_5$ defined by $\phi(0) = \sigma_0$, where $\sigma_0$ is any arbitrary permutation in $S_5$ and $\phi(1) = i$, where $i$ is the identity permutation (i.e. identity element in $S_5$)
When we consider $\phi(0 +_2 1) = \phi(0) = \sigma_0 = \sigma_0 i = \phi(0) \phi(1)$, I can consider this a valid homomorphism right?
BlazingSaber
If so, since there are $5! = 120$ possible permutations in $S_5$, and since I can choose $\phi(0) = \sigma_0$ to be any permutation out of these $120$ while fixing $\phi(1) = i$, am I right in thinking that there are at least 120 possible homomorphisms from $\mathbb{Z}_2$ to $S_5$?
BlazingSaber
Wait so you are mapping 1 to the identity permutation?
To show a visual description of what I mean, here's what I mean by choosing to map $0$ to all 120 of the possible permutations 1-by-1, while fixing the mapping of $1$ to $i$ (in the image, I choose to represent $\sigma_1$ as the identity
BlazingSaber
yes
hmm, fair
I didn't realise I'd need to satisfy the homomorphism property $\phi(a *_1 b) = \phi(a) *_2 \phi(b)$ for all possible $a, b \in $\mathbb{Z}_2$
BlazingSaber
hmm, fair
I didn't realise I'd need to satisfy the homomorphism property $\phi(a *_1 b) = \phi(a) *_2 \phi(b)$ for all possible $a, b \in $\mathbb{Z}_2$
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So, when you are constructing homomorphisms
Keep in mind that a homomorphism is uniquely defined by the image of the generators
Here you have a homomorphism from Z2 to some group
1 is the generator of Z2, so you only need to decide where 1 goes
And the rest will be built up on that
And I think homomorphisms should preserve identities as well hold on
Yeah
So 0 gets mapped to the identity permutation anyway
Yeah you're right
And 1 to some element of order 1 or 2
Why order 1 or 2 specifically?
In general when you have a homomorphism, order of the image of an element is a divisor of the order of that element in the domain
It's not necessarily the same order in the codomain as in the domain
I see
I think these properties would be handy to keep in mind while trying to construct the homomorphisms
Yeah
I'd say phi(x^n) = phi(x)^n is the most important property to keep in mind
Besides the definition itself
right fiar
So if I want to find the number of homomorphisms from $\mathbb{Z}_2$ to $S_5$, I'd need to consider only those maps which map 0 to the identity permutation
And since we must have $\phi(x^{-1}) = \phi(x) ^{-1}$, It is the case that the inverse of 1 must map to the inverse of the permutation which 1 maps to
And since the inverse of 1 is also 1 in $\mathbb{Z}_2$, 1 must map to only those permutations which are their own inverses, correct?
BlazingSaber
Yeah
Which are again the elements of order 1 or 2
Basically you can identify the homomorphisms from Z2 to S5 with the set of elements of S5 with order 1 or 2
There is a one-to-one correspondence
How do I find the quotient group
$\frac{\mathbb{Z}{6}^*}{\mathbb{Z}{3}^*}$?
Sapphire
$\bZ_3^\times$ is not a subgroup of $\bZ_6^\times$ though
孤独な豆
What do you mean by that exactly?
I assume you mean include Z/3 -> Z/6 via x |-> 2x
Then you get an inclusion (Z/3)^x -> (Z/6)^x ig
But I mean like just use the chinese remainder theorem on Z/6 ig
or count
Hello! How can I prove that a group $G$ has exactly one element of order 2?
juan
Well that is very dependent on what G is, and how G is given to you
(it certainly isn't true for all G)
I did show here the existence and uniqueness
but i am lost at the uniqueness part
fyi, $G$ is abelian group of order $2n$, where $n$ is odd
juan
Sure, that's an important hypothesis
cauchy
i did not use Cauchy but Lagrange
Uh how did you use Lagrange?
idk if these arguments are valid but...
Let $ a\in G$. Since $G$ is a finite group, then the order of $a$ must divide the number of elements in $G$. Thus, the order of all elements of $G$ is either 1, 2, $n$, and $2n$, which are the divisors of $2n$. And thus, $G$ has an element of order 2.
juan
isn't it wrong?
Pretty sure 2n could have other divisors
Even if n was prime, in which case the divisors of 2n would indeed be only 1, 2, n and 2n, your conclusion still doesn't follow immediately
Anyway, you may want to refer to Cauchy theorem for showing existence
Hmm hold on
S_3 is 2 * 3 elements, but there isn't exactly 1 element of order 2
Are you sure what you are trying to prove is true?
Yeah
It isn't abelian
What juan is claiming is true e.g. by classification of finite abelian groups
Ah I missed that part
Though of course there must be an easier way
It's teh wrong way round.
(at least, without further work)
However you could just do a count of elements, namely: only one element has order 1. If there's an element of x order 2n, then x + ... + x (n times) has order 2
and then maybe you can show that you can't have all other elements of order n
Wait yeah there are other divisors of n anyway
this is what the problem says
It is true dw
Let ||x and y be two elements of order 2, then (x, y) is a subgroup of order 4, so the order of G is a multiple of 4||
Yeah
nice
Okay sure that is what I had in mind except I realised I'm pretentious lol
like ||pick x of order 2, then G/<x> has order n, hence no order 2 elements lol||
do you mean those parenthesis in $(x, y)$ as generator, like$ \langle x, y \rangle $?
juan
Ye
okayy, okay and, how do you come up that it is a subgroup of order 4?
well maybe think about the possible multiplication tables of size 4
You just compute explicitly what the subgroup is, i.e.
{0, x, y, x+y}
And then count the elements, and see that it's 4
i think i got what it means
so, does it mean i will use the contradiction method, where there's no other element of order 2?
in an abelian group if you had two element of order 2, then they produce a subgroup of order 4. You know that G has order 2n with n odd. Can you see the problem?
I can't get over this it's too funny
I am not sure even if I was paid for this id recover
Nah this doesn't work. 1 gets sent to 2, which isn't a unit in Z/6. The question just doesn't make sense to me, oh well.
True
They’re both just C_2 OmegaLUL just isomorphism them
I was like eh group of units is a functor but the map I said is not a map of rings
Lol
Rings with identity at least
Yeah this is true, but this is an xy problem. There's some horrifying misunderstanding that has occurred lmao
I don’t know what that means. Just do it and stop complaining
Nice virus
Just compute the quotient lil nerd…
I'm a big nerd actually
Z/6 = Z/2 x Z/3, so (Z/6)^* = (Z/2)^* x (Z/3)^*
So there is a pretty natural inclusion of (Z/3)^* into (Z/6)^*
Ey there we go
lol my friends and I were talking about how much we hated this website
Adjoints would never commute with biproducts :upon: they would never do this
that and nohello
what's wrong with it
This joke is too advanced for me
Also lmgtfy
At least that one is sometimes appropriate
It's usually just people trying to make conversation though
Let A be a ring and b an idempotent element. Prove that for every x in A there exists 2 uique elements y in Ab and z in A(1-b) s.t. x=y+z
I proved that Ab intersected with A(1-b) is only 0
Idk if that helps
In proving that the intersection is 0, you might've noticed that b(1 - b) = 0. Using this, there's really only one natural choice for y and z
You may also notice that b + (1-b) = 1
:uponthewitnessing:
xb+x(1-b)=x so y=xb and z=x(1-b)
And what argument should I use to say that is unique
That's existence, then you can use Walters hint for uniqueness
Okay thanks guys
hey guys. Wew Lads Tbh here to explain the joke. The joke is that -^* is an adjoint functor and so commutes small limits/colimits, and so what you wrote holds.
EXACTLYYYYY
Still don't get it, I thought you could view biproducts as either products or coproducts and kick them through the adjoint
adjoints would NEVER do this
they are better than stooping to such levels
Is there a theorem like the folllowing: Let F = <a_1,…,a_n | R> be a presentation for a group F. If G is another group generated by n elements b_1,…,b_n satisfying the same relations, is there an embedding G -> F?
Seems super true by sending like a_I to b_I but not sure how to show injectivity
take a word
assume its reduced
send it through the map
reduced or not?
^
there was something in my course called "the substitution test" which is annoyingly nonstandard but basically answers this question directly
on my end you reacted in 100 ms wtf 
I'm good at what I do
you are right, adjoints would never do this
proof by bashing two diagrams together
the solution set condition was made by category theorists to sell more complete cats
x \theta?
how would R/I look like if R is a ring that consist of continuuos functions that go from the interval [0,1] into real numbers and the ideal contains functions that at 1/2 they are 0.
evaluated at 1/2 are 0
i dont understand how would i create R/I
like what is the proces
Think about it geometrically
but i dont even understand what R/I is supposed to be
what does R/I means? It means the ring consisting of "cosets" r+I. So you should ask yourself what would be sensible representatives of these cosets?
w h a t
were you that guy who had abstract algebra before linear algebra?
correct
so how would i get the cosets
we do rings
before groups
i dont know groups
yes
Given a ring R and an ideal I you define the quotiuent ring R/I as the set of r+I with r an element of R. You can check that this forms a ring
so its where i add all the elemnts r from R with the Ideal of R
{r+I : r in R}
so that is the quotiuent ring
yes, with the obvious structure
(a+I)+(b+I)=(a+b)+I
(a+I)(b+I)=ab+I
you should check that this is well-defined
the ring, up to isomorphism
Do you know the first isomorphism theorem?
yes
if I asked what is "2+5+3+6" you would give me the number this simplifies to, in this case you are meant to find what "simple" ring R/I is isomorphic to
Can you imagine a ring homomorphism that maps functions that are 0 at 1/2 to 0?
Awesome thanks
i dont know
Here's a hint
its the ideal
Can you think of a function that maps functions like that to 0? You can check if it's a ring homomorphism later.
Maybe start with a simpler example. Take functions from {1,2,3} to Z. Can you see what this ring mod the ideal of functions that are 0 on "2" should correspond to?
no sorry i dont understand
I'll just assume that you need to think about it for a bit
is it like ker
Is what like ker
cant even spell my name right smh so rude
The kernel of a ring homomorphism is an ideal, if that's what you're asking
Any ring homomorphism induces a quotient ring by the isomorphism theorem and vice versa, they give you different way of thinking about problems
take the ideal (3), what is Z/(3)?
is it like 0+ideal,1+ideal,2+ideal
Those are the elements of Z/(3)
yea
Yes, but how did you arrive at this?
because at 3 module 3 its like starting at 0 again
You probably noticed that given n+(3) you can just remove multiples of 3 until it is one of those three, right?
correct
but how would i do this with functions
well, try with this first
the ideal has functions that are 0 on 2 but whatever on 1 and 3 right
any element in Z
R = functions on {a,b,c} sending each element to an integer
I = functions on {a,b,c} sending a and c element to some integer, and b to 0.
okay and that would represent like my problem here
somewhat? the point is that you get some warm-up practice
so is R/I the set of all functions that are not 0 in the value 1/2
No, how did you conclude that
idk
idk what else to say atm, try working this out
remember that functions correspond to pairs of points, or equivalently:
A function f is determined by what f(a),f(b) and f(c) are
can i deffine some mirroring s.t fi(f(x)) where f(x) is in R if x is 1/2 its 0 and if x is different from 1/2 its 1
and use the first homomorfism theorem
like fi:R->{0,1}
idk i go to sleep i cant do this anymore
how is this anything other than... just what it is? 
re-doing something you know the answer of by hand to get some practice
fair enough
||Often when people see Z_3 for the first time it is defined (annoyingly) as the set of literal integers {0, 1, 2} with addition being composed with taking remainders. People often do not know it as a quotient ring immediately, and I think it is obvious that dzonzas does not know it as a quotient ring.||

elementary number theory ruins yet another thing
BAD PEDAGOGY
Doesnt this dude play chess
boytjie... your reaction to uponthewitnessing being added to mathcord is most underwhelming...
Holy shit
all pedagogy is bad. Make students want to learn themselves ykwim

I don't like supporting the millitary industrial complex via a bunch of freakazoid furries 
It's when u witness something 
And it's a funny face that some chess player makes idk
"the name" is 7 characters
so quite short yeah
This is a certified algechill moment
this is basically algechill 
rip 😔
free algechill
:heyguyspleasenamethisemojisomethin:
my personal favourite atm is ":emoji:"
that sounds like something i would name an emoji (because i suck at naming things)
where should we shit up instead
Damn, wews power really went to their head
I guess we'll have to rename the channel to #nochill
#algechill^op
Real imo
This has caused many tedious conversations for me
Btw someone just yesterday thought that the multiplicative inverse of 2 in Z_3 would have to be 0.5, hence it doesn't exist (or something to that effect)
Wonderful pedagogy, thank u so much
Make 👏 Z_3 👏 a 👏 quotient 👏 again
yikes
You can totally see why they'd think that
Because they've been taught that the elements of Z_3 are just integers, when it's deeply unhelpful to think of them that way
The argument for introducing i'd make for introducing Z_n or at least some examples before quotient rings is to get something you can actually interact with instead of having to go through a kinda tedious sequence of working through ring theory up until quotients
the ideal is thinking of some rings that arent quotient rings for the time being, but some people cant be bothered
Yes butttttttt I think this should really be fixed at the level of modular arithmetic, not rings
So many people think that mod just means remainder
I see this mistake constantly
If the equivalence class approach was taught first this could be avoided
modular arithmetic became more interesting after learning ring theory lol
probs cuz the remainder pedagogy kinda sucks
Also facts but more forgivable
I think if you're seeing mod for the first time in a discrete class or something in high school, it's much easier to end up with thinking it is remainder
idc number theorist smh
The annoying thing is in topology where it somehow seems standard to use Z_n a lot, but then p-adics are also common enough
Lol
Aside: programming languages calling the % operator 'mod' and then having things like -6 % 5 = -1 is truly criminal and frankly should be punished by 10 years in the tickle chair
what language did that
many of them?
#include <stdio.h>
int main() {
int result = -6 % 5;
printf("-6 'mod' 5 = %d", result);
return 0;
}
This C code outputs -6 'mod' 5 = -1
Just tested it now
Javascript also does this, at least in my browser.
I remember writing some python code once, where I had to use
(( x % p) + p) % p
To not get weird bugs
I just checked python now actually and it seems to work correctly, probably due to a newer version than the one you were using then. I was pleasantly surprised to see this, and ruby also does this correctly which is nice.
(By correctly, I mean that -6 % 5 = 4 ofc)
Maybe it wasn't even python, I don't remember. But I've certainly had to write that horrible expression
what would happen if you did not use that expression
Then it would say things like -6 and 4 not being equal modulo 5
Sapphire
It took us a while to see how these groups embed
Sapphire, do you know a nice formula for |G/N| in general?
Nope
Oh yeah ik that
So what's |Z_6^\times| and what's |Z_3^\times|
Then tell me what the order of the quotient is
3 and 2?
How did you calculate that
If you think that Z_3^\times is a subgroup of Z_6^\times, then you should be able to immediately see the problem with what you've just written.
Do you know a nice name for |Z_n^\times|? This is a function of n which people talk about a lot.
A function? Not sure.
It's called phi(n), aka Euler's totient function.
Oh ok, yes I’ve heard of it
If you are at all familiar with this, you should be able to calculate |Z_6^\times| immediately.
I'd like you to try working out |Z_6^\times| and what's |Z_3^\times| again, this time showing your working.
Last time you threw out numbers and you were wrong, so I'd like to see how you get your numbers.
By the way, did you see the problem that I was alluding to? I hope you did.
Oh wait. Does Z_6^\times have order 2? Z_6^\times = {1, 5}?
Is it just 2/2 = 1?
So what is the quotient, up to isomorphism?
Z_6^* / Z_3^* is iso to {e}?
It is the trivial group, yes.
Dang ok. Wrote something interesting but now ik it’s wrong :/
You haven't answered this, so I assume you didn't see the problem
The problem is the Theorem of Lagrange.
2 does not divide 3, so a group of order 3 cannot contain a group of order 2 as a subgroup.
Oh that’s simple, alright
Yes, it's all very simple
Thanks for the help
Also, how does the Galois correspondence work for $Q(\zeta_3) \subseteq Q(\zeta_6)$?
Sapphire
It doesn't tell you much, because the extension is trivial; they're the same field.
$2=[\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_6):\mathbb{Q}]=[\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_6):\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_3)][\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_3):\mathbb{Q}]=[\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_6):\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_3)]2$,
hence $[\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_6):\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_3)]=1$, and thus $\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_6)=\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_3)$.
kr1staps
Therefore $\text{Gal}(\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_6)/\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_3))={\text{Id}}$.
kr1staps
Ah, alright thank you
Also generally $[\mathbb Q(\zeta_n):\mathbb Q] = \deg \Phi_n$ (nth cyclotomic) $ = \varphi(n)$ (Euler phi function) and in particular $\varphi(6) = \varphi(3)$ (in fact more generally $\varphi(2n) = \varphi(n)$ for odd $n$)
potato
Or like, if c is an nth root of unity (n odd) then -c is a 2nth root of unity (since (-c)^n = (-1)^n c^n = -1)
If G has order p^n for some p -prime number then how can I proof that G has normal subgroup of order p^(n-1)
Inductionnnnnnnnnnnnn
So groups have these property that a homomorphism totally embeds a substructure
As in G/kerN is like G if there was a "bigger trivial member"
And the isomorphic theorems I,III show that it works to all th things you'd think it does
Is there an abstract name for this property? That every homomorph also defines a full substructure?
This first isomorphism theorem, arguably
I have a question
If G is a finite group of order p^n with n>=2 it contains a subgroup of order p^2 by sylow 1?
Well @crystal vale and @cloud solar - both your questions can be answered if I mention the following technique for finite p-groups (groups of order p^n). Any such nontrivial group G has non trivial centre (use the class equation) Z(G). If Z(G) is a proper subgroup, then since it is normal we can consider the non trivial, smaller p-group G/Z(G). Subgroups of G containing Z(G) correspond to subgroups of G/Z(G). If Z(G) = G then you can just pick the subgroup generated by a single element to get a normal subgroup anyway.
You can use these things just to induct on stuff - maybe have a go
But basically you use the centre to cut down the size of ur group
Oh so we cant use sylow. Sylow tells us that we can find a subgroup of order p^k with k the muliplicity of p in the order of the group
Well if your group is order p^n Sylow won't tell you much
(unless you use better refinements of it which include this as part of the statement)
But the point is that you can use induction to find those subgroups of any order p^k (k <= n)
By considering either Z(G) or G/Z(G)
(except the abelian case, which is easier)
tteg is this the first example of devissage in the ug curriculum
They are isomorphic as Lie groups
Here is a nice alternative solution. Let $H$ be a subgroup of a finite group $G$ of index $p$, with $p$ the smallest prime dividing the order of $G$, then $H$ is normal (in particular any $H$ of index $2$ in any finite group is normal). Proof: the action of G on G/H induces a map $G \to \text{Aut}(G/H)$ by left translation. Since $G/H$ has order $p$ this induces a map $G \to S_p$, but because $G$ has no elements of order less than $p$ and this map cannot be trivial this map has to map all elements of $G$ to either the identity or $p$-cycles, in particular the image is a p-sylow subgroup of $S_p$ and thus of the form $\mathbb{Z}/p$. But the kernel of this map is $\cap_{g \in G/H} gHg^{-1}$, whence $H$ is normal.
Now let $G$ be a group of order $n$, let $p^a|n$. Then there exists a subgroup of $G$ of order $p^b$ for all $b \leq a$. For $b = 1$ this is Cauchy's theorem. So suppose $G$ has a subgroup $H$ of order $p^{b-1}$. Then $G$ acts on $G/H$, a set of size divisible by $p$, and the kernel is contained in $H$. Thus the image is a subgroup of $S_{|G/H|}$ of order divisible by $p$, so it contains an order $p$ cycle by Cauchy's theorem. Thus $G$ contains a subgroup of order $p^b$.
kålrot
putting the two paragraphs together we have your result, and indeed something much stronger.
They are the same in every conceivable way except considered as specific sets of matrices in a very specific way.
A Lie group is a manifold with smooth group structure
Isomorphic as Lie groups means there is a diffeomorphism that is also an isomorphism of groups
There is even a holomorphic isomorphism between the two groups, which is what underlies all of the richness of complex analysis
What do you mean the "same" group anyway?
there is a more "abstract" definition of a group, which is as a manifold.
You're misunderstanding a bit maybe. A group alone is not typically a manifold. As Arki says, the 'abstract' definition of a Lie group is a group which is also a manifold in a compatible way.
We talk about Lie groups being 'the same' when there is an map which simultaneously preserves the group structure and also the manifold structure between the two. In this sense, U(1) and SO(2) are 'the same'.
U(1) \cong S^1 \cong SO(2) where the isomorphisms have every nice structure you could ask for
Idk what you mean by that
^
There's no canonical "sameness" built into math
Other than maybe equality of sets in ZFC
They are the same in any reasonable sense of the word
Have you seen finite groups? Are you aware of what we mean by an isomorphism?
although for objects like these with only two automorphisms, they are pretty canonically the same
I don't really know what you mean by that. Any representation of SU(2) also gets you a representation of U(1), and vice versa.
it is similar, although in one situation you have faithful representations of different dimensions, and in the other situation you have one Complex representation and the underlying real representation
So there is a natural representation of $S^1$ as the set of $(a, b) \in \mathbb{R}^2$ with $a^2 + b^2 = 1$
kålrot
Oooh you didn't mean like, linear representations. Lol.
(Representation means a homomorphism G → GL(V) for some vector space V)
considering this as describing complex number $a + bi$ and letting this act on $\mathbb{C}$ as a one-dimensional representation $\rho_{\mathbb{C}}$ by multiplication we get an isomorphism of $S^1 \to U(1)$
kålrot
I haven't seen this, nice
So like an inductive proof of Sylow
Well the 2nd part I mean
Now since this representation is $\mathbb{C}$-linear it is also $\mathbb{R}$-linear, so there is also a map $S^1 \to Gl_2(\mathbb{R})$ from taking the basis $1, i$ for $\mathbb{C}$ as a real vector space
kålrot
This induces the usual isomorphism $S^1 \to SO(2)$.
kålrot
Coming from the underlying real representation $\rho_{\mathbb{R}}$
kålrot
yep, it's nice
But this technique proves that for a p-group of order p^n it contains a subgroup of order p^k 1<=k<=n or just says that the number of p-subgroups of G is compared to something?
No it gives ou subgroups of all n
Like, if Z(G) is of order k and G of order n where 1 < k < n, then Z(G) gives you subgroups of order p^l for all l <= k by induction, and G/Z(G) gives you subgroups of each order between Z(G) and G
I understand. Thank you
mwahaha i attended the lectures for a course in abstract algebra two years ago, but i was not ready at the time, lol
i feel so powerful looking over the material anew, clearing up old confusions and actually understanding most of it this time
mathematical maturity go brrr
What's the motivation for nilpotent groups? Solvable groups and their connection to radicals and composition series are clear to me, but the defining condition for nilpotency feels strange to me.
is this finite groups or lie groups?
or just abstract groups?
Does it make a difference if the group is finite or not?
not really i guess
Regular groups, although I was reading about the definition for Lie algebras, so if you could explain the connection for that too that'd be nice. I'm guessing a Lie algebra is nilpotent if and only if the associated group is or something like that?
i added abstract groups as an afterthought
I think of nilpotent groups as being like some generalization of p-groups in general, in that they are the maximal class of subgroups where the technique of "considering the center (which must be nontrivial) and use induction" is useful for resolving properties of the group
For finite groups nilpotent groups are exactly just direct products of p-sylow subgroups so this really holds up
In lie theory solvable lie groups morally correspond to subgroups of the upper-triangular matrices of Gl_n for some n, and nilpotent ones correspond to subgroups of the strictly upper-triangular matrices (i.e. trivial diagonal). However if you take this analogy too literally it may lead you astray
That's a neat explanation, thanks. Is there some kind of "length" analogue for nilpotent groups that we can induct over for when the group is infinite, like for groups with composition series?
yeah you can resolve nilpotent abstract groups by cyclic groups, and you can ask about the length of this filtration
just like with all solvable groups
or you can ask about the length of the ascending central series or the descending central series or about...
I think the most natural filtration on nilpotent groups is the classic one $N_i = [N_{i-1}, N_{i-1}]$
kålrot
and $N_0 = N$
kålrot
Muchas gracias
If Z(G)=G then how I am sure that there is an element of order p^(n-1)
Well that is smth I think I mentioned there
You pick an element of order p by Cauchy, call it g
Then <g> is a normal subgroup of order p
Yes
Then do the same thing with <g> instead of Z(G)
Really all that matters is that every p group of order > p has a proper, non-trivial normal subgroup
And I don't understand what's mean of Subgroup of G containing Z(G) correspond to subgroup of G/Z(G) ?
You may know this result as the correspondence theorem. If you don't already know it, commit it to memory now as it is very important!
Every normal subgroup of G/N is of the form H/N where H is a normal subgroup of G containing N.
The map sending H to H/N is a bijection {normal subgroups of G containing N} <-> {normal subgroups of G/N}.
Does anyone know where I can find a good introduction to skew group rings/algebras?
And how I use this in solution?
I think you should think about that in your own time. Potato has elaborated enough, I think.
When I was writing my bachelor thesis I read Cohen Macaulay representations by Leuschke and Wiegand (chapter 5).
I think it was a good enough introduction, but maybe depends why you're interested idk
Thank you, I need to study more theory to understand this........
I'll try that
i love making these
Find all pixel arts that represent a cayley table of some group

lol
these two are isomorphic (group of units mod 36 and the direct product Z2 x Z6)
Z5 I hope
wdym?
no there are are 12
oh lol
true
i thought 6 was prime for some reason
sad
we've all been there
The smallest Grothendick prime has been found!
In last paragraph I have a doubt, if I am correct then G acts on G/H by g->gH then kernel=H and if order of image of this mapping is divisible by p , how we conclude that it contains an order p cycle....(what p cycle) ..... cyclic group of order p?
the kernel is not necessarily H
it would be H if and only if H is normal
Is mapping correct?
in general the kernel is the intersection of gHg^{-1} for all g
yes the mapping is correct
but your "kernel" is just the set of elements which fix the identity coset
Yes
that's not the kernel of the homomorphism G \to S_{|G/H|}
but anyway the point is that the kernel is contained in H
whence the image has to have order divisible by p
since p||G/H|
Yes
But the image is also a group
and any group of order divisible by p has an element of order p
okay but we know more
because S_p has only elements of orders divisible by primes q where q <= p
so in fact the only elements of S_p which can be in the image of G are the identity, and the p-cycles
But for mapping G to G/H if g belong to Kernal then g maps to what ...... H?
So then the image of G in S_p consists only of elements of order p or 1, i.e. it is contained within a p-Sylow subgroup
since p|p! and p^2 does not divide p! this means that the image of G is just Z/pZ
ah wait this is the second part that youre asking about
Yes
What p cycles...... Permutation of p elements?
yes the transitive permutations which take any element to any other
okay I think this is a good point, I need to do a little more work here:
so the fixed points of H acting on G/H are exactly the cosets of N_G(H)/H
under the natural inclusion
but if a p-group acts on a set of size x where p|x then the number of fixed points for the action is divisible by p
(you can see this from many things, for instance the class equation)
So this implies that p|[N_G(H):H]
so now without loss of generality we can let G = N_G(H) and assume that H is normal
What N_G(H)
the normalizer of H in G
Oh
the set ${g \in G| gHg^{-1} = H}$
kålrot
So from first paragraph you mean kernel is of order p^(n-1) ?
i don't understand what you mean by "from first paragraph"
and the kernel of what
Kernel of mapping G to G/H
it's not the mapping from G \to G/H
it's the mapping from G \to Aut(G/H)
First paragraph of this
Yes
the kernel of that map has order p^{b-1} = |H| if and only if H is normal
I am not sure about this action and mapping
Okay
the mapping is this
if $xH$ is a coset of $x \in G$
then $g \in G$ takes $xH$ to $gxH$
this gives an automorphism of $G/H$ as a set
i.e. just a bijective map $T_g: G/H \to G/H$
if$ xHx^{-1} = H$, then for all $h \in H$, we have $hxH = xh'x^{-1}xH = xh'H = xH$
Sorry but I am not familiar with this notations if xH is a Coset of x \in G what is meaning of ?
so the fixed points of the action of $H$ on $G/H$ are exactly the cosets $xH$ where $x \in N_G(H)$
$xH$ is the set of all elements $xh$ where $h \in H$
that is the definition of a quotient of a group by a subgroup
it's the set of those subsets of G
what?
okay I typeset everything in latex
now you can read it like this
Thank you
many lines 
we are proving the sylow theorems
So kernel of mapping G to Aut(G/H) is N_H(G)?
no
the kernel is the set of $g \in G$ such that $gxH = xH$ for all $x \in G$
kålrot
this only happens when $x^{-1}gx \in H$ for all $x \in G$
kålrot
so the kernel is $\cap_{g \in G} gHg^{-1}$
kålrot
this is the largest subgroup of $H$ which is normal
Thank you, I will try to understand
is the order of group of permutations S3 3
no
Why is it 6?
yea its 6
Do you know why?
degree?
is it cause there are 6 ways to rearenge the permutations
yea
whats that
like when you multiply elements how many times to get to neutral element
what degree
thats also called order
idk how to say it
well then how its not order 3
the higest order of the element in the group is 3
why would it be lol
arent degree and order different
What is the general order of S_n, the permutation group on n elements?
S3 degree 3 and order 6?
Not sure what degree is
idk how to say it in english
Like the maximal order of any element?
is it factorial
how do you know that
Yes
idk
when you go throu all elements
idk how to say it
is it like the imprit of group S3 is 1-2-2-2-3-3
and the higest degree of an element is 3
there is no element degree 6
i have a task to find all the subgroups of S3
there are 4?
Fair enough. Can you see why the maximal order of an element in S5 isnt 5?
idk
I think the word your looking for might be 'exponent of the group', but the answer is still 6
The exponent is the smallest number such that x^n is the identity for every x in the group.
So if you just check you can see that no number less than 6 works
ohhhh
for every x
but im talking about if you take 1 element from S3
then 6 is not the lowest
okay but asside that what is the degree of S5
cause 5 is prime
i dont want to type 120 elements and see
You can do it without computations with some tricks
For example the order of a product of disjoint cycles is the lcm of each ones order
So for example (12)(345) has order 6
And you probably can’t get much higher than this since there are so few elements
what elements consists group Q8
idk i just found it in a task
it doesnt say the deffenition
Q8 is the quaternion group. It's elements are
{1, -1, i, -i, j, -j, k, -k}
The rules it follows are i^2 = j^2 = k^2 = ijk = -1
It's like an extension to the complex number system with 2 added imaginary components j, k.
It's non-abelian btw
i need to find subgroups that are normal to Q8
you mean subgroups of Q8 that are normal in Q8?
idk what you mean by "to Q8" and suspect you mean "in Q8"
anyways, can you think about subgroups of Q8?
there aren't many
and there's some good symmetry
so my hint to you is don't overthink it, just think about possible generators of the subgroups
I'm trying to understand how to use this highlighted fact to prove the above fact that every symmetric polynomial expression on the roots of a monic polynomial can be obtained by a polynomial expression on its coeficients.
well, if the coefficients belong to a field K
and if the roots belong to the splitting field of the polynomial
then the fact that K is precisely the field that is fixed by all elements of the galois group of this extension would just imply a priori that S(x_1,...,x_n) belongs to K, right? since S being symmetric implies in particular that it is fixed by all permutations of the galois group (thus belonging to the fixed field of the galois group which is precisely K).
but how can we use this to show that S(x_1,...,x_n) must equal some polynomial expression P(a_1,...,a_n)?
any polynomial expression P(a_1,...,a_n) belongs to K of course
but I'm not sure if every element of K is a polynomial expression of the a_1,...,a_n
this is stronget than what is actually needed, but I was thinking about this as well
If H is proper subgroup of finite index in a Group G then there is some elements x belong to G which is not in any subgroup conjugate to H in G
I use a result here , if H is a subgroup of finite index in a group G, then H contains a subgroup N which is of finite index and normal in G....thus now I use this to make finite group G/N
