#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 199 of 1
Check +
There are a few issues with it, in fact
if we did Z -> Z instead, is it a ring?
I was gonna say lol
Do be careful
The example i have is from R to R
Ah, but are there any added conditions
Do we look at all functions?
yup
Are we doing the same multiplication?
Nope the multiplication is different
Not composition
It’s fg(x)= f(x)* g(x)
I just started with all of them, sorry for terrible mistakes
Let me try the routine check of ring axioms here
see if i get them right
First I have to check whether the set of all functions from N to N under point wise addition is an ableian group
I think N doesn’t have inverses to undo the effect to point wise addition
@topaz solar
Yep
I'd like to hear your conclusions :)
Can someone please explain why {2,5}*{2,5} = {1,4} (why the 1 is there...). H is a normal subgroup of Z6 for context.
Remember we define Ha * Hb = H(a+b).
thats notation sure is something
Now what this means in terms of sets is the following
We know that if a is in some coset, then the coset is Ha
So in particular, we know {2, 5} = H2 = H5
So we can now calcualte any which way we like
I don't get how 2+2mod6 has become 1
ye np
it is
I know, I am stating, not asking.
So H4 = {4, 3+4} = {7, 4} = {1, 4}
Note: we never said 2+2 mod 6 is 1
I see
So that is one way to calculate this.
Now another way is the following
You can check for yourself that if X, Y are cosets of H, then X * Y = {x+y | x in X, y in Y}
So we have {2, 5} * {2, 5} = {2+2, 2+5, 5+2, 5+5} = {4, 7, 7, 10}
Now of course, this last set is equal to {1, 4}.
This should be clear.
Happy?
Ye, I realise why I was thinking incorrectly. I was confusing it with direct product groups....
You should keep in mind that cosets are almost never groups.
Ok 👍
Not that anyone wants to check the calculations (don’t waste your time) but I think I found the minimal polynomial of $\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_3 + \zeta_6 \zeta_9) / \mathbb{Q})$.
Sapphire
kind of.
In better terms, it’s just $\Phi_{9}(\frac{(2\alpha^2)}{5})*\Phi_{9}(\frac{2(\alpha-2)}{5})$.
Sapphire
,w minimal polynomial (exp(2pi i/3) + exp(2pi i/6)exp(2pi i/9))
@celest cairn
Dang I probably did something wrong, thanks.
Can someone explain why point c) should be true? Both implications seem false to me
why do they seem false
if the 2 functions are equivalent then gx = xh^-1 for every x in G no? How can I conclude from this that g and h lie in the center of G? And viceversa, if g and h lie in the center of G how can I conclude that gx = xh^-1?
it's been like a year, are you still computing minimal polynomials
For the second one, if g and h lie in the center of G, considering gx and xh^-1, we should have gx = xh^-1 if and only if g = h^-1, but there could be some other element in the center
For the first implication maybe because we have gx = xh^-1 for every x in G and by letting x = 1 we have g = h^-1, so gx = h^-1 x and h lies in the center, and xh^-1 = xg and g lies in the center, and we're done
yes i think that proves the first implicaiton
but the second seems false to me
yeah
You canceled an x on the right and on the left in the same step?
You could plug in x = h though and get to the same thing so yeah this is weird
because h and g lie in the center, we have xh^-1 = h^-1 x so i cancel only on the right (or, equivalently with g, only on the left)
Ah ur right
with sigma_g = tau_h => g,h in Z(G) can you already prove the last thing?
I've tried searching on internet but I get only results about character theory and I don't understand anything
the conclusion is much weaker
so i think its just a mistake
you can prove the conclusion
about pi(G) n lamdba(G) = pi(ZG)
from the implication here
(the implication proves pi(G) n lambda(G) \subset pi(Z(G)). the reverse inclusion is trivial)
yeah
whats an example
of a result
like this one
this is something else
the exercise is weird
idk what it means
though tbf i know like no rep theory
but i dont think this is so closely related to the question of equivalence of reps
it is way stronger
thinking about it, isnt' g = 1 and h some other nonidentity element of G that lies in the center a counterexample?
counterexample to what
to the reverse implication (if g and h lies in the center then the 2 functions are equivalent)
I don't know, it's just what pops up if i try to google
yes
it is wrong
but the conclusion of the exercise is right
they clearly made a mistake
in trying to structure the exercise
Yep, though I’ve gotten a lot more into Galois theory and proving simple things using abstract algebra.
that's awesome to hear 👍
Ty man. Also I’m having my first abstract algebra tutoring session on the 1st. Should make things a lot easier now that I don’t have to teach all of it to myself.
Is this proof of cauchy theorem (for abelian) right? Claim: G finite abelian has element order prime p | |G|
We prove this by induction on |G|. Take arbitary g. Then <g> has an element q of prime order, if this is p we are done, if not then G/<g> has order |G|/q by Lagrange's theorem. This group has an element order p by hypothesis and then the preimage under canonical surjection has order dividing p, hence order p as desired.
... the preimage under canonical surjection has order dividing p ...
This isn't true
It is true that it has order divisible by p though, so you can still fix it.
i see. if this preimage is m, |m|=kp, then does m^k work then
Yes that's exactly right
Perhaps unsurprisingly then, this theorem about finite Abelian groups boils down to one about finite cyclic groups. It's almost as if finite Abelian groups are made up of cyclic groups or something crazy like that...
interestingly i have never sene that proof lol
proof of cauchy theorem or the fundamental theorem
cauchy
upon
Right, because usually we would just prove Cauchy in the general case
but tbf yeah that's why
Hmm does F_{p^k} appear in the classification of finire abelian groups 🤔
C_p^k-1...
i guess lol
this is unfortunate in that you mean C_(p^k -1) and i mean (C_p)^k
but yes
C_(p^k-1) is what I me- ok yeah
A shakespearian tragedy tbh
Ah, it has cyclic group structure for its unit, ye
(C_p)^k confuses me a bit in that I am not sure what multiplication structure to give to it >.>
it's a direct product of groups
A group only has one operation
The classification of finite Abelian groups tells us nothing about how the 2nd operation works
There's a very neat one that has Z/pZ act on p-tuples of G such that g_1*...*g_p=1.
no no, Boyt. Absta is clearly asking what fusion system to place over (C_p)^k, which are in one to one corrispondence with subgroups of GL(k, F_p)
Yes, but sometimes I forgor this.
Lmao
unfortunately the isomorphism classes are not in 1-1 corrispondence
Hmm, GL(k, F_p) ?
Yea sad
sad!
This is wonderful. My appreciation.
What's a non-trivial example of a separably closed field (e.g. not an algebraically closed one)? Just found out that's a thing.
Yah that's the standard one innit
I don't think it's the standard one (at least it wasn't till recently), the classical proofs are different. This is one of those nifty "math golf" proofs.
I just quote Sylow 1
(other than just specialising sylow 1 lol)
Well some proofs of Sylow1 build on Cauchy.
Oh I don’t care about being circular. I care about going back to bed asap
I do think you can prove it independently iirc…??
You can, I just meant this as an example of the possible usefulness of Cauchy.
E.g. I don't think the standard proofs demonstrate that there's a chain of p-subgroups (building up to a maximal one), but this can be done via Cauchy.
You can take the separable closure of F_p(t) which is not perfect
(separable closure means you dump in all the roots of separable irreducible polynomials)
ik
Hm, ok, that works I guess (for any non-perfect field). Thanks.
Is anyone here familiar with "higher" local fields or w/e they're called? Vostokov/Fesenko have a definition, iirc it's the local field definition, except instead of requiring the residue field be finite, you say it's a local field of degree n-1 (when defining a local field of degree n). I wonder how big of a deal they are, in books I've only meant the regular kind of local fields so far.
proofs i know don't use cauchy lol
you think I know how to prove Sylow 1? ah ah ah
I don't know how to prove any of the sylow theorems 
(Please don't tell me, I don't want to remember)
I think in the proof of Sylows there is half of elementary group theory
det no remember the proofs, but remember the ideas which can be converted to proof given 15 minutes ><
the only thing i remember is, the first time i learned them, it was
; the second time, it was
; and the third time, it was 
I think it's smth like
Let $G$ be of order $p^k m$ where $(p,m)=1$ and consider set $S$ of subsets of $G$ of size $p^k$. Direct computation shows $|S| \not \equiv 0 \mod p$. On the other hand, consider the action of $G$ on $S$ by left multiplication. The stabiliser of each $s \in S$ has cardinality $\le p^k$. If the cardinality of each stabiliser is $< p^k$, then each orbit has order divisible by $p$, so that $|S|$ is divisible by $p$, contradiction
potato
So there must be an element with stabilisr of cardinality exactly p^k and that's a sylow subgroup
Idea of Sylow thm, is that something one can recall?
Like I always manage to forgor.
i like the proof that relies on cauchy
from there you slowly build a normal series of p-subgroups
if H was a p-subgroup, you can let H act on G/H by left multiplication to get that [G:H] = [N(H):H] (mod p). so if p divides [G:H], there is an element of order p in the group N(H)/H, subgroup generated by that looks like K/H giving you a larger p-subgroup and you also get H is normal in K.
idea is just build it inductively, so not really something to forget

Plus relies on facts about p-groups you ought to know anyway
But how to tower above the smaller subgp
Det just explained that...
the whole shit with sylow is act by a non-trivial p group G on a cute enough set X, and then use |X| = |X^G| (mod p)
You know you're looking for a larger p-group in which the smaller one is normal, so it is totally natural to look at the normaliser. It's the most obvious thing to do
Ah, yep. I see
in this case the set X = G/H is the set of left cosets. and gH lies in X^H iff for each h, we have h(gH) = gH, which is equivalent to gHg^-1 = H, so gH in N(H)/H.
yep, this action stuff tells you that as long as H is not already the sylow-p-subgroup (i.e. the index [G:H] is still divisible by p) then the index [N(H):H] is also divisible by p so you can continue the argument 
proof of other sylow are also pretty easy, just mix and match various actions of a p group on interesting sets
i don't really understand the first isomorphism theorem. here is how i've thought of it:
Suppose f : G -> H is a group homomorphism. Let K = ker(f).
We are looking for a bijective homomorphism induced by these knowns.
But bijectivity requires injectivity, and we know a trivial kernel is sufficient for an injective homomorphism.
Now, the group where K is the identity is G/K, so now we want to find a suitable codomain X where f' : G/K -> X sends K to the identity in X. If we can find this, then we have an injective homomorphism because the kernel is the identity K.
Then this part is easier to see; it's going to be the original codomain of f (i.e. H), for K just represents the things sent to the identity in H.
We restrict the codomain of that homomorphism to its image (im(f)) so that our new homomorphism is surjective and we are done: f' : G/K -> im(f) is a bijective homomorphism.
but the more popular intuition is this idea of "factoring out whatever was making f not injective"
i cannot understand where this comes from
G/K is the set of cosets of K
f is injective if and only if ker f = 0
quotienting by ker f is constructing a group where we "set" ker f = 0, that's what a quotient is
yes
wait
i dont get how
quotienting by ker f is constructing a group where the identity is K
does it follow that under the same homomorphism, this K becomes a trivial kernel?
alternatively what we're saying with first iso is, if a homomorphism maps a subgroup to 0, we can actually set that subgroup to be 0 via a quotient and this gives us the image of f
this isn't really "alternatively" but it's clearer
Let's talk about the first isomorphism theorem for sets, first.
Let A, B be sets. Let f : A -> B.
The first isomorphism theorem for groups is precisely the same.
There is really very little adjustment to be made.
(The appropriate generalisation of this observation is massive -- the first isomorphism theorem is really a part of a topic called universal algebra, which encompasses an enormous variety of algebraic structures.)
wdym by 'I know when f(x) = f(y)'
Keep reading for now
like how?
in groups you know f(x) = f(y) if and only if x = ky for some k in ker f, for instance
So... I know when f(x) = f(y) even without knowing the values of f(x) and f(y) waoh
tbf that part reads a little weird lol
I cooked up this explanation on the fly, cut me some slack
Ah, is universal algebra good to learn
Not really no
I see.. sad
from what I understand about it, it's just model theory right
but like, less general
It's very restricted model theory
ok but i dont see how this has to do with the first iso thm, which means i prosb dont understand ur explanation that well
OK we're doing this now
Reminder!
We're working with groups now!
So $f: G \to G'$ is a group homomorphism
Boytjie
I thought it might give an insight on the rough structure of everything, hopefully helping with how to e.g. classify
ur saying that the cosets are equivalence classes, so mapping cosets to image is an isomorphism
Let me speak!
Ah gotta just learn model theory then
ebepbpepbpebpepbepbpebpepbep
Lmao
Now $H$ we'll set to the kernel of $f$.
When is $f(x) = f(y)$? When $f(x)f(y)^{-1} = e_{G'}$, right?
classify... what...
Boytjie
Boytjie
I.e....
Groups
when they lie in the same coset of H
also (sorry to interject, i wanted to say this earlier) this makes sense but it doesnt justify why every1 says 'factor' in my mind, like i dont get the notion of factoring the in traditional sense (i.e. ab + ac = a(b+c)) is used as a heuristic here but this might be an overfixation on my part and i shud rlly just kep my initial idea of what its about)
I cannot even begin to explain how useless universal algebra is at trying to classify groups
oh I'm with you on this. I don't like calling them factor groups either,
in a way you can think of writing any g in G as g = xh for some h in H, then the "factorisation (quotient)" sends g -> x
ALL of them?
So anyway as I was SAYING
This relation ~ I described up above for sets — it's exactly the relation whose classes are cosets of the kernel
So again — it's exactly the same thing!
Dunning Kruger is getting me, like perhaps all group could be somewhat classified 
The extra structure that comes from the group you essentially get for free
finite groups are. Infinite groups are hopeless
Why do we choose the kernel?
Classifying just finite groups is extraordiarily hard too tbh
You mean finitely generated groups can be classified, right
this isn’t true for any normal subgroup of G, what’s so special about the kernel?
and the classification theory behind finite simple groups is one of the most incredible achievments in the history of mathematics, with a proof spanning over 11,000 pages
Right? /j 
all normal subgroups appear as a kernel of a homomorphism
It cannot be any other subgroup. There is no choice involved.
The kernel describes exactly when things in the image are equal, in other words, when things in the original group differ by something that's gonna go to the identity.
Remember how I explained cosets? The 'power' of the kernel of f is gonna get killed off once we apply the homomorphism f. It's just gonna be the identity. So things that differ by something in the kernel are gonna be the same thing once we apply f.
Clear now?
1 -> K -> G -> G/K -> 1 moment?
perhaps I misunderstood the question
Finitely generated groups cannot be meaningfully classified, no
watch this
I'm watching bish
Why tho
I mean, is there fundamental obstructions doing this
the word problem isn't computable? maybe?
Ah. Hmm
The isomorphism problem isn't computable either
Gödel incompleteness might get us here then, I guess
okay that makes sense. I’ll think about it more. Thanks
Don't sink into cranky territory man...
Like just looking in computable land for a second, at purely finite groups
We have a list of the finite simple groups, which is wonderful, and this has been extremely hard
But we currently have no hope of classifying all finite groups. Those are just finite ones!
This is because as you seemed to allude to, the group extension problem is really hard.
Ahh
There doesn't need to be some deep reason for it, it's just really fuckin' hard!
I mean, word problem being uncomputable simply means you cannot classify right
Or is it more complex than that
No that doesn't follow
What
You guys said earlier that mathematicians beautifully classified all finite groups
No, all finite SIMPLE groups
I kind of disagree with this morally. Sure we can't write them all down but we basically know all of them with the classification of the simple ones
Nah, knowing a composition series is not enough
Hmm.
hmmm
If that were true we would understand p-groups perfectly
I do
I believe you
every finite group is isomorphic to a finite group 😎
Lmao
We don't?
Speak to wew about that one apparently
we understand all of the interesting examples of finite groups, then
And like, there's still mountains of work with reduction theorems. There was a big one iirc recently regarding the McKay conjecture – they'd reduced it to the FSGs? I can't remember now
McKay conjecture mentioned
[neuron activation]
But my point is that like, there's still a lot of work involved in this stuff. We don't get a free understanding of groups from the simple constituents at all, we really have to work hard to use it
And ofc there's nothing close to a list, like for FSGs
FSG standing for?
Finite simple group.
The acceptable acronym for groups. I once tried the same with Abelian ones and it didn't go down well
right
upon
anyway McKay conjecture is trivially true because I said so
You should write a paper on that
consider the fusion system of F_S(G) and F_S(N_G(S)) etc. etc.
A final comment: I don't think we're ever going to get a classification of finite groups beyond composition series; I truly think that's the best we're going to get.
Not justified well, just an opinion
https://webspace.maths.qmul.ac.uk/r.a.wilson/pubs_files/mckayweb.pdf the title of this paper goes hard
thought I'd share
the paper does not go hard. It's case checking on steroids
Oh ok I see
This is super slay
Thank you
Could you elaborate on the ‘power’ bit please tho?
Oh
Nvm I get that
Ok cool
Tu
Huh.
Hmm, you mean like there could be infinitely many ways to compose groups?
You can’t get all of the group’s properties by seeing how it decomposes
what is this set Z[i]?
{a+bi | a,b \in \Z}
is this anyway related to field extension?
The reason it popped up is I have seen motivation of complex numbers from a+ bsqrt(2), a,b in Q
sort of they incorporated just sqrt(2) on top of rationals
as in starting with Rationals and we want the to include sqrt(2)
further working its way to a+ib, to include sqrt(-1)
I mean it's the ring of integers in Q(i)
Example?
I'm thinking of a group which has a normal subgroup isomorphic to C_p, and the quotient is C_2.
C_p and C_2 are both simple, but am I thinking of C_{2p} or D_{2p}?
You're thinking of D_p 😌
It’s the latter because C_{2p} has a second decomposition with the factors swapped
Then how about a C2 as a normal subgroup with C2 as a quotient. Is that C4 or V4?
The former because V4 has three of them
This doesnt make sense
Could you classify groups of composition series length bounded by some integer k? When k=1 these are the finite simple groups
Well perhaps you can for specific values of k, but this is already a monumental task for just k=2.
To be fair, it's already a monumental task for k=1
Lol yes, but at least that task is complete
I can do k=0
I may just be ignorant, but I don't believe there is a complete understanding of extensions of the FSGs by FSGs, let alone a classification of these extensions up to isomorphism
Groump extemtiom promblem hard uwu
sure. But in principle, it smells possible
It smells more possible than k=3 lol
I mean for any given k. I have no proof, just an opinion lol. It would be pretty cool
but you would not be able to put all of them together
Maybe familiarize yourself with the k=1 case?
I wonder if there is a rigorous notion for what it means to classify stuff. I guess it's something like a finite number of constructions parametrized by tuples of integers (for example A_n, PSL_n(q), etc) and rules (again, a finite number of "schemas" or something) that say precisely when two instances of such constructions are isomorphic
Hey is there notation for the ring of fractions of an arbitrary integral domain R?
Frac(R)
Oh thank you!
In abstract algebra, the field of fractions of an integral domain is the smallest field in which it can be embedded. The construction of the field of fractions is modeled on the relationship between the integral domain of integers and the field of rational numbers. Intuitively, it consists of ratios between integral domain elements.
The field of...
I love the giant Z Wikipedia adds to every ring theory embed. It’s like a mark of shame
Given a rigorous definition of what it means to classify structures, you should be able to prove that groups are unclassifiable. I wonder if things like this have been attempted, or if they are treated in more generality in the context of model theory
Usually something like "Any X with property P is isomorphic to one of these families:"
mmh what gives hope is that if you look at groups of order p^n then their composition series length is n
Hope? This is one of the simplest possible cases, and we have nothing even close to a classification of p-groups!
C_p, C_p^2. Uhh Heis(F_p). C_p^2 \ltimes C_p. SD16. Uhhhhh yeah I think that’s all of them
is it? Most groups are p-groups, right? When you look at bounded composition length, there are not so many
Can't think of another one either, you should publish
Classification of p-groups would go so hard though. We’d probably get the isomorphism classes of all possible block algebras from it 😋
I'm trying to see how many groups of order p^n with n fixed are there as p varies, I think it's at most polynomial in p
Restricting to literally exactly one finite simple group — and an Abelian one too — in your composition series is about as simplified as we could get, yes!
Can I put a lil A_5 on that thang? As a treat
Wew can have little a A_5 as a treat
well yes but the fact that there are not so many p-groups of bounded composition series length at least gives hope, that is what I meant
Well that's not true either
it gives hope to me at least 
Most groups of order <= 1024 are of order 1024
I need to get the numbers here but I remember this tidbit
The point is, there are lots of p-groups
98% maybe. That might be 2048 though
Just SmallGroups it
https://oeis.org/wiki/Number_of_groups_of_order_n
Here's a list of # of isoclasses of groups, per order. Note how the numbers jump when you reach a prime power
but what is the exponent? This is where I'm getting at
Ah nope. Over 99% of all groups of order less than 2000 are order 1024
Even worse lol
A ten term composition series…. Think about what that does to a man…
1024 is 2^10. If you consider p^10, then the proportion of groups of order exactly p^10 in the set of groups of order <=p^10 is not as high as p gets larger, I think
but I could be wrong
It isn’t, purely because of 2-groups existing. If you exclude q-groups with q<p I imagine the proportions are still yucky gross ew
I have no idea how to count that but yeah I doubt
doubt what?
Doubt that it gets easier, as you predicted
I mean, it does
Sure
I rather attempt to classify all groups of composition series length 10 than all groups
Lmao
and as Wews said, if 2^k<p^10<2^(k+1) then you would expect most groups of order <=p^10 to be of order 2^k, not of order p^10
I feel like it actually only gets harder. C_2 has no automorphisms so if you even look at split extensions at the first factor there’s no choice to be made - this is not the case for p > 2.
although perhaps not. Good luck fitting C_p into C_p-1 non-trivially
Anyway, you have this. The problem is the O(m^(5/2)), it could depend on p (probably does), so this does not imply polynomial in p. Although it could still be, I don't know the details
I’d love to learn how people come up with these bounds
This is from Enumerating finite groups by Neumann, chapter 5
to give lower bounds, you just construct a shit ton of p-groups lol
My favourite!
Just fyi we don’t have a classification for p^8 yet iirc and p^7 was barely doable
https://inquirerslab.me/index.php/2023/12/21/dihedral-group-visualizer/
So I made this toy recently, wanted to share with my friends here as maybe someone will find it helpful as an educational aid. You can visualize dihedral groups of different orders and their various actions, and it will read the current state back to you so can also be used as a sort of calculator
Was pretty fun to write, it keeps track of the state as a matrix and uses some linear algebra tricks to decode whether it's currently a rotation or reflection etc
Conductor we have a problem
yeah once in a while it bugs out
Do you remember how you got that? Which group and which actions?
Uhh D_16 and no, sorry
I wasn’t really paying attention
Are you using a look up table to map the matrices back to the group elements
Hmm, seems like it's s4 that it has trouble with on D16
Gonna bet it's some tan(90) business
Nope, it computes eigenvalues and eigenvectors of the matrix, if one of the eigenvalues is -1 then it assumes it's a reflection and the other eigenvector gives the axis of reflection, then it uses that to find the angle. Otherwise it assumes it's a rotation and computes the angle etc
Then it figures out which element based on the angle
You really ought to represent the group, internally, purely symbolically. Once you've done so you can convert the abstract group element to a matrix — this is called a representation btw. This would be a much more computationally efficient and stable way to do this!
Yeah, it would probably be cleaner to do it that way, it's handy to have a matrix anyway though because it uses the state matrix when rendering and applies to the polygon and all the vertices
when you click an action it "interpolates" between the current state matrix and the new one
Yeah, I see the issue, should be an easy fix
Fixed now at least
Epic that someone found an issue 10 seconds after I posted, thanks for the beta testing 😎
thats cool ngl
Is this true? (From the Feit-Thompson theorem wikipedia article)
it sounds very ironic. I don't know why the proofs in pre 1960 group theory would be particularly short
17 page proofs... gross...
17 pages of a single dense proof or 17 pages of more theory about new definitions 
latter doesn't sound bad at all
Read the next section in the article. It points out that afterwards several longer proofs were published. But ofc 17 pages for a single proof is still pretty long
reformatting the classification of finite simple groups so it doesn't use any lemmas and it's literally just 11000 pages of dense bullshit
I was trying to solve this problem and decided to start from SL2 since from it to GL2 is easy
from the matrix
[a, c]
[b,d]
the determinant is ad - cb, which I want to be equal to 1
so
ad = 1 + bc
since both a and d can't be 0 at the same time I have p choices for a and p-1 choices for d
now I'd think that I'd have p choices for b and c would be uniquelly determined, so it should be p²(p-1), why is it p(p-1)(p+1)?
lol imagine it was
\begin{theorem}
blah blah
\end{theorem}
\begin{proof}
...several hundreds of thousands of lines...
\end{proof}```
since both a and d can't be 0 at the same time
sure about that?
is this for a or b
just b
I like a. So I'm going to give an answer for that one irregardless
yeah cus otherwise the matrix wouldn't be inverteble
OHH
Put ur vectors into a matrix... matrix is of full rank if and only if those vectors are linearaly indpeendant... full rank + square => invertible.. .bish bash bosh...
is [0 1; 1 0] invertible?
find me an inverse.. you can't//../.
despite having a = d = 0?
I highly recommend doing GL first
just fyi
there is a bijection between invertable matrices and bases
starting to think a is trying to tell me to do that
it's purely combinatorial and you don't need to worry about determinants... that comes later (dark night rises ref)
it might be!
well translating from GL2 to SL2 is as easy as
unless I have a terrible misunderstanding I'm not in the mood of solving
yes going both ways is easy
but working out |GL_2(F_p)| is far easier
just my opinion! no hate!
MODS
you're right tho!
anyway yeah. Just think about what choices you can make for an element in GL_2(p)
since (c,d) just can't be a multiple of (a,b)
I'm stupid
that's the only limitation that's way easier
see if you can work out the formulas for GL_n(p) from the same idea
hmhmuhmumh
it's slightly more tricky, as "a multiple of" becomes "a linear combination of" but they're still easy to count. Worry about n = 2 first though
still am not sure tho
(a, b) (c,d)
p choices for a and p-1 choices for b since if one is 0 the other can't
not true
(0,0) basis vector?
you can pick any pair (a,b) as long as you don't pick (0,0)
yes, but you've assumed a is non-zero
no
so you've left out columns/rows that look like (0, b)
so you need the p-1 of this form
noo don't say it
sorry!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
my hamster geraldine bartholomew VI ran across my keyboard
I was powerless to stop her
oh that sucks
now it's just factoring smh
tho I would have come to that conclusion probably
fret not, there is swag on the horizon
the sad thing about being me is that I can't just ignore that you made the challenge and move on with my life
tho ig I could do some induction
some
btw I really liked this problem love combinatorics specially in random stuff like algebra
induction irrelevant. Just keep applying the logic you came up with here
you have basically free choice for the first row right? it just has to be anything non-zero
oh so now we talking about zfc?
for the second row I'm sure you can tell me what condition you need
not be a multiple of the last one
so how many different third rows can you pick?
anything ah ah ah
mods
Is there something like LMFDB but for groups? There is groupprops but is more of a wiki
Yeshttps://www.lmfdb.org/
Welcome to the LMFDB, the database of L-functions, modular forms, and related objects. These pages are intended to be a modern handbook including tables, formulas, links, and references for L-functions and their underlying objects.
ok I googled it
The ATLAS of Finite Groups, often simply known as the ATLAS, is a group theory book by John Horton Conway, Robert Turner Curtis, Simon Phillips Norton, Richard Alan Parker and Robert Arnott Wilson (with computational assistance from J. G. Thackray), published in December 1985 by Oxford University Press and reprinted with corrections in 2003 (ISB...
right, that is probably helpful. Thanks
this is so cute I didn't know about this
It's a beeeg book too. Like not very thick but it's beeeg
like a real old atlas
ugly as sin typesetting, oh well
oh actually it's easier than what I was trying to do
I've never seen a physical copy unfortunately
or well no wait
no no it's p²
since to linearly combine 2 vectors I need to chose 2 coefficients
and since they are linearly independent I don't need to care about repetition
(that may seem obvious but I was very concerned about that)
In his lectures on yt, Benedict Gross said he would bring a copy to class one day for his students or something. I think he didn't, what a scam
wait the typesetting is fine
nvm I got fooled, it's just the introduction
Good luck
Let R be a finite ring with order n. Show that R is boolean iff the order of R[X] is n^2
How can I show that
Yes, each linear combination of two vectors can be associated to a pair (a, b) in F_p^2 so there are p^2 of them
so GL3:
(p³-1)(p³-p)(p³-p²)?
Yusssss
SO
Now just follow the pattern hahaha
I dunno if I buy this. R[X] is infinite order even if R is finite
thank you that was a good challenge I wouldn't have thought of doing myself genuinelly thank you
always apreciate a good math problem
But if the problem says iff there are exaclty n^2 polynomial functions f:R->R ?
@cloud solar are you talking about polynomials or polynomial functions?
Lol that explains it
there being only n^2 polynomial functions I believe
R[x] refers to polynomials in the sense of sequences of coefficients, and there are infinitely many (take 1, x, x^2, ... for example)
Right yeah. Obviously if everything is idempotent these would coincide
Anyway, if you want a hint: how can you use the fact a ring is boolean to simplify polynomial functions?
oh yeah computing # GL_n(F_p) is a good problem lol (above)
and a hint for the other direction: count polynomial functions of degree <=1
Well that hint sort of gives away what i wanted them to think about aha but sure
Not too big a hint anyway so it's fine
I modified it
I just wanted to kinda make sure they don't mix polynomials and polynomial functions
you can press shift to make things faster
wdym like deleting stuff?
yeah
thank
Yes sorry
Yeah now it is easy:))
;)
This encompasses Z/6 by CRT
If A is a finite ring, U(A) has order p prime, every element a in A\U(A) is nilpotent, and the number of nilpotent elements is >= the number of invertible elements then the ring A has 4 elements
I called N(A) the set of nilpotent elements
I took f:N(A)->U(A), f(x)=1+x
f injective and because A finite, f bijective so ord(N(A))=ord(U(A))=p
So the ring A has 2p elements
And I am trying to find a contradiction with p>=3
The group (A,+) cyclic isomoprhic with Z/2pZ
what does this mean?
They're asking you to describe the function in words. Calculate its values and see what you get.
You will see that x^2 - x is not its simplest description.
f sends [0] and [1] both to [0]
yeah
"note f(x) !=0"
we are treating f(x) as a formal element of R[x] is my understanding
so i dont get how to get a "simpler form" in this scnario
Yes, a polynomial is not a function!
No there's no ring homomorphism here
It's just a function
But yes, you can take a polynomial and get a function
(This is actually a ring homomorphism R[x] -> R^R now — the process of converting polynomials to functions)
the polynomial function is 0, is that right?
That's right.
cool, thanks
im also struggling on this one, 2.7 just says you have an injective ring homo from R to End_ab(R)
not sure how the hint solves the problem
if c is in the center of R, then I dont know how to prove that the left action of c on R is in the center of E
so charA={2,p,2p}
-if charA=2, then |A| is a power of 2, contradiction
-if charA=p, then |A| is a power of p, contradiction
-if charA=2p, then A is isomorphic to Z/2pZ (as a ring), but then |U(A)|=phi(2p)=p-1, contradiction
Is there any trick to memorizing upto isomorphisms in groups
Like any group of order 6 is isomorphic to either Z6 or S3
Experience
Another doubt
Isn't Z2 ⊕ Z2 ⊕ Z3 an upto isomophism for order 12
What does that mean
That is indeed a group of order 12, if that's what you're asking
whats an "upto isomorphism"
If you the usual "up to isomorphism problem" problem statements you are meant to list all isomorphism classes, and for abelian groups there is the nice friendly structure theorem finitely generated mo- I mean abelian groups
like how many different type of structures a group of certain order can have
like if you have a group of order 4 then it is either isomorphic to Z4 or Z2 ⊕ Z2
So you mean a list of groups up to isomorphism
yeah
but you said something very confusing
Isn't Z2 ⊕ Z2 ⊕ Z3 an upto isomophism for order 12
what was I supposed to say instead
This doesn't look like a list of all groups of order 12, up to isomorphism, to me.
That's what I'm asking you
I meant, isn't it one of the possible structures
Yes, as I said, it is a group of order 12
Alr
But this is confusing because you could have named any group of order 12
So this doesn't mean anything
Is there a pattern to it or do I just have to memorise
You just have to memorise, if you really want to.
I doubt you are expected to.
As kerr said, there is a nice way to do it for Abelian groups, but groups in general?
Nah
you should know some of the really low order ones, but past that, some are nice to know; but past that, no one's probably going to expect you to remember that
it helps with some problems like this
well you are given that G is cyclic, so you're just looking for subgroups of a cyclic group
Subgroups of Z12 basically
But this I figured because of upto isomorphism (i really don't know how to use that term exactly)
So I guess there is no trick to it I just have to memorise them all
well you know every subgroup of a cyclic group is also cyclic, so you can just go look at what each element generates
||but t he number of them is also just the number of divisors of 12||
When people talk about "Xs up to Y", they are talking about things in (let's say) a set X, and an equivalence relation Y on this set.
People talk about, for example, the integers up to equivalence modulo 2. If we want a list of all integers up to equivalence modulo 2, one list that works is 0 and 1. Another list is 3 and 16. This is because any integer is equivalent mod 2 to exactly one of the things in those lists.
When people ask you to count the groups of order 12 up to isomorphism, they are asking for a list of groups of order 12 such that any group of order 12 is isomorphic to exactly one of the groups you list.
Clear?
Another example is that the Jordan normal form allows you to classify matrices up to similarity.
Hey when someone talks about laurant polynomials with the notation Z[x,x^-1] does this include elements like 1/(x+x^2)?
x^-1+x^-2=(x+1)/x^2 right? Is it the case that laurant polynomials always have a monomial denominator?
Unless 1/(x^2+x) can be written as a sum of things of the form ax^n for a, n in Z, then no. I'm not motivated to check if it can be
Laurent polynomials look like $a_{-n}x^{-n} + \cdots a_0 + \cdots + a_mx^m$.
Boytjie
Thanks
Note it literally is just polynomials in x and its inverse
Rather than just being more ad hoc notation
I am kind of confused, p(x) has a zero, why it also can be a irreducible factor of f(x)? if p(x) has zero, then p(x) has a root, existence of roots imply reduciblity. Do I misunderstand something?
irreducible factor in F[X]
is it correct to say that p(x) is reducible in f(x)?
no
it's an irreducible factor in F[x], not in the extension
f(x) is some random polynomial, but eventually if you keep dividing you get to an irreducible factor. Its either a linear polynomial or something more complex
so p(x) is in F[x], and it is irreducible in F[X], but it might be reducible in extension field like F[x]/<p(x)>, and that's why p(x) can have a zero, is that true?
to make p(x) become reducible at extension field?
to make it have a zero
Yup. It may be handy to think of examples.
For example, the polynomial t^2 + 3 is irreducible over R. But in the extension R[t]/(t^2 + 1) - which we may identify with the complex numbers - our polynomial splits as (t + sqrt(3)x)(t - sqrt(3)x)
how do i find tbe order of elements in ℤ/Nℤ
like for rxample the equivalence class of -1 in Z/36Z
Happy new year, guys!
You can just count how many -1 can be added to get 0 in Z36, it should be -1*36=-36=-36+36=0 in Z36, so order is 36
Do you know mod, if you know mod, then just count how many times an element can be added in order to get 0. choose an element k in Z/nZ, and a*k= multiple of 36, where a is the smallest number you need in order to achieve multiple of 36(a means order)
Do we actually need to include -1 in the set of generators for Q8? it's already produced by the other generators right?
Hm well you would also have to add in that (-1)^2 = 1 right
Or smth
Idk this looks a lil odd to me
maybe im weird
Wdym
xxxx with x replaced with "-1" seems really cursed to me
What I mean is that if we are just viewing -1 as a symbol there doesn't seem to be enough
thats also what i mean, i just find it funny
Oh okay
Hm do you automatically have that -1 is central then though
How does one prove that -1 is in the center here?
Ah wait, nvm. Quite obvious
You just need
< i, j, k | i^2 = j^2 = k^2 = ijk >
and define -1 = i^2.
how would you reduce i^4 to 1 with that presentation?
1 is the empty word, -1 really isnt a thing on its own
Kerr: The same way with this presentation
that would be?
all relations either keep the length constant or even increase it. There is none that could take a word of length n>0 to 0 as far as I can see
I dont want to be pedantic just genuinely asking. Worst case we just need one final relation
Yea I think this one needs some thoughts
Hmm
So ijk^(-1) = 1 here
similarly
jki^(-1) = 1
kij^(-1) = 1
So ki k jk^(-1) = 1
Which means ikj = 1.
Now k = ij, so you get the desired one
Ye
Representation theory would have saved much hassle but >.>
nope combinatorics land here
How so?
why do rings require ableian group under addition? maybe a motivation to the axiom?
Like why should it necessarily be abelian?
Or why it should be a group?
abelian
I think a lot of it comes from wanting to generalize a lot about the integers
There are ways to make examples of such structures, but I'm not aware of a situation where one arises naturally such that we'd want theory about how they behave.
even if I didn’t ask for abelian group under addition, integers would still fit in right?
it’s there but you are not asking it
Yes, the integers would still be an example, but there's less you can prove about the general class of such structures.
(The main point of the constructions I could quickly google up seems to have been just to show that x+y=y+x is not a deductive consequence of the other ring axioms).
is there properties of ring, in which we specifically tweak the abelian axiom?
Commutativity is really really nice.
Makes sense
Almost any interesting example of a ring would have addition being commutative.
In "near-rings" you drop x+y=y+x and also drop one of the distributive laws so you have x(y+z) = xy+zy but not necessarily (x+y)z = xz+yz. The are enough of a thing that they have a name, but I have no idea what they're good for.
makes sense
Hmm, one example of the latter would be the set of all maps from a group to itself, with pointwise application of the group operation as "addition" and function composition as "multiplication".
rings are also monoid objects in Ab
How does that work
A map A ⊗ A → A is precisely a distributive multiplication. The monoid axioms are equivalent to associativity and unitality.
Or if your question was a more general "what's a monoid object" then that's a category theory thing that you can look up. It generalizes monoids and rings and a bunch of other things.
i'm strugling with 5
more specifically with finding a x^n power that is the inverse of another y^k
and both k and n are positive integers
If x^n is in H, then (x^-1)^n is in H too.
yes but is that going to have a positive n?
likely i would have to take into account the different cases I gather?
It's the same n in (x^-1)^n as in x^n. If was positive when you raised x to it, it will also be positive when you raise x^-1 to it.
ohh ok
How exactly am I to interpret the $x_1^{\phi(h_1) x_2}$ business in this composition law?
Nomad
Just not sure what the notation means. Guessing that psi(h_1) x_2 means image of x_2 under the automorphism, but as a superscript of x_1?
So superscript is a typo?
yea
Yeah I guess that would make sense
arithmetic theory of quadratic forms
is this proof that (2,x) is not a principal ideal in Z[x] right?
(2,x) is all polynomials with even constant term. If it is generated by say r, then r must be constant since 2 \in (2,x). If r is even then (r) dosent include x+2 and if r is odd then (r) includes the constant polynomial r, both contradictyions
Yes good
Essentially this is just saying that 2 and x have no common factor
Challenge question: show that all maximal ideals of Z[x] are of the form (p,x) for p a prime
oh lol
i see that now
is that an iff though?
like if (f,g)=(d) then d is a common factor of f,g but is the converse true?
(p,x) are all polynomials with constant term multiple of p. Suppose I is an ideal containing (p,x). Then I contains a polynomial with constant term pq+d where 0<d<p. Since I is abelian wrt +, d is in I. But then we have (d) \in I and (d)+(p)=Z since gcd(d,p)=1 thus I=Z[x]
That shows (p,x) is maximal - yup. My question was showing every maximal ideal is of that form
ohh
Also, btw it's easiest to think in terms of quotients. There's an isomorphism $\mathbb Z[x]/(p,x) \simeq \mathbb F_p$ which shows $(p,x)$ is maximal - try filling in details
potato
where does this isomorphism come from
It is a good short exercise
(hint: anytime you have an isomorphism involving s quotient, consider using the first isomorphism theorem)
send to constant term mod p?
does this not do that
well yes but that's not all it does
right so then by homomorphism properties this forces the image of polynomials to be the same as all other polynomails with same constant term mod p
which gives the nessecary equivalence classes
Homomorphism has the word homo in it
a group G acting on C^2 is generated by https://i.ibb.co/Lrn1YX7/image.png, what's the order of the group G?
ah my apologises, I thought you meant the quotient was sending a_0+a_1x+...+a_nx^n to (a_0 mod p)+a_1x+...+a_nx^n as opposed to just a_0 mod p, which is correct
why does this show (p,x) is maxcimal?
If R is a ring and I and ideal, then I is maximal (resp. prime) iff R/I is a field (resp. Integral domain)
Important fact
you can prove this yourself
nice
it's not too bad
hint: ||correspondence theorem||
ye i got it
also u can get this via the 3rd iso theorem instead
Z[x]/(p,x) = (Z[x]/(x)) / ((p,x)/(x)) = Z/((p,x)/(x)) = Z/pZ
Sure, but you prove 3rd iso basically by doing this sort of 1st iso argument
Try computing the order of I and J, try computing IJ and JI. Maybe you're able to compute all the elements of G.
Thanks!
still thinking abt this
should i try and show Z[x] is noetherian?
so i can be more concrete
like i can talk about a max ideal in terms of its generators
i don't think it really helps cause it can be a mess
like knowing an ideal is fg doesn't seem to help you know it's generated by 2 elements hm
Oh sorry I messed up, I mean (p,f(x)) where f(x) is irreducible mod p
o
Though I now realise the way I would prove it is overkill
Yeah I now realise the proof I know uses the fact Z, Z[x] are Jacobson lol but you can also write it elementarily
i found a proof online
lol
yeah not something i can do lol
Huh
I thought you'd use F_p[X] being a PID
how did you prove it kerr?
eh the idea isnt bad actually
/ would you
I didnt, I hallucinate it as showig that Z[X]/(p,f) = F_p[X]/f. Since F_p[X] is a PID and f is irreducible mod p, it is maximal
that is (again lol) the converse of what i'm asking aha
i'm asking that every maximal can be written in that form
oh right
Idk how I could compute prime ideals of a UFD
I kinda assumed we had the shape of prime ideals in the bag
Like do we have generators which are irreducible
Given a prime ideal just go through the cases. If p \cap Z the zero ideal? Then localize and so on
Oh lol i just tried doing it and my proof ends up being more or less theirs but yeah with localisation
Wait
localization my beloved
So (3, x-1) is not a maximal ideal?
kerr if you're interested it was like
that is a prime ideal
I mean
That is a maximal ideal.
Yea
idk what you would fit into it. (p,f(x)) is as large as it gets
If so, you need some adjustments
Indeed
Ah yep, now I recall this proof in my undergrad algebra. Elementarily, you can use content
The prime ideals should look like:
(p) with p prime number
(f) with f irreducible in Q, hence Z.
(p,f) with f mod p not equal to zero
Let $\mathfrak m \subseteq Z[x]$ be a maximal ideal. $\mathfrak m \cap \mathbb Z$ is a prime of $\mathbb Z[x]$. If non-zero, then image in $\mathbb F_p[x]$ is prime and non-zero, so a poly irred mod $p$ etc. If $\mathfrak m \cap \mathbb Z = 0$, then $\mathfrak m$ corresponds to a non-zero prime ideal of $\mathbb Q[x]$ and you get a contradiction
potato
Eh that is the same but i thought about Q in a different way lol
The nice proof is that Z[x] -> Z is a surjection of Jacobson rings so it sends maximals to maximals
so in particular m intersect Z is pZ for non-zero p
uh, do you need that to see that m \cap Z must be prime?
like, you have graded structure here to see that it must be prime
No, that's easy
so its either zero or maximal
Maximal part does need Jacobson ring
Yeah
Prime is easy and just assumed as a known fact in my original thing
But Jacobson is needed to send maximals to maximals which cuts out one of the cases (the harder one)
But the only non-zero prime ideals are maximal is what I mean
Yeah
I don't get your point
Like sure that's what I assume in my original proof
Okay actually I omitted that line lmao sorry
If it's non-zero [then it's pZ]
I just dont see the necessity for jacobson rings
bracketed is what i meant to add
Jacobson is needded for sending maximals to maximals
like, it means we know m intersect Z is non-zero
to rule out the 0 case?
Why cant you argue that if the intersection was zero that you could add any p?
I think otherwise you have to apply Gauss' lemma and stuff, which is sort of related to Jacobson property
Yeah that's how it'd go without the Jacobson thing
Oh
Like image in Q[x] is an irred poly over Q with coeffs in Z i.e. irred poly of Z
so that you get (f) and then Z[x]/f isn't maximal
Yeah for a generalized proof for some either type of ring jacobson would be nice
But yeah that uses Gauss' lemma and then you still have to do that last step ye
I forget stuff about Jacobson rings lol
Okay.
Only difference is that I personally prefer to minimally modify the proof to just outright show how all prime ideals look like
Just because I needed that not too long ago
Most of the time these type of questions come down to doing some clever manipulations/constructions or neither and then using localizations and quotients to extract insight
they can still end up hard though, especially if you for example forget that maximal ideals have the property that either x is in M or 1-xy is for some y.
Woah
Where can I learn this
Should all be found in a decent comm alg text
Did I not read e.g. lang algebra properly
what do you want to learn?
The decent intuitions about connections like this.
ah, the book famous for its pedagogy
I mean if you seen all the proofs then it comes down to practice
,ask Gauss lemma 
wrong gauss lemma
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Perhaps try rephrasing your question?
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Polynomial in Z[X] is irreducible iff irreducible in Q[X], here the dollar store statement
I mean, 2x is reducible in Z[x], but I recalled what it was. Thank you!
"a finite set of integers has a gcd" wow.
"have you tried clearing the denominator?"
Sorry, but I cannot see this
Question : Let n be an integer. How many fixed points on {1, . . . , n} a does permutation belonging to S_n have on average? Check it for n = 4 by explicit calculations
I did this:
4 = 4 (0 fixed point) there is a 3! cycles product which gives this partition
4 = 3 + 1 (1 fixed point) there is a 2!0! cycles product which gives this partition
4 = 2 +2 (0 fixed point) there is a 1!1! cycles product which gives this partition
4 = 2 + 1 +1 (2 fixed point) there is a 1!0!0! cycles product which gives this partition
4 = 1 +1 + 1 +1 (4 fixed point) there is a 0!0!0!0! cycles product which gives this partition
But I don't know what to do next. Could someone explain it to me in detail and step by step, please?
what did you get for n=4?
I got 1 if I didn't mess up
If you know linearity of average/expectation it is easy
show
Please can someone explain to me step by step and gently
- How many permutations of S_n are there that fix exactly k elements?
- say the number above is f(k), then you want to find (f(0)+f(1)+....+f(n))/n!
wait this is annoying
cuz you would need derangements lol
Let $\chi$ be the permutation character of the action, then it’s a commonly known result that $\chi = 1+$ the standard rep (the action on n vectors fixes the subspace spanned by the sum of each basis vector) hence $\langle \chi, 1 \rangle = \frac{1}{|S_n|}\sum_{g \in S_n} \chi(g) =1$, but the sun is exactly the average number of fixed points and we are done
W;3w Lads Tbh
*sum not sun
Doesn’t burnsides lemma tell you that the average number of fixed points is the number of orbits
And clearly S_n acts transitively on your set
So one orbit => 1 fixed point on average
Calculate the number of permutations that fix a given element. Then add all of them and divide by n!
You're skipping a lot of steps if you're already at Burnside's lemma to answer this question
I have already the correction
What
I’m skipping no steps unless you want me to prove burnsides lemma each time I use it
My teacher uses the lemma only at the end to average. There is some reasoning to be had before that that I need to understand
The reasoning is the proof of burnsides lemma lol
I am wondering if F is a field, and f(x) is in F[x]. When Char F=0, and f(x)=a0 where a0 is a constant, why we say f(x) is reducible here? I am considering a0 has a unit, so it should be irreducible here.
I need to understand the reasoning for this question because it's been 3 weeks I haven't understood
Go understand the proof of burnsides. This is a basic application of it
@steel pulsar
Irreducible elements generate maximal ideals. Units do not
*in PIDs
The number of permutations in S_n is n! that's it ?
so in S_4 is 4!
No, calculate the number of permutations that fix one element
Like you want to calculate $#{(x, \sigma)\in [n]\times S_n\c \sigma(x)=x}/n!$
Croqueta
when you fix x, calculating the number of pairs (x,sigma) as above is easy, so you can just sum over x
do you have an example ?
why do you want an example? Isn't this concrete enough?
for me it's abstract
It is not
In fact I don't know how to calculate the permutations of a fixed element
In fact, this is a situation where specializing to some n will fool you, because you may be led to think that cycle decompositions will help (as you did above), when in reality makes things more difficult
ok, so start there
If you know how to calculate the number of permutations on n elements you should be able to do that
Doesn't your definition of irreducible state a number not being a unit?
btw [n]={1,2,3,...,n}, in case it's notation you are not familiar with
ok
nonzero, non-uinit element is reducible
?
a0 is unit in F, so f is irreducible, so I don't know why it is reducible
Doesn't that involve counting a lot of permutations multiple times
I am wondering that constant is a unit in a field
yes? but so what
Can someone explain to me how we calculate the permutation for a given element, please?
Calculate the number of permutations of S_n that fix 1
I say that I don't know how to calculate the number of permutations of a given element, you tell me to calculate the number of permutations of a given element x)
You were gifted a brain, like all of us here. Use it
Yes, there are things that I understand and others that I don't understand
For that, it's been 3 weeks I haven't understood
Take some more time to work out what you've been suggested above
Otherwise you might as well read a solution online
you don't understand, I already have the solution
here is the solution