#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 192 of 1
Actually s stands for symmetry obviously
But u right that doesnt make much sense either
It probably depends
Yeah now that I think about it even infinite sum is a bit problematic
Like in a case such that the coefficient for a monomial term doesn’t converge
I’m grading some assignment and they need to prove every nonzero ideal in R[[x]] is of the form (x^n)
Instead of the easy way this guy’s doing infinite product
I feel very iffy
Yeah you can't do that
At least if this guy's using that, he needs to justify that it works in that specific case
I don't think it ever does though unless almost all factors are constants and then they should either be eventually all 1s or have a topology
Ah maybe not since degree isn't additive with power series
Let G be a finite group of cardinal n. Show that G is isomorphic to a subgroup of Sn
I don't understand how to do that, even with the correction under my eyes...
Consider how elements of G act on G
And why ? What in the question tells you that you need to do this?
I.e., think about what type of a mapping x -> ax with some a in G
but I have the correction it's not the problem, I don't understand
Well it tells you to show that G is isomorphic to the group Sn and the latter consists of bijections from an n-element set to itself, so it could be useful to come up with a way of viewing the elements of G as such mappings
the latter consists of bijections from an n-element set to itself
where do you see this?
What definition of Sn are you using?
Sn has a particular definition? I thought it was just a notation like that
Sn is the group of permutations, i.e., bijections from {1, ..., n} to {1, ..., n}
my teacher says that :
We consider the map τ: G → S_G given by the action of G on itself by
translations: g 7 → (τg : x 7 → g ∗ x). It is a morphism of groups: τg∗h = τg ◦ τh. It's a
injection, from inverse to left σ 7 → σ(e). The group G is isomorphic to the subgroup τ(G) ⊆ S_G.
By arbitrarily numbering the elements of G = {g1, . . . , gn}, we also have an isomorphism
S_n ≃ S_G given by σ 7 → (gi 7 → gσ(i)). In conclusion, G is isomorphic to a subgroup of S_n
Right, they considered how G acts on itself like I said
but if
Sn is the group of permutations, i.e., bijections from {1, ..., n} to {1, ..., n}
what is Sg ?
$S_X$ is the group of permutations from $X$ to $X$, so $S_G$ and $S_n$ will be isomorphic given $G$ has the same cardinality as ${ 1, \dots, n }$, i.e., cardinality $n$
A Lonely Bean
This makes sense because in a group of permutations we are considering the ways to rearrange a set of objects, what the objects themselves are is irrelevant
Any particular source of confusion?
All
Let G be a finite group of cardinal n. Show that G is isomorphic to a subgroup of Sn
I don't understand the question, I don't know what they want us to demonstrate, I don't understand is it necessary to use specific definitions from the course
typically you ask me that, it's total blankness in my head
if you have a group G of size n you want to find a homomorphism G->S_n, a subgroup H of S_n, and an isomorphism G=H
if you can construct a homomorphism G->S_n which is injective, then this subgroup H will just be the image of this homomorphism
it's helpful to think about S_n as permutations of G, and then you can construct such a homomorphism by letting G act on itself in a natural way...
Are you saying that if we find a homomorphism then we find an isomorphism?
or to find an isomorphism you must first find a homomorphism?
if we find a homomorphism G->S_n with certain properties (namely that it's injective) then you can find the desired isomorphism easily from this
And is this the course that says that? How do you know that ?
I mean this is just a basic property of (injective) homomorphisms
if it's not explicitly mentioned in the course it's something you should be able to think through
like if you have a one-to-one map of sets then you can identify the domain isomorphically with its image
and how do we found a homomorphisme G -> S_n?
for me it doesn't seem intuitive
think of S_n as Sym(G) (the set of permutations G->G of the underlying set of G)
a natural way you can let G act on itself by permutations is like
send an element g of G to the permutation l_g:G->G that acts by left multiplication by g, in other words l_g(h)=gh
you can (and should) check that this is an actual permutation of the underlying set of G
and then you can (and should) check that this construction gives you a homomorphism G->Sym(G)
and then you just have to check that this homomorphism is injective and you're done
Ok I don't understand much. It's difficult for me.
I'll drop this question, thanks for trying to help me
this question is somewhat important for thinking about group actions
but there's probably a language barrier unfortunately
Sad, G -> S_n is like one of the key connections of groups
Esp. as how it primarily interacts, i.e. by group action
Definitions are also hard to recall, meh
Yea, that could be great!
Also it might help to work with concrete examples. Like cyclic groups, dihedral groups, and Q_8.
If k is in gH, that means k = gh for some h. Now, what is k^-1, does it live in some right coset?
Let n be an integer. How many fixed points on {1, . . . , n} a does permutation belonging to Sn have on average? Check it for n = 3 and n = 4 by explicit calculations
for n = 4 I said that
4 = 4 (0 fixed point)
4 = 3 + 1 (1 fixed point)
4 = 2 +2 (0 fixed point)
4 = 2 + 1 +1 (2 fixed point)
4 = 1 +1 + 1 +1 (4 fixed point)
but in the correction they say
I don't understand how they give the cycle products for each partition
If you have n elements, there are (n-1)! factorial ways to cycle them. Because if you fix one element as the "starting element", then each way of permuting the others gives a cycle.
So to find the number of permutations that break into a 3-cycle and a 1-cycle for example, you take the number of ways to split 4 elements into 3+1 (there are 4 such ways) and multiply by the number of ways to cycle each (3-1)! (1-1)! = 2. So there are 8 such permutations.
Wait why do you say they are divided into 3 cycles and 1 cycles. Why 2 at the same time?
4 = 4 (0 fixed point)
4 = 3 + 1 (1 fixed point)
4 = 2 +2 (0 fixed point)
4 = 2 + 1 +1 (2 fixed point)
4 = 1 +1 + 1 +1 (4 fixed point)
One permutation = One cycle, no?
Wait, let me rephrase my question
4 = 4 here I have one element so (4-1)! ways to cycle
A permutation can be written as a product of disjoint cycles. There can be more than one.
For example the permutation that send 1 -> 2, 2->1, 3->4 and 4->3 is the product of two 2-cycles
4 = 3 +1 here I have two elements so (3-1)!(1-1)! way to cycle
Yes, that's right
and why in this question is it important to give the product of cycles which gives each partition? We do not care ?
Well, it's useless to answer the question.
wait no it's not right
4 = 4 here I have one element so (4-1)! ways to cycle
the element = 1 so is (1 - 1)!
4 = 3 +1 here I have two elements so (3-1)!(1-1)! way to cycle
the element is =2 so (2-1)!
I don't understand what you mean by "the element = 1"
Yes, they do calculate some redundant information. No point in calculating stuff you then immediately multiply by 0 😛
ok so here the element n is not 1 is 4 ?
last question
how do they calculate the average number of fixed points?
in the last image
The partition 4=4 corresponds to a single 4-cycle. So you're cycling 4 elements
There are eight (3+1)-cycles, having one fixed point each, six transpositions, having two fixed points each and one identity element having 4 fixed points.
8*1 + 6*2 + 1*4 = 24
Divide by 4! to get the average
There are eight yes
(123), (132), (124), (142), (134), (143), (234) and (243)
Not sure where you're getting 7 from
I note them like this:
4 = 4 (0 fixed point)
4 = 3 + 1 (1 fixed point)
4 = 2 +2 (0 fixed point)
4 = 2 + 1 +1 (2 fixed point)
4 = 1 +1 + 1 +1 (4 fixed point)
and Why (3+1) cycles ant not (1+1+1+1) cycles ? or (2+2) cycles ?
You have to count all the cycles
(or I guess you can skip the ones that have 0 fixed points)
that's not what I said..
You asked why not 1+1+1+1 cycles. I'm saying you have to count them as well
but you say that all cycles are (3+1) cycles
No, that's not what I'm saying at all
I'm saying there are eight permutations, that correspond to the 3+1 partition
4 = 4 (0 fixed point)
4 = 3 + 1 (1 fixed point)
4 = 2 +2 (0 fixed point)
4 = 2 + 1 +1 (2 fixed point)
4 = 1 +1 + 1 +1 (4 fixed point)
and here you see that there are 7 fixed points and not 8
0 + 1 + 0 + 2 + 4 = 7
So that gives you 8*1 fixed points
Here you're only counting one of the eight (3,1)-cycles
Ok I don't understand anything
You know that there are 4! = 24 permutations in S4, right?
yes
And that each of them can break down as a product of cycles
But what's the point of writing permutation if you don't use them?
It's all confusing for me: partition, permutation, cycles
Now, one question you could ask is how many break down as the disjoint product of a 3-cycle and a 1-cycle
Are you confused about what each of the three words mean?
No I'm confused because we have an exercise, we write things down that we don't use
4 = 4 (0 fixed point) 4 = 3 + 1 (1 fixed point) 4 = 2 +2 (0 fixed point) 4 = 2 + 1 +1 (2 fixed point) 4 = 1 +1 + 1 +1 (4 fixed point)
that for example we don't use it
When ?
Throughout.
Like you identify how many fixed points a permutation has, depending on how it's partitioned into cycles (that's what's written).
Then you count how many permutations correspond to each partition.
Then you add it all up.
I wrote the partitions of 4 and for each partition I wrote the products of cycles.
4 = 4 (0 fixed point) there is a 3! cycles product which gives this partition
4 = 3 + 1 (1 fixed point) there is a 2!0! cycles product which gives this partition
4 = 2 +2 (0 fixed point) there is a 1!1! cycles product which gives this partition
4 = 2 + 1 +1 (2 fixed point) there is a 1!0!0! cycles product which gives this partition
4 = 1 +1 + 1 +1 (4 fixed point) there is a 0!0!0!0! cycles product which gives this partition
After writing this normally I should be able to calculate the average fixed number of points
How?
So your missing one step. The number 2!0! counts how many cycles you can make when you have picked the groupings of 3 and 1 element. But you also need to account for the 4 ways to pick such a grouping
jagr2808
Once you have that you just multiply
4*2!0!*1 + ... + (number of groupings) (number of ways to cycle) (number of fixed points)
and divide by the total number of permutations
Each such permutation has 1 fixed point
4 = 2 + 1 +1 (2 fixed point) there is a 1!0!0! cycles product which gives this partition
why 6 ?
Right, so this gives you
6*1!0!0!*2
6 is the number of ways to pick out a group of 2 and two groups of 1, from 4 objects
1 /2 is not 2
do you have an example pls?
(12, 3, 4), (13, 2, 4), (14, 2, 3), (23, 1, 4), (24, 1, 3), (34, 1, 2)
Are all six such groupings
At this point just write out all 24 lol
I think it might be the language barrier, I don't understand
I'll check on a discord in my native language...
thanks for the help, sorry again
No worries.
A fun way to prove the general statement: ||if you pick a random permutation, the probability that any particular element is 1/n. By linearity of expectation, the average number of elements that are fixed are n*1/n = 1||
Less fun way: ||Burnside's lemma says the average number of fixed points equals the number of orbits, and there is 1 orbit||
Is there a name for non-commutative rings where the only two-sided ideals are {0} and the whole ring?
Simple rings
Thanks.
Famously under some mild conditions, all such things are matrix rings of some division ring, ofc
Interesting.
Fartin wedderburn I presume
Yeah exactly
If your simple ring is artinian you get this
But iirc there are simple rings which are narsty... I cannot think of any examples off the top of my head
It is quite funny to think that not every simple ring is semisimple lol
Lol
It came up in an exam for me to show simple rings are semisimple under some conditions and I felt very silly realising I'd never tried to prove that lol
Do you recall the conditions
WHAT
OK so apparently the Weyl algebra is an example of a non-Artinian simple algebra. And it's not semisimple. Tadah
I think these were all k-algebras of finite dimension
so like artinian is probably enough
Right
Artinian is definitely enough!
Fartinian
actually this is smth funny I found like I think thebcourse deliberately said f.d. k-algebra to avoid having to introduce the artinian condition etc
Valid tbh
Yeah this was mostly a rep theory course anyway
Let V be infinite dimensional vector space, let R be End(V) and let I be the ideal of maps with dimension of the image strictly less than the dimension of V. Then R/I is a simple non-artinian ring
If anything non-artinian rings are a great source of counterexamples
I think both of these examples are non-Noetherian though. So it begs the question, does Noetherian+simple imply artinian?
Nvm, Weyl algebra is Noetherian
that's quite cool
It's pretty cool.
You have a group homomorphism GL(2, C) to functions on the Riemann sphere given
[a, b; c, d] |-> (ax + b)/(cx + d)
These are the möbiustransformations.
damn
I've heard of mobius transformations some time
Notably, a Möbius transformation is uniquely determined by its value at any three different points.
hey
to come back to this question
Let G be a finite group of cardinal n. Show that G is isomorphic to a subgroup of Sn
Hint: look at the left regular representation of G
Can someone try to explain to me again by details? please ?
corrections are at the top
Can you reply to what you’re responding to
I remember doing some of that in complex analysis
For conformal mappings or something
I forgot a lot of that course tho tbh
use the fact that multiplication by some g in G is a permutation of G
I had a final project on this for my topology class!
hi im unsure if this is the right place to ask, but im looking for clarification on a definition: A solvable group has a normal chain with abelian factors; does this chain have to be finite, or can it be infinite?
it has to be finite
infinite groups can strangely have a solvable series which never stabilises but in a rigorous sense stabilises at infinity
there was a name for them I forgot
thank youu that makes this problem im trying to solve much easier
Depending on how to define finite and infinite in this context
Sometimes what you really mean is the chain "stabilizes"
So there exists some N > 0 where for every group G_n in the chain with n > N, G_n = G_N
So it's infinite but stabilizes
What I'm saying is nothing more important than just semantics
you could equivalently require that the inclusion is proper, but then you lose nice chain properties
and there he goes
??? what are you talking about ???
Too late, I burned everything into my retinas
that is extremely confusing, congradulations
What properties?
idk
I have abstract algebra final exam tomorrow aaaaah
Real
literally looked up the definition of a principal ideal a few minutes ago
for the first time

Umm
thanks brother
so anyways a field is
where division makes sense
But not really division cause we don't have that operation
every non-zero element is a unit
Alright can someone explain why we need commutativity to hold in a field?
by definition
fancy way of saying every element that isn't 0 is invertible
?
ik but what motivates it
linear algebra doesn't work the same over division rings (non-commutative fields)
and we'd like vector spaces to be over fields
you want the space of linear maps between modules to be a module
that only happens with commutative rings
all ik is
that feels far too advanced for someone who struggled to remember the definition of an integral domain
no offense
*field
a field is just a commutative integral domain
that is absolutely not true by any metric
I can name thousands of commutative integral domains that are not fields
you shouldn't worry about this, and instead do computational exercises
^
wait what's a field extension
integral domains are already commutative btw
I can name infinitely many
so a field is just an integral domain where every element is unit except 0
there aren't infinitely many. The Z[x_1,...]s stop after Z[x_1, ... x_563]
Yeah but then u start adjoining y
you made that up
what are the most popular fields?
Q, R, C
data science
F_p for p prime
machine learning
lol
F_n gets no love
wait what's F_p again
Z/pZ
oh so just Zp with division
? what
Z mod p
no it's just Z/pZ
there's no "division" operation that magically gets added to fields?
no
still this is worrying me
Z/pZ has multiplicative inverses just as is
you don't need to add them in
?
feel that? that's true
billion dollar question how is this useful
If M is finitely generated, then isn't it noetherian?
OH WAIT were you the same person who remarked that aa was just a collection of random topics
omg
you know im right
Noetherian modules are "finite" in flavour
Imagine dealing with non-Noetherian rings
it really isn't. It's all triangles
we literally gave a bunch of applications below and you never responded
not if R isn't notherian
Yeh cause im not on discord all day
also bro you're not gonna get that much enjoyment out of this stuff if you can't recall the basic definitions
it's just gonna be a pain in the ass
I gotta touch grass in actual fields
for example, R is finitely generated as a module over itself but R isn't noetherian lol
not grass in Z/pZ
LMFAO
grass doesn't grow on rings
that's actually pretty funny
it is
it isn't really
char p grass 
a field?
purple diagrams?
Good luck tomorrow
an abelian grape
you know I think it's not bad
like we barely did anything with fields
except try to construct F4 or F25
I don't think we did anything interesting besides making fields of certain sizes
hewwo tubu 
Hello det
How do abelian grapes taste compare to non abelian grapes
chmuwu

Hewwo det 
They taste better, they have a more well rounded flavor profile cuz the flavors drive around your various taste buds in a car
(They are commuting)
W
i thought they tasted less interesting since they're always stuck in the center
🎵 when you eat your non-abelian smarties do you eat the red ones last? 🎵
(sorry I had to)
dont eat nonabelian grapes and drive
it's not really clear to me why this is true - isn't this equivalent to the claim that R is finitely generated?
I really don't know how to make this clearer to you
it's just the definition of each term
maybe i misread the original sentence wrong
R is sums of the form ab
linear combinations of a basis are sums of the form ab
like
so it's an L_2-vector space, so if we have a basis B, then every element in R can be written as a sum of terms that look like l_2b
if this basis also generates L_1, then each b is in L_1, so this is a subspace of R. But since the basis generates all of L_1 this subspace must just be all of R
hm ok
let $a_i\in L_1$, $b_i\in L_2$. let $c_j$ be a basis of $L_1/K$. then there exist $\gamma_{ij}$ such that $a_i = \sum_j\gamma_{ij}c_j$, and
[ \sum_i a_ib_i = \sum_i \sum_j\gamma_{ij}c_jb_i ]
quasi_semi_group
the $\gamma_{ij}$ are in $K$, and so in particular for each $j$, $\sum_i\gamma_{ij}b_i$ is in $L_2$, and the sum is
[ \sum_j\left(\sum_i\gamma_{ij}b_i\right)c_j ]
quasi_semi_group
this idea of a "double decomposition" comes up occasionally it's a good thing to keep in your mind
yeah some tower theorem shenanigans
If F/k is an arbitrary field extension, is Vect_F categorically equivalent to Vect_k? My assignment seems to assume so.
(Or is M_n(F) fails to become a k-algebra)
Uhhh I think so?
Definitely for finVect lol, just take skeletons
There’s almost definitely a theorem about morita equivalence of field extenstions that I just don’t know
How do I construct functor finVect_R -> finVect_Q, especially the map between morphisms?
That sounds very non-constructable if I’m being honest
Or at least I’m not going to figure it out at 3am
They’re equivalent because their skeletons are both isomorphic to the poset category (N, <=)
I don't think these can possibly be equivalent, how are you getting a fully faithful functor if the hom sets are so different
Am I getting confused again
FinVect is finite dimensional vector spaces right?
Yes
Did the original question just say non-transcendental field extension or something
R is infinite dimensional extension over Q
that's ringing alarm bells already for me
I feel like things already go wrong if you have a nontrivial extension
so how could these be equivalent
Nah, it is just what I came up, because it seems like it satisfies the condition of assigment
I don’t know what that is
Oh yea, no specification of non-transcendental
So a non-algebraic(transcendental) extension is permitted.
Ok then I just don’t believe this result anymore lol
yea I'm sure you can get a counterexample here
@prisma ibex do you know anything about morita equivalence of field extensions
Wait are your fields finite? @cobalt heath
No such restrictions.
Hmm
uhhh two commutative rings are isomorphic iff they are Morita equivalent
Well there we go then
so this cannot possibly be true for fields
Given a cyclotomic polynomial $\Phi_p(x)$ where $p$ is a prime, show that the the only fields $\mathbb{F}_k$ in which $\Phi_p(x)$ is irreducible are those in which $k$ has multiplicative order $p-1$ mod $p$
How do I prove this?
xpoes
it doesn't make sense when p divides k. but otherwise it's true.
show that that the splitting field of x^n - 1 over F_q with n, q coprime is exactly F_q^d where d is the order of q (mod n).
and so if beta is a root of phi_p(x) then splitting field of x^p-1 is exactly F_k(beta), which means the degree of this exactly the order of k (mod p). phi_p is irreducible if and only if this degree is p-1 iff order of k (mod p) is p-1.
the statement follows from standard theory of finite fields, F_q^d is the splitting field of x^(q^d) - x. So n | q^d - 1 means x^n - 1 divides x^q^d - x. so q^d = 1 (mod n) implies that x^n - 1 splits over F_q^d.
conversely, if x^n-1 splits over F_q^d, then the roots of x^n-1 form a subgroup of order n inside (F_q^d)* which has size q^d - 1, so q^d = 1 (mod n)
What does degree of elements in a ring mean
What is this notation?
fr ye
this is a question i thought about recently lol
is there any slightly fast way to verify this?
like, without multiplying general matrices and their inverses
actually I'll see the determinant
cus it has to match
at least
They are likely conjugate ig
I think I'll just skip this exercise
Well, actually they are lol
because of this
B is diagonalisable as A
as B has eigenvalues 3, 2
oh
(though in general, same char poly doesn't mean conjugate)
the book didn't yet talk about this subject which makes me think of what they were expecting me to do
Are there similar results for n×n 
How do you uniquely determine conjugacy class
just in this case the char poly splits into distinct factors so the matrices are diagonalisable
oh lol
e.g. jordan block vs diagonal matrix
For this the matrices are small enough to be hand-solvable
you can do jordan normal form which is unique up to reordering
Quick question, when was two fields isomorphic?
Oh right
searching in the internet I only found people saying that they have necessary but no sufficient conditions
Uh
Not sure what kind of answer you want lol
When an isomorphism exists 
When there exists an isomorphism
Well I just realized
yeah but
it's not even linear 😭
cus some repeated stuff multiply
When is F isomorphic to k?
Oh, then any finite degree means they are not isomorphic?
well 1 is finite
What does 'degree of elements of ring' mean
I mean yea
But anyway no you could have a field extension where both are isomorphic
e.g. algebraic closure of C(X) is isomorphic to C i'm pretty sure
Yea, I was asking about that; if it is possible for a nontrivial extension to be isomorphic
Ye
in fact there is this theorem uh uncountable algebraically closed fields are isomorphic iff they have the same characteristic and cardinality

Wait, so countable fields might not be as isomorphic?
Wait why does this get more
the more I stare at it
"be as isomorphic"
In what way
Well I'm not sure if I can think of an example where K and F are iso but K is also a non-trivial extension of F and both are countable
Like, can countable algebraically closed fields fail to be isomorphic under similar conditions
Ahh
Model theory
Cool stuff
yeah this one's pretty easy
Do you have pog model recommendations
maybe the other one also was and I was just being too lazy
this is also a nice fact uh
If you know about Jordan normal form then uh turns out every Jordan block is conjugate to its transpose
Idk much model theory sorry - i learnt it from a uni course lol
huh
I'll actually try to compute the first one cus I'm ashamed of not even trying
So this one is the assignment that I found issue with, it says k-algebra but not finitely generated condition. Did I make some logic error?
What do we mean by a subgroup will be centralized by another subgroup?
Does it mean that first subgroup is contained in the centralizer of the other one?
the 2nd is contained in the centraliser of the first
Maybe should have added "possibly" infinite extension
Anyway I think if F/k is a field extension, an F-algebra is also a k-algebra. Maybe this reasoning is faulty?
Did I word it confusingly again
Q(x) and Q(x^2) for example
Yes, if k is a subfield of F, then you can make any F algebra (or any F-vector space) also naturally become a k-algebra (or k-vector space)
Thank you for confirming!
I guess assignment can have small omissions, perhaps I am too sensitive
And I don't if you figured this out yet or what, but
Q(x) / Q(x^2) is a degree 2 extension of countable fields where the ground field and extension are isomorphic.
One thing you can say is that if one of the fields are algebraic over it's prime field, then isomorphism happens iff the degree is 1.
that's just a dimension argument right
More like Galois theory argument I guess
lameeeee
Ah, so algebraic extensions would be not isomorphic
Any homomorphisms must fix the prime field and permute roots. So if a field is algebraic over it's prime field then any endomorphism is surjective.
I'm not entirely sure what you're asking.
Yes, Fp or Q
Yep, I see.
Lmao yeah
How does one prove for all natural numbers there is a group of size n?
Just define the p groups first and then use products?
Hey, could u give me a hint, why this group is unsolvable?
Is that even a group?
I feel like it isn’t closed under inverses or multiplication or something
It is a group
Seems like a group to me
I've proved that G'=this, but idk what's next
Find (G')' I guess
this is the way
||you'll see you get the same thing back||
This looks like a way, but I thought maybe there's an easier one
it's a parabolic subgroup dear
was i summoned 

Show that it has GL2 as a quotient group, then assuming your field has at least 4 elements PSL2 is simple nonabelian.
Proving that PSL2 is simple is probably harder, but assuming you already know that this is pretty pain free.
What is PSL2?
SL2 but quotient out by {+- I}
Projective special linear group
So you have a normal series
{±1} < SL2 < GL2
Which has PSL2 as a composition factor. So if PSL2 isn't solvable then neither is GL2, and thus neither is your group.
I think you have a mistake here actually, since shouldn't any commutator have determinant 1.
So why is it a contradiction
Because what you found includes matrices that don't have determinant 1
I think if you just add the condition det=1 it should be correct though
If a group G has order $p^am$, does it follow that for any $x<a$ there's a subgroup with order $p^x$?
this doesn't seem to follow from Sylow because the sylow p-subgroup may not be normal
Shiranai
When is A x B isomorphic to AB for A B subgroups.
I don't see what normality has to do with it?
You have a subgroup of order p^a, and then all you need to do is show that every p-group has subgroups of all possible orders
You can do this by induction, say
I'll try to remember how lol
yeah you're right I was thinking about some deeply flawed argument lol
when do you think?
Oh sure, it has non-trivial centre Z(G).
Okay so I did some googling and A int B is trivial with A, B both normal and AB = G implies this.
Pick a non-identity element g in the centre, then <g> is a normal subgroup of G and you can consider G/<g> which is a smaller p-group
By induction, G/<g> has a subgroup of index p, so G has a subgroup of index p as well
The only exception is if G = <g>, in which case it's easy since G is cyclic
Yes, if you want the "canonical" map A x B -> AB to be an iso
Because A,B are normal subgroup of A x B
What condition do we have that the kernel is trivial.
I.e. What do we impose on A and B such that ab = 1 implies a = 1 and b = 1
Is this where we use A cap B = 1
almost like a direct sum proof for v-spaces
ab = 1 means a = b^-1, so a is in both A and B.
this stumpted me for a while, but the proof looks good, thanks!
it's basically the same idea yeah. Normal subgroups are the "subspaces" of groups
Yes basically the main thing is
Well Wew is much better at this than me lol
Society if Group was an abelian category:
no potato ur proof was perfect lol
God
But a lot of things with p-groups boil down to using non-trivial centre to reduce size
Why did I not see this
Like quotient out by smth small, reduce size and then pull that back to your original group
How do you show non-trivial centre lol it's orbit stabiliser right
Yeah
indeed
G is union of orbits under conjugation action, each orbit has size a power of p, so |G| = Z(G) mod p
nice
What if we know something special about our groups. Say they are both cyclic subgroups. Then neasexariky only 1 must be normal right?
Or still.
Well I guess you mean "only 1 must necessarily be normal"
in which case that's right
You may want to look at semi-direct products
Are semi direct products the natural language like direct sums for vector spaces?
kind of
in the sense that every "vector space extenstion" splits, and every split group extenstion is a semidirect product
And this follows because if both groups have trivial intersection we guarentee normality under that map?
No, normality is smth you have to hypothesise for semidirect products
Why just 1 normal works though.
Essentially if you have a group $G$ and subgroups $A,B \subseteq G$ where $A \cap B = 1$ and $AB = G$ and $A$ is a normal subgroup, then normality of $A$ implies that $B$ acts on $A$ by conjugation i.e. for all $b \in B, a \in A, bab^{-1} \in A$ already
potato
Why is this?
So this means that $AB$ is kind of like $A \times B$, except the elements of $A$ needn't commute with elements of $B$
potato
Oh I mean I just gave a proof in what I just said at the end
Oh a is normal
So then primallity comes in where?
Oh cyclic implies abelian and so then they do commute
I'm not sure where primality was mentioned?
Hm well A and B could be abelian, but not commute with each other as part of G
Right
as an e- wow.
if i'm not mistaken
Lol
I think it's probably the most natural one (and the only thing I could come up with lmao)
The main reason I ask is because most sylow proofs its useful to construct two sylow groups as a direct product.
And for a non-example, Q_8
or A5
lol
I do wonder if there are any super streamlined proofs of sylow theorems
I tried to pick a metacyclic group
I always forget the relevant actions
But I guess the proofs I've seen are pretty enough and there is just some combinatorial trickery necessary to get everything so fair enough
F_S(G) is a saturated fusion system with S \in Syl_p(G)
it's pretty quick!
it's circular if you're using it to show the sylow theorems
And it's always true that two P Q groups have trivial intersection right?
Because of orders
Word
I think if you already know the statements it’s easy to construct the actions but i don’t really know if I would’ve come up with them before the proliferation of group theory
Yes
Let G be a group with order 75. Suppose it has a subgroup of order 25 that is cyclic. How can I prove that G is Abelian?
I know that the subgroup of order 25 is normal by the Sylow's theorem.
If I could prove that G has a single 3-sylow subgroup, then G is the direct product of both subgroups and I'm done.
there's a theorem that says if every sylow subgroup is cyclic then the group itself is metacyclic
lemme see if I can find the proof of that and then plug in some numbers
oh wait there's no need for that, just use the results you know about the number of sylow subgroups
the number of Sylow 3-subgroups is congurent to 1 mod 3 and has to divide 75. This gives us two options - there is only one sylow subgroup, or there are 25 of them
I'll leave it up to you to see why it can't be 25
what makes a group cyclic
this is exactly where I am stuck haha
Can't prove it
being generated by an element
(i like ur pfp btw, karoo) so like are the integers a cyclic group under additioj
because they can be generated by adding and minusing q
1
this much I know. I just don't know how to prove that there can't be 25 3-sylow subgroups
if there were 25 3-sylow subgroups, then it would have 25*(3-1) = 50 distinct nonzero elements
no i dont know much group theory
and a 5-sylow subgroup has order 25, which means it has 25-1 distinct nonzero elements
so 50 + 24 + 1 with the identity = 75
So it matches the order of the group
yeah you make a good point
the theorem who's proof I was emulating had a condition excluding the p^2 case
whats a sylow subgroup
a p-sylow subgroup is a subgroup which has order p^n
Since the group of order 25 is normal, G is the semidirect product of C25 and C3. |Aut(C25)| = 20, so there is no non-trivial action of C3 on C25
and p divides #G
yeah there we go
it's the maximal p-subgroup, that's important
how is that definition useful
sure. although there is a theorem that states that there is a subgroup of order p^n if p^n divides the order of G
that follows from the existence of Sylow subgroups
ahhh
wow i've never heard of semidirect product 😭
and then an inductive argument using the fact that p-groups have non-trivial centre to show that each group of order p^n has a subgroup of order p^k for each k < n
annoyed at myself. I literally started this conversation by quoting "sylow subgroups cyclic => metacyclic" but didn't make the connection that the 5-Sylow was normal hence it was a semidirect.
can't we just use the lemma "If G/Z(G) is cyclic, then G is abelian"?
lol
hmm
We know the C_25 is normalised but not centralised
so showing this would be equivalent to Jagr's proof
Since C3 is quite small you can prove it directly:
Let x be your element of order 25 and y your element of order 3. Then
yxy^- = x^i
for some i.
y y x y^- y^- = x^(i^2)
x = y y y x y^- y^- y^- = x^(i^3)
So i^3 = 1 modulo 25.
You can check that i=1 is the only solution so x and y commute, and your group is abelian
but even if we have a C_5 or a C_3xC_5 that's centralised anywhere then we know that groups of order pq are cyclic so it's slightly easier, maybe
could also use burnside's fusion theorem and one line it 
Oh this i've done before.
You are checking the commutativity between those elements.
Since the only solution is yxy^-1 = x
then yx = xy and therefore they commute, so we have the direct product G = <x> X <y>
because they are coprimes
This is really the semidirect product argument written out
lol true but then it is cheating xD
which is what you have to do when you don't have semidirect products 
I see! Thank you for your help!!
My book doesn't have semidirect product
I suggest learning about them, they come up a lot
I will. Decomposing groups into other isomorphic products seems really important and relevant
Why is the semidirect product defined as G=NU, U is a subgroup and N is a normal subgroup. Why must be N a normal subgroup?
Because that's the definition
What are you really wanting to know about the semidirect product?
Maybe you can try and crystallise the question more clearly
Sure
Btw, you've also missed out the requirement that U and N have trivial intersection
Yeah
This can also happen without N and U being normal. In which case, it's called a Zappa-Szep product
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zappa–Szép_product
In mathematics, especially group theory, the Zappa–Szép product (also known as the Zappa–Rédei–Szép product, general product, knit product, exact factorization or bicrossed product) describes a way in which a group can be constructed from two subgroups. It is a generalization of the direct and semidirect products. It is named after Guido Zappa ...
Thanks!
Thank you to everyone who has answered my questions this semester.
Hi, it might be super trivial for you but not for me:
Let G group, H and K subgroups of G such that |H| = m and |K|=n, gcd(m, n) = 1
Prove that H intersection K = {e}
(e = identity of G and sry for the non-latex)
From left to right subset: it is simple but Idk how/what to start for the other way.
Look at the orders of your elements in H and those in K
Good hint above
My first idea was something like that:
Let x = e,
o(x) = 1 = gcd ( m, n )
...
But it is like I "re-write" the same thing as the left to right inclusion.
Let's make this more explicit
H n K is a subgroup of H and of K
So what do you know about its order?
the order divides m and n
One might even call it a common divisor of m and n.
You should be able to do this now.
Okay I got the proof in mind now.
Ty guys
Why is the splitting field of x^n-1 over F_q F_q^d? Neither would contain the roots of unity right? Like take n = 4, q = 5, then we have x^4-1 over F_5. Our roots would be like zeta_4, but those aren't contained in F_q^d? Or am I misinterpreting this?
oh is this the same quesiton?
wdym by zeta_4?
all non-zero elements of F_5 satisfy a^4 = 1
that's lagrange's theorem
oh ok
yep
although i used that F_q^d is the splitting field of x^(q^d) - x to prove it.
the statement follows from standard theory of finite fields, F_q^d is the splitting field of x^(q^d) - x. So n | q^d - 1 means x^n - 1 divides x^q^d - x. so q^d = 1 (mod n) implies that x^n - 1 splits over F_q^d.
if you knew (F_q^d)* is cyclic you can do this instead: say q^d-1 is divisible by n, then that cyclic subgroup has an element of order n, call it beta. now all roots of x^n-1 are exactly beta^0, beta^1, ..., beta^(n-1) so x^n-1 splits over F_q^d.
Hey guys, how do you rigorously calculate the signum of following permutation:
$\sigma= (4 5 1 3 2) \in S_5$
damn_guuurl
a cycle is even iff it has an odd number of elements
or like i mean its length is odd
I know that, but is that rigorous enough? I wanted to split the above in transposition, but I don't remember how to do it
(I have to explain it to my class)
i mean it's completely rigorous
one way u could do it
is counting the number of inversions
and then finding -1^that number
Yes exactly, but the head TA of the class I'm teaching to, asked that we have to explain it by splitting sigma in a concrete product of transposition. I don't know if the above you said is enough anyway
u can split it like $(45)(51)(13)(32)$
sean
that's 4 so it's an even permutation
A general method to split a cycle into transpositions:
Take your cycle (a b c d ...)
Then you want a to map to b so include (a b), now you want b to map to c, but it currently maps to a, so do
(a c)(a b)
Now a and b map correctly, but you want c to map to d, so
(a d)(a c)(a b)
etc.
There are many other general methods you could use as well.
Proof check, basic group theory
yes I got it too, now I'm able to explain it, thank you!
I see it now, thank you as well!
another less general method of seeing this is by considering the cyclic subgroup generated by a permutation and the sign homomorphism \varphi : S_n -> {-1, 1}. If the cyclic subgroup generated by a permutation has odd order, then the restriction of the sign hom to said subgroup must lie within the kernel of the sign hom. (if it didn't then the counting formula would imply that the subgroup has even order), thus it is an even permutation.
this is a way of seeing that a permutation is even iff it has an odd number of elements, as sean mentioned earlier, andI think it's quite cool
does every finite group who's order factors into exactly two primes have at least one element of order of each factor?
Yes by Cauchy
just realised the argument I used for this was wrong
what dym by cauchy
like
is it a theorem
by cauchy
oh
I was thinking about this problem and building a group with all elements of order 5 except the identity
and this lead me to a wrong argument of this
I skipped this exercise when I was reading this chapter but I can try help. If a subgroup of order 5 or 7 exists, then what can we say about it?
I'm thinking about it
I'm guessing for no real reason that two cyclic subgroups of the same order are either equal or have intersection e
which is probably not true but it'd be nice if it was
they're isomorphic
Not true for cyclic, but true for prime order
oh yeah
I'm stupid
then it's proven ig
I mean it lacks the argument maybe I'm still wrong
well
So what do you guys think about my ring theory wall
No love for noncommutative rings 😢
Dedekind domains missing 😦
I was also thinking about whether a map of functors could be cool
get a tattoo of an insane diagram instead
Multiplier algebras of reproducing kernel Hilbert spaces are cool as well
I'm not sure
noo
what I was trying to get to was: the only integers that divide 35 are 1, 5, 7 and 35
I know
so if no subgroups of order 5 or 7 existed, then G would have no subgroups, and each element would have order 1 or 35
I came to the conclusion that each element having order 5 would make me have 12 cyclic soubgroups which's union gives G
only the identity has order 1, so each non-1 element in G would have order 35
i think Z/4Z has just 3 subgroups
ok but I need 5 AND 7 to exist
or not
wait no
I don't
I'm stupid
oh yeas
I need
es
yes
that's why I'm supposing all the elements except the identity have order 5
I want to arrive at some contradiction from this
Think about how different subgroups of order 5 overlap
preferably I want this 12 to be impossible but idk how
yeah only 1 in common
I mean, the identity
Exactly, so there's 1 identity and then each subgroup provides 4 other elements each
if all the elements except the identity have order 5, we have separated the group into subgroups of order 5
which means we need to have 4*something disctinct elements and the identity to fill up the group
that is, 4*k - (k-1) = 35
since I only can have one identity and each subgroup would have one identity
3k - 1 = 35
3k = 36
k = 12
So how many can that be in total?
that was my counting of the amount of subgroups
I'm not sure what's happening in your counting, but of the 35 elements 1 is the identity, so that's 34 elements you have to divide by 4
oh yeah
I did a stupid
it was supposed to be 5*k - (k - 1)
not 4*k
Then it makes sense
;-;
at least I got the right idea
I guessed in the beggining that there was going to be some counting error
I guess this extends to a nice and simple argument for why a group of order pq has both an element of order p and q, at least whenever p-1 doesn't divide q-1.
yey
No group actions or Cauchy's theorem needed
Think you have the same off by 1 error again
hkgkghgmhkmgjkmhhh
AHHHH
YEH
why do I do that
well for p and q = 2 that's false but that case would be the 4 elements thing that's very well classified
for p = 2 that's false actually
in general
for q = 2 while p =/= 2, that's obviously true
(that you can't divide)
So I guess I'm implicitly assuming p<q
Or at least that the condition is symmetric.
But yeah, still lots of cases that aren't covered
oh well
Have to wip out some stronger machinery at some point
found more counter-examples
5 and 13 for example
By Dirichlet's theorem I guess about 1/phi(p-1) of primes will have p-1 dividing q-1
For q8, Q(D) is just Q?
it's $\mathbb{Q}(i)={a+bi:a,b\in\mathbb{Q}}$ if i guess the definition right
Max
Quotient field of D is not Q?
You have for instance $i$ in the quotient field
Max
Think you're reading question 9 there
Oh ok lol sorry yea i circled 9
But yeah it's Q
Ok thanks im like a little shaky on it but
I used that theorem i sent the other day
Extending the map idea
I think 8 is a pretty forward computation
What is 5x5
i think you can argue more elementary
your integral domain already sits inside Q and Q is a field
I mean I guess that's the argument they're making. Just comes down to exactly how you're defining Q(D), and how formal you want to be.
Yes from a higher point of view it is pretty obvious using some identifications
D -> F being a 1-1 ring homomorphism is just saying D sits inside a field after all
i guess you mean the injection D -> Q(D)
No, I was talking about the map D -> F.
does one-to-one mean bijective here?
Injective
well the existence of those is not guaranteed by the theorem just if smt like this exists
the embedding into a field is D->Q(D)
aah okay, never used that terminology
I'm a little lost in what you're trying to say.
We have a map D -> Q, so the theorem gives that Q(D) is a subfield of Q
Which means Q(D) = Q
i think we talk about different stuff, so whatever
One-to-one = injective, and
Onto = surjective
Are the usual English translations for people who hate Latin
what is bijective then?
nvm i will just stick to saying injective, surjective and bijective
Correspondence is used sometimes
Why does that mean that
You cant have a proper subfield of Q
Not very many subfields of Q no
lol
Like yea i know
Ok yeah subfield of Q well its a subset of Q thats also a field. So if u just try working that out then its obvious you cant have a proper subset thats a field
Ok cool yea lol.
any characteristic zero field has to contain Q
Yas
Is that like another explanation/viewpoint for it?
If r is a non-zero non-unit and not irreducible element in a domain D, then how is it shown that r has a factorization r=xy?
do you know about prime fields? I.e. the fact that every field of characteristic p has to contain F_p/what I just said about containing Q
it's quite simple to see, since it's characteristic 0 your field has to contain a copy of Z (just keep adding the multiplicative identity to itself), but then it has to contain multiplcative inverses to everything inside that copy of Z (and their products) - which is Q
Let $H\le G$. How does the partition [G=\bigcup_{gH\in G/H}gH] gives a bijection $G\to G/H\times H$?
F_1 RAAAARRRGHHHHHHHHHHHH
RaD0N
i mean
Ik any integral domain has characteristic 0 or p for prime p
Well
for each x in G, we can write x = gh for g in the transversal of H in G and h in H
cosets are disjoint, so if we fix our transversal this is unique
Uhh, I see. So it's straightforward
If D is finite, then you can get a factorization from left-translation by some non-zero element s in D.
But what about when D is infinite?
Thx
Yeah.. I was a lil bit skeptical that for a given g in G, there is a unique h in H.
specifically h = g^-1x (for x in gH)
Intuitively that h is the projection of x onto H, right?
Is F1 "morally" a subfield of Q?

it's the absolute base no?
Idk
hmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmm
What is F1 
No. But it is morally a "subfield" of C
Wikipedia be not helping
The way I'm justifying this crankery is that the burnside ring over a group is essentially the representation ring over F_1, and it decomposes like the representation ring over C does
The only encounters with F1 I've had is linear algebra on F1 beeing this funny pointed set thing. Which does sort of imply F1 is a subfield of every field, but idk...
Field with one element
oh wait yeah that's a good point
But what is it actually 
Now, that's a good question
to me it's a strange corrispondence between facts about GL_n over finite fields and the symmetric group
I know there's an actual categorical way to make it some object but that's not relevant to me
Is it like "category of fields would've been nice with this extra object"
The explanation I've heard is polynomial rings are PIDs, Z is a PID, thus Z is the polynomial ring over some field. Let's call this field F1 blablabla algebraic geometry or something
from the nlab page
but to me the pointed set thing comes from the symmetric group statement
for example, the p-local theory of S_n is exactly the same as GL(n, q) if we set q = 1
I remember a prof mentioned a connection with F1 and the Riemann hypothesis, I wasn't sure if he was trolling then but it is true apparently 
Oh right nLab exists
I don't think anything can make the category of fields nice
adjoin objects until it turns into CRing
And when H is normal subgrup of G, does that bijection become isomorphism, or we need more?
Yeah this is like, one of the main motivations for F1
you need very specific conditions for that to become an isomorphism
There is a name for these conditions?
mainly you need A) A subgroup X of G isomorphic to G/H and B) for H and X to centralise each other
yeah it's called "an inner direct product"
the main motiviation is that it's REALLY funny
Thx
Alternatively H and X are normal and intersect trivially
Are factorizations in a domain always unique up to units and ordering?
A very appropriate name
Is there an extra simple condition to put on a domain so that factorizations are unique?
What's even the intuition behind F1-like object?
Z[sqrt(-5)] is an example of a domain that isn't UFD.
Like some analogue to how algebraic groups are group objects F1 might be some weird categorical construct that "behaves like a field with 1 element"?
yeah that's pretty much it
nG can tell you what the corrispondence is actually called
PIDs are UFDs, otherwise I don't know of any simple restriction
Poly rings over UFDs are UFDs
Yeah you want things like rings of integers in number fields to be like curves over F_1
You want to be able to make sense of something like “Spec(Z)x_Spec(F_1)Spec(Z)” and do intersection theory on it
We somehow know what this looks like around the point “(p,p)” and it’s complicated
Is F_1 legal 
Can i have an example of integral domain D and a 1-1 map into a field F such that Q(D) is not isomorphic to F?
Damn the french have a better name for F_1. F_un
Groethendieck might have been onto something
Z -> R
for some reason my mind went to Z -> Q(sqrt(2)) before R lol
Thx
Damn so weird how i just dont feel satisfied with the quotient field stuff yet
I know its not complicated but some of it just doesnt feel like its clicking
In the way i want it to
I suppose i just need to move on eventually
I think this example does help me a bit though
fractionszzzzzzzzz