#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 187 of 1
a u w u b 
I have to draw out the entire lattice in my head 
those are some long arrows
not long enough imo
does i have degree 2 over Q(a) since it's just a root of x^2 + 1 in Q(a)
yes
not "in Q(a)"
usually you only know x^2+1 is irred over Q, this has the same content as [Q(i):Q] = 2
but it is also irreducible over Q(a) right
but now you also know x^2+1 is irred over Q(a)
oh I see
right now I get the intuition 
but yea i doesn't lie "in Q(a)"
is that not the same thing?
i mean i is also a root of x^2+1 in C[x]
but that's not saying it's irreducible over C right
Is there some sort of shortcut or is showing associativity really annoying here
Q12
Like i need to unravel all these set theory formulas
"see it" 
commutativity is obvs, then I imagine the rest is just De Morgan's bashing
annoying!
anyway, show that there is a bijection between P(I) and Maps(I, Z/2Z)
you're using this bijection to turn P(I) into a ring
where Maps(I, Z/2Z) is a ring under pointwise addition and multiplication
wait what
oh this is for 14?
12 right?
Im doing 12
and 14 actually 
A+B is the symmetric difference and A*B is intersection
Oh thats cool^
det no understand 
you can think of boolean rings like those maps you mentioned
I didn't see how we could see the ring in 12 as those maps, until I realised it was also boolean
my apologies my thought process is very scatterbrained constantly and doesn't come across very coherently sometimes
nah, but you need to first check axioms to show it a ring then only you can use 14 right
not really. a subset A of I has the same data as a function f : I --> Z/2Z which maps elements of A to 1 and rest to 0.
that's called the characterisitc/indicator function of A, denoted \chi_A or 1_A
yeah, I didn't meant as a solution to 12 - it was more me understanding where your construction came from
oh interesting 
another similar idea is to show "XOR-ing" is associative.
x in (A+B) iff (x in A) xor (x in B)
then, x in (A+B)+C iff (x in A) xor (x in B) xor (x in C) iff x in A+(B+C)
wait wut
how did Lang get that the rational root must be 1 or -1
how does that make sense too since it's not a root of it
that's the rational root theorem
if p/q with (p, q) = 1 was a root, then p^3-pq^2+q^3=0
damn i must have missed it
so p | q^3 implying p | 1 and similarly q | 1
i see, thanks
would the Galois group of $f(x) = x^3 - 10$ over $\mathbb{Q}$ be $\text{Gal}(\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[3]{10}, \xi \sqrt[3]{10})/\mathbb{Q}) \simeq S_3$ where $\xi$ is a third root of unity?
okeyokay
how is this done?
not the best notation I've ever seen
this is in a field Z5[x] mod that polynomial
its from a teaching assistant
Is it by polynomial division?
then it's all just using properties of mod
like, the definition of what it means for x to be congruent to y mod z is that x = y+kz for some k in your ring
could u run me through 2 or 3 examples rq?
so when we mod out by z we can just say that x = x+kz because obviously x is congurent to itself
i have Z5
ok then x = y mod 5 if and only if x = y+5k for some k in Z
mod the polynomial x^2+4x+1
and I wanna compute the powers of (x+3) mod that polynomial
so (x+3) mod that
(x+3)^2 mod that
and so on
this would just stay the same i suppose
there's a different polynomial in the image which is strange but ok
yes that was for another exercise
modding out by x^2+4x+1, so x^2+4x+1 = 0, so x^2 = -4x-1 = x+4
we can now use this to cancel down all higher powers of x into just linear stuff
so this would then equal to x^2+6x+9 mod that polynomial no?
yeah, but since you're in Z/5Z x^2+6x+9 = x^2+x+4 = (x+4)+x+4 = 2x+8 = 2x+3
ah true
how does one get from x^2+x+4 to (x+4)+x+4
yes, btw
we just calculated that because x^2 + 4x+ 1 = 0 in our new ring, that x^2 = -4x-1 = x+4
(x+3) is either going to be order 5 or order 25 so lets hope (x+3)^6 = x+3 lol
sorry, that's not true
well im trying to prove it for Z5 star
that x+3 is a generator
and my idea was to show its of order 24
so I wanted to show trhat its not of order 1 2 3 4 6 8 12
yeah, that'll work
you have the relators 5 = 0 and x^2 = x+4
other than that it's exactly like you'd expect it to work
not typing it out again
would the galois group over Q adjoin root 2 be the same then
ahh got it tysm
not sure about that one! Are the degrees the same
oh wait it's the cube root of 10
yes, then they would be the same
cool thx
there will be a nice way to do this hold on
multiplication by (x+3) is an endomorphism of the underlying ring - which is a degree two extenstion of Z/5Z, so we can write it as a 2x2 matrix in M_2(Z/5Z). Specifically:
(x+3)(ax+b) = ax^2+3ax+bx+3b = ax+4a+3ax+bx+3b = (4a+b)x+(4a+3b)
So we can represent mulitplication by x+3 via the matrix
(4 1)
(4 3)
check the order of this matrix in GL_n(Z/5Z) and boom
$\begin{pmatrix} 4 & 1 \ 4 & 3 \end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix} a \ b \end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix} 4a+b \ 4a+3b \end{pmatrix}$
this is exactly the same action that multiplication by $x+3$ has on $ax+b$
Wew The Lads Tbh
that's the idea, it's just a reframing
uh huh
how do i extract the solution for x+3 to the power of 3 from that then for example
who cares, you just want the order
the answer is uh very painfully though
yeah good point I should actually check that this has order 24
it does!
I'm not chatting shite for once
thats crazy
well Im doing it by just calculating the first two now
and then just substituting the next ones with those
to simplify them
for (x+3)^4 i got x
matches up with the matrix as well, if you take this matrix and raise it to 4 you get
(1 1)
(4 0)
and x(ax+b) = ax^2+bx = ax+4a+bx = (a+b)x+4a, just incase you weren't convinced!
i see
no I was haha dw
What would I get for 5x+3?
i.e. for the power of 6
or is it not simplifiable
we can just skip straight to 12 if you wanted btw
if 12 isn't the identity then we know that all the lower powers aren't as well
it's a good exercise to do these calculations though! Get a feel for quotient rings
yea!!
lol one more verification, the Galois group over Q adjoin sqrt(-3) would also be the same right, since the splitting field for f(x) = x^3 - 10 over Q adjoin sqrt(-3) would be Q(sqrt(-3), sqrt3, and so f(x) irreducible over Q adjoin sqrt(-3) (it has no roots in it since the cube root of 10 is not contained in it) implies that we can look at the discriminant, whose square root is 30 times sqrt(-3) which is in Q(sqrt(-3))
what the hell is k^2
that must mean that c is not already the square of something in k
how would I do this?
looks like some type of binomial formula to me if i insert the hint
but I suppose I have to do some rewriting to get the actual one
silly question, but if E/k is algebraic, how do we know there exists an embedding of E into k^a fixing k?
watch this
can i get this to a square +2ab + b square somehow?
Man idk how to explain this better than simply saying this is basically the definition of the algebraic closure of k. Like, that's the property you want it to have. Idk how you're constructing it but it should have this property by the construction.
You could say that since k^a is by definition the direct limit (categorical colimit) of all the algebraic extensions of k, every algebraic extension embeds in it necessarily.
Picture this
Someone walks up to you while you're sitting on a bench
and they show you a book and say "help"
you wait for them to explain what their problem is
they don't do so
I think this is a funny image in my head.
imagine how confused you would be
Do you know about the Jacobson radical?
Or perhaps easier, do you see what the units are in this ring?
Perfect analogy Boytjie
then they scream HELPERS!!!!! after 1 minute
Some subsets of rings that form rings under the same operations have a different identity than the original ring
But a ring like Z has no subsets that are rings with the same operation
And there is no subset of Z that can have a different element other than 1 act as identity
So are these facts related somehow?
Rings that share the unit are called unital, recall.
unimodular
Indeed Z has no unital subrings aside from itself
I havent learned that defn before
This is because Z is the initial ring. If R is any ring, then there is a unique ring homomorphism f : Z -> R sending 1 to 1.
Now let's think about what this would mean in terms of Z itself
I wonder if that's true of initial objects in other categories - they can't have any subobjects
(some people include identity in just 'ring' so follow your course if this is a course)
If R were a unital subring of Z, then there is a map Z -> R -> Z which must be the identity map by uniqueness, so the image of the map R -> Z must be the whole of Z
Same thing for K-algebras over a field K, since K is initial. Dw if this is greek to you.
Semisimple rings obv have trivial Jacobson radical, why is this so hard for me to prove 
Well, it simply means I am bad at this
Ah right, I think I already proved it
Jacobson radical J is annihilator of simple left modules, and the entire semisimple ring is sum of simple modules, so J is annihilator of entire ring
I don't see why this would be true, but I also can't think of an example offhand.
yeah, likewise
like, we have a monomorphism going into the terminal object and we assume that it's not the identity map
If you have a map f: X -> Ø, where Ø is an initial object, then because of the map Ø -> X, you have that f is split epi.
If f is both split epi and mono it's iso, so the only subobject of Ø is Ø itself.
FUCK
Well any subobject of the initial object would factor through itself. So to write it out, if A is initial and f : B -> A is a subobject, we have a map g : A -> B which is a right left inv—dammit
right ok, I didn't know the split epi result
I was considering chaining like, I -> X -> I -> X
and then this has to be I -> X
if X -> I -> X is the identity on X, I buy that it splits
but I can't see that atm
Is 2Z submodule of Z as a Z-module
So f: I -> X and g: X -> I, then
gf is identity on I, so gfg = g. If g is mono we can cancel it giving fg = identity
Try checking the definition!
No, the initial object there is (0)
Jagr just showed you can't have a subobject of initial, if that's what you're looking for
Mfw abelian category
Ah so intuition holds
ahhh compose them the other way - clever
obvious in hindsight but still nifty
bruh this is an intro to abstract algebra class
wait how would units help
(If gf = id, g is epi IIRC - if g is mono as well, clearly it is an iso I think, or idk)
(that was the "if both split epi and mono then iso" thing jagr mentioned)
Ahh, I see. Thanks
Might be a stupid question but what’s the difference between a polynomial who’s Galois group is isomorphic to C_2 and a one who’s Galois group is iso to S_2?
Can someone give an example?
C_2 and S_2 are isomorphic, so... no difference?
Ah, so the Galois group of
x^2 - 2 is isomorphic to both S_2 and C_2?
@rocky cloak if a and b are both odd then a/b is a unit. Idk how that's useful though
It's a small secret from Commutative Algebra: A ring is local (i.e. it has a unique maximal ideal) if and only if the set of non-units is an ideal.
You only need the "<=" direction, which is easy to prove (hint: if an ideal contains a unit, then it is the whole ring, so it's not maximal).
Really this is nothing to do with Galois groups, just plain groups C_2 and S_2
bro has a galois group as a bio
abstract algebra studies the most random shit
not true
I mean, everything studied is motivated by genuine questions/problems people had
name one theorem that makes sense to people outside of university math
Remarkably, when you talk to people who don't study what you study, they don't know things they haven't studied
no but you can still say interesting things about it
With group theory, you can talk about symmetry
Also there is this classical Galois theory which shows when polynomials have roots expressible with n-roots.
crystallography and cryptography
abel-ruffini (oh already mentioned)
Fermat
If you explained the idea of groups and symmetry then CFSG is pretty interesting
Some AT stuff is easy to explain
To give another concrete example, ruler and compass constructions, and in particular, construction of n-gons
I think that the core ideas of any topic in math can be explained to any minimally smart person in a short amount of time (might not be 5 mins, tho)
Doesn’t have to make sense, it’s not about making sense to people
Guys, quick question (and rather stupid perhaps). I have to prove $$(x^{-1})^n = x^{-n}$$ . I am able to do it using a theorem thats proved the addition law for exponents and induction. Without this though, how would I prove it?
KξRNΛL
Why
why what?
why do you hate induction
I don't but the exercise was asked before the theorem that proved addition of exponents. Now whilst it works in an exam, I wish to know a way that doesn't use that result.
isn't that a definition?
It may seem like it, but no
no. The definition is $$x^{-n} = (x^n)^{-1}$$
KξRNΛL
I was unable to prove it using this though without creating a circular argument.
You know inverses are unique, so show that both of these things are inverses of x^n
I think that's how I tried it but ill give it another go, thanks
Can I post my written solution? (it is a bit messy)
here
uh
Yur go ahead
$x^n(x^{-1})^n = (x…x)(x^{-1}…x^{-1}) = x…(xx^{-1})…x^{-1} = e$
Wew The Lads Tbh
You can do this inductively if you really want. And last time I got “erm aktually’d” by someone who demanded induction was needed
Um. The way I did it using induction though arrived at needing to add the exponents and that result is proved literally the theorem after this in the lec notes. So assuming I couldn't use it, I thought an argument like the above would be needed. Anyways ill use what you gave me and give it another go. Thanks 🙂
Wdym “use”? That’s the full proof it’s an inverse lol
oh ye lol
nice one
That's easier than what I though lol. I hate algebra, so many strange identities to prove....
just out of interest with this you have used the fact that $$(x^{n})^{-1} = (x^{-1})^{n}$$ right? Is this just allowed because it is a definition. I think my main problem with this is that I wasn't sure what I could and couldn't use.
KξRNΛL
They didn't use that fact, that's the one thing they're proving
Ye, I see it now. Thanks.
If $N$ is a normal in $G$ and $a \in G$ has order $o(a)$, prove that the order $m$, of $Na$ in $G/N$ is a divisor of $o(a)$.
numbpy
Since Na is a set, the order means the size of the set right?
In which case, shouldn't it be reversed like o(a) should be a divisor of m. For example consider G=S4, N=V (Klien 4 group) and consider a = (1 2)(3 4) which belongs to N also. Then ord(a) = 2 while Na = N has size 4 so ord(a) divides ord(Na)
Or am I missing something here?
Na is an element of the group G/N, so the order of Na means its order in this group
so in other words, the order of Na is the smallest positive integer k with (Na)^k=N
Heyy i remember doing that question
no
if you'd like a hint, there's a fairly natural homomorphism from G to G/N
Hint: ||show for a homomorphism φ:G --> H that the order of φ(g) divides the order of g||
And consider how that relate a la Wew
I know that but I'm not supposed to use it cause Herstein. What I was thinking was that since Na has order m so (Na)^m = Na^m = N = Ne so ord(a) divides m. Is something wrong with this reasoning?
That's exactly what I did a^m = e hence ord(a) divides m
@ebon pine a^m is not equal to e
Mfw people aren't allowed to use results to prove other results (because obviously mathematicians start from foundations to prove everything)
wait... they don't?? That'll explain my slow progress on my PhD...
@ebon pine you want to get m | ord(a)
so consider calculating (Na)^ord(a), refering to my previous hint
Ohhhh, I understand what mistake I was making. Thanks
Thanks @delicate orchid and @crystal turtle
Im trying to show that for a ring where a^2 = a for all a, then the ring is commutative
I got that ab+ba = 0
But thats like ab = -ba so not exactly what i want?
Start from a+a
See what you can conclude
Ok ill try thanks
Ohh you get that every element is the same as its additive inverse
Nkce
Nice

an hour late but a really nice way to see that boolean rings are characteristic two is (-1)^2 = -1 = 1
because "one-element \overline{1}" is enough?
you ask some odd questions
oh right like why don't they use just the symbol 1?
Well 1 = \overline 1 is shorter, so maybe with one-element, they don't even mean 1?
I think it's to emphasise that these are equivalence classes of integers rather than just integers
until next week when we stop caring and just write Z/mZ as {0... m-1}
Ah, alright
Does Q3 just kind of directly follow from Q2?
Q3 says phi is onto and by Q2 phi must be one to one, ok so its an isomorphism
yeah, you know they have to be injective - so if it's also surjective then obvs it's bijective
how did you do Q2 btw
I havent finished/written it up yet but if it wasnt one to one then phi would send elements that have inverses to 0 which doesnt have an inverse, and homomorphism preserves inverses
sure
Do you know the first isomorphism theorem for rings?
my favourite proof is that the kernel is an ideal
And what the ideals of a field might look like?
Ya it was covered in this section
Ideals not so much, we just did that last class and i need to read more about them
They cover ideals and factor rings in the following section in this book
@delicate orchid btw do u prefer rings or groups
I'm a group theorist lol
Oh cool
rings make no sense they're strange and mysterious beasts
I was more excited in the course when we were doing group theory
This stuff is still cool but i dont care as much for whatever reason
rings are only studied so we can put modules over them
Ive heard of modules but dk what they are
this isn't true but I don't recognise number theory as legitimate mathematics
vector spaces but instead of being over a field they're over a ring
Why?
oh yeah guys the uhhh "ring of integers" definitely depends on d mod 4. Yup.
I'm definitely not just making things up
sending things to 0 tends to map them into the zero ring yeah
Lol
judging by the stuff above these questions they really want you to do this
Somehow use the homomorphism theorem ?
To me using that is like next level stuff lol
They didnt introduce ideals until next section
For. Q3 i literally just said we know from q2 it must be one to one so if its also onto then its an isomorphism
I mean there is nothing else but that right?
but... there's quotient rings above the question?
This book does things weird
It introduces things without giving the definition
And then gives the defn later
This is the book by beachy and blair
No one mentions it so idek why my class uses this
Hmm. The only logical option is to drop out and sue them for malpractice.
Hello 👋 I hope you all having a great time 🌸
I have a question about lattices. If L is a lattice with a given diagram, how to find the congruence relations and draw ConL?
Is there a name for the extension to the fundamental theorem of arithmetic that shows that all members of Q⁺ have a unique product across the integral exponents of primes?
What is the key difference between the basis for free groups and the basis for vector spaces?
Like, why shouldn't we compare them even in terms of analogies, etc?
for free groups words are not commutative but for vector spaces addition is
Free Abelian groups and vector spaces are similar, just one is over Z and one is over F
Why is math addicting?
*meth
Does anyone know how to determine if S4 has a subgroup of order 8?
Do you know the sylow theorems?
I don't know that
Alright, maybe think of some groups that permute four things
what does permute four things mean?
product of two 2-cycles?
Many groups are naturally thought of as permuting things, like the symmetry groups of regular n-gons or cyclic groups or alternating groups or symmetric groups
Alternatively I guess you can just attack S4 directly, combining elements to try and make a group of order 8
but It seems too complicated and I don't know why I even construct a group of order 7, while its elements are order of 2 or 4
So it seems like you basically have it towards the end there. S4 has no subgroup of order 7 though...
So I feel really confused why this kind of subgroup can be constructed
its element can have order of 2 and 4, which makes me feel more confused but can not find new elements in this group to make it more reasonable
But you're looking for a group with 8 elements not 7, so there's no problem with not being able to construct one of order 7
At the end it looks like your considering the group generated by (12) and (1423)
That's a good idea
Yes, I am working on that now
You might recognize it as a group you know generated by a 4-cycle and a 2-cycle.
it seems that ict can not work
ict?
it
What do you mean?
Why can't it work?
I made a mistake, because I suddenly saw (12), (34) appear (but found that two 2cycles can't appear when I tried (12), (13)), that's my mistake
this should work now
Indeed, and you might notice that this is the symmetry group of a square
Which you can see by for example labeling the corners 1, 4, 2 and 3
Yes, it seems 1,4.2,3 and 1,2 as (1423)*(1423)
but symmetry seems to be the same stuffs?
Another question, can someone check write down all abelian group of order 360 up to isomorphisms? I wrote Z2Z2Z2Z3Z3Z5, Z360, Z2Z4Z9Z5, Z2Z4Z3Z3Z5, Z2Z2Z2Z9Z5, Z8Z3Z3*Z5, is it a complete list? Or do I have to write down what does these groups isomorphic to?
Looks pretty complete to me
OK, really appreciate that!
uhhh.... because you can always generate G with the generating subset <G>, and therefore the order of G is always the upper bound for the generating subset?
this seems incredibly obvious
yeah, probably the fact that they're choosing to define "finitely generated groups" in the exercises rather than the main body of the chapter
"prove Z is finitely generated" there we go, now we actually have a (slightly more) nontrivial question
Z=<1>
also <-1> by symmetry, but who's counting?
ok but actually proving that Q is not finitely generated is quite beautiful tbh
Nerd!!!!
absolutely.
Try extending this for Integral domains which are not a field. Fun exercise
Riku
haven't gotten there yet
Oh my bad I thought you were doing modules
Is there any way to prove there exist infinitely many nonabelian groups of order pq with p and q distinct primes, q fixed, without using that there exist infinitely many primes p with p=1 mod q ?
I'm doing generators and cyclic groups rn
Sorry what?
Have fun in group theory it's cool
ig you should fix q
You can classify all the groups of order pq and they’re all abelian unless p < q, p = 1 mod q
The point would be to prove the particular case of Dirichlet's theorem
So if there existed infinitely many, then you get the existence of infinitely many such pairs of primes
I'm talking about proofs
What?
You didn't address the question, but the first message I sent was unclear
so let me rephrase
Fix an arbitrary prime q. Is there any way to prove that there exist infinitely many nonabelian groups of order pq with p some other prime but without using that there exist infinitely many primes p with p=1 mod q ?
so that as a corollary, you get that there are infinitely many primes p with p=1 mod q
I assume your answer is still no, but you didn't explain why, if you meant to
No!! Ur supposed to be angry
Nerd and virgin!!
How about that
Math > Sex
Anyone?
#algechill
But .. lowkey true ?
they did not chill
.
$N\wedge V = \bot \ N\vee V = \top$
GoldenPhoenix
Nerd and virgin is false? Nerd or virgin is true?
logically speaking, yes.
Understood.
the determination of which variables have which values is left as an exercise for the reader.
The existence of infinitely many is a lot easier than dirichlet’s theorem
yes I know
although you need some dirichlet style theorem
can i have a hint for (1) => (2) please?
What would be an example for a normaliser of a subgroup H of G such that N(H) = H? Would simple groups satisfy this?
Pick your favorite group G, and consider H=G as a subgroup of itself
Yea but if we are talking about proper subgroups?
Wait I think {id, (1 2)} in S_3should work? Is this correct?
Can anyone give me a small hint for this one
My geometric answer is just you are in the same orbit if you act the same in a different basis
My new conjecture is they are in the same orbit if they have the same eigenvalues through a quick calculation
is this ||stffgmoapid||
What does GH mean?
Is it GH={gh}?
what is the geometric picture you have in mind?
I mean in this case that's just ||Jordan normal form||
Yep I saw that
{{1,1},{0,1}} and I_2
How do you show that A_4 is not simple. .Like, I know there exists V subgp of A_4 such that V is isomorphic to Z/2z x Z/2z. But how do you reach there?
Can't you show directly that there is no simple group of order 24?
What V is abstractly as a group doesn’t say anything about its normality
A_4 has 12 elements

Also why would you do that instead of just showing klein is normal. If you know a generating set for A4 this is not hard
Hell just check directly it's only 8 elements
Oh yeah right
A_4 has 12 elements
How do you show GL2(Z/2Z) is isomorphic to S3?
By finding an isomorphisjm
I couldn't find one
Ykw, I have a silly doubt here. How is (0 0)(0 0) in Gl2(Z/2z)
It's not
Okay yea right
Okay I'll try that
Thanks
The Galois group acts transitively on the roots of irreducible polynomials
can’t you show directly that there is no simple group of order 12?
Yes you can
By doing some sylow things
Well, you can for groups of order p^2q
Order 24 is actually trickier
||The number of 2-sylow subgroups is either 3 or 1. If it's 1 were done, if it's 3 then there's a map G -> S3. Since 24 > 6 this map must have a kernel.|| Badaboom
Oh nice
But in that case, the 3-sylows and 2-sylows needn't be normal
You can do some argument for p^3q in general, but you get the special case p+1=q lol. But yeah, you get trivial inequalities
they’re pretty much the same
A nice way that works for any p^a3 with p=2 is to note that if the group was simple you would have 3 p-sylow subgroups with no intersection, then there would be (p^a - 1)*3 + 1 elements of order dividing p, and so only 2 elements of order 3
standard trick
Because that is the definition.
Yes. Proceed by induction.
Thanks
Prove that $\overline a \in R$ has a multiplicative inverse in $\mathbb Z/m \mathbb Z$ $\iff$ $\gcd(a, m) = 1$.
Can someone please check what I have for the ==> direction?
oh you do know bezout's. Good
that makes my life easy
this proves both directions at once if you remove the first and last sentence
True, Bézout's lemma is an iff
I mean
and there they go, back into the void
Good luck picking a multiplicative inverse to 2 in the integers
ring homomorphisms send units to units, so a^-1 only exists if a is a unit in Z aka if a = {1, -1} using this argument
nah we're still at the stage where we care that elements of quotients are actually cosets
Yeah fair lol
^-1 makes sense only outside of the overline, true.
no - it only makes sense inside of the overline
I feel like you had a perfectly good proof and are now just overthinking it and coming up with nonsense
Tfw $\overline{2^{-1}}$
Chair MonkE-Girl
this is equal to 0.5 if you knew anything about complex numbers (which you clearly don't) so perhaps you should take a look in the mirror (the real axis) before you start reflecting (conjugating) sweatheart
We have $\overline a \cdot \overline{a}^{-1} = 1$, not $\overline a \cdot \overline{a^{-1}} = 1$, no?
Yeah, that's why I said it only makes sense outside of the overline, since inside, a^-1 wouldn't exist
The last line I wrote is just wrong, isn't it?
We are in Z
Indeed
I assumed everything after "let r = 0" was in the quotient but yeah I suppose you could make that a bit more explicit
Well, but we can't stay in Z/mZ, the statement sa + rm = 1 is in Z
did you miss the part where I said "after "let r = 0" was in the quotient"
cause setting r = 0 is taking the quotient mod r
Oh
anyway just write your little \overlines on everything to be safe
I think it's clearer like this now
Maybe I should say that this also proves the other direction
This is much better yeah
minor nitpick is that I'd say "by Bezout's lemma" rather than after
Ah, alright
apologies for being really nitpicky but it's important to get these things right early on
Ofc, thanks. I'm from Germany, we often say "nach ..."
yeah I had a feeling 
it makes perfect sense in german - because it follows from bezout's lemma, so it comes after it!
and instead of saying r = 0 I'd be really explicit and write $\overline{sa+rm} = \overline{sa}+\overline{rm} = \overline{sa}+\overline{0}\overline{m} = \overline{sa} = \overline{1}$
Wew The Lads Tbh
just to make it absolutely clear that you know what's going on
yes
nice
can you also use "laut" or is that wrong-sounding
i know a good amount of german but not really interacted with mathematics in the language
You can, but I don't often read that. It doesn't sound wrong to say "laut den Ringaxiomen gilt ..."
Just CTRL+F-ed my linear algebra 1 lecture notes, and there is no occurence of "laut". They always say "nach" or just put the lemma in brackets
!
In the context of groups with operators, is there any particular reason why operators aren't just called or identified with group homomorphisms?
wdym a group with operators
is that the funny set action thing
cause if it is then yeah they're just group homomorphisms
I'm reading Waerden's algebra and he defines a group with operators to be a group G with a set of objects called operators such that if $\Theta$ is an operator and $a, b$ are elements of $G$, then the product $\Theta a$ is some element of $G$ and it also should hold that $\Theta(ab) = \Theta a \cdot \Theta b$
A Lonely Bean
Is this the same as group actions?
no because theta isn't a group
so how can it be a group action
if it is a group then this is just some semidirect product action on G
I don't really know what a group action is so
Isn’t theta literally just an endomorphism
it is just an endomorphism
so this is a group homomorphism from a group to itself? is that called an endomorphism?
a group homomorphism G -> G
Yeah, he remarks that multiplying by an operator is just the same as an endomorphism
I guess maybe to avoid such word salads as "homomorphism of group with homomorphisms", idk
the reason why we do this chmonkey is that we'd like to talk about subgroups or subsets of G being "stable" under this set of endomorphisms
So I wondered if there's a reason for distinguishing between operators and endomorphisms
and this is just the nicest set up to do so
the elements of the set need not be actual endmorphisms of G - just identified with them
Maybe it's just old terminology
that's pretty much the only difference
but yes it is very old
Wait lmfao are you reading Van der Waerden
Yes
What pyramid did you recover it from?
None, my professor mentioned it as supplementary material
ORIGINALLY PUBLISHED IN 1930
Well he's been sending the relevant pages from the pdf for the last two weeks
Is your professor a dinosaur or something?
HOLY FUCK READ SOMETHING ELSE
ANYTHING ELSE
THE HUNGRY CATERPILLER
JUST ANYTHING
Van der Waerden was like, the first algebra text ever
That set it up the way all modern algebra books work now
Yeah, I know that it's old
anyway I'm exaggerating for comedic effect
He's German so I guess he studied with that book in the past
no but is he a dinosaur
I can not confirm nor deny that information
Hi, Im looking for examples of finite rings where there are elements so ab = 1 but ba does not equal 1
there might be one in the space of non-square matrices over a finite field
I think if a non-square matrix is of maximal rank then it has a left or right inverse, I cannot find the original source I read that gave you a specific inverse
it wasn't too complicated though, something like A^T(A^TA)^-1?
maybe I'm missing something how would that be a ring? since not all non-square matrices are multiplicable?
So ab = 1 implies that multiplication by b is injective. On a finite set injective implies surjective, so there is a c such that bc = 1. Then Ill leave it as an exercise to you to show that a=c
just an idea
we could then embed that non-square matrix into M_n(F) by shoving a bunch of zeros in the appropriate place
if you embed into the space of square matrices dont you run into the same problem that rigth and left inverses are the same?
jagr has given you an answer so I don't really care anymore
a far smarter answer
I'd say the example of non-square matrices is pretty smart. It just doesn't work sadly
what's the intuition for ab = 1 implying multiplication by b is injective? I get that it works but I wouldn't have noticed it myself
Well being injective just means being left cancelable. And if you have a left inverse, then you're left cancelable
bx = by -> abx = aby -> x = y
I was just discussing multiplication as a ring endomorphism the other day I'm rather annoyed I didn't see this 
thanks! I think I understand rings better now
If it helps you can draw Venn diagrams
Ye
Note A+B is the XOR. Something is in A + B + C if it's in either 1, or all of the sets
I'm not sure if that helps with the algebra
A shortcut is to show that the structure is isomorphic to the set of functions I -> Z/2Z, with pointwise addition and multiplication. Since the latter is associative, your structure is too.
Thats cool
I dont fully understand that yet but i would like to after i finish the question in the more elementary way
I did pictures depicting what the set A+B looks like in 3 different cases, and it showed that something is in A+B if something is in A or B but not both
So i can use that to then easily show that (A+B)+C = A+(B+C) right?
Without algebra
When doing calculations, is there any way to tell WolframAlpha that we're working in e.g. Z/7Z?
mod whatever is probably the closest up can get
Oh
I'm doing a Lagrange polynomial interpolation and
Now adding all those up with appropriate factors would take pretty long, I guess
It seems WA doesn't understand saying mod 7 at the end of adding polynomials
Do the overbars mean reciprocals or just congruence classes?
So they're missing from L1 is just a typo? Yeah, one usually doesn't even write them for that reason.
yep
I'd start by handling the denominators (by multiplying by the inverses of 5, 2, 6).
Well, I did it by hand and I got $\overline{4.5}x^3 + \overline{2.4}x^2 + \overline{4.3}x + \overline 4$. I should check if that's correct
$\overline 4 L_1(x) + \overline 3L_2(x) + \overline 3L_3(x) + \overline 3 L_4(x)$ is what I need
Are those ... decimals?
I only wrote them here to avoid frac... 
But decimals don't even make sense in modular arithmetic. You can do addition, subtraction, and multiplication on raw integers and mod out later, but not division.
this is one of the worst things I've read 
Well, but we end up with $\overline 4 x^3 + \overline 2 x^2 + \overline 4 x + \overline 4 + \frac{\overline 5 x^3 + \overline 4 x^2 + \overline 3 x}{\overline{10}}$.
ok and you can cancel the last fraction
Yeah, overline 3 in the denom
yeah, and then you can cancel the fraction
Just multiply by 5 in the numerator and denominator.
Oh
Since 10·5 = 50 == 1 (mod 7)
you're in a field so there shouldn't be any fractions
(and tbh I don't like writing fractions for a general ring unless you're in a localisation)
Hmm ... Q is a field, lots of fractions there. 
Let's see if what I got is correct..
,w simplify 4(x^3 + 4x^2 + x + 1) + 3(x^3 - 2x + x)/5 + 3(x^3 - 6x^2 + 5x)/2 + 3(x^3 - 5x^2 + 4x)/6
Hm, nope
No, that assumes you're working in Q (or R).
,w 4(x^3 + 4x^2 + x + 1) + 3(x^3 - 2x + x)/5 + 3(x^3 - 6x^2 + 5x)/2 + 3(x^3 - 5x^2 + 4x)/6 mod 7
tries to solve for 0 for shame
Shouldn't it be fine if we mod 7 by hand afterwards?
yep
No, because there are divisions in there.
as long as the stuff in the denominator isn't a multiple of 7
Okay, point.
I would still feel better about first replacing /5, /2, and /6 by *3, *4, and *6 first.
[L_1(x) = x^3 + 4x^2 + x + 1] [L_2(x) = \overline 3x^3 - \overline 6 x + \overline 3 x] [L_3(x) = \overline 4 x^3 + \overline 4 x^2 + \overline 6 x] [L_4(x) = \overline 6x^3 + \overline 5x^2 + \overline 3x]
I just wouldn't replace them if you're doing it manually with a calculator, just extra work
What is it?
g(x) = 1-x^{p-1} this is 1 for 0 and 0 otherwise
But we'd need to prove that, no?
fermat's little theorem?
oh
roots of unity adding to 1? this would never happen...
That's well and fine for Lagrange interpolation with 7 datapoints, but here it looks like there are only 4.
it might not necessarily be minimal degree, but it's clean to get "input to output" you want
I guess it depends on what the goal is here
in the phrase "we can identify the field F with a subfield of K via the map..." what does identify means? Is it talking about isomorphism?
Yes, isomorphism plus "in the future we will not bother to write applications of that isomorphism explicitly -- figure out yourself where they should be inserted in the formulas for things to make sense".
I see, thank you!
The book only proved that it is injective to K_f, but then we can restrict K_f to get a subfield that is surjective hence isomorphic
(Or alternatively we could say: suppose f: F -> K is an injective homomorphism, and assume wlog that F and K are disjoint as sets. Then extend f to a map (F union K\f(F)) -> K by making it do nothing to the elements of K\f(F). The extended f is a bijective map, and we can pull back the field structure of K back to F union K\f(F), which then literally becomes a field extension of F that's isomorphic to K.
In particular in situations where K is a field we have just constructed, we can now strip the name K away from what we made initially and instead use the name K about F union K\f(F), so we can say that F is actually a subfield of K.
But the details of doing it that way are a bit unwieldy, so people generally seem to prefer the invisible-isomorphism explanation).
So I got \begin{align*}
L_1(x) &= \frac{(x - \overline 0)(x - \overline 4)(x - \overline 5)}{(- \overline 1)(- \overline 4)(- \overline 5)} = x^3 + \overline 4x^2 + x + \overline 1 \
L_2(x) &= \frac{(x - \overline 0)(x - \overline 4)(x - \overline 5)}{\overline 1(- \overline 3)(- \overline 4)} = \frac{x^3 - \overline 2 x + x}{\overline 5} = \overline 3x^3 - \overline 6 x^2 + \overline 3x \
L_3(x) &= \frac{(x - \overline 0)(x - \overline 1)(x - \overline 5)}{\overline 4 \cdot \overline 3 \cdot (- \overline 1)} = \frac{x^3 - \overline 6 x^2 + \overline 5 x}{\overline 2} = \overline 4 x^3 + \overline 4 x^2 + \overline 6 x \
L_4(x) &= \frac{(x - \overline 0)(x - \overline 1)(x - \overline 4)}{\overline 5 \cdot \overline 4 \cdot \overline 1} = \frac{x^3 - \overline 5 x^2 + \overline 4 x}{\overline 6} = \overline 6x^3 + \overline 5x^2 + \overline 3x
\end{align*}
And so \begin{align*}
f(x) &= \overline 4L_1(x) + \overline 3 L_2(x) + \overline 3L_3(x) + \overline 3L_4(x) \ &= \overline 4x^3 + \overline 2 x^2 + \overline 4 x + \overline 4 + \overline 2 x^3 + \overline 3 x^2 + \overline 2 x + \overline 5 x^3 + \overline 5 x^2 + \overline 4 x + \overline 4 x^3 + x^2 + \overline 2 x\
&= \overline 6 x^3 + \overline 4 x^2 + \overline 5 x + \overline 4
\end{align*}
Hopefully that's correct..
f(0) = 4, ok great
f(1) = overline(19) = 5
That's not correct....
if you don't do anything with the elements of K\f(F) then how can it be injective? there will be multiple elements that map to the same element in K
How do I check where the mistake is now 
By "not do anything" I mean "return each of those elements unchanged". So two elements of K\f(F) don't map to the same element in the union, and something from F and something from K\f(F) cannot map to the same element either.
Oh then this explains
Instead of doing a restriction on the codomain, you extended the domain, making it bijective, right?
Yes.
Thank you for your explanations!

So one of your base polynomials must give the wrong result at 1, or else you've botched the arithmetic of combining them.
Fortunately that's something you can test by direct computation in each step of your working.
why does dividing by |z_1|^2 give you a quadratic equation?
did you multiply out first?
yeah i wrote down this long ass expression, but i'm hoping that i don't have to say something like z0 = a + bi, z1 = c + di, a = x + yi, etc and just write everything that way
unless that's the only way to verify this
if that's the case then i'll just believe him
just staring at the left-hand side, without expanding, what is the coefficient of t^2?
z_1 * z_1 conjugate right
that's |z_1|^2
ohh ok got it, subtract both sides and divide by it and yea you get ur result
cool thanks!
Hello a good book for polynomial problems?
Ok solved it
R((t)) (formal Laurent series with finite principal part) make sense over any ring, right.
Yus R is arbitrary
And its units are the series that start with a unit of R, right (just like with R[[t]]).
Good job
there may be more considering t itself has an inverse now
haven't thought too much about it
This might be better suited for #competition-math
I have to say group theory is much more interesting than I thought and offers insights into modeling computer science concepts
Is this even true? (divisor means subgroup and "in like manner" means using the second isomorphism theorem)
Yes
I've started with $R_n T_n / T_n \cong R_n / (R_n \cap T_n)$ where $R_n$ is the subgroup of rotations and $T_n$ is the subgroup of translations, the right hand side obviously is just $R_n$, but I can't see why/how $R_nT_n$ would be equal to the entire group, so should I have a different setup?
A Lonely Bean
Can you find a description of any Euclidean motion in terms of a translation + rotation about origin?
Not with my geometric intuition apparently
In R^2, for simplicity, how would reflection around y-axis look like in that form?
By they you mean me (since the author didn't name any of the subgroups) or you mean that the author probably meant to say that the factor group is isomorphic to the subgroup of rotations and reflections?
Alright, I'll revisit wherever the definition is, thanks
Yeah, the quotient of the euclidean group by translations should be the orthogonal group (rotations and reflections about a point)
And the quotient of the special euclidean group (orientation persevering maps) should be the special orthogonal group (rotations).
So I guess take your pick for which one of those you want to prove.
Can't find the definition in the pdf so I guess I will go with the special Euclidean group
I need a hint for this exercise, I just don't know where to start:(
I guess the first thing to consider is are you able to do it when p is on the form x^n - a?
I think for x^n - a we can construct a chain by first adjoining one of the n-th primitive root, then adjoining one root from x^n-a.
then the result field will be the splitting field for p over F, therefore it's normal.
Indeed, so for things to stay normal you want to make sure you just always add all the roots whenever you add a root of a polynomial. That way you become the splitting field of some polynomials
Other than that you just adjoin nth-roots of things corresponding to how p is solvable by radicals
I'm still kinda confused, we can construct a chain where F_{i} is normal to F_{i-1} with this argument, but i don't quite understand how F_{k} will be the splitting field for some polynomial over F?
basis of splitting field
So you want a little more than that. Whenever you add a root you should add all the other roots over F. It's not enough to just have Fi be normal over F_i-1
So for example if we have something like
sqrt(1 + sqrt(2)), then the we construct
F1 = Q < Q(sqrt(2)) < F2(sqrt(1 + sqrt(2)) < F3(sqrt(1-sqrt(2))
In the proof of this result, why are we allowed to "multiply inclusions". Can someone explain to me more precisely what's going on in the proof of (1) -> (2) please
Also when we say gHg^-1 = H, this is a set equality above all, so what are we doing when we multiply it? Are we just multiplying each element in each group in turn?
The definition is $gHg^{-1} = \build{ghg^{-1}}{h \in H}$.
Boyt
In fact, that is explained on the very first line of the proof.
Now as for the proof (i) => (ii), the assumption is for all g, so we can apply it to g^-1 too.
I understand, I just still don't get why we're allowed to "multiply this inclusion on the left"
By the definition
so we multiply each element in the set {ghg^-1, h \in H}
Yes
You know that $g^{-1}hg$ is in $H$, so let's call this $x = g^{-1}hg$. So $gxg^{-1} = h$. We described this generically so this shows $H \subseteq gHg^{-1}$.
Boyt
I see
That makes sense now
I was being a little pedantic I suppose by wondering where artin defined scalar multiplication of sets lol
But he defined it at the start of the proof
Whether or not this respects set inclusion was not proved.
hm
conjugation is a group automorphism would be another way to see 1 \implies 2 no?
Because certainly the image of H under the automorphism is H because H is normal, and we know there are an equal amount of elements in the preimage H and image H as an automorphism is a perfectly good iso of sets.
no - normal subgroups are not automatically characteristic (closed under automorphisms)
I have never felt more humbled than asking anything on this server lol, but I appreciate you both, thanks wew and boyt
5.2.11
Not sure how and why Z/ker being integral domain implies ker is 0 or nZ
Ohh wait
Is that not the implication? Is it just that ker(phi) for a homomorphism out of Z must be always either 0 or nZ?
Z/nZ is an integral domain iff it's a field
except n=0 lol
I think they should've mentioned this lol like if Z/nZ is an integral domain, then either n =0, or n is a positive prime
oh i mean
I know that part
Im just stuck on why ker phi is 0 or nZ
Ideals etc are introduced next section
Oop
Oh i just read what you're trying to prove lol
yeah
(an ideal of Z is exactly an additive subgroup anyway so yeah)
Yeah i think i get it now. I think i was initially confused cause i thought somehow Z/ker being an integral domain is what implied ker = 0 or ker = nZ
that is quite the lol
But that wasnt the case right?
Yeah nah i mean that already holds just cause of what you know about subgroups
Yeah
introducing quotient rings without the objects required to make the notion rigorous is an interesting choice
Yeah the book does that sort of thing the entirr way through
I actually dont mind it
Introduces the idea before the real rhing
yeah saying "fundamental homomorphism theorem for rings" lol
but yeah ig quotient rings are easy after quotient groups have been covered
This is also basically saying any integral domain is isomorphic to Zn for n prime?
Nvm sorry
Damn bruh
It means that it contains a copy of Z/nZ in particular
There are infinite fields of characteristic p.
So clearly these cannot be isomorphic to Z/pZ
How can I prove that $x^4 + 2$ is the minimal polynomial of $i\sqrt[4]{2}$ in $(\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[4]{2}))[x]$?
Seagull
well that's also not x^2+sqrt2 so still no
hold on yeah it's 2 the degree
Ok so since the degree is two once I found it it's obvious it's minimal
So you want a little more than that.
oh yeah? watch this
Hi, isn't it okay to say that a subgroup of a group is a subset that is a group as a definition ?
A subset that is a group under the same operation (restricted to the subset)
yes
that's what i said i guess
i asked this because i've seen many textbooks define a subgroup by a subset that verifies the group properties. but they never shorten it by just saying that it's a subset that is a group
Because it needs to be a group with the restriction of that operation, that part is very important
hmm, so it's okay to say it is a subset that it is a group under the same operation ?
A subgroup of a group $(G,\cdot,^{-1},1)$ is a set $H\subseteq G$ s.t. $(H,\cdot|_{H^2}^H,^{-1}|_H^H,1)$ makes sense and is a group.
27182818284tropy
oh now i think i see, the problem is with the birestriction!
Indeed, one is to verify closure under the operations, which is exactly the meaningfulness of the birestriction and containment of the neutral element.
nice, thanks!
This is the situation for any algebraic structure more generally
thanks all for clarifying : )))))
why exactly is it that if u is trascendental on R[x] then R(u) is isomorphic to the field of quotients of R[x]? (R ring)
This is not relevant to the subject of the channel.
Please read channel descriptions before posting.
(Someone deleted their post)
Hmm, what does "u is transcendental on R[x]" mean? Should it have been "u is an element of some field that extends R, and is transcendental over R"? If it doesn't, then what exactly does "R(u)" mean?
Not trying to interrupt but what shape represents the symmetry group of order 4? I can't seem to figure it out I've found 1-3 and 5,6
and also how is a Dihedral group different than a symmetrical group?
Canonically, 4 points
Non-canonically, the cube without reflections
I’m impressed you managed to find 5 and 6 considering I’m not even sure what the lowest dimension polytope would be off of the top of my head
Oh wait duh, 4 and 5 dimensional
maybe i am not doing the same problem
i said 5 is a cube with different length sides for all dimensions
and what i mean is every possible symmetry
S1 = point
S2 = line
S3 = rectangle
S4 = ??
The tetrahedron has symmetry group S4 (if you include reflections)
Well yeah you’re describing the action of S_5 on the set of basis vectors of R^n
No? That’s C_2xC_2
And the rotational symmetries of a cube are also S4
rectangle has two reflections and one rotation i thought
Which isn’t 6, it’s 4
The symmetric group should be thought of as rearranging n points
Without structure
- it has more than one rotation 2) you seem to have forgotten about the identity element.
ohhh true
No it really does only have one rotation, by 180
but true i was just trying to see if there was a pattern when using shapes to represent
Oh wait I do see how you could say it has just one rotation. The other one is the identity 
Rotation by 0 degrees 😉
wait so i dont have a shape for S3 now
S_n canonically acts on the basis of R^n by permutations so you can take the cube in n dimensional space for example
Triangle is one
Do you mean S_3 or C_3
The triangle
a triangle is S6 i thought
How on earth could a shape with 3 sides have 720 symmetries
i dont know im like just learning this stuff now
OK
sorry for the confusion
S_3 is the symmetric group on 3 elements. It consists of all permutations of three elements.
C_3 is the cyclic group of 3 elements
Typo, let me correct that
|S_n| = n!, but |C_n| = n
C_3 is the set of rotational symmetries of the triangle. If we only think of rotations, this is what we get.
S_3 is the set of all symmetries of the triangle, but this pattern doesn't continue for higher S_n.
If you want a description of S_n as some set of functions, like I said it is all permutations of n elements.
Clear?
Any integral domain has a subring isomorphic to Zn?
No, e.g. Z.
The way of describing them makes sense but I swear you can flip the triangle to make symmetries
Yes, which is where we get the other elements in S_3.
Oh. Any integral domain with nonzero characteristic has a subring isomorphic to Zn
Better?
Yes
Thanks
Ah
In fact if char R = n then there is a copy of Z/nZ in R.
This even works for n = 0 :)
Coool thanks
Oh the benifits of notation...
okay but on the basis of a point having 1 symmetry, line has 2 symmetries, what are these groups called?
C(n) ?
How does the sequence "point", "line" continue for you?
There's only one group of order any prime.
well initially i thought rectangle had 3 symmetries but it has 4, and a rectangluar box has 5, a triangle has 6
so its how can you pick up a shape and move it and put it in a hole with that shape for 0-2D
and 3D too i think
I'm trying to understand your question up here, and just those two examples don't help me understand which sequence of groups it is you want a name for.
Now I'm a little curious.
We have
S1 symmetry group of point
S2, line
S3, triangle
S4, tetrahedron / rotational symmetry of cube
S5, icosahedron
but what about S6, is there some nice geometric object with S6 as symmetry group?
i was thinking about using a mirror to duplicate the points. So you hold a mirror in front of a point and make a line. If you hold a mirror in front of the line you make a square or rectangle depending on the distance of the mirror
A rectangular box (with three different side lengths) has eight distance-preserving symmetries, not 5.
and i wanted to see if there was a pattern
I guess by the classification of finite subgroups of SO(3) it can't be a 3dimensional object....
Triangles in a way kind of messed up what I was thinking about but I was curious about the concept of "using a mirror" to make symmetries
three 180 rotations and 3 flips and what else?
You can flip or not flip each of the three dimensions independently.
So you are sort of close to a pattern here, that Sn is the symmetry group of the n-1 dimensional simplex.
That is, S1 is the symmetry group of a point, S2 is the symmetry group of a line segment, S3 is the symmetry group of a triangle, S4 is the symmetry group of a tetrahedron, and S5 is the symmetry group of some 4dimensional generalization of a triangle.

