#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 188 of 1
Assuming that we have some kind of 'general position' constraint — which is to say that all the side lengths are different so there aren't any strange rotations that occur — this should just be the n-fold direct product of the Klein 4-group, aka C_2 x C_2.
Except, hmm, the one symmetry that interchanges each corner with the directly opposite is not really a "reflection", so it's special from a geometric point of view.
Ah, or not quite
So (classifying symmetries of a general rectangular box), there's a) the identity, b) three rotations by 180° around a perpendicular line through the center of a pair of faces, c) three reflections in a mirror plane parallel to a pair of faces, d) the single symmetry that inverts all three coordinates.
that last symmetry is weird. What makes something a symmetry even?
In this discussion we're implicitly defining "symmetry" as "a distance-preserving transformation of space that takes the shape in question to itself".
There are more abstract concepts of symmetry that generalizes this one. At the most abstract extreme we can simply choose some set and some group action on it, and declare that the action of each group element is to be called a "symmetry" for the purpose of whatever we're doing.
ohh okay that makes a lot of sense actually thank you
How exactly would I go about doing this problem? It feels weird to me because each homomorphism is a group, which means this would be the number of non empty sub-groups
think about generators
Hint: any homomorphism out of Z_10 (or in fact Z_n in general) is determined by where it sends 1. Think about which ones are surjective from then on. You may want to think about something relating to modular arithmetic.
thanks for the hints, will get back to this.
It does not, typically.
yeah homomorphisms are group structures
No.
aww man
wait does that mean something else than just "a group"?
In the case of Abelian groups (and modules!) Hom(A,B) does have the structure of an Abelian group (or module) but not for general groups.
Statsbro I have no idea what you're referring to.
Typically the set of homomorphisms between two groups does not have a natural group structure.
There is a slim chance that you mean, in the style of universal algebra, that the graph of a group homomorphism is a group. This is true, but I doubt this is what you mean.
is this for rings or groups
true. i was thinking because it has a module structure it has a group structure
but i forgot that it's specifically abelian groups
tbh i forgot groups arent always commutative lol
im too used to working over rings and modules
I'm used to working over rings and modules too. Group rings, and reps of groups 
what is a group ring
A ring derived from a group, whose modules are exactly representations.
Google it for more details on the construction.
I like how the group ring is usually thought of as an algebra
Slightly silly nomenclature to me
I usually use 'group ring' to refer to ZG and 'group algebra' to refer to kG.
Tbh it is quite useful to think of kG as an algebra specifically. Without that we wouldn't get a lot of results relating representations over non-splitting fields to Galois cohomology.
(I could've mentioned Schur indices, but I didn't. Are you proud of me?)
This is making some serious sense. Considering f: Z_10 -> Z_10, f(1) = 1, f(2) = f(1 + 1) = 1 + , etc. Seems like this means that there would be 10 homomorphisms. In terms of the isomorphisms, I think I need to find all the generators of Z10?
Yup, you're almost there.
Excellent. I was slightly unsure about whether f(0) counts as an isomorphism. I think the trick for generators of Z_n is to just take all the relatively prime numbers, so that would be 1, 3, 7, 9?
I was slightly unsure about whether f(0) counts as an isomorphism.
f(0) is an element of Z_10, not even a function. What do you mean when you say it may or may not ‘count’ as an isomorphism.
Apart from that, yes those are the numbers coprime to 10 in Z_10.
I am trying to find total number of group homomorphism between s_3 and z/6z .
Since s_3 is generated by transposition and 3 cycle so order of image transposition must divide 2 and order of image of 3 cycle must divide 3 so there 3 such elements in z/6z so according me there are 4 homomorphism I know it's wrong I can't find my own mistakes can anyone point it out thanks in advance
<@&286206848099549185>
How did you get 3 such elements => 4 homomorphisms @dire igloo
0,2,3
What does that even mean
Anyways if you came up with 4 homomorphisms can you write them down?
And check that they actually are homomorphisms
Order of these 3 elements divide divide 2 and 3
Ok sure, the order of 2 is 3 and the order of 3 is 2
But you haven't described to me any morphisms from S3 to Z/6Z
Anyways here's my hint
f(x)=0
Kernel is a normal subgroup right?
Yep
What are the possibilities of kernels of a morphism from S3 to Z / 6Z
Investigate each of these
{e} , A_3 , S_3
Your mistake here is that while you're right that the image of the transposition must be an element of order 2 or order 0 and the image of the 3 cycle must be an element of order 3 or order 0, you haven't actually checked anything.
Cool, so use Isomorphism Theorems and some casework for each case
2 cases should be easy, 1 case isn't as easy but not too bad
Oh okay
Okay thanks !
You've given an upper bound, there are at most 4 homomorphisms
That's what your previous idea showed
Yeah
I made a cute little proof for that
a is the smallest positive integer
z is some positive integer
z - ka = a for some k, since a is the smallest integer, if for all k z - ka was either negative or positive different than a, a wouldn't be the smallest, since the smallest positive in this case would be different and a is the smallest step you can take
so z = (k+1)a, a multiple of a
I mean, it's a more intuitive proof
Quick question, why is the commutator subgroup a subgroup when we know that the product of commutators is not necessarily a commutator?
The commutator subgroup is defined as the subgroup generated by the commutators
for that reason!
Isn't this sort of obviously true, given if they were both zero then all non-zero numbers would be factors of both - making the gcd != 1
I'm not sure I'm getting it so let me put some definitions. The commutator subgroup of some group G is defined as the set {a b a^-1 b^-1} where a and b are members of G. Since it is a subgroup, then for every a, b, c and d of G the element a b a^-1 b^-1 c d c^-1 d^-1 must belong to the commutator subgroup. In other words, [a,b][c,d]=[e,f] for some e and f. But we know that the product of commutators is not always a commutator. What am I missing?
I will think about it again. Thank you.
I guess it becomes obvious once you show that
f(a) = 0 implies (x-a) divides f
this is quite the challenge tbh. Why are the questions with the shortest texts always the hardest?
yeah, my first thought was something like the reciprocals of all primes greater than 2 or something, but that's a multiplicative group.
the operation on Q is assumed to be addition, btw
I've previously proven that any finitely generated subgroup of Q is necessarily cyclic, so I need an infinite generating set.
maybe the set of all fractions with even numerators?
yeah, wait, that would work
because adding and multiplying even numbers preserves parity.
so there's no way to get the number 1/odd
no, wait
the main point is that subgroup you just mentioned cannot be cyclic, I don't know what this odd business is
I have to show it's a proper subgroup
I mean that's obvious
even numerators isn't sufficient, because reduction is a thing
I presumed you meant denominators
say it's generated by 1/2^n, then there's no way for you to get 1/2^{n+1} so it cannot be generated by 1/2^n, repeat for all n
even denominators would work, though, yeah.
also all fractions of the form 2m/(2n+1)
it would be impossible to reduce that to every fraction
But 1/3 is also 2/6, for example, so you still get all of Q that way.
How about odd denominators instead?
Or power-of-two denominators rather than merely even?
I think any condition such as 'these numbers don't divide the denominator' should work.
hence even numbers over odd numbers, the the product of odd numbers is still odd, while a mixed product is even, and the sum of even numbers is still even, therefore it prevents reduction to odd numbered numerators, thus excluding 1 (and all odd integers, technically)
Or I guess the numbers in question has to be prime powers.
So odd = not divisible by 2, power of 2 = not divisible by odd prime and so on
Honestly, I'm having a lot of trouble with why we're using "x-a" with these. I don't 'get' why that works
Because evaluating x-a at a equals 0. Or what are you asking about 'works'?
So if I have any a in F, that is specifically a constant? So x would also be a constant, not an f(a) like x^2?
sorry for the stupid question im really tired
I'm not sure what you're asking, but a is a constant yes. And x is the variable
Also not sure what you mean by comparing f(a) and x^2.
f(a) is a number (it's the value of f at a) while x^2 is a polynomial
according to common convention: letters like "a,b,c" typically denote indeterminate/arbitrary constants meaning specifically some member of whatever structure you're working with (in this case a field) while "w,x,y,z" typically denote variables which are used to describe the structure of functions.
though here we know what x is and a is as elements of F[x] and F
thinking about constants/variables ig isn't really needned
what is this a^+ notation? A is a commutative algebra, P and Q are A-modules
Seems to be just the definition.
So Hom(P, Q) can get a structure of an A-module in two different ways, and for one of them they denote the action by a^+.
More generally if A isn't commutative this actually makes Hom(P, Q) into a bimodule, where the a^+ thing is the right action.
yeah that's what I meant
ah i see
thank you
man my homework literally has a question just saying "classify all simple groups of order <100"
This is doable but I feel like it will take a long time
not really, play with various prime factorizations that will reduce it to a very tiny set of orders that you need to look separately
yeah prime powers are easy
and abelian is trivial from factorization
so I just need to care about non-abelian non-prime powers
sylow theorems give you existence of a normal sylow subgroup in certain conditions
you can also use counting methods to show that number of conjugates can't be too large, e.g. show that groups of order pqr (p < q < r) can't be simple.
there are also some fun actions you can consider with non-trivial kernel, thereby giving a normal subgroup
here's a fun hint for this: G isn't simple if there's a subgroup H of index k such that |G| does not divide k!
(me was gonna type that next :p)
yeah i figured after the message involving actions :D
Interesting
(interesting that we both described this thing as "fun"
)
Fun = problem I've previously solved
The problem definitely wasn’t fun
Ended up writing down a whole table of prime decomps to see what orders can’t be simple and whatnot
Exercise: Does every group whose order is a power of a prime p contain an element of order p?
My attempt so far: Consider G whose order is p^m for some natural m. My main idea is to essentially try create a chain of proper subgroups. By lagrange's theorem and the fact that these are proper inclusions, we will eventually arrive at a group of order p. By the fact that each group of order a prime p is cyclic, it follows that there's an element of order p. So, I considered looking at cyclic subgroups generated by elements of G. If there is no proper subgroup then each of these cyclic subgroups must generate G and I feel like there's a contradiction coming but I can't quite finish this argument off. Can someone give a hint or affirm/deny if i'm even going in the right direction? thanks 🙂
So a hint could be if x is an element in G, what's the order of x^p?
I'm sorry for whatever reason I can't figure this out
Certainly <x^p> \subset <x> so the order of x^p divides the order of x
but that doesn't say much in itself
If x^q = 1 (order of <x> is q) Then the order of x^p would be the smallest natural a such that ap = some multiple of q
So maybe first think about what q could possibly be
What are the possible orders of an element in G?
p^1 , . . ., p^{m-1}
k
So it's just like you said here you want to find an a such that
ap = p^k
oh right, then a = p^{k-1}
Bruh im randomly hitting a wall while trying to read through ideas and factor rings section
Its like so many abstract concepts being piled on to each other i need to take a step back
Indeed, so do you see how you could do something similar to get an element of order p?
I feel myself losing a bit of a foundation
consider the order of x^(p^{k-1}). Then we're looking for an a such that a(p^{k-1}) = p^k Then a = p
I gotta go to bed now bit I appreciate your help jagr 🙂
Of course, 0 is always in the ideal right
Its an additive subgroup so i guess obviously it needs the 0 from the ring
Then i suppose if the ideal has 1 or not is an important fact
Cuz if it does then its just all of the ring
indeed
and this leads to the fact that a field has no proper nontrivial ideals
so you can make a whole lot of arguments with that fact
Yeah
i'm blanking right now
what's an example of an epimorphism in Grp which fails to have a right inverse
yeah
Errr
Oh
Take Z -> Z/2Z
If it had a right inverse it would give an embedding Z/2Z -> Z giving a torsion element in Z
Remember as well that uh at least in abelian groups if A -> B is epic and admits a right inverse (section) then B is a direct summand of A
You’re epic
So you can easily construct examples like this where B is not a direct summand of A
Thank you, no u
is "epic" an actual term used in algebra
Yes
Though I do see people more often call them epimorphisms rather than say a morphism is epic.
can't I just say that because the order of the rotation subgroup is n/2 and D_n is finite, the rotation subgroup must be maximal? it seems that any maximal subgroup of a finite group with order n would be of order n/p where p is a prime divisor of n (since by lagrange's theorem, any supergroup must have an order that is a multiple of the subgroup's order, and a proper finite supergroup must be a non-unit multiple).
except the edge case where the order of the group itself is prime, which would have no maximal subgroup
Yes
Yeah it is very quick
Well, the trivial subgroup
I guess
So it still works lol
oh, duh, if the order is prime then there is only the trivial subgroup as a proper subgroup, so no edge case at all
Ye
this is what I get for typing while thinking
tangential question: is there a term for the complement of a prime factor? we talk about primes so much, but it's interesting this motivation seemed to employ specifically excluding those primes.
is the specification of the order of G here merely convention? I'm not sure I can think of a group of order less than 1
It is unnecessary.
Groups have at least one element because they need an identity
I believe the point is just that n is a number so it’s written (in a weird way) to say the group is finite, and to introduce n. The >= 1 part is just superfluous
I don't think so, because it doesn't specify a finite group.
…
I mean the result is true if you say any prime divides infinity
but I suppose this is technically asking for me to restate the notion I gave earlier so yeh
But infinity >= 1 and p | infinity is an… interesting statement
the first part of that conjunction seems rather non-contentious
When someone says “a group of order n” they almost without a doubt mean that n is finite
the second.... depends on the definition of divisibility. If you assume that $p|n \Leftrightarrow \exists q \in \mathbb{Z} (pq=n)$ then there are no divisors of infinity.
GoldenPhoenix
Ofc it depends on the definition, what else would it depend on??
almost every other example in the textbook has specified n<infty when specifying a finite group, so the break in style threw me for a loop
Extending the definition here unfortunately just isn't feasible if you'd like it to work in all circumstances. I will underline that you should simply move on, with the understanding that the group is finite.
I mean
In this case it’s actually true if you do let n be infinity and say p | infinity always
In this particularly nice case, yes
anywho, this particular question is a direct corollary to the statement I made about maximals being of order n/p where is a prime divisor of n
Definition 1.15. Let $R \subset S$ be an inclusion of rings, and let T be a subset of S.
Then we define the subring R[T ] of S generated by T to be the intersection
of all subrings of S that contain both R and T .
Conversely, if T $\subset$ S is a subset with S = R[T ], then we say that T generates
S over R, or that T is a generating set of S over R. If the ring S admits a
finite generating set T over R, then it is called finitely generated over R.
How can this be written in more symbolic notation like
$R[T] = \bigcap_{ \begin{matrix} S \ subring \ of \ ? \ R \subseteq S \ T \subseteq S \end{matrix}} S$
Tobi
Strange thing is that it actually does still work for the infinite cyclic group
If you are ok with “every prime dividing infinity” then the maximal additive subgroups of Z are pZ for primes p
$R[T] = \bigcap_{X \text{ subring of } S, R \cup T \subseteq X} X$
Wew The Lads Tbh
Alternatively you can just think of it as polynomials with variables in T and coefficients in R
So our highest structure is S and S is a ring, right?
Yeah it is xd. Thx I think I got it. R for Ring, S for Subring but here it is actually in opposite way. +1 on confusion
It's more like R for ring, S for next letter in the alphabet
does anyone have a hint on proving that all fields either have characteristic 0 or prime?
A hint could be that fields don't have zero-divisors
so uh
i could distribute (1+1+... a times)(1+1+... b times)=0 to get (1+1+... ab times)=0
so one of the factors has to be zero?
that sounds right afaict
That works
is there a neater way to do it? the ... is annoying me
sum from 1 to a of 1
but a is an integer and 1 is an element of the field
oh huh
“Yeah Z/nZ is a subring as <1> for n = char F”
||every ring is a Z-algebra uwu owo||
"let A times n denote the repeated application of field addition on the object n A times"
You know you can do f: Z -> R with f(1) = 1 yes?
I have never seen anyone denote it \times, no
didn't denote it as \times
just didn't bother writing out \cdot because I'm lazy
no i have not come across that yet

Well, show that’s a (unique!) ring homomorphism
because I arbitrarily chose to write it as I please and didn't feel to put much thought into it.
If you're interested, you should see where this leads (as Sharp also suggests). As it turns out this gives you a nice relationship between the kernel of f and the characteristic of the ring. See if you can find out what it is!
I'm busy using the axiom of choice to prove that all nontrivial finitely generated groups have maximal subgroups.
OK that's nice.
If you wanna be truly pedantic, the product is actually defined recursively on N and then extended to integers by multiplying by -1
is the kernel defined the same as in linear transformations? how does that work?
Kernel is when f(x)=0
I'm surprised you haven't seen this! The kernel of any map between groups is what gets sent to the identity. In the case of rings, we look specifically at what gets sent to the 0 in the additive group.
im in first year ok😔
I'm not dissing you, just surprised
So, when would this be 0
I suppose you could see characteristic of a ring before kernels
Field extensions question
would this be when char(R) divides n?
Prove that
Show that it can be turned into a unique ring Hom too ofc
Then imagine throwing first isomorphism theorem at it
||whats the first isomorphism theorem again||
is X/ker f like a quotient group?
You will likely see soon that you can define quotients of rings in terms of something comparable to a normal subgroup, known as an ideal
And the familiar properties of quotients hold.
ok so
i can start by defining the map f
eg say it must satisfy f(1)=1 and f(x+1)=f(x)+1
then it follows that f(0)=0
and also f(a+2)=f(a+1)+1=f(a)+f(2), and inductively f(a+b)=f(a)+f(b) for b>0
setting a=-b it must also be the case that f(-x)=-f(x)
then ig f(2a)=f(a)+f(a)=f(a)(f(1)+f(1))=f(2)f(a) and inductively can generalise to f(ab)=f(a)f(b)
so thats a ring homomorphism
then for uniqueness, suppose f and g are both homomorphisms Z->R
for all a in Z, we have f(a)-f(a)=0=g(a)-f(a)
so g(a)=f(a)
oh i meant suppose f(a)=g(a) as a premise
oh i can see how that doesnt work
oops
oh right so itll be like f(1)=g(1)=1
if f(a)=g(a) then f(a+1)=f(a)+1=g(a)+1
and if they agree on positive integers then they have to agree on the negatives
Basically yeah
Induction time
Now, if n = char R obviously f(n)=0
Can you show what you said earlier about divisibility?
Can we have f(n)=0 for n where char R does not divide n?
ok and to prove that if char(F)=n, ker f=nZ im thinking another induction?
f(0)=0
also f(n) is zero
and if x>0 and f(x)=0 then f(x+n)=f(x)+f(n)=f(x)+0
question about set chains: the definition I have is given as follows:
C is called a chain iff for any X and Y in C, either X⊆Y or Y⊆X
this "in" here seems mildly ambiguous whether X and Y are subsets or elements. Contextually it appears to be subsets, but I just want to confirm I'm reading this right.
did not read this oops
wait this isnt quite what i was trying to prove hold up
That last line you might need to justify
No no I think it is
but ive shown if n|k then f(k) = 0
not that if f(k) is zero then n|k
Ye
Well, if f(k) = 0, what’s k mod n
We can subtract qn for any integer q since that goes to 0 ye?
What’s the definition of char
ohh its the smallest such n
Yep
right that makes sense
time to try this now i suppose?
my brain: The union of two finitely generated subgroups is the group generated by the union of their generating sets
me: sounds about right, let me write out a whole proof based on this fact.
my brain: what if ab isn't in group A or group B?
I love psyching myself out, time to go on a tangent.
Take free group, union <x1> and <x2> for generators x1, x2
dunno what a free group is yet
Basically the answer is no
I'm fairly confident in that now, yeah, just frustrated
Unless you have some degeneracy conditions like A < B
there's chains involved that could change that, but the wording is weirding me out
Take a, b which are exclusive to each
proving part A right now. This wording is throwing me off regarding what objects are where
the beginning on the previous page is just "let G be a finitely generated group"
I know for a fact that the union across S is necessarily a subgroup of G, and i'm fairly sure that any union of parts of S are likewise, but idk how to PROVE it.
yeah. the definition I have of chains is a bit ambiguous regarding subset vs membership so it's been a ride so far
.
What
They’re elements obviously
then I'm just stupid, sorry.
hmm ive been thinking about this for a while and im not quite sure what im supposed to be turning into Hom
huh
Subgroups of G but elements of C
You showed it can be turned into a ring homomorphism uniquely
oh wait was hom short for homomorphism
i thought you wanted me to come up with some kind analogue of the vector space hom(U,V)
No
Just homomorphism
Let let $k$ be a field of characteristic $p$, and let $f(x) = \sum_{i=n}^m a_ix^{p^i}$ be an additive polynomial, where $a_n,a_m\neq 0$. The book claims that this polynomial has $p^{m-n}$ distinct roots in the algebraic closure, but I haven't been able to understand why.
Vile Differential
@chilly radish what is an “additive” polynomial
So if $n=0$ then this polynomial is separable and this is clear. In the case that $0$ is a repeated root i'm having a harder time seeing why this is true.
Vile Differential
this polynomial is additive as a function over k because it's a polynomial in powers of p
that's all
Ah okay okay
like I tried just factoring out the repeated roots of 0 to end up with a separable polynomial but i'm not getting the correct number
The issue with factoring is that you end up with something not additive
So you can’t apply induction, yeah?
@chilly radish I think I have a solution
I haven’t totally fleshed out the last bit, but basically it goes like this
When looking at roots we can look at this defined over any finite extension of k right?
sure
So let’s say we have n > 0, we can look at k^1/p^n and basically take p^n-th roots and we end up with a polynomial of the same form where n = 0
And basically we transpose between the two using Frobenius
I don't understand what you mean by k^1/p^n
Adjoin all p^n-th roots
oh
Actually do we even need that?
I think not
A solution a to p(x)
Gives a solution a^{p^n} to p(x^1/p^n)
That latter expression actually makes sense because we assumed n is minimal in that expression
And a solution a to p(x^1/p^n) gives a solution a^1/p^n to p(x)
It’s okay to take p-th roots because the a live in k-bar
Something like this is the idea I think
I think you're right
you can do a substitution of x^1/p^n to reduce to the n=0 case
nice
which doesn't play well with the powers
exactly
I'm still wondering why this approach is wrong: Factor out x^(p^n-1), then you get a separable polynomial of degree x^(p^m-p^n+1). Might not be additive anymore, but it doesn't matter, then this has p^m-p^n+1 distinct roots (inc. 0)
like these 2 expressions in general should not be equal, so what's the mistake in my argument
I’m not sure the polynomial is separable (so we don’t know about the # of distinct roots)
When you take a derivative on the additive polynomial with n = 0
A bunch of p^k come down and kill stuff so the derivative is just a_n
But when you factor out x^{p^n-1} when you take the derivative a bunch of numbers come down which aren’t divisible by p
So the derivative is an actual polynomial so it has roots which might coincide with the original polynomial’s roots
right, this is the problem
when you factor it doesn't kill the higher terms in the derivative
only when you substitute
Right, so that’s why your proof falls apart


In a ring, can multiplication be viewed as repeated addition only if the ring is a principle ideal domain
Tbh im just saying this without really thinking about it
So forgive if its stupid
Well, it surely needs to be an integral domain for multiplication to be viewed as repeated addition
I wouldn't say multiplication in F[X] is repeated addition (for F a field)
Can multiplication be viewed as repeated addition only if there is some ring homomorphism out of Z into the ring
Im really just spitballin here
I have messed up the direction of my logic aka I missed the 'only'
But I do think this is correct (edit: misread as 'onto the ring')
And I think in order to even say what 'multiplication is repeated addition' is you need that
I'm interepreting it as for each $a,b\in R$ you can write $ab$ as some $a+\dots+a$
Edward II
And then taking $a=1$ gives you the homomorphism $\bZ \to R$ being surjective
Edward II
oh I suppose this is when rings have identity
You always have a ring homomorphism from Z, given by mapping n to 1 + 1 + ... + 1 (n times).
Then multiplication by n is repeated addition, but of course every element isn't necessarily an integer. For example multiplication by pi does not look like repeated addition of real numbers.
There is always a homomorphism from Z to your ring
It's the one sending n to n*1
Oh jagr already said this
multiplication by -2 is adding -2 times 
sry to bother, is this proof valid?
Does G/H have to be finite?
Then the first line is wrong
Yes
I’m trying to show that a group of order 288 is not simple. I have shown that the order of the normalizer of the intersection of two Sylow-3 subgroups is 36
i’m not sure how this helps me but I am stuck
No, you seem to be assuming that each aH is a group and is finite (when you say that a' ∈ aH implies ord a divides | ord aH |)
ok thanks for the help
Is this always true?
Ah i figured out where i was going wrong right as i posted this lol
Hmm ... it's a nice question. You can prove it with a bit of representation theory (Burnside's theorem does it), but it's a nice question to do it with the Sylow theorems
Can anyone help me understand the line "It follows directly from the lattice iso theorem that..."
Really not seeing it i thought that N_G(H) was the union of all subgroups of G containing H such that H is normal in that subgroup but i also dont think this is true
i mean yeah i know burnsides theorem would knock it out since it’s prime factorization only has two distinct primes but i can’t use that
i want to do it using sylow theorems and am stuck
i know that a group of order 36 either has a normal sylow 2 or a normal sylow 3 i guess
the issue is that the sylow 2s can intersect in multiple different ways so i can’t pin down enough about them to know anything useful
i stg all the things i'm having trouble verifying nowadays come in the form "it is immediate that..." "it is obvious that..." 😭
how exactly do we know that {1, a} spans E? i understand that they're linearly independent
is this a linear algebra theorem that i forgot
Well you have a linearly independent set with 2 elements
So it generates a 2 dimensional subspace
oh right
The only one in K is just K
also how do we know that there's a relation of the given form
why sully lol
nvm i'm dumb
anyone about?
if $[F: K] = m$ would the isomorphism $F \simeq K^m$ just be given by $k_1a_1 + k_2a_2 + \dots + k_ma_m \mapsto (k_1, k_2, \dots, k_m)$ where ${a_1, \dots, a_m}$ are a basis for $F$ over $K$
okeyokay
Yes
what's the purpose of the vector space column? (wikipedia's article on K-algebras)
it says it in the first line of the article
"In mathematics, an algebra over a field (often simply called an algebra) is a vector space equipped with a bilinear product."
Yeah so it's just highlighting the underlying vector space structures
I could talk about R4 and not think about the quaternions.
Apparently there are no homomorphism from the rationals Q->S3 into the symmetric group on 3 labels.
Is this just because all elements of S3 have finite order but most of Q doesn't. I can't exactly remember why it follows from this if so.
so is the only difference between a K-algebra A and a ring A that A is considered a vector space over a field K?
what if K isn't a field and is instead a commutative ring, like Z
are they equivalent then
I think some people call K algebras modules with a bilinear product. I can't remember. There has to be a name for that
That's not the reason it doesn't exist, e.g you have homomorphisms from Z to cyclic groups
Damn I knew that wasn't the reason
It doesn't exist because Q is Abelian but S3 is not
Oh okay thanks
Why couldn't there be a homomorphism into the center of S3?
What is the center of S3
I assume you mean non trivial homomorphism btw
Because there always is one that sends everything to the identity
Oh okay I see. There is no nontrivial center of S3. I guess if there was one you could pick another permutation that moved something that thing in the center moved and those wouldn't commute. Okay thank you
The extra structure in the K-algebra is the ring homomorphism K → Z(A) from K to the center of A
does anyone know what the notation (a1, a2, ..., an) represents?
oh interesting
A vector in F^n
I have made a huge mistake
S3 does have cyclic subgroups
So in theory you could have maps into those
I think you can get something from f(1/n) = f(1)^-n for each integer n
(And each homorphism from Q is deternined by f(1))
Oh even better: f(q) = f(6q/6) = f(q/6)^6
(I initially got confused by a recent example I saw where Abelianity was the deciding factor and monkey brain go brrr)
Ah I see my issue. I mean there are no group homomorphisms from Q to S3
Well, 2 * 1/2 = 1
You might be right, and this is a sign I should go to bed. However, this bit works regardless
The rationals are not generated by their additive identity
i'm a bit confused, how does R being finite-dimensional over K show that it's surjective? say {a1, .., an} is a basis of R over K. how do we get the element k1a1 + ... + knan using h if we don't necessarily know that a is invertible?
Pigeonhole principle
oh goodness
Except you call it rank-nullity
They are not, but if f(1) = x, then 2 f(1/2) = x
And similarly for any other 1/n
Nothing saying f(1/2) needs to be uniquely determined but that’s a pretty strict condition
My bad. I was referring to a group homomorphism from Q to S3. I don't think S3 is a ring
It isn’t
But 2 f(1/2) still is a thing
f(1/2)^2 rather
How is the ring structure relevant to the group structure. I was only concerned about the group homomorphisms from Q->S3. Did I miss something?
It’s literally not the ring structure homie
1/2 + 1/2 = 1
f(1/2) * f(1/2) = f(1)
It’s a group homomorphism
Oh
Every element of Q has infinite order except for 0
Every finitely generated subgroup of Q is cyclic, while S_3 itself is not
Theres many reasons why
- Y'all should be careful with wording: there is the trivial homomorphism from Q to S3
- Those statements do not imply the nonexistence of a nontrivial homomorphism. As a counterexample, Z also satisfies the above conditions, but there are nontrivial homomorphisms from Z to S3
Ah I read it as S3 to Q
Also what is an example of a nontrivial homomorphism from Z to S3?
Like just send 1 to (123) ah
How do I proof $\forall n>2 S_{n}$, all permutations can be decomposed into elements of $S_{2}$?
Living Hydrogen Cyanide
Also if $\sigma = \tau_{1} \tau_{2}\dotsi \tau_{r} = \kappa_{1} \dotsi \kappa_{p}$ (i.e. sigma can be decomposed in two different ways, $\tau$ and $\kappa$, then $(-1)^{r} = (-1)^{p}$?
Living Hydrogen Cyanide
yes
look at the kernel of the morphism sign:S_n->{+1,-1}
I believe the proof isn't that hard I just lost the skill to proof it
you can't be both in the kernel and not in the kernel
so $\phi : S_{n} \rightarrow {+1,-1}, ker $\phi$ is locked to only have one Im?
Living Hydrogen Cyanide
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
yeah
Sweet
those in the kernel are those consisting of an even number of transpositions
to show that any permutation can be written as a product of transpositions it's enough to show that any cycle can be written as a product of transpositions
since any permutation can be written as a product of disjoint cycles
and then the case of cycles is not so hard, you can try it for some small cycles and figure out what the general pattern is
it's enough to do this for a basic n-cycle (1 2 ... n) since you can just relabel everything
"Show that a finite group of even order has an odd number of elements
of order 2"
Any hints on this?
I thought of considering the subgroup generated by elements of order 2, but it doesn't look like the order of that subgroup can be determined
The map g |-> g^-1 is a bijection on G. How many fixed points does it have?
As many as the number of elements of order 2

+1
Because of identity
Is there some relevant theorem regarding fixed points? I don't know any
Wait
The number of fixed points = the number of the non-fixed points, right?
Hmm no this is wrong
So how many elements are not fixed points? Is that an even or odd number?
Ah wait I think I see
Do we pair every not fixed point with its inverse and get that the number of not fixed points is even?
I realized that the map g |-> g^-1 is some kind of permutation of the elements with order > 2
And realized this must be some product of disjoint transpositions
I.e., even number of elements were permuted
Exactly, so there is an even number of 'not fixed points'. So is there an even or odd number of fixed points?
So let's say n is the number of elements in our group (even), k is the number of elements with order 2, then there are k+1 fixed points (the extra 1 is due to the identity element) and, if m is the number of not fixed points (even as we have just discovered), then we should have k + 1 + m = n and k = n - m - 1
The latter is odd
Looks like this can be generalized to n of any parity
So k and n will always be of different parities
Thank you
Indeed, the argument also works when n is odd, but then it's a little boring since k=0
Ah wait you are right, the order of the group being odd forces elements to have odd order
Can something similar be derived for elements of order 3?
For every prime number p dividing the order of the group, there exists an element of order p (Cauchy's theorem).
The way this is typically proved is as follows: consider all sequences (a_1, ..., a_p) whose product is the identity e. There are #G^(p-1) of those: the first p-1 elements can be freely chosen, and this fixes a_p uniquely. The cyclic permutation (a_p, a_1, a_2, ..., a_{p-1}) also has product e: this follows from the fact that a_p is the inverse of a_1...a_{p-1}, and inverses work on both sides. Cycling p times gives either p distinct sequences or p sequence that are the same, the latter being the case if all elements are the same (and thus leading to an element of order dividing p).
Since e is an element of order dividing p, the number of elements of order p has to be -1 modulo p, in order for the total number of sequences to add up to a multiple of p, which #G^(p-1) is.
Tbf, it's also easy to do directly right
I remember it being funny - Maynard in some lecture notes commented how a baby could do this naturally (rearrange objects by swapping two at a time)
I would basically just say like given σ in S_n, compose it w a transposition swapping σ(n) and n
then σ fixes n and we're done by induction
Proof by baby that rearranges
i mean the baby could probably do the same thing right lol
put the first one in the right place then go to the others
A baby would probably only swap two objects right next to each other, and this type of transposition is actually sufficient to get all possible permutations as well.
Orbit stabiliser is out, rearranging babies are in
a baby would eat the blocks 😬
True, just need to swap adjacent blocks to do the transposition I said
Find the Galois group of the field extension $\mathbb{F}_2(x) / \mathbb{F}_2(x^2)$
Seagull
can you write down the minimal polynomial for x over F_2(x^2)
I'd say there is none and x is trascendental on F_2(x^2)
Hey folks
Hello friend
Hey
The field extension is finite but inseparable, so there is no Galois group.
y^2-x^2 =0 is minimal satisfied by x. But yeah It is inseparable so only one element in Aut group I guess.
The theorem that says for any nonconstant polynomial over F there is an extension field E that contains a root of the polynomial
Is the idea basically that you factor the polynomial over F into irreducibles and then you basically create a field in which one of the irreducible factors are the “0” element in the new field?
Yes
Thanks
Show that a field extension $E/F$ is separable iff $E$ contains the splitting field of the minimal polynomial of an element $a \in E$.
Seagull
If the the extension is normal for any a the minimal polynomial is irreducible so it's splitting field is contained in E
But If I know there's this a how do I show that all irreducible polynomials split in E[x]?
This is not true as stated. Take F_p(x)=F and adjoin a p-th root of x, so E=F_p(x^1/p), then E/F is inseparable but is also the splitting field of t^p-x
indeed according to this every extension is separable since you can take a = 0
if two groups have the same orders, and the same amount of elements of each order, are they isomorphic?
ty
is this proof ok
im just trying to figure out why the isomorphic homs implies ismorphic modules
is it just by universal property of tensor product
Seems like it's proving something different to the stated aim. Though you could prove it in a similar way, by
Hom( A(x)S(x)F, X) =
Hom_S( S(x)F, Hom(A, X)) =
Hom_R( F, Hom_S( S, Hom(A, X))) =
Hom_R( F, Hom(A, X)) =
Hom( A(x)F, X)
Then yonedas lemma.
But this is just a consequence of the fact that tensor products are associative, so it would make more sense to just prove that.
yeah, im just not sure how to extend the fact that tensor products are associative to the case of tensoring with two rings
I mean, the tensor product is associative doesn't depend on the rings you tensor over being the same.
yeah, i'm just trying to prove that
oh nvm i found a math se post
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1485199/associativity-of-extension-of-scalar-tensor-product
its a shame i cant use yonedas, its a fun proof
Let f in R[x] with f=x^2019-x^2017+a_{2016} x ^2016 + a_{2015} x^2015 +...+ a_{0}. Knowing that all the roots of f are in R show that the lenght of the minimal interval where the roots is in [sqrt(2019/509545), 2].
The sum of roots is 0 and the product -a_{0}.
Now idk how to catch that lenght of the interval
I need some inequalities
For abs(max(roots)-min(roots))?
i think looking at the normalizer of a sylow-2 of the group of order 36 would work
@cloud solar wrong channel;
actually I had that problem in the contest, but I didn't solve it;
for the l<=2 part you can use the fact that sum for 1<=i<j<=2019 of (x_i-x_j)^2 is 4.
La Gheorghe lazar?
da
Super. Un sfat pt onm clasa a 12a? În general problemele de polinoame ca alea sunt mai dure.
@cloud solar n-am prea vazut polinoame la ONM;
in orice caz; pentru algebra recomand sa parcurgi tot ce e semnat de Marian Andronache - el are cele mai bune probleme de algebra
daca ai gazeta electronica da un search dupa "Andronache"; iarasi Ion Savu si Ioan Baetu au probleme bune de algebra
daca nu ai gazeta electronica, poti sa-mi dai pm si iti trimit arhiva; e o resursa pe care o consider esentiala
Nu am gazeta electronica. Îți dau dm?
da
Oh yeah, that's very cool! If the Sylow 2-subgroup is normal in the group of order 36, then the normalizer definitely has to have order >=72 and then you can easily show that the group is not simple. If it's not normal, it's less clear to me, but this seems like the right path.
well a group of order 36 either has a normal sylow 2 or sylow 3
so i supposed you’d just do something similar with that
i’m not sure it’s clear to me why the normalizer of a sylow 2 which is normal in a group of order 36 has order atleast 72 though
a normalizer of a normal subgroup is just the whole group which it is contained in right
which would be 36
what does it mean to "classify every group"?
is it classifying in isomorphism classes?
cus at least when I first heard of it, "classifying every group" just seemed like something that would end when people were in the mood
doesn't seem like an objective goal
but isomorphism classes are objective ig
sorry but this there a way to remove myself from the helper role I think I accidentally put myself on it. I get pinged every 5 secs its a bit distracting
(I mean, every simple group)
i think so, yeah
given a group G and a normal subgroup N, does there always exist an endomorphism G --> G such that im N is not contained in N?
N = 0
oh i meant for like any arbitrary subgroup sorry
my thought process is that this should be true
take any element in G - N and consider left multiplication
surely there must be some element that takes us out of N
otherwise G would be all of N
i think that works?
i think that works, but i just realized it's irrelevant to the result i'm trying to establish LOL
It's normal, because the normalizer contains a subgroup of order 9 (of course), but the normal subgroup of order 4 is contained in a sylow 2-subgroup and normalizers in p-groups always get bigger, so there's also a normalizing 2-subgroup of size >=8, giving us the subgroup of size >=72.
H (normal sylow 2 in group of order 36) is contained in P (sylow 2 of group of order 288).
which subgroup are you considering the normalizer of after this?
could I get a hint for this question (in the case that $M$ has index 2): I approached it by letting $\varphi: G \to H$, and considering two homomorphisms $f_1: H \to H \to H/M$ and $f_2: H \to H \to H/M$, and am trying to show that $f_1 \circ \varphi = f_2 \circ \varphi$, but $f_1 \neq f_2$. I know that I couldn't consider any homomorphisms $f_i: H \to H/M$ since they would just end up being the trivial ones and hence being equal, so I need to factor through something. the problem i've encountered after realizing this is the condition that $f_1 \neq f_2$ but $f_1 \circ \varphi = f_2 \circ \varphi$, since all homomorphisms that I end up constructing either end up being the trivial ones or end up wtih $f_1 \circ \varphi \neq f_2 \circ \varphi$
okeyokay
Woah interesting
ikr this problem is fun
None. Once you have a group of order 72 you have a subgroup of index 4, which gives you a non-trivial homomorphism to S_4, so the kernel of that map is your normal subgroup
no i understand this argument. i’m just not sure where the group of order 72 is coming from to get to this point
like how are you constructing the sub group of order 72, it’s not quite clear to me
but anyways, if say $k_1: H \to H$ with domain $M$ sends elements of $M$ to elements of $H - M$, then we have $G \xrightarrow{\varphi} H \xrightarrow{k_1} H \xrightarrow{\pi} H/M$ nontrivial. on the other hand, if $k_2: H \to H$ with domain $M$ with $\text{im } k_2 \subseteq M$, then $G \xrightarrow{\varphi} H \xrightarrow{k_2} H \xrightarrow{\pi} H/M$ is trivial.
okeyokay
It requires that the 4-subgroup is normal in the 36 group. Just consider its normalizer. It contains a subgroup of order 9, but the 4-group also lives in a genuine sylow 2-subgroup of order 32. The normalizer in that group has size >=8, so the normalizer group has size at least 72.
so this leads us to consider homomorphisms with domain M into H either with range M or not M separately
idk maybe i'm babbling
gotcha okay
If I,J are prime ideals of a comm. ring R, is I intersect J a prime ideal of R?
wait nvm i'm dumb
But I’m not sure how to proceed
well the prime ideals of Z are of the form (p) for a prime
yeah
splotchvan
$p_1=m\cdot p_2/n$
splotchvan
Yeah but the more general the better
so pick two specific prime ideals in Z and show their intersection is not prime
I like this way
its sometimes true though
that the intersection of two prime ideals is prime
no lcm
no
show that there is only one ring homomorphism between Z and Z[i]
Hmm
Hint: || What does 1 in Z have to map to in Z[i]? Does this determine the rest of the map? ||
f(1)=1
Yes, so what does that say about f(n)?
f(n)=n?
Yes
Wait how
f(n) = f(1 + 1 + … + 1) = n • f(1) = n • 1 = n
Yep
Thx
Any online calculator for polynomial division over Zn[x]
Want to check
I’m on mobile so i can’t code it
would this work if i had a normal sylow-3 in the group of order 36
the normalizer of that would contain a subgroup of order 4
i don’t think it quite works though since the normal 3 subgroup of order 9 in the group of order 36 is still a sylow 3 in G
Nvm
how can i use the first iso theorem to show Z[x]/I is isomorphic to Z2?
Where I is the ideal of Z[x] consisting of all polynomials with all even coefficients
Wouldn’t i need a homomorphism f : Z[x] -> Z[x]/I with f(Z[x]) = Z2?
Z2 is not a subset of Z[X]/I
Yeah that’s why i was confused
Aren’t those not isomorphic tho
can somebody explain to me how exactly part a) follows from F10? I understand that L1 is a subset of E, and so we can consider L2(L1)/L2 as in F10, but doesn't this require the hypothesis that L1/L2 is algebraic? and we don't necessarily know that
did they mean if L1/L2 is algebraic?
Does I have identity?
I don’t think so?
Since all coefficients have to be even that means a_0 also
In a polynomial
So 1 notin I?
L2 is algebraic over L2, and L1L2 = L1(L2)
And L1 is gonna be K(L1)
Hmmm
But no since in that case L1 L2 = L1, since it already contains L2
ya but in order to apply the theorem don't we need L1 = L2
No?
Yeah no duh that’s algebraic in that case
L2 contains K
And L1 algebraic over K
oh wait we can just say that L1(L2)/K is algebraic
L2(L1)/L2
and algebraic elements remain algebraic over lifting
so L1(L2)/L2 is algebraic
math prodigy?
nvm
Yeah
But i also need to show I is a maximal ideal of Z[x]
Wait
Are these even isomorphic
Z[x]/I and Z2
I don’t think they’re homomorphivc by the indicator homomorphism phi(f(x)) = 0 if f in I, 1 if f notin I
But phi has ker phi = I and im phi = Z2…
What other homomorphism is there???
Because consider two polynomials in Z[x] of same degree and all odd coefficients. The sum of all respective coefficients will be even and thus the sum polynomial will be in I
So phi(f(x)+g(x)) = 1 neq 0 = phi(f) + phi(g)
Am i crazy???
Im a fucking idiot
f + g \in I, so phi(f + g) = 0
How can i prove that I is a maximal ideal of Z[x]?
uhh
suppose J is an ideal such that I < J \leq Z[x]. Then let j in J \setminus I.
uhhhh
this isnt going to work
Z[X]/I is a field, so I must be maximal
How do you know it’sa field
because Z[X]/I is isomorphic to Z2 which is afield
wait the indicator homomorphism isnt a homomorphism
phi(x + 1) = 1
phi(x) + phi(1) = 1 + 1 = 0
try phi : f |-> f(0) mod 2
$\mathbb{Z}[X]/I$ is definitely not $\mathbb{Z}_2$. For instance note that $1 + I \neq x + I$, since $1 - x \not\in I$, so there are at least 3 elements
You’re saying they aren’t iso?
wrench
...yeah
since there are at least 3 elements: 1 + I, x + I, and 0 + I, but Z2 only has 2 elements
Oh I figured it out. Consider $\phi : \mathbb{Z}[X] \to \mathbb{Z}_2[X]$, which sends $a_0 + a_1x + ... a_nx^n$ to $\overline{a_0} + \overline{a_1}x + ... + \overline{a_n}x^n$. Clearly $\ker \phi = I$, and $\phi(\mathbb{Z}[X]) = \mathbb{Z}_2[X]$, so there you go
oop
wrench
@sinful holly oh. i think since we are assuming G is not simple, we know that there are more than one sylow 3 subgroups of order 9. in particular, the subgroup of order 36 has more than one sylow 3 subgroup, so it can’t be normal
so the only case is that it has a normal sylow 2 in which we’re done
What is the bar
means equivalence class mod 2
You used Z2[x]
Its supposed to be just Z2
its definitely wrong, just think about it
So it’s a typo
0 + I, 1 + I, x + I, x^2 + I, etc... are all distinct elements in Z[X]/I
uhhh are you sure I is the set of polynomials with only even coefficients?
LOL
Well, you want to send everything where a0 is even to zero, and where a0 is odd not to zero
Can you think of a natural way to do that
a0 mod 2
(Note that it might be easier to show a0 mod 2 is a homomorphism if you use f(0) = a0 (in Z))
Ok
Final question for you
Let I be the ideal of Z[x] consisting of all polynomials a_2x^2 + … + a_nx^n for any n
So all polynomials at least degree 2
(Union 0)
Is Z[x]/I an integral domain
@random sail
?
It’s not, since Z[x]/I is an integral domain if and only if I is prime, but x • x is in I but x is not so I is not a prime ideal
Thanks all for your help
You really should know the theorems for a commutative ring R
- R/I is an integral domain iff I is prime
- R/I is a field iff R is maximal
pretty well
Can be similar said about the noncommutative ring?
ig you can say for a left ideal I, the left R-module R/I is simple if and only if I is a maximal left-ideal. dunno how one talks about prime ideals in non-commutative setting
you could always make up a weird definition, but i haven't run into those in the wild so far
I see.
If i subset of J or J subset of I this is true. However in other cases I contains a element x not in J and J contains a element y not in I. Then try observing xy
The definition often given is that a (right/left/two sided) ideal P is prime if for any (right/left/two sided) ideals I, J if IJ < P then either I or J is in P. Or equivalently for any two elements a and b if arb is in P for all r, then either a or b is in P.
In these cases R/P is called a prime ring, but I don't think the concept comes to very often.
Oh, that sounds quite natural
Ahh very nice. I do understand. You constructed the group of size 36 by looking at the normalizer of an intersection of Sylow 3-subgroups, so the normalizer contains at least those two groups of order 9. OK, that's cool---I never would have thought to try to prove that a group of order 32*9 is not simple using Sylow theory.
doing that thing halmos said of trying to prove everything in a section before reading it is really worth it I think
proving everything in artin's second chapter from homomorphisms turn inverses into inverses to the first isomorphism theorem was definitely an experience
@icy bear you are still in high school?
ye
how old are you
15
Nice
why
ur thing says pre university so i was curious
oh
its also cool youre learning this so early though
ye, I like higher math a lot
at 15 i was just doing like my grade 10 curriculum math which was extremely basic stuff lol
you are planning to study it in uni i presume?
yes
but I really enjoy studying those things so I just do it
I hope so
ya i do too. its sort of addicting isnt it
hahaha
are you in uni?
i graduated my bachelors degree last may but i am taking an abstract algebra course rn at a random school for fun, cuz beleive it or not i never did it during my degree lol
i could have but i wanted to maintain a high gpa
the degree was in math but the courses i took was just a lot of random stuff
probability, complex analysis, dynamical systems
more applied courses
what's a gpa
grade point average
interesting
i just wanted to maintain highest grades i could
so i shyed away from the hard stuff
but i want to learn the hard stuff now
yeah, tbh i think it was a good decision
it allowed me to for eg apply to medical school too cause i have a very high grade average
getting away from difficult stuff in uni to mantain a high gpa

and i can always learn the hard stuff later, like i am doing rn
what's gpa for?
u dont like that dont u
like, why do people want to mantain it high
well it helps for grad school stuff
law school, med school etc
if u end up deciding those routes
hum
Grades are the deciding factor for getting into certain schools / study programs many places.
so sad Sn has order n! because lagrange's theorem means nothing to it 😭
Well you still know there are no subgroups of S_n whose order is divided by a prime > n.
oh yeah
didn't think about that
and that the greatest cycle would be the n-cycle (which is obvious but interesting that you can use lagrange to prove that)
Not sure what lagrange tells you about cycles. For example S5 has an element of order 6, and I don't see that you can abstractly distinguish cycles from other elements.
it's cus the cycle has order n
how can S5 have an element of order 6 if 6 doesn't divide 5!?
6 divides 120...
Leno
i went all the way from 1-300 haha
Looks good to me.
When proving rings, groups etc are isomorphic in a theorem does one usually employ an isomorphism theorem?
It seems like thats the strategy so far
Do something with the kernel that makes stuff work out
yeah
Thanks
Ive just seen it in a few different places thats why im wondering. Right now i was reading thru proof of quotient field of D has subring isomoprhic to D
But there are other ways
there are ofc other ways
if u open up an undergrad textbook in algeb ra
check the exercisies
most of the time its constructing a surjective homomoprhism isntead
and then applying first iso
G finite abelian group. We say a in G has property (A) if there is a subgroup H<=G s.t. the product of elements of H is equal to a. Show that the set of elements with property (A) form a subgroup of G
Let a, b in G with property (A). So there is H_a,H_b<=G s.t. prod(H_a)=a, prod(H_b)=b. Because G is finite abelian prod(H_a)=prod(order 2 elements in H_a) and same for H_b
yeah product of all elements seems a tad sus lol
Since G abelian then H_aH_b is a subgroup of G
Now I want to find somehow a minimal subgroup of H_aH_b
h contains h^-1 for all H in h, so the product of all elements in H is the identity
No
what you mean no
The product is the order 2 elements
yeah true carry on
no wait I still don't like it. Let a, b in H order 2, then ab is in H, so the expression ab(ab) appears in the product of all elements
what's gone wrong here
H could be cyclic of order 2, right ok
so if H has a unique involution it doesn't multiply to 0
now I'm happy
If I look qt the set of elements with order <=2 in H_a this set is a subgroup cuz H_a abelian.
Let s call it S_a
Same for S_b
If I look at the set S_aS_b this is a subgroup
Maybe this is the subgroup with the the product of all elements =ab
this situation is actually very cool. Let $V = {v_1, ..., v_m}$ be the group of involutions, none of the products of involutions are equal to each other, then we get a nice cancellation as the product of all elements is $\prod_{k=1}^{|V|}\prod_{v \in K \subset V, |K| = k} v = \prod_{i=1}^m v_i^{m_i}$ with $m_i$ even unless $m = 1$,
Wew The Lads Tbh
so since all of the m_is are even, the product is trivial
Another solution could be to notice that such an element ||has order 2|| and that ||all elements of order 2 have property (A)||
I have a hunch there's a cohomological interpritation to this, the nerve of an exponent 2-group should be the full n-simplex with n = the rank of the group
oh i don't care about the original problem I'm just sludge posting
Yes i noticed it
yeah and you also noticed that all elements of order 2 form a subgroup in an abelian group
“Are Z9 and Z3 + Z3 isomorphic as rings?”
Answer: no?
I saw that Z9 has 8 units and Z3+Z3 has 4
Isomorphism preserves units
Z9* = {1,2,4,5,7,8} which is 6 not 8
Lol oops i meant 6
now lemme think about Z3

