#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 204 of 1
And equally gcd(a,m)!=1 implying it’s a zerodivisor since they’re not relatively prime
Ah okay thanks
This can be seen from the fact that any finite integral domain is a field.
Yes ok makes sense then
Exercise: prove this.
I just prove that for every element there must exist an inverse
For the neutral element it’s trivial
More generally we have the same property for elements of an arbitrary finite unital ring
For the rest I guess I’d need to make use of the fact that in finite algebras a^n = a^m with m>n
So a^n - a^m = 0
But how do I transform this into an inverse of a because with minus I can’t use exponent laws
a^n - a^m = a^m(a^n-m - 1)
So if this is 0, either a is a zero divisors or a^n-m = 1
Yea that makes a lot of sense
Tysm
@barren sierra
Please don't randomly ping members asking for help.
I don't know the full problem, but A is a subgroup of AB, so if A has order p^n, then AB has order a multiple of that
How can I find the minimal polynomial of $\sqrt{3+2\sqrt{3}$ over $\mathbf{Q}$? The hint is that $3+2\sqrt{3}$ is the square of something, but I can't see what.
Mike Hawk
How can I find the minimal polynomial of $\sqrt{3+2\sqrt{3}$ over $\mathbf{Q}$? The hint is that $3+2\sqrt{3}$ is the square of something, but I can't see what.
```Compilation error:```! Missing } inserted.
<inserted text>
}
l.52 ... minimal polynomial of $\sqrt{3+2\sqrt{3}$
over $\mathbf{Q}$? The hi...
I've inserted something that you may have forgotten.
(See the <inserted text> above.)
With luck, this will get me unwedged. But if you
really didn't forget anything, try typing `2' now; then
my insertion and my current dilemma will both disappear.```
Suppose there is an ideal I and J, and I want to demonstrate an example to show that IJ may not be the same as {ab| a is in I, b is in J}, I want to suppose I is Z3, J is Z4, then we a1=1, a2=2, b1=2, b2=3 such that 12+23=8 in IJ, but it can't happen for {ab|a in I, b in J}, can someone help me check if it is correct?
In that case they are the same. Also 8 isn't in IJ.
why 8 is not in IJ?
pick a1=1, a2=2, b1=2, b2=3, then we have a1b1+a2b2=12=12+2*3=8, why it is not correct?
2 isn't in any of the ideals tho
Neither is 1, for that matter
i am wondering that if we say a1 is in I, and I let I be Z3, which contains 0,1,2. Why 2 isn't in I?
3Z is not 0,1,2. It's all multiples of 3
but I don't refer to 3Z
I refer to Z_3
Are you confusing the ideal 3Z of Z with the ring Z/3Z?
That isn't an ideal
Since I am considering that Z_3 is a subring of Z, is that true?
Firstly, you should not think of the elements of Z_3 — better written Z/3Z — as 0, 1, 2. They are really equivalence classes of integers, but this is besides the point. The more important point is that Z_3 is neither a subring nor an ideal of Z.
It's not a subring of Z.
It's useful to note that there is only one ideal that is also a unital subring of any unital ring :)
I am thinking that Z/3Z must satisfy abelian under addtion( have identity, inverse, commutative and associative and closure under addition), and it still satisfy closure under multiplication, with associative and distributive.
We all know Z/3Z is a ring.
But it is not a subring of Z.
Think about this: what is 1 + 1 + 1 in Z? Now what is 1 + 1 + 1 in Z_3?
Remember that to be a subring, the operations must be the same.
one is 3, but the other is 0, so the same operation must generate the same result?
Last time I checked.
Then Z/3Z will not be the subset of Z?
Z/3Z is not a subring of Z.
i mean for subset
Because you seem to like thinking of Z_3 as {0, 1, 2}, it could be seen as a subset, but this does not matter in the least.
As it happens, the construction of Z/3Z makes it not a subset of Z.
Again, this does not matter.
because I am considering thinking it by definition that a non-empty subset that satisfy closure under addition and multiplication
they are completely different elements though
One are numbers modulo 3, the others are intergers
Elements of Z/3Z are equivalence classes, they aren't really a subset of Z
We've already talked about how Z_3 is not a subring of Z. There's not more to say.
already understood, really appreciate that
How can i prove if there exists isomorphism or not? would appreciate any hints 
nana :(
i remember how you helped me with first one and i solved it, thank you so much 
Well, depending on how your solution looked like it would be very suggestive of how you might construct an isomorphism here
do you mean solution of first question? 
yup
i just showed that this basis defines any function from F(A) at every point, do you think it's enough?
No
what else? 
Well, what is the free abelian group with basis A?
if about definition, then set from the task condition, isn't it?
yes, about constructing here
and if about definition, there is first line
that doesnt look right, did you copy in the definition correctly?
first line?
nvm

Okay. Do you see how the basis you constructed in the first part of the exercises might be related to the definition of a free abelian group
?
wait, you don't agree with my proof of basis?
wdym
this 
It isnt an isomorphism so idk what you mean by it being enough
yes, but i thought you was asking about first question, it's about proving basis
So you have a basis for F(A), now consider some other abelian group with basis in A and you want to show an isomorphism between them
yes
How would you go about defining an isomorphism between a pair of vector spaces of dimension n?
oh, with coordinates of vectors?
i guess
i misread the question 
To find the minimal polynomial, the easiest way is just to give the element a name (like x), then start solving.
x^2 = 3 + 2sqrt(3)
(x^2 - 3)^2 = 12
So there's a polynomial with it as a root. And since 3+2sqrt(3) doesn't have a square root in Q(sqrt(3)) you know the minimal polynomial should have degree 2*2 = 4, so that must be it.
Suppose there is an ideal I and J, and I want to demonstrate an example to show that IJ may not be the same as {ab| a is in I, b is in J}. So for this question, is it true to let the whole ring be Z/6Z and let I be A/6Z={2,4,0} and B/6Z={0,3}?
What are A and B?
A is 2Z and B is 3Z?
And can you give an explicit example of why IJ and the other set are different with this example
as linear combination of basis vectors with the same coefficients?
Since I list a1=2 a2=4, b1=3, b2=3, so we have a1b1+a2b2=23+43=18 in IJ, while in {ab| a in I, b in J}, 18 is not in it since the maximum number should be 3*4, I don't know if my constructiion of ideal is correct?
So here I = <2> and J = <3>
The ideals
Right?
Can you show that IJ ≠ { ab | a ∈ I, b ∈ J}
A hint could be that ||this will never work with principal ideals||
||Try maybe looking at R[x, y] or some other ring which has non-principal ideals||
Or show that these are the same in your example
And conclude that you need a different example
Could you explain what does R[x,y] mean? I mean a brief example might help
like <x,y> in R[x,y] if we need to find R[x,y]?
R[x, y] is the polynomial ring in two variable with coefficients in R
And indeed (x, y) is an ideal that needs 2 generators
I am actully wondering if (x,2) can be an ideal in R[x,y]?
If there are less than 2 variable
So x = 2(x/2), so the x is redundant then
In that case, x is redundant even if in R[x]?
Yes, the ideal (x, 2) is principal whether you're in R[x] or R[x, y], that's right
Do you think it will work for <x,2> and <x,3> in Z[x]?
Yes, that should probably work.
I'm trying to find an counterexample, if that exists. I am given an L/K, a field extension, where alpha is algebraic over K.
I have proved the fact if this extension was of odd degree, K(alpha) = K(alpha^2)
I'm trying to check if the converse is true or not
That is, I have K(alpha) = K(alpha^2), where alpha is algebraic over K
Hint: find a minimal polynomial for alpha in the extension K(alpha) : K(alpha^2)
You will not always be able to guarantee it is minimal, but it will be a start.
Isn't it just x^2 - alpha^2
That's a great idea
So what does this polynomial tell you about the degree of K(alpha) : K(alpha^2)
It's 2 or less than 2, that is 1
Yeah exactly. So either K(alpha) = K(alpha^2), or the degree is 2
So you're looking at the degree of the extension K(alpha) : K right :)
I'll stop now since it seems you've got it
yes
K(alpha) : K = [K(alpha) : K(alpha^2)] [K(alpha^2) : K]
oh wait.
If degree is 2, then extension to K(alpha) cannot be odd at all
But how is this conclusive
x^2 - alpha^2 isn't in K[x]
Ah sorry, I got confused as to what we were proving. This is just a reproof of what you said you'd already proved. My mistake.
oof that's fine, it happens to best of us 😭
Hmmm..
[
\bQ(2^{\frac{2}{3}}) = \bQ(2^{\frac{1}{3}})
]
Riku
Is this correct
What you write is true
I think I also need to write a proof for this though... I do know how Q(2^1/3) looks
Oh nvm
2^(4/3) = 2 * 2^(1/3)
And 2^(6/3) = 4
Yeah
....... i am an idiot
I had to find an even extension lmao
wait lemme see
This did not age well
Riku
You mean you're wondering if K(alpha) = K(alpha^2) implies the degree of K(alpha) is odd?
If so consider ||the case where alpha is a 3rd root of unity.||
Q(zeta_3) right?
That has a minimal polynomial x^2 +x + 1, and is a degree 2 extension
Oh right.
(zeta_3)^2 is another root of this polynomial
And Q((zeta_3)^2) = Q(zeta_3)
In fact this will work for any element with minimal polynomial x^2 + ax + b, with a nonzero
Even after looking at like everything I didn't look at the most obvious example
Thanks a lot
Can someone explain how to show that it is a ring( don't know how to show there exist an identity 0?)
identity 0 ? This is pointwise addition, it's a well known group
Do you mean identity 1 ?
This one is the meat of the exercise yes
(well, and distributivity and associativity)
I actually feel confused about if pointwise addition can imply that it is a group?
in that case, if I can tell that the functions are 1. distributive, 2. associative, 3. closure under multiplication, then it is a ring right?
Assuming there's an identity and all the required properties for the underlying group, yes
Do you refer to identity 1?
assume that there is an identity 1 in functions f?
Yes
Though ofc the identity is not the constant 1 here
Prove that there's a neutral element for this binary operation ?
I still have no idea of this part, can you breify introduce how to get started?
Let's say f is the neutral element. That would mean
Sum[xy = n] f(x)g(y) = g(n)
What is the easiest way to choose f to make the left hand side equal to the right hand side here.
hey, could i get some help with (3) please?
(2): isomorphic to Z/2 x Z/2
when i try to think of the symmetries, labelling 1,2,3,4 from the top corner i get:
r: (1234), r^2 = (13)(24), r^3 = (4321), r^4 = e
then for reflections you can either reflect down the middle or diagonals to get
(12)(34), (14)(23), (24), (13) [just like you'd expect, since its essentially D4)
then
now, the set does not in fact contain r, r^3 or the transposition reflections but im really unsure why?
in fact, i don't see what difference it makes to have a chessboard and a square 😵💫
Any hint for c part
in fact, i don't see what difference it makes to have a chessboard and a square 😵💫
symmetries of a chessboard must also preserve the colour pattern
I'm unsure what exactly the question is going for too, tbh though. They really ought to have made it clearer.
oh right right rihgt
so i can only reflect diagonals and rotate to preserve order of squares thing thing
but that makes it more confusing to me because that gets rid of the rotations i didnt want but surely gets rid of the reflections that i want
it would work if you chose the points to be midpoints of chessboard edges
If you're redefining both addition and multiplication, then the only thing you're keeping is the integers as a set. As a set the integers are countable, so the question becomes, does there exist a countable field
I might choose f is 1, but feel confused about why writting f(x)g(y)=g(n)
f is a function, so I'm not sure what you mean by "choose f is 1".
If you mean that f(x) = 1 for all x, then this doesn't work since the left hand side will become
Sum[d divides n] g(d)
Which is not equal to the right hand side
I think I may not understand what does this question mean, because I feel cnfused about why when f(x)=1, the left hand side becomes sum(d divides n) g(d), i mean why it becomes g(d) on the left side?
and also, what will be the format of f(x) here, like constant or with variable x?
So you where given the definition
(f*g)(n) = sum[xy = n] f(x)g(y)
Now if f is a neutral element, f*g will just equal g, so the left hand side in the equation above just says g(n).
Now, xy=n is just saying that x and y are divisors of n. So summing over all such x and y is summing over all divisors.
Now think about a simple case, say n=2. Then we have
(f*g)(2) = f(2)g(1) + f(1)g(2)
We need this to equal g(2). What could be natural choices for values f(1) and f(2) that makes that work? Can you generalize from that?
f(2)=0, f(1)=1? so f(1)=1 while f(x) =0 when x is not 1
I think it should be the way to generalize f*g(n)
Then when I do this assumtion and prove that we can have neutral element for this binary operation( pointwise add and product), then we can have the group with unity? And what other thing we have to do in order to say that R is a ring?
I think I still don't know what kind of condition we can make to say R is a ring as we have shown that we have neutral element for binary operation?
Probably, I still need to know what does pointwise addition and product imply?
Just checking the ring axioms. So you gotta be an abelian group under addition, and have a multiplication such that it is associative, distributes over addition and has a neutral element. That's it
I am actually wondering what does abelian group under addition really mean, does it refer to for every a and b in R, we can conclude that a+b=b+a( or we need to satisfy that it is closure, associative, commutative and existence of identity and inverse under addition)
It just means that if you consider R with the operation of addition, then that is an abelian group.
So you need a+b = b+a, but also the existence of 0 and -a such that a + (-a) = 0, and all the other group axioms.
Then go back to the question I posted before, can I just say that group must be abelian under addition as we are given that f is pointwise addition and product?
Yes I got it thank you
and since we have proven that we have an neutral element, then the question is done.( all underlying properties must be satisfied because of pointwise addition and product)?
So the fact that pointwise addition makes it an abelian group is fairly immediate, since we verify the conditions pointwise.
But checking that multiplication is associative and distributes over addition is really something that should be checked.
a homomorphism f being f(xy)=f(x)f(y) doesn't necessarily imply surjectivity, right? so when talking about this homomorphism, it is mapping to a subgroup of H, which may be all of H, but needn't be?
yes
a homomorphism f being f(xy)=f(x)f(y) ...
I hope you are aware that this holds for all homomorphisms of groups, this is not some kind of special property as repeating it seems to imply
but that's always been
For functions in general, you say f : R -> R, x -> x², even though it's not surjective
Yeah, it was a clarification of definition, not an extra condition
The 0 map 0: G -> G is a homomorphism (0 being the identity)
One more question is why we need to prove the existence of neutral element here? in a ring, it does not require unity?
Many authors include 1 in their definition of ring, but either way it's exercise (ii) in your picture.
I am kind of confused if this solution solve my second question
what is a product vector space?
nvm, wrong channel, and also the message sent before i could complete it lol (was trying to go onto the next line)
meant to ask in #linear-algebra , and i meant product "of" vector spaces, my bad
Hello, could anyone here please help me understand what the abelianization of a group "looks like"?
wdym
I'm trying to find some intuitive understanding about how the resulting classes look
like how the group falls apart and into what with the factorization
ab D(G) = a D(G) b D(G) (by virtue of being a normal group, this is multiplicaiton in the quotient group)
contains a [a^-1, b] b D(G)
= a a^-1 b a b^-1 b D(G) = ba D(G)
But this isn't visual
ahh that is an explanation for why any 2 classes commute right
There's no really nice way of seeing what an Abelianisation of a group is in general. The most visual example is how the free group F(2) on two generators becomes Z^2 after Abelianisation. If you can picture that tree becoming a grid, there you go.
The following is less visual but helps in terms of working with the actual result. The point is that G is some kind of combination of D(G) and Ab(G). We can say this succinctly by stating there is an extension 1 → D(G) → G → Ab(G) → 1, but this will typically be nonsplit so it is hard to use this to say much about the group in general.
if I have lets say 10 different elements with there being a "non commutative pair" for each of them within the group, it puts them all in one class, right?
or more like a non commutative path I guess?
between each 2
again not very visual, but you can think diagramatically via its universal property.
if you have a group map f : G --> H, then notice that it sends the commutator [a, b] to the commutator [f(a), f(b)]. If f : G --> G is conjugation by some g, then this shows that [G, G] is a normal subgroup.
And so, if f : G --> A maps to an abelian group, then every [a, b] dies. So f factors through G/[G,G].
thanks for the explanation, I haven't gotten to learn much about extensions yet but I think I get it the first example, I will read this reply more times over time haha
Just think of it as saying that G is some combination of D(G) and Ab(G), that's the point.
It's really saying very little indeed.
The derived subgroup allows us to cut a group into layers like this
If you somehow believe that Abelian groups are very elementary then cutting a group into Abelian segments appears fairly useful
interesting thanks, I'm not entirely sure how to do the diagramatically part but it makes sense nonetheless I think
I think I grasp a bit more now, so is this part also correct?
We need to wait for a GGT person to come along and comment on that
I know but idk what universal properties are really so I just tried to understand it the standard way xd
universal properties tell you how to give a map out of or into your object
in our case it says that the data of a map G --> A to an abelian group is same as the data of the map Ab(G) --> A
hmm this seems .ike a very useful and nice way to put things
so if you're mapping to abelian groups, you might as well replace G with Ab(G)
ok sec I will draw ze diagram
yee diagrams are 
try using https://tikzcd.yichuanshen.de/
A simple visual editor for creating commutative diagrams.
woah
so what you're saying is any G->A can be written as f o v_[G,G] for precisely one f ?
It took too long for me to realize that this means
im \cong coim
I doubt I can pursue math at this point, missing this basic fact
so is it true that G/[G,G] puts together into classes the subsets in which there was a path of non-commutativity between any 2 members?
like if I were to make a graph of the set and use "doesn't commute" as an edge then the classes of G/[G,G] would be the connected components?
hmm wait no that doesn't work with [G,G] because 1 communtes with everything right, so maybe the other classes? or is this complete nonsense lol
"commutes with" isn't the best relation :p

@rustic crown how can I improve from this kind of state?
too long depends on when you saw the definition of "coim"
Yeah, I first encountered it in my graduate algebra course
hmm
i first saw then when i was reading about abelian categories
because you add coim --> im is iso as an axiom
aka "first-iso-theorem"
Ah, interesting.
I learned it in module theory part without mentioning abelian category..
If anyone is free and willing to help, could you help me see if you think my proof is alright?
Such as in terms of phrasing
It isn't too concise, is it?
That qed symbol
Yes, handdrawn by 
How did you add it?
So cute
Sorry I'm not parsing the proof what are the I?
i
Just the natural numbers that are part of conventional cycle notation
I just yoinked
's code
What is a (i_1, ..., i_r), Do you mean conjugation?
No I was using cycle notation
Isn't this conventional
Oh wait I mean
Ahhh
$\alpha (i_1, ..., i_n)$
Absta
grass
Then I don't see how this holds.
there's supposed to be an a^{-1} at the back 🤦♂️
Exactly.
Ah one more, I don't get why you took this beta
I wanted it to look cleaner
Absta
Other than that, it's all good imo!
It's okay, typo is common even in published papers 
I see, thank you for your help! I apologise for the confusion 😅
Nah, it's fine! No problem at all~
Okie me back with another simple algebra problem done
If anyone is free and wants to, could you help me see if my proof is alright?
Please feel free to leave any suggestions, for instance, if you think that something could have been phrased better.
yep looks good
ig you should mention the product of disjoint cycles result too though
I see, thank you!
ig you should mention the product of disjoint cycles result too though
Hm why though? I don't think I used the fact that any permutation can be decomposed into a product of disjoint cycles, did I?
Your proof only shows how to write a cycle as the product of the given transpositions
btw for <V> = S_n take arbitrary permutation and proceed with bubble sort to get id. g=g^{-1} for transposition, so take them in reverse order to get inverse.
(k k+1) = (1 k)(1 k+1)(1 k), so <U> contains V.
Let $V_\mathbb{R}$ be the real vector space of sequences of real numbers, and let $V_\mathbb{Q}$ be the vector space over $\mathbb{Q}$ of sequences of rational numbers. Is it true that $V_\mathbb{R}$ is isomorphic to the tensor product $V_\mathbb{Q}\otimes_\mathbb{Q}\mathbb{R}$?
gustavn64
This was used in an argument for the fact that the dimension $\dim_\mathbb{R}(V_\mathbb{R})$ is uncountable, as follows: By a cardinality argument, $\dim_\mathbb{Q}(V_\mathbb{Q})$ is uncountable, and we have $\dim_\mathbb{Q}(V_\mathbb{Q})=\dim_\mathbb{R}(V_\mathbb{Q}\otimes_\mathbb{Q}\mathbb{R})=\dim_\mathbb{R}(V_\mathbb{R})$. But I'm unsure about the last part.
gustavn64
Yes
Consider (ri) a sequence of linearly independent real numbers put into a sequence (for example pi^i)
If it was the case that VQ(x)R equaled VR, then we could find sequences sj and real numbers tj such that
Sum sj(i)tj = ri
Which would mean each ri is in the span of the tj. But there are only finitely many ts and infinitely many rs, so that's impossible.
Hence VR is bigger.
can I just say $\bZ_{p^m}\oplus \bZ_{p^n}$ and then use the five lemma to prove that any other group would that can be put there is iso to A?
DarQ
I prolly need to construct the morphism between them tho hmm
The dimension argument still works though, since dim(VR) >= dim(VQ(x)R)
The 5-lemma only works if you already have a morphism.
For example it's not true that Z/4 = Z/2 + Z/2 even though it fits into a sequence
0 -> Z/2 -> Z/4 -> Z/2 -> 0
oh hmm
I see thx
this looks like the splitting lemma 
A finite ring that has only trivial idempotents is local?
I don't think Z/6Z is local
Oh wait, it does indeed have nontrivial idempotents
I was thinking nilpotents!
That's right, you can even replace finite with artinian.
Yes thanks!
Is there any example of a quadrilateral Q with symmetry group sigma(Q), which contains the family of all orthogonal transformation isomorphic to Z2?
Yes
Wait
The example I thought of was in fact... wrong
But there is an example that works
Like a ||trapezoid||?
Spoooillleeeerrsssssss
A ||kite|| is also an option I guess
Whats wrong with straightup checking if they define an ideal
or, where does it go wrong?
How does the argument work here? It's been on my mind. I was trying to see if it followed from Artin–Wedderburn but I couldn't seem to argue that the nilrad was zero
Why do you need the nilradical to be zero?
You just do AW, see that R/J is a field, boom boom
If the ring isn't semisimple then how does AW apply?
If you mod out the radical it becomes semisimple
So R is an artinian ring with trivial idempotents -> R/J is semisimple, and since idempotents lift modulo J, R/J has trivial idempotents. -> R/J is a division ring -> R is local
Working through a hint to solve this problem that says to prove that for $\alpha\in\mathcal{O}_K$, $\alpha(1-\zeta_p)$ has trace is a multiple of p. I'm convinced that the trace of $1-\zeta_p$ is $p$, but I haven't gotten any further than that. Any hints?
pramana
Lol is this Napkin
Yea
exact sequences?? darQ prepping for your AT arc?? 
I was looking for a proof that all the subgroups of Z x Z are generated by multiples of the canonical basis, and I came across this answer on Stack Exchange. I am confused on the step N = Zy_1 + (N \cap Z(0,1)), which is shown in purple font. I think what is shown is that N is a subset of it, and I don't understand why we have an equality. Any help would be appreciated
That's hatcher lel
I'm already doing AT 
I would never do algebra otherwise 
Anywho, this is kicking my ass lol
all I can gather is that i(1) has rank p^n and if j(x)=1 then x has rank a multiple of p^m
And x and i(1) generate A
So A has at most two generators
I feel like A has to be
[A=\bZ_{p^i}\oplus \bZ_{p^j}]
Where $i+j = n+m$
DarQtmrw
Can you explain why at most dim R+1
ig $A$ is a quotient of
[\bZ_{p^n}\oplus \bZ_{kp^m}]?
DarQtmrw
The ideals in the chain must have different dimensions, the possible dimensions of an ideal is
0, 1, 2, ..., dim R
So there can't be more than dimR + 1 different ideals in the chain.
So they show that N is a subset of it. But it should be clear that it is a subset of N, since when you intersect a set with N, what you get is a subset of N.
Since both contain each other, they're equal.
anyone? 
unbased
But you have to deal with noncomm algebra in AT 
Yup! It's true
When computing pi_1 maybe but apart from that?
Yeah, pi_1. Can you avoid it?
I sure can
I.. ugh.
How do you distinguish between simply connected spaces?
Higher homology/homotopy
Is the higher homotopy practical to deal with?
Not really but at least it’s abelian
It also carries a lot of information especially if you restrict to cw complexes
So it makes sense that it’s hard to compute
Your brain on rational homotopy theory
What's the deal with exact sequences actually
Lang defines them but it did not appear in class
Often when you are dealing with short exact sequences there are a lot of "2 out of 3" theorems for instance if $1\to U\to G\to H\to 1$ is a short exact sequence of groups and $U$ andf $H$ are solvable then so is $G$ and often $U$ and $H$ are easier to understand than $G$
Max
You can define quite a lot of things using them and use them to make sense of the notions such as (left-/right-)exact functors and (co)homology
that too, they work pretty nice with functors
Are you taking a generic abstract algebra class? Those often dont interact too much with material in which this formalism helps significantly
It's basically a group theory class
But the prof said that he'll do some category theory if time allows, so I think he likes abstract stuff
So far we've investigated normal subgroups and the homomorph connection on week 3
Yeah, exact sequences are pretty far off then, at least doing useful things with them that go beyond funny ways of reformulating stuff
Ok cool
Its the statement that if N and G/N are solveable, G is solveable.
Well okay just another way to formulate it since short exact sequence is equivalent to $U\leq G$ and $H\cong G/U$
Max
U is injected into G, i.e. U is a subgroup, and then U is the kernel of G->H, i.e. U is normal and G/U is H?
yes
Ah cool way to write it then
Thats also true if you replace Groups by rings (or by C*-algebras if you are an analyst)
then you have to replace normal subgroup by ideal (or closed two-sided ideal when C*-algebra) ofc
In class we called this the universal property
Might be something a bit different
That you can reconstruct homomorphs through G/ker
do you mean that a homomorphism $\varphi :G\to H$ descends to $\varphi:G/N\to H$ when $N\subset ker\varphi$?
Yeah
That is indeed a universal property of the quotient
Max
I know it as the Homomorphism theorem
Because the quotient is smaller?
Probably comes from this picture
so that the diagram commutes
I like how random things (like whether G/N is drawn below or above) is more common spread than actual terminology lol
Anyway tyty it's clearer for me now
this is common also push-forward comes from the thinking that one abstract object is placed before another
If K is a finite field with 12n+1 elements with n non zero show there is a in K s.t. the polynomial f=x^3-a is irreductible in K[X]
What I did:
K* cyclic group of order 12n by cauchy there is z in K*{1} s.t. z^3=1
If we suppose that for every a in K the polynomial f=x^3-a is reductible in K[X] this means that for every a in K there is x in K s.t. f(x)=0
This means that for every a in K, there is x in K s.t. x^3=-a and that means that for every a in K, there is x in K s.t. x^3=a so the function g:K->K, g(x)=x^3 is surjective but because K is finite g must be injective but this is false because g(1)=g(z) (z from cauchy)
Is that ok?
Because idk why they put that 12
yo guys how do i proove that some mirroring (idk how to say it) is a isomorfism of a ring
Can you give a definition of such a mirroring
its fi:(R,+,*)->(R,some other operation,some other) , fi(a)=a-1,R is a R1NG
the other operations are deffiened as the first one is a operation b = a+b+1 and second operation is a operation b = ab+a+b
and i have to proove that fi is isomorfism of ring
An isomorphism of rings is a bijection such that
f(a + b) = f(a) new+ f(b)
and
f(a * b) = f(a) new* f(b)
Where new+ and new* are the addition and multiplication in the second ring
That's right. And you're correct that it would work perfectly well with 3n+1, so I don't know why they used 12. Maybe to throw you off.
It was mentioned when talking about the matrix exponential if that helps
I guess it would come up in a first course on Lie theory.
I'd say at least a first course in algebra, like groups and rings. Then some basic differential topology, like knowing what a manifold is.
And a good amount of linear algebra, like knowing about the matrix exponential at least.
It doesn't necessarily require that much, just depends on the structure of the course
Ye, that is the thing, lots of things can be 'speedup' for physicists but I don't want to do that. I want to learn it like a mathematician would.
In the correct order at the correct time and in the correct detail
I don't know that everything has a correct order or a correct amount of detail necessarily
But I guess some things definitely have a wrong order 
Like , we are told 'we won't go into that' lmao and I hate it
Yeah, physicists are good at shoving things under rugs
I quote from a first year lecturer in electromag when talking about the RLC diff eq, 'we could solve it, but we're physicists and we already know the answer' 🤣
How do I show that the action of SL(2,R) on the upper half Argand plane is transitive?
I cannot find one element that generates everything
Riku
This is the action btw
take z_1=x_1+y_1i and z_2=x_2+y_2i, then an element g of SL_2(R) such that g.z_1=z_2 is given by g=g_2Ag_1 where uhhh
$g_2=\begin{pmatrix} \sqrt{y_2} & 0\ 0 & 1/\sqrt{y_2} \end{pmatrix} \quad A=\begin{pmatrix} 1 & \frac{x_2}{y_2}-\frac{x_1}{y_1}\ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix} \quad g_1=\begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{y_1} & 0\ 0 & \sqrt{y_1} \end{pmatrix}$
nGroupoid
also a nice way to think about this is that the upper half plane H is the quotient SL_2(R)/SO(2) and SL_2(R) obviously acts transitively on this
Holy shit, I'd have never thought about this
Thanks
btw the way you can come up with this is using the Iwasawa decomposition
SL_2(R)=KAN
this works much more generally for any semisimple Lie group for instance
you can alternatively prove iwasawa using this
I think the point that upper half plane is even isomorphic to this comes from the fact that this action is transitive
Yup
To be fair I’m thinking kinda backwards to how one typically proves this but I’m just saying how I came up with this
theres a vaguely geometric argument for why SL(2,R) (and in fact AN := upper triangular matrices) acts transitively on the unit tangent bundle of H
in particular you can guess the formulas from that perspective
and a (much easier) geometric argument indicates that the stabilizer should be SO(2)
a hint for how to see this is
think about how the diagonal matrices act on (i,i) in the unit tangent bundle T^1 H
you will get a curve
and for any other (z,w) you can try to find a matrix in N which bends that curve so it passes through (z,w)
something like that
Wait, this isn't giving me z_2 from z_1
I think i messed up the order of multiplication because
the way you gave g_2, A and g_1 doesn't give me it
I'll check for the correct order
Hello, anybody can help me🥹 This is a question of the final exam. When I was writing it, I thought that this Q is the field of fractions of Z/5Z. Then my professor told me that "Since Z/5Z is a field, its field of fractions is isomorphic to Z/5Z" I got it. But why the Q is not the field of fractions of it ??? I constructed Q by definition. And even if it not, it still a field. Q[square root of 2] still satifies the condition.
I am so confusing🥲
\mathbb
Riku
Yes, I thought it would work here 😭
this is not a field
Wait, x^2 - 2 isn't irreducible in F_5[x]?
I know the answer is this. But I dont know why I am wrong🥲
But what if K has 12n-1 elements? The result remains true? (This is b) )
I mean Q is field of fractions, yes, but it just has the exact same structure as Z/5Z
And yes, Q[√2] is exactly what is the field you need here, in fact it's probably the smallest field satisfying the conditions
Maybe try checking the field with 11 elements
why??Maybe Q has these elements??
And the professor said:
What is 2^-1 in F_5?
It's 3.
3
Hence 1/2 in F_5 is actually just 1 * 3 = 3
In fact, each of thise fractions will be reduced to an element of F_5
oh I got it
Oof that is harsh 😭😭😭
I dont know why he said I look for a field with 25 elements inside Q. I did this ???🥲
I think so....Thats why I ask here
It works
If you're extending the field, the new field is a vector space over the previous one. As alpha^2 = 2, the degree of extension is 2 [in fact, you do write a + b√2, which clearly shows how the basis is {1, √2}].
Now for finite dimensional vector spaces over finite fields, the cardinality equals the cardinality of field raised to the dimension. [try to prove this result. There's a simple set bijection]
So, 5^2 = 25
I understand. Thanks!!🫶
You're welcome 🤗
It's det's code, you should ask him about it 
What do they mean by
T is a representation of the semigroup (R_+, +)
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/C0-semigroup#Formal_definition
Do they just mean that T and o are "consistent" with the group operation, i.e. T(a+b) = T(a) o T(b)
What about the T(0) = I part?
it's snow's code :giggwe:
Hewoo detto
Idk how to answer the question
Think about the answer you gave. You said x |-> x^3 couldn't be surjective, because 12n was divisible by 3. Is 12n-2 divisible by 3? What does that tell you about wheter or not the map is surjective?
I just heard about cyclotomic cosets and cyclotomic polynomials over F_q. Could someone give a brief explanation about them in algebraic perspective?
What I can find is just the coding theory ones.
Oh the map is always bijective
Cuz 3 and 12n-2 are coprime
And extenting the function to K
We get x^3 is bijection
Exactly
And this is equivlent to for every a in K, f=x^3+a is reductible in K[X]
[
\begin{bmatrix}
1 & -\sqrt{\frac{x^2 + y^2}{y}} \
\sqrt{\frac{y}{x^2 + y^2}} & 0
\end{bmatrix} \cdot (x + iy) = i
]
Riku
This simplifies things
This also gives me the set of matrices that fix i
And we can use this to show the action is transitive, rest follows
Let $n,m\in\mathbb{N}$ and $\gcd(n,m)=d$. How to show that $$\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_n)\cap\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_m)=\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_d)$$
Ham Sandwich
I have shown that RHS is contained in LHS. But have not idea how to show the converse
use that there are a, b in Z such that an+bm=d
I have tried that but I still have no idea
Oh I have shown that $$\Bbb{Q}(\zeta_n,\zeta_m)=\Bbb{Q}(\zeta_l)$$ where $l=\operatorname{lcm}(n,m)$
Ham Sandwich
Show that the degree of the extension is 1
Since $$\phi(l)=[\Bbb{Q}(\zeta_l):\Bbb{Q}]=[\Bbb{Q}(\zeta_n,\zeta_m):\Bbb{Q}(\zeta_n)][\Bbb{Q}(\zeta_n):\Bbb{Q}]=[\Bbb{Q}(\zeta_m):\Bbb{Q}(\zeta_n)\cap\Bbb{Q}(\zeta_m)]\phi(n),$$
we know that $$[\Bbb{Q}(\zeta_m):\Bbb{Q}(\zeta_n)\cap\Bbb{Q}(\zeta_m)]=\frac{\phi(l)}{\phi(n)}.$$
On the other hand, $$\phi(m)=[\Bbb{Q}(\zeta_m):\Bbb{Q}]=[\Bbb{Q}(\zeta_m):\Bbb{Q}(\zeta_d)][\Bbb{Q}(\zeta_d):\Bbb{Q}]=[\Bbb{Q}(\zeta_m):\Bbb{Q}(\zeta_d)]\phi(d).$$ So, $[\Bbb{Q}(\zeta_m):\Bbb{Q}(\zeta_d)]=\frac{\phi(m)}{\phi(d)}$.
Therefore, $[\Bbb{Q}(\zeta_n)\cap\Bbb{Q}(\zeta_m):\Bbb{Q}(\zeta_d)]=\frac{\phi(m)\phi(n)}{\phi(l)\phi(d)}=1$.
Ham Sandwich
Sounds good!
Let K be a finite field with q elements and d>=2 s.t. d divides q-1 and let f be a polynomial in K[X] with deg(f)=d. Show that there is a in K s.t. the polynomial f-a does not have any roots in K
If I suppose that for every a in K, there is z in K s.t. f(z)=a that means the polynomial function f:K->K is surjective
And because K is finite that means f bijective
Now I am trying to figure out how to find a contradiction using the fact d divides q-1
Any hint?
fun news, guys: I've finally gotten to chapter 3 in my journey through every exercise in D&F's Abstract Algebra. I will now be able to engage with quotient groups like you guys have so frustratingly been suggesting the entire time I've been doing these examples.
Why are you doing every exercise in dummit and Foote?
because I can, and I'm teaching myself, and by the end of this I might actually understand what's going on.
I was a bit lazy with my selection of exercises in my last couple textbook readthroughs (linear algebra and axiomatic set theory), so I've forgotten and misunderstood a sizeable chunk of stuff.
You might want to consider just going through a subselection, for example by finding some course with lectures notes and psets availible online
nah
I set out to do every example, so I'm doing every example. I got a documentation of my progress and everything
.
Consider the elements of order d in the group of units of K
Omg me too 🥹
The subgroup <b^((q-1)/d)> where b generates K* ?
Could anyone help me with this exercise? I have the final exam tomorrow and I would really like to understand this... I know the universal property of localization of rings, but I don't know how to prove this.
well we have to show that M_S exists first, which is just writing down what the localisation of a module is. The choice of j_M should be fairly clear from that point. The hint I'd give for the second paragraph is that since each element of S acts via a bijection on n, we can take their inverses (almost like writing a/b as ab^-1...)
b) is the standard proof "object satisfies universal property => object is unique up to isomorphism"
um, acts by bijection meaning n -> sn is always a bijection for any s?
yeah
The localization of modules fulfills that property, I wouldnt think too much about "using it"
it's used to construct the map f bar
like what's a natural choice for f bar(m/s) to be, considering we want to extend the map f
f(m)/s?
??
wait no N is an A-module
yeah so "/s" doesn't make sense but you're basically there
Actually, I am not seeing how the elements of s inducing bijections would get us inverses of s here
it's not direct but the idea is that you associate each s to an automorphism m_s of N and then send fbar(m/s) = m_s^(-1)(f(m))
like n -> sn being a bijection doesnt imply that its inverse has form n -> tn
yeah it's a bit more annoying than when you take localisation of rings, in which case you can just write "f(s)^-1" iirc
that doesnt seem obvious😭
I hope questions like this wouldn't be asked on the exam
there may be a simpler way I'm missing but that's just what first came to mind
ummm wait so how do I show uniqueness
hello
It's the standard thingy for universal properties: assume there is another localisation M'_S, then this localisation satisfies the universal property as well, then the two universal properties induce two maps M_S -> M'_S and M'_S -> M_S - which you then use uniqueness to conclude they must be inverses. I'll leave you to fill in the details/draw the triangles
with a surjective group homomorphism f, it's not generally true that f(x) in f(H) implies x in H right?
It does not. Find a counterexample.
I meant in part (a)
I think they meant it as in showing that the thing they defined fulfills the universal prop
yis
oh
I mean, is there any other choice for the map here?
I forgot how this part goes lol
I hope the composition being f is clear but yeah uniqueness
hmm
Maybe go back and define f_bar "canonically"
f(m) = f(s m/s) = sf(m/s)
Since multiplication by s is a bijection f(m/s) is uniquely determined
so we need some g(m/s) such that g(m/1) = f(m), then g(m/1) = g(m/1 * s/s) = g(ms/s) = sg(m/s) = ...
wow i see how it is
it must send this here, and and the stuff from S must be send to invertible thingies
thanks
oh right module homomorphism were a thing lmao
I spent like the last 2 hours trying to come up with how to prove it holds because it seemed like the correct step to do in the proof lol
@rocky cloak can you help me with this one please?
yesyes, thank you!!
Maybe, the answer isn't obvious from a first glance, so I would have to think about it
For an element $a \in \mathbb{Z}_n$, for a to be a generator, why does gcd(a,n)=1?
Dubs
If a is a generator, there is some m such that m.a = 1 mod n, right? Go from there.
a fate worse than death
if (a,n)=1, then by bezouts $ax_0 + ny_0= 1$
Dubs
You really want the converse to Bézout
gcd(a,b) divides every integral linear combination of a and b
You should etch this into the wrinkles of your brain
I have a way in my mind
Essentially wanted to compare with others
Can I say my idea?
No, you need to get your ideas sharing license first
$ax \equiv b \pmod{m}$
Dubs
This is solvable iff, (a,b) divides m
or b= (a,b)k
ie the smallest i can get is gcd(a,b)
My gut says, if it can reach 1 mod m, then i can multiply both sides and reach anything
Yeah. You have to generate 1 mod m somehow anyways, and from there you get anything else. Now you have to convince yourself that this can only happens if they are coprime
My google-fu found a result called Hermites criterion, which says that a polynomial is a bijection iff
f(x)^t mod (x^q - x) has degree less than q-2 whenever t <= q-2.
If d divides q-1 you can pick t so that f(x)^t has degree q-1.
So maybe you can look up the proof of Hermites condition...
1= (a,b)k, since k and gcd can only be integer value
It forces us to conclude k=1
ie gcd(a,b)=1
is it correct?
The reason why i am asking this is, my professor doesn’t talk about modular at all
he found it so obvious to say (a,m)=1 for a generator
so i was wondering how people see it
i thought you wanted to show gcd(a,m)=1
Also, maybe think of the orders of elements and the substructure they then generate
it means (a,m) divides 1
This same reasoning goes for why relatively prime numbers are not zero divisors right?
in ring Zn
Oh wow
I think I found a particular solution
For this problem
What I did:
q-1=dr with 1<=r<=q-1
f=a_d x^d +...+a_1 x + a_0
f^r=(a_d)^r x^(q-1) +...= sum k=0 to (q-1) b_k x^k (notation)
sum when a in K of f^r(a)=-(a_d)^r≠0
I used the fact that sum a^k = 0 for k<=q-2
And sum a^(q-1)=-1
if f is surjective cuz K finite we have f bijective
so sum a in K f^r(a)= sum a in K a^r
so we have from here r must be q-1
so d=1
But d>=2
So contradiction
It is ok?

Is this the case iff k=n?
With the k-element subsets they mean subsets of {1, ..., k}, and by k-tuples they mean tuples (of any length) with all elements in {1, ..., k}
Let (M,•) be a monoid and f:M->M with f(f(x)•f(y))=x•y for every x,y in M. Show there is a in M with a^3=e and ax=xa for every x in M and a homomorphism g:M->M with g(a)=a and g(g(x))=x for every x in M s.t. f(x)=a•g(x) for every x in M
are you sure about that
Oof, major interpretation mistake. Let me redo the exercise
Redoing I would find that the answer for a) is 0 < k < n and for b) k > 0
I don't understand why p is an irreducible here assuming $p=\pi \pi'$ where $\pi'$ is a unit.
J
Oh wait it is clear, I missed the part where it said in $\mathbb{Z}[i]$!
how do i proove that something is a monomorfism
for groups/ring/etc?
ring
Formally it means being left invertible, which is equivalent to being injective
the thing im trying to proove is that if R is a ring that has a finite number of elements and there exist an element a from R that is not the left devisor of zero proove that the f:R->R deffined as f(r)=ar,r from R is injective
Can you see why that should be true intuitively?
Which bit
that i have to proove its injective
ar = as -> r=s
or equivalently x =/= y implies f(x) =/= f(y), altho you should know that if you are working with rings
wdym reduce it
i mean like devide
Why would you be able to do that
cause its not the left devisor of zero
Element can be non-invertible and also not be zero divisors
Like, consider Z. 3 definitely isnt a zero divisor, but you can invert it either
then how did you do this
i just stated injectivity
1 as in neutral element for multiplication
Did you define them that way?
and i have to proove that if and element of R is not zero devisor its invertible
Rings having always having a 1?
thats vile
what does vile mean
Also then this is not the correct way. And this (reply) is wrong for the integers
non-zero divisors of a ring are invertible if the ring is finite, but wrong in general
it doesnt say that its a ring containing integers
You don't have to. What you have to prove is that the map is njective?
Which is just the definition of a non zero divisor
no it says here i have to in the text
its 3 part problem
I am using the integers to show that your statement is wrong. Non-zero divisors dont have to be invertible
yea but it says that i have to proove that in this ring they are
Ah okay. Well it's an injection of sets with the same cardinality...
his rings dont have 1's, I think the equivalence fails there
so its not correct
You don't need 1 for that, it's injective either way.
why doesnt it have 1
But you do need 1 for it to be a unit
what is a unit
Invertible element
oh
whats the argument for injectivity then?
If a is a non zero divisor and you have ax=bx then (a-b)x=0 so a=b so injective, don't need 1 for it
you are right, I mixed up the identities lmao
and how do i proove that 1 exists in this ring
You don't
is your exercise saying it has a 1
yes
it says proove it has a unit element
Oh
is 1 and unit element not same
So yeah, finiteness comes into play here
i am bad at english
meant that
It's an injective map of finite sets with the same cardinality
Sooo..?
For any r in R applying f(r)=ar successively gives you an orbit
Point is that the map is bijective
That's the only thing you need
wait it is?
the collection {r,ar,aar, aaar, ... } in this case
ok and how does that give me the unit element
the ring is finite
ok so

so this set must also be finite....
therefore at some point we have r = a^nr right?
😢
unit is an invertible element
well then it doesnt have to be 1
but it says here in the text that i have to proove that R has a 1
You still need to show that a^n is the multiplicative identity for all elements of the ring tho
Yes
A unit doesn't have to be 1
"1" = "multiplicaitve identity"
But what does this have to do with anything?
we just did
Yeah but just having xy=x for one element x does not directly show it's also the multiplicative identity for every other element
I mean sure its easy
But i guess he needs to show that as well
yeah there's a little bit more to the argument, the "n" in the exponent could change if you picked a different r but the point is there will exist some n
Sure there will but you need to show that r^n = r^m then
just take the product
Like you need to show it's the multiplicative identity for all elements of the ring
why does the n depend on r
set r = a
I mean that will work, but in general that's not true
if you keep taking the product it will eventually work
Why would it?
in general i wouldnt give rngs a second look tbh
because the exponent is larger than 1 for almost all elements of the ring, so eventually you'll end up with a^n with n > |R|
Yes but this doesn't show its the identity for all elements
sorry I missed an r
So while you might have r^n*a = a it doesn't follow that r^nb=b, it follows as a is a non zero divisor
Cause you will get r^n*a*b = a*b and as a is a non zero divisor you get r^n*b = b
That's the only reason
you build a "partial inverse" for any r in R. Then you take their product. This product is guranteed to fix any element in R
Why?
oh yeah is R commutative or
product of the exponents I mean, sorry
If a^nr=r, then a^2n r = r, can we agree on that
Right
and if a^n r = r and a^m s = s, then a^nm r = r and a^nm s = s
since a commutes with itself
Oh I thought you meant the sum
of the exponents
nvm then
Yeah that also works
Like just taking the products of them
Cuz that wouldnt work
yeah this was an exercise on our communication skills 😭
and what about this if an element of R is not the zero devisor its invertible
I am getting sullied for speaking the truth, is this really what mathcord has come to smh
for "invertible" to even make sense we need a 1
it has
we just proove it
i mean you guys
was that not the problem lol
Again cause the map is bijective
x->ax is bijective
So if you showed that 1 exists it needs to have a preimage
or in reverse order, since for some n, a^n=1
so are only a and 1 invertible
Silas is a very bad communicator, not you're fault
no every non zero divisor is invertible
How did you escape discussy 😬
also thanks ❤️
if in ring R exist non zero nilpotent element proove that there exist a from R so that a^2=0
W hating, gotta respect the grind
yea lol
Did you even try it first?
It's not a difficult exercise
no i go try it
this might be weirdest question ive seen in a while
If you just want the answer you won't learn anything
how did they even define nilpotents
yea correct
🫡
I enjoy your company nine, stay as long as you like
♥️
does sombody have like a guide to rings groups
i dont know anything its so hard
any like suggestions
have you taken linear algebra I and II yet?
its in next semestar
we only do ring fields and groups this semestar
Yeah this explains stuff
This is so weird
wdym
Who starts with rings first
we do
not even rings, RNGS?!
not even commutative
that's beyond bizzare
what kinda place is this
bro what is happening
i think your professor hates you
yea he does
we did some arithmetic first like module and all that
and then we do rings groups and fileds in that order
Sono Chi no Sadame starts playing
first we did rings and then some isomorf stuff
and then he said there are 3 therorems very important
for isomorf
and i dont know them
Okay you gotta be kidding me right?
bro im dead ass
why is that
did you do different
vectors are next year
in linear algebra
okay to put things into perspective
yes lets start with modules before cause why not
this is like learning calc before trigonometry - its very weird

why is it important to start with vectors
that's not what they meant
wait acttually
because vector spaces are the nicest algebraic objects
What then?
so it makes sense to introduce them first to get students used to thinking abstractly
arthimetic was the first thing they did in the module
which is still hard to believe
yea
they said that
they said that and then didn't introduce vector spaces
rings and groups were introduced in LA in my case, even with some results and exercises on them
we need to learn to think abstract so we can learn rings
I completely misread that
But doing abstract ring theory is unhinged
i mean we dont even have
calculus
we start off with real analysis
first year
and abstract algebra
bro i just got out of highschool leave me alone
yea
You sure you didn't pick the wrong courses broski?
no bro
i can send you my subjects
linear algebra is second year
what is so wierd guys
how did you start
linear algebra
literally first semester we did linear algebra and didn't do ring theory until a year later
we did group theory 2nd sem
I don't speak serbian
we have real analysis 1 and abstract algebra
and second semestar you see linear algebra
ok yeah that is pretty clearly "analnza"
yea
can you tell us what the less recognizeable words mean
osnove matematike we do like axiomatic theory of sets
and osnovi programiranja we do programing c laungauge
Abstract algebra before linear algebra is completely fine
It might just be a bit harder to grasp but not by much really
Also not that uncommon
my type of guy right here
Historically abstract algebra came first anyways
but still i dont know shit in abstract algebra
real analysis is easier than this shit
abstract algebra with non-unital rings tho?
like youd at least start a bit watered down
Makes no sense though
what does it mean non unital
I don't think there is any benefit to it


