#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 186 of 1
p prime and k was a root of P (mod p) and 0 is not a root as i assumed p didn't divide the constant term of P
hewwo ryu 

what have you been up to these days?
It should be, sigma is just an auto morphism of H and it doesn’t say anything about the automotohism group acting on itself by conjugation
not much new math >< hopefully that changes soon

I found this turn of phrase in Weibel very pleasing. I suppose that the groups Z/nZ could similarly be called rings ‘by birthright’ :)
yeah, i guess i'm not seeing how this is "immediate" from these two theorems
cool
oh wait LOL
i forgot that injecting into an abelian group gives an isomorphism with its image, so its abelian
how exactly does this theorem show that if K is abelian over k and K > E > k where E is an intermediate field, then E is abelian over k and K is abelian over E? to show that K is abelian over E, we can't take say F = E in the theorem because then KE = K
because we want to inject into Gal(K/k); hence to use the theorem, one of the factors in the compositum should be K
Ohh the distributive law for rings being required makes it so the addition and multiplication arent just completely separate entities
The distributive law is like what’s necessary for the interpretation of 5*3 being addition of 5 three times?
True?
Yes
Cool
The notion of divisibility doesn’t need “inverses” do they?
Cause i know ring of polynomials over a field has a division algorithm defined on it
But, that ring does not contain inverses
Division with remainder is different from the kind of division that relies on inverses.
Polynomial division is the former.
Yeah i had no idea about this
I dont think my book has thus far discussed that
Im assuming at some point there is theory that defines the difference?
Basically, since polynomial division gives you both a quotient and a remainder, it uses that second output to deal with the fact that not everything is invertible.
you might want to look into euclidean domains for this
Division with remainder: Given A and B, the operation produces x and y such that A = xB + y where y is in some appropriate sense "smaller" than B.
Ordinary division: Given A and B, the operation produces x such that A = xB.
I see
For the “ordinary” division, there is not necessarily a notion of size involved?
For polynomial division, the "appropriate sense of smaller" is "lower degree".
Correct, that's just undoing whatever the multiplication operation does.
I see i see
Can someone give me some insight into how integral domains fits into all of this?
I know something like integral domains are necessarily for some sort of division to take place ?
Integral domains have cancellation (i.e. ab = ac implies b = c or a=0) but not necessarily division.
However we can always convert an integral domain into a field by taking the ‘field of fractions’ in a similar way to how we can get Q from Z.
In this way, integral domains are exactly those things that could have division, if you like :)
Ohh thats neat
So i suppose thats the connection
If you are feeling motivated, you can try proving this by constructing the field of fractions yourself. It's not super hard per se, but it's a nice exercise where you can get your hands dirty and get creative with defining things.
@tardy hedge have you seen the field of fractions yet? i remember when i was learning about it fraleigh had a whole entire chapter dedicated to the construction which was pretty funny
good. You should have an entire chapter dedicated to it
localisations are swaggggg (exact)
could i get a hint for showing that the degree is 20 please? I know that $E = \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[5]{2}, \xi\sqrt[5]{2}, \xi^2\sqrt[5]{2}, \xi^3\sqrt[5]{2}, \xi^4\sqrt[5]{2})$ where $\xi = \cos(\frac{2\pi}{5}) + i\sin(\frac{2\pi}{5})$, and I tried to use the tower theorem, but I'm having a lot of trouble finding an irreducible polynomial of degree 4 to show that $[\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[5]{2}, \xi\sqrt[5]{2}, \xi^2\sqrt[5]{2}, \xi^3\sqrt[5]{2})(\xi^4\sqrt[5]{2}) : \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[5]{2}, \xi\sqrt[5]{2}, \xi^2\sqrt[5]{2}, \xi^3\sqrt[5]{2})] = 4$ (because there are 5 steps in the tower, removing a root from each extension)
okeyokay
First note: Your irreducible deg-4 polynomials will have coefficents in Q[root5(2)].
Second note: It's what you get when you divide the known linear factor (x-root5(2)) out from x^5-2.
Why do we use "integral domain" for "Anneau intègre" (french)?
Can I also say "integral ring"? Will it be understandable by everyone else? 🤔
Use domain
Because then you'll start talking about (other adjective) + domain, e.g. Euclidean Domain, Principal Ideal Domain, ...
In English, the key part here is domain
Ah, well, teachers always tell me that Anneau is "ring" in English.
Ty for your information
It is
It's quite a weird naming convention. Like domain means "doesn't have zero-divisors", but then commutative domains are called integral domains instead of just commutative domains.
oh, so xi*root5 will be a root of this polynomial which results from dividing x - root5(2) from x^5 - 2
It's a root of x^5 - 2, but not a root of x - root5(2) ...
Can some one confirm this? Resolvent cubic for x^4+ax^2+b must be x^3-2ax^2+(a^2-4b)x, right?
would this work to show that $\alpha$ is a primitive 9th root of unity? clearly $\alpha \neq 1$. now $\alpha^9 = -\alpha^6 - \alpha^3$; if $\alpha^3 = 1$, then we see that $\alpha^6 \neq 1$, which is a contradiction. since the only subgroups of order 9 of order 1 and 3 and $\alpha \neq 1$, $\alpha^3 \neq 1$, we see that $\alpha$ must be a primitive 9th root of unity
okeyokay
and there would be 6 possible homomorphisms since there are 6 generators to the 9th roots of unity?
yes, that's correct;
but this is actually true more generally: a homomorphism is uniquely determined by sigma(alpha) and we see that sigma(alpha) is also a root of that polynomial, so there are at most 6 homomorphisms;
conversely, it's not hard to prove that all those 6 canditates are indeed homomorphisms
I think the hint was given to be able to describe the homomorphisms easier and nicer;
like, they should be the ones that send alpha to alpha, alpha^2, alpha^4, alpha^5, alpha^7 and alpha^8, respectively
The intended argument for alpha being primitive ninth root of 1 was probably to note that x^9 - 1 = (x^6+x^3+1)(x^3-1), so the third roots of unity are roots of the right factor, and thus the only ones left to be roots of the left factor are the primitive ones.
ohh ok
yeah i think this makes sense
thanks
can i get some help with this?
basically i can’t see how zeta -> zeta^3 could generate the other two, and the same for 7 and 9. is it just me or do none of them work as generators??
*the other three i guess, as they do need to generate the identity too
It's because you got your exponent laws wrong. It's not (zeta)^(3^3), it's (zeta^3)^3=zeta^9
And the rest follows
lol i guess we're at that point in the semester
tysm!!! it's embarassing how much i was struggling with that lmao
Lmao nw
i think the additive set generated by (z_n)n≥1 works
we also take differences to be in the set
Wrong channel
what are they talking about
Only God knows
wdym?
i thought G was given
o
no i take
[{z_n}{n\geq 1} \cup {z_m - z_n}{1 \leq m < n}]
quasi_semi_group
i take this
to be my set, and im arguing that this is additive but not atomic
it's contained within G because we have some telescoping behaviour
$z_m - z_n = (z_m - z_{m-1}) + (z_{m-1} - z_{m-2}) + \ldots + (z_{n+1} - z_n)$
quasi_semi_group
then uh
well should i give you the rest of the argument or do you maybe want to think about it
the sets not atomic because of the decreasing nature
so we can construct any term as a sum of something lower, and their difference
$z_n = z_{n+1} + (z_n - z_{n+1})$
quasi_semi_group
both of those summands are in this set
i guess i'm showing that no element is an atom
we're not done btw 
we havent shown z_m - z_n isnt an atom
we can
why is z_n - z_{n+1} not an atom then
sorry the set i constructed isn't even additive
i have another argument but it's notationally cumbersome to talk about it
we can take the set
[H := \left{\sum_{s\in S}z_s - \sum_{s'\in S'}z_{s'} > 0 ;\Big|; S,S'\text{ finite subsets of }\mathbb{N}\right} ]
instead
quasi_semi_group
yea i count the empty sum to be 0
but wait maybe i want S, S' parent set to be the part of the index whose differences are monotonically decreasing 
ya
actually i think i'm making this overly complicated
no, i let them vary
otherwise H would just be one number
the condition is that the difference of their sums has to be positive
what i want to say is that for any two given finite sets $S,S'\subset \mathbb{N}$ such that $\sum S - \sum S' > 0$, i can raise both sets' indices one by one, until their difference in sums is less
quasi_semi_group
because then i can take the difference between the original difference and the modified difference, which will be positive
and then add that to the modified difference
i know my phrasing is unnecessarily confusing so let me define some notation
because of this
let $S\subset\mathbb{N}$ be a finite set, let $n\in\mathbb{N}$, and define
[ S \uparrow n := {s + n \mid s\in S} ]
quasi_semi_group
i want to show that there is some $n\in\mathbb{N}$ where
[ 0 < \sum (S\uparrow n) - \sum (S'\uparrow n) < \sum S - \sum S' ]
quasi_semi_group
like intuitively the further along we go, eventually the differences should get small
it's notation
i abused $\sum S$ as $\sum_{s\in S}z_s$ sorry
quasi_semi_group
because then
\begin{gather*} \sum S - \sum S' = \left(\sum S + \sum(S'\uparrow n)\right) - \left(\sum S' + \sum(S\uparrow n)\right) \ + \sum (S\uparrow n) - \sum (S'\uparrow n)\end{gather*}
and both are positive
quasi_semi_group
it would if i can show this
also i can't believe you're reading all this so quickly lol
because S is a subset of N
and we want to raise all elements in S by n
ya
so $\sum(S\uparrow n)$ means $\sum_{s\in S}z_{s+n}$ if that makes sense
quasi_semi_group
If I want to prove that D2n is isomorphic to 𝐷𝑛×ℤ/2ℤ, can I assume that there is a homomorphism phi:D2n->𝐷𝑛×ℤ/2ℤ and define phi(s)=(s,1), phi(r)=(r,1)?
𝐷𝑛×ℤ/2ℤ is external direct product?
we can try but i'm not sure what that would get us
for H
but here we're considering one pair such that that thing is positive
ok so i guess i have an argument?
consider $n_1$ such that $n_1 + \min S > \max S'$
quasi_semi_group
ya
wait what i wasn't done though
i was still thinking about if i should be taking min or max in my arguments
i mean this n1 doesn't work right away
but it pushes $\sum S'\uparrow n_1$ to be really low
quasi_semi_group
and the argument is that this push is bounded below by some constant based on S and S'
and then any such decreasing sequence in R^+ must terminate
i have to go but i'll think about this later

Can anyone answer this question?
Does anyone happen to know of a resource listing common counterexamples in ring and module theory? (The kind relevant to an undergraduate course)
You should try showing it is indeed an isomorphism
Also it only works for odd n if Dn means dihedral group on n-gon
Then just proving that phi is isomrorphism here right?
It is dihedral group, so I assume phi(s)=(s,1), phi(r)=(r,1), do you think it is a correct format?
I am not sure if it is valid to assume homomorphism and define its function on my own
Ye that looks good
But you still have to show it is an isomorphism
i.e. it is a homomorphism and it is bijective
Here is a another question. If H is a normal subgroup of a finite group G, and G/H contains an element of order n, can I get the conclusion that there must exist an element g such that g is in H with order n?
This is false. For an easy counterexample, consider the direct product of two cyclic groups with relatively prime orders.
Like U(3) and U(5), then in this case, can we assume that G=U(5) while H=U(3)? but how can I determine elements of U(5)/U(3), where U(5)={1,2,3,4}, U(3)={1,2}, so does it mean there are only elements 1,2 in this quotient group?
you may be interested in this? https://ringtheory.herokuapp.com/
Firstly, U(5) is not a direct product of cyclic groups with relatively prime orders(not counting pairs involving the trivial group). Secondly, the elements of the quotient group G/H are not elements of G. They are cosets of H in G.
Then is it correct to list U(15)/U(3)? U(15)=U(3) * U(5)
U(3) and U(5) have orders 2 and 4 respectively, which are clearly not relatively prime
Why take examples from unit groups? Consider Z_21. This is the direct product of Z_3 and Z_7. The quotient group Z_21/Z_7 contains an element of order 3, but Z_7 does not. This is a counterexample to the claim that if G/H contains an element of order n, then H contains an element of order n.
When you say "g is in H with order n" do you mean that g^n is in H? If so that's true. But if you mean that g is in H and has order n, then there isn't any immediate relation between H and G/H no.
For Z21/Z7, does elements in this groups are {1,2,3,4,5,6}, 2*{1,2,3,4,5,6}, 3*{1,2,3,4,5,6}?
You forgot the 0 in each set
Z_7 is the cyclic group of order 7
Then I don't understand Z21/Z7 contains an element of order 3 means?
If elements are H={0,1,2,3,4,5,6} 2H and 3H
Recall the group operation in quotient groups
2H={0, 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12}, 3H={0, 3, 6. 9, 12, 15, 18}, do you think this is correct? ( I am not sure if I need to write it in mod 21 form)
You refer to me?
still don't understand this expression. I still feel wonder about how to figure out the order of a coset?
That isn't even true. Dn×C2 doesn't have elements of large enough order for it to be D2n.
At least not if n is even.
What would be an example of an operation with no neutral element (since this is a requirement for a group)?
Any order without a minimal element, with the operation being "take the max"
(== is commutative and associative somehow)
[(X is an apple iff X is red) iff X is on the table] is the same as [(X is red iff X is on the table) iff X is an apple]
oh, thanks!
Any string of objects connected by equals signs is true iff all objects are equal
heh
No this is XNOR
Are they not the same thing
This should return true iff number of false's is even
can someone remind me what this notation means in terms of groups
the weird bracket
I'm looking in our book and having trouble finding where it's introduced
thanks, was scratching my head at this for a bit trying to remember what that meant
Determine the minimal polynomial and the degree over $\mathbb{Q}$ of $1+i\sqrt{3}$
Seagull
So what I'm looking for is a monic polynomial with rational coefficients that has 1+isqrt(3) as a root
And the degree will just be the degree of the polynomial
I can't find the polynomial
any ideas?
well up to shifting this is sqrt(-3)
and hopefully clear enough what the min poly of that is
XOR is addition modulo 2, so it is associative. On the other hand (a NXOR b) = (a XOR true XOR b), so it inherits associativity from XOR.
The easiest thing to do is probably just to consider
x = 1 + isqrt(3)
Then manipulate until you get a polynomial for x. So
x - 1 = isqrt(3)
x^2 - 2x + 1 = -3
x^2 - 2x + 4 = 0
#help-18 message would probably also fit here
Is 0 included in G here? Because I don't think I can actually come up with a generator if that is the case.
I know 2 is a generator otherwise, working out which elements would be right now
No the * means the multiplicative group
1/0 doesn’t exist so it’s not in the group
ah thank you, never saw it defined. will look it up
it’s the group of all elements of the ring which have inverses
So anything coprime to 11
So at least if A is not C_p^n then it contains CpxCq as a subgroup for two (possibly equal) primes.
Then the sequence with p-1 copies of (1,0) and q-1 copies of (0,1) and one copy of (-1,-1) has value strictly bigger than (p-1)/p + (q-1)/q >= 1.
I assume they used the inverse element of (0 * r) being -(0 * r), right?
Assuming + is defined as normal addition, I guess it would be better to write (0 * r) + (-(0 * r))
Since - is not really defined here
Also they should've stated + is normal addition here?
The usual definition of x-y is x+(-y) yes, where -y is the element such that y+(-y) = 0
And they got that 0 = (0 * r) - (0 * r) from (R, +) being an abelian group, so + having an inverse, right?
Yeah
Thank you
So we have \begin{align*} 0 &= (0 \cdot r) - (0 \cdot r) \qquad \text{inverse exists since $(R, +)$ abelian group} \ &= (0 + 0) \cdot r - (0 \cdot r) \qquad \text{$0 + 0 = 0$?}\ &= 0 \cdot r + 0 \cdot r - 0 \cdot r \qquad \text{inverses cancel}\ &= 0 \cdot r\end{align*}
How is the 0 + 0 = 0 step justified?
Do we take that as an axiom
that's because 0 is the neutral element in (R,+)
But that's not given? How do you know that + is addition
Maybe it's some other operation
then how is 0 defined?
In a Ring (R,+,*), the elemnt 0 is defined as the neutral element of (R,+)
If x is algebraic over F then deg of x is finite?
That implies there is no operation + that is associative, commutative, has an inverse for all elements, and has a different neutral element than 0
Can we really not find one that has a neutral element of 1, e.g.?
Like what if we define that + as multiplication
That would fulfill everything I listed?
the problem is that you are thinking of 0 as a number, rather than a symbol
Oh
But when saying we want to prove 0 * r = r * 0 = 0 for all r in R, aren't we thinking of 0 as the number?
no
Ok, take the ring (A, +, * ) with + being defined as usual addition and * as usual multiplication (that works out fine, right? It's still a ring)
Then our 0 is 1
That'd mean that 0 * r = r * 0 = 0, where you think of the zeros as 1
That'd mean r = 1?
do you mean \mathbb{R}?
Yeah
So 0 * r = r * 0 = 0 in that case would actually mean 1 * r = r * 1 = 1, right?
in multiplicaive notation
Since we define + as multiplication
no, you can't mix them like that
if a property yields for 0, it is not necessarily true for 1 as well
But we defined 0 as our neutral element of +, and now that it's multiplication, we can call that 1?
I'm thinking you wanna do some kind of induction. So if you can show it for Cp. Then if you consider Cp^n, then it has Cp^n-1 as a subgroup. Split the set into elements in Cp^n-1 and others. From the Cp case you know that if you have p or more elements of order p^n, some subset must sum to an element of Cp^n-1. So by grouping appropriately you can reduce to the Cp^n-1 case, hence induction
Yes
The degree of x is just the degree of its minimal polynomial. And polynomials have finite degrees
Yes
So Cp^n / Cp^n-1 = Cp, and elements of order p^n corresponds up elements of order p in the quotient. So if there were more than p such elements you would have sequence with value > p(1/p) = 1
So imagine you have sequence (a1, ..., am), with m>p. If you consider the partial sums
a1, a1+a2, a1+a2+a3, ...
How many are there, and what does that tell you?
Alright, so m>p, and how many possible values could they take?
Can't we?
Indeed, so what must we then conclude
That's right, there must be two that take the same value!
So what do you get if you subtract two such partial sums?
Sure, but like what kind of sum do you get
Those are two different symbols (they could be the same element in some cases but that's besides the point).
Maybe we can think of an easy example, say
a1 + a2 and a1 + a2 + a3 + a4 are equal
What's their difference?
Okay
Exactly
So the claim was that for any sequence if there is no subsequence that sums to 0, them
sum 1/o(ai) <= 1
o(ai) is always just p, so this is the same as saying such sequences have at most p elements
Yeah, so? We just call our neutral element w.r.t. multiplication 1
Then our theorem saying 0 * z = z * 0 = 0, where 0 is the neutral element w.r.t. + becomes 1 * z = z * 1 = 1, no?
no, the theorem is still talking about the identity of the additive group. You can apply the multiplication operator on any element of the ring, and in this case it is being applied to the identity of the additive group.
So not quite, what we did was started with a sequence that has more than p elements, and showed it had a subset that summed to 0
No, that's not really relevant
So + defined as regular addition you mean?
We're already done
Because we've proven what we wanted to prove.
If a sequence doesn't have subsets that sum to 0, there must be at most p elements
We have (A, +, * ) and I meant defining + to mean multiplication, aswell as * .
That'd work, it'd still be a ring
yep notationally 0 is always the additive identity, + is the additive operator, . is the mult operator, 1 is the mult identity. You can apply the mult operator on 0 but that doesn't make it 1, like you were suggesting, if I understood right?
Oh, I meant defining + to mean regular multiplication, for which the neutral element is 1
But that 1 is still denoted as 0 then
well there are two operators in a ring and they are usually distinguished by + and . because the additive group is abelian.
Yes, but we can define both operations as the same thing
Or,define the second as something else then, it doesn't matter
why would you do that?
I'm just saying define the first (+) as multiplication
Then the neutral element of that is 1
But we'd still call it 0, right?
why?
(Just to make what I ask in the next line clear)
.
I didn't get what you are trying to do.
We have $(A, +, \cdot)$ where $+$ and $\cdot$ are any two operations. \ Let $+$ be regular multiplication and $\cdot$ some arbitrary, fitting operation (that's not multiplication). \ Now, the neutral element of multiplication is $1$, right?\ But we defined our operation $+$ as multiplication, so its neutral element is $1$.
So original claim
If sequence doesn't have a proper subset that sums to 0 then
Sum 1/o(ai) <= 1
In the special case Cp all elements have order p so this is the same as saying
Sum 1/p <= 1
Which is the same as saying there are at most p elements.
What we showed is that if there are more than p elements, then the sequence does have a proper subset that sums to 0. So we can conclude that the only sequence without such subsets have at most p elements, hence
Sum 1/o(ai) <= 1
(A, +, * ) being a ring, I mean
As you said
Sure... the + and 0 are notational... they could be whatever.
Yeah, that's what I wanted to know. Thanks!
yeah this is where I'm losing you. You don't wanna go to actual numbers since you wanna prove for the general definition of a ring. And, I don't see the benefit either. Like, why do you wanna consider the + to be actual multiplication?
This is not about proving it right now, say we already proved this result now.
Think of this as trying to find an error in it to gain a deeper understanding, lol
So if you take a sequence in Cp^n that sums to 0 and reduce modulo Cp^n-1 you get a sequence in Cp. All the elements in Cp^n-1 just become 0, so we can ignore them. The remaining elements can be grouped in subsets of size at most p, that sum to 0 (modulo Cp^n-1).
And since p/p^n <= 1/p^n-1 we can replace any such subset by its sum without reducing the value.
So in this particular case, why does the theorem 0 * r = r * 0 = 0 still hold?
If we plug in our actual number neutral element of +, 1, we have a false statement
1 * r = r * 1 = 1
oh so you are making a concrete example? ok, but then why not just keep + as +? I guess your example is fine so long as you can distinguish between your additive 1 from your multiplicative 1... 😄
Yeah
The statement isn't false because 1 is your 0, remember? 😄
I'm defining + as multiplication because the theorem 0 * r = r * 0 = 0 only applies for the neutral element of +
r is a number, right?
So we can switch to numbers from notation, no?
0 * r = r * 0 = 0 is notation
If we plug in our actual neutral element of + into 0, then we only have actual numbers
That's a typo, supposed to say Cp^n
yep your 0 is now 1 like you said, so where's the problem?
Yeah, then 1 * r = r * 1 = 1, where all of this is actual numbers
1 is an actual number
not notation
Right?
yep so where's the problem?
Well r is an actual number too.
That means r = 1?
But r is just some random element in our set A
so why does it need to be 1
It's all poorly defined :D, like what is your multiplicative operator now? Your + is . ok but what is your .?
$0_A = 1_{\mathbb{Z}}$
Wew The Lads Tbh
Yes
ok what's the problem
We have the theorem $0_A \cdot r = r \cdot 0_A = 0_A$ for all $r \in A$, right?
yup
So let's switch all this notational 0 to actual numbers, 1, as you stated above
Then we have 1 * r = r * 1 = 1
yup
Yeah. But r can be any arbitrary number in A
we are saying it has to be 1 with this?
why on earth would we be saying that
1 * r = r * 1 = 1
implies r = 1
no?
because we're not working in Z
R subset of integral domain D. Show that if R is a ring under operation of D, it is a subring of D.
The main point here is that we need to show the identity of R is the same as the identity in D?
I think we just need to start actually labelling things properly
I can give an example maybe.
Say we're in C9 and we have a sequence
(1, 2, 3, 1, 4, 7)
Then we reduce mod 3 we get
(1, 2, 0, 1, 1, 1)
This we can group as {1, 2} and {1, 1, 1} for example, which corresponds to {1, 2} and {1, 4, 7}
Now o(1) = o(2) = o(4) = o(7) = 9, so
1/o(1) + 1/o(2) = 2/9 < 1/3 = 1/o(3)
So if we replace the original sequence by
(3, 3, 12)
Then the value has not decreased, so if we're looking for a maximal value sequence we might as well consider this one
Why are we not working in Z? In 1 * r = r * 1 = 1, 1 is in Z, r is in Z
no?
Or which part is wrong
Now maybe this was a bad example because 7+2 = 0 mod 9, but the point was about how you reduce the sequence to one in Cp^n-1
1 is the additive identity in your ring. You cannot cancel the additive identity - that's essentially division by 0
hence you cannot conclude that r = 1
if we restrict r to be like, in A intersect Z
for the additive group inverses need to exist... it's all screwed up 😛
I'm taking * to be multiplication in A as well, by the way
hence why I'm assuming A is a larger ring that contains Z
Q, for instance
anyway this is an incredibly unnatural question to ask and will never come up again after this conversation 
any operations, but don't forget about the distributivity of multiplication over addition
Oh, it's equivalent to the additive identity, right
i think this notation is slightly bleh too
Im not sure if this is really easy or im missing something
God damn its bumpin in here today
Can i just say element of R times identity in R = element of R times identity in D
Its an integral domain so use cancellation law
And the identities are the same
So R is a subring of D
Alright thank you, now my original question was about
And that 0 + 0 = 0 step is justified by 0 being the neutral element
But why is it justified by that?
wait why was this entire discussion about rings relevant to this at all?
what is the definition of a neutral element
It isn't, this was a tangent since after looking very close to the definition, I found this interesting, lol
fairs
Oh... a * e = e * a = a
And we think of one 0 as being a and the other as e
with + being *
well no, both are 0s
0 is the netural element here
there is no e
but yes that's the idea
Okay so getting the basic definitions down
A field is a set that is a group for both addition and multiplication plus is communitive plus is distributive
Is this good
And a ring is a set that is a group over addition but only needs to have an identity element for multiplication?
Yeah but im saying the only thing it satisfied for multiplication is an identity element
what's S here
you wrote x,y in S
ah ok cool, it's like the lattices then
you mentioned the chain idea for monoids, I think that should generalise to G here (G is a semigroup)
ring may not have mult identity
If you are already given that it is a ring under operation of D and it is a subset of D, is there anything left to prove?
wait hold on yeah
Just to show that the mult identity in R is same as in D
In my book it states defn of ring has mult identit
And it says a subring needs to have same mult identity
As the bigger ring
Q5
the sequence is strictly decreasing, so for all n z_n cannot be written as the sum of z_{m_i} with each m_i > n. But, since z_n-z_{n+1} is in G, we always have the decomposition of z_n = z_{n+1}+(z_n-z_{n+1}). But this all holds true for z_{n+1} as well, so inductively we can always write z_n as the sum of two other elements in G - hence none of the z_n can be atomic. Hence the subsemigroup of G generated by the z_n and the z_n-z_{n+1} cannot be atomic
I think this works
Then what does a ring need to have for mult?
rings usually have a multiplicative identity but this differs based on authors - check your course notes
i got pinged
up here boss
But for it to exist it doesn't have to have it?
i don't think the last part is true
or there's still some work
well we discussed this too
I've proven that they're not atomic in G
but what about their differences
good point, put those in there as well
so yeah we've both ended up with the same H
ok my bad, maybe books define it differently. but mult assoc and distributivity is mandatory... identity maybe depending on book i guess
like why isn't z_n - z_{n+1} atomic
who cares
it's atomic if and only if every element can be written as the sum of atoms
we've found elements that can't, so it isn't atomic
Okay and it needs to be closed too I assume?
So the only thing it doesn't need is an identity?
why can't z_n be written as a sum of differences
the entire point is that it can be?
i mean purely differences
count the number of z_ns that appear in both sides
ah wait yes, we need that each of the z_is are different because it's strictly decreasing
but this really is possible for an actual sequence
like we can have z_1 = (z_2 - z_3) + (z_2 - z_3) + ... + (z_2 - z_3) by coincidence, for instance
and it could be that z_2 - z_3 are atoms (a priori)
true - I'm thinking of these as free generators when they're not
but if we assume this is true for every z_i is there a contradiction
remember we only need a single z_i
ya idk
i want to say that any argument needs to rely on the archimedean nature of R_{\geq0}
unfortunately I don't think so, take z_i = 1/2^i

ok so lets look at these z_n-z_n+1s
they form another sequence in G with y_k = z_k-z_{k+1}
For a given ring , a subset that is also ring need not have the same multiplicative identity as the original ring right?
And in that case it is not considered a subring?
yep closure too. i guess there are other optional things too like commutativity, division ring etc
if this is strictly decreasing does my argument for z_n hold, y_k-y_{k+1} = z_k-z_{k+2} = (z_k-z_{k+1})+(z_{k+1}-z_{k+2}) so their differences are in G again
so my argument showing that each of the z_n holds for these y_n - I think? I can't actually see where I've used strictly decreasing
now we can inductively do this on the differences of the y_n, and then on the differences of those differences, etc.
So if any of the y_k are atomic, this implies that this induction stops at some point
Yeah I'm just trying to get the most plain bagel simple definition rn since I have a good bit of familiarity with groups and fields and none whatsoever with rings
Just filling that little gap
I'm not in a formal abstract alg course RN it just happens a part of my discrete math class is dedicated to introductory study of groups
well I'm new to the subject too but afaik, this is from D&F and just 1) is the basic definition
So like we've done a bit on regular groups, abelian groups, and group isomorphisms
And then now we are finishing the semester off with cryptography
i don't follow
isn't that just a subring
in any case, if the ring is unital, then the subring must have a unit element as well
why is the next one strictly decreasing
I don't see why it has to be
maybe you can choose a sequence whose differences strictly decreases
that would imply data on the derviatives of the original sequence that we just don't have
my argument would require each higher derivative to be strictly negative for all n if I've indeed used the fact that the original sequence is strictly decreasing anywhere, which I must have done
so it's essentially a complete bust 
it would be nice if someone gave a counterexample for non-archimedean uh
linearly ordered cancellative monoids
I don't know what "archimedean" means
all nontrivial (sub)semigroups are unbounded
oh I see
Is it clear that archimeanness is relevant though?
not to me personally
this seems almost lattice theoretic
and it's the fact that the set is bounded from below is the important part
I feel like there's something obvious i'm missing
never mind, it's complicated to extend subtraction in general
Maybe the defn in my book is weird
i don't even know if there's a way to extend the order from M (cancellative) to K(M) (grothendieck completion)
Like for example, it says that even tho the subset of additive identity (0 element) is a subset of every ring, its not a subring cause it doesnt have the same multiplicative identity …
So it says the zero ring is not a subrint
Subring
in particular m > n doesn't imply m - n is canonically inside M
problem with taking grothendieck completions is that in a group we don't really have this notion of atoms
ik
I feel like your H from earlier is the right answer though
assume towards a contradiction that all of the differences y_k := z_k-z_k+1 can be written as a sum of atoms
Wikipedia article about subrings say same thing
If your subring does not have the same identity we do not have an embedding of that subring back into the larger ring
ring morphisms preserve the identity
being able to embed back inside seems like a property we want subobjects to have!
What is my book talking about then
It says this whole thing about this being in contrast to subgroups
a subgroup automatically has the same identity by closure and inverses
let H < G h in H, then hh^-1 = e in H
True
Btw, my lecture notes go on to say that if $1$ is our neutral element, then $0 = 1$ and so from $r \cdot 0 = 0 \cdot r = 0$, it follows that $r = r \cdot 1 = r \cdot 0 = 0$ for $r \in R$ and so $R = {0}$.
So for rings we need to state it has identity because rings dont always have inverses
Isn't this very similar to what we discussed?
@delicate orchid whats the purpose of the question i posted then
correct, you can think of it as the multiplicative monoid of the subring has to be a submonoid of the multi. monoid of the larger ring
But how do they follow that r = r * 1?
huh, maybe you don't need full inverses and instead just need cancelabiltiy
Isn't it basically what you said, division by zero
Subset R of integral domain D is a ring. Show that R is a subring of D
this is quite literally the definition
That was the question
95% of your problems can be answered by just using the definition of these things, kepe
But 0 = 1
ok?
so for integral domains we have that ab = ac if and only if a is 0 or b = c
we couldn't have divided by 1, but here, we aren't doing that
Yeah
Like it says R is already a ring. In our book, that means it has identity
So i was thinking the “work” of the question is showing its the same identity as D
Well, where did you get this definition from? Is it literally a definition that in a ring, 1 * a = a?
once again! that's the definition of a neutral element!
The defn of subring for my book says it needs to have the same identity element as the bigger ring
Oh, of a neutral element
it is
Thank you Wew
I'm thinking we do some 1_Dr = r = 1_Rr kind of deal for r \neq 0
yeah there we go
no worries, but try to work through these yourself a little bit more in the future lol
@delicate orchid https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/426962/ring-and-subring-with-different-identities
I guess this is what i was talking about with “different identities”
Hi, I think I'm having a brain fart. Suppose we have a short exact sequence of $A[G]$-modules
$$ 0 \to M^\prime \to M \to M^{\prime \prime}$$
how can I show that the induced sequence obtained by taking the $G$-invariant is exact? I believe injectivity is trivial but can't show exactness at $M$
Louis
yes, and it can happen in non-integral domains, I don't really get why you're bringing this up lol. I guess some authors use a different (objectively incorrect, why would you make subrings not be subobjects categorically, that's disgusting) definition
you can think of taking G-invariants as multiplying by 1/|G|\sum_{g in G} g iirc
that might help
So suppose m in M^G maps to 0, then it's in M' and also in M^G hence in M'^G
Ok yeah so the point of the hw question was to show that for integral domains any subset that is a ring must be same identity
I think i get it now anyway thanks
oh yeah duh 0 is fixed
alternatively, this is the first homology lolololol
So that part doesn't need the exactness of the first sequence?
Yeah, the worst is that I am able to prove it for H^0 (by viewing it as a Hom) but eh.. I'm tired.
What do you mean?
you can view H^1 as a hom functor as well
Uh yeah I meant H^1
taking G invariants is naturally isomorphic to Hom_A[G](A, -)? With A being the trivial A[G]-module
what's the natural isomorphism uhhh
That was indeed H^0 lol.
H^0 = G invariants
a map A -> M is uniquely determined by where it maps 1
yeah but what makes G-invariants special here
oh right
you send 1 to a G-invariant m and that preserves the (trivial) G-action
hence it's a homomorphism of A[G]-modules
(I think you can say rep we know what you're talking about)
I'll say character if you're not careful
and Hom_{A[G]}(A, -) exact if and only if A is uhhh
I'm gonna get the wrong duel
pro...jective?
Projective is indeed correct
oh shit we don't know that A[G] is semisimple the argument isn't as simple as I thought
no, wait - it is
What argument are we talking about here?
that A is a projective A[G]-module
It's not
WHAT
b-b-b-but... \chi_Tr^0 is a constituent of \phi\overline{\phi} for every brauer character 
anyway
oh right yeah fields aren't algebraically closed
hmmmm
oh we just need LEFT exactness 
I didn't notice!
yeah we chill then
Like M' being the kernel of M -> M'' is using exactness
Yeah you're right, sorry
Having a bad day and not being able to solve such a simple thing is something I don't recommend 
The proof is easy and left to the reader - Silverman (and my prof but I'm pretty sure he just copied this part of Silverman for my galois cohomology class)
This proof is easy and left to the reader (Riemann's Hypothesis)
How does one go about finding a polynomial with rational coefficients such that one of the below is a zero? I completely see how to do it when the number is a sum of no more than 1 irrational number or a root of such a sum, but I have no clue for either of the below
ie, I know and understand the procedure for something like 1+i or 3+sqrt(17) or roots of those
Take powers and check for relations
So for example, take a few powers of the first number and see what you get.
Once you learn the tower law you can figure out an upper bound for the number of powers you need.
Oh, that's very helpful, thank you. I think I have the first one
@pliant rivet denote the number by x and try to manipulate the relation;
for example, for the first one you have x=sqrt(2)+sqrt(3), so x^2=5+2sqrt(6), so x^2-5=2sqrt(6), and square this to get (x^2-5)^2=24, so x^4-10x^2+1=0
an injection, not a bijection ofc, sry*
Also a bijecton for nonzero a
What's the inverse?
And no, x and y here are interchangeable so obviously there's no difference
Yep, nonzero a, sry
where does the name "graded" come from for "graded rings?"
i understand the definition, just curious if there's some motivation behind calling it "graded"
Well it has grades; it has parts of various ranks
gradiant
It received a poor grade on a previous exam
should have studied instead of procrastinating like det ><
Ryx should be studying more >.<
was there a curve
Nope!
No way … is all this proposition saying is that subtituting a value into a polynomial yields a unique value!?
If so, that is so funny
Anyone?
no, not just a unique value.
it says substituing defines a map R[x] --> S
and this is a ring homomorphism. and is uniquely defined by extending R --> S by sending x to a given element s in s
when you're constructing ring homomorphisms from strange rings, it's annoying to check it preservers addition and multiplication, the more exotic your algebraic structures get, this verification would be annoying
its nicer to think in terms of basic maps and composing ring maps to get more such 
Another way to state it: maps R[x] --> S is correspond bijectively with pairs of a map R --> S and an element of S, and they all look like this "substitution" homomorphism
(something something R[x] represents Hom(R, -) x U(-) : CRing --> Set, blah blah obligatory degenerate category theorist comment)
(U(-) : R-alg --> Set
)
Me forget about algebras a lot 

I think your guys’s explanation went a bit over my head
Oh ok i think I understand what ur saying here
(this was not meant for you to understand)
me realize me should have said,
U(-) forget about algebras a lot? 
or do U(-) forget about everything? 

Sludgebabble but correct
Fuck you
the sequence is strictly decreasing, so for all n z_n cannot be written as the sum of z_{m_i} with each m_i > n.
That's doesn't sound true. Consider e.g. z_n = (golden ratio)^-n. Then we always have z_n = z_{n+1} + z_{n+2}.
You’re right sorry, I meant m_i < n
I’m chopping off everything before z_n so I don’t have to worry about it - the differences of the z_m_i can still make an appearance however
Tbh I’ve forgotten most of the details about this problem and I didn’t know how to solve it anyway
I'm trying to find a clear statement of your argument, but there's been a lot of other things going on in the chat, so I'm not quite sure what has been superseded by later corrections ...
Let’s just go from the top
Ah, okay. I hoped you had a solution -- I've gotten nowhere with it all day ...
Nope, I have no clue sorry
Google was no help either
I feel like the way to go is an explicit construction and then showing that specific subsemigroup isn’t atomic
An existence proof just doesn’t seem to be feasible
It’s a strictly decreasing sequence that’s bounded below, so the differences between terms must go to 0 as n goes to infinity
So the sequence of differences has a strictly decreasing subsequence
More importantly, each difference is contained in a strictly decreasing subsequence. So can we reframe onto this subsequence and induct?
I've been toying with the idea of splitting into cases. By omitting some of the z's, I think we can reduce to instances where either all the deltas are rationally independent, or there's a finite number of them that they're all rational combinations of.
In the first case the deltas are atoms, and it feels possible to arrange things so none of the z's are rational combinations of them, so then we're done.
In the second my gut feeling is we might be able to prove the semigroup generated by the deltas is atomless. But the details elude me.
I’m not seeing how rational independence implies atomicness
They’d definitely be atomic among themselves but who knows what dwells in G
If we look at one delta, it is the smallest number in the semigroup whose decomposition into rational combinations of the deltas (unique because I assume independence) involves that delta itself.
So it cannot be the sum of two numbers whose decompositions don't.
Exactly vectors over Q, in fact -- I'm considering the semigroup as a subset of the subspace generated by the deltas, defined by "the vectors whose coordinates are nonnegative integers, except 0 is not there".
It’s actually closer to characters in the semiring of reps but you get me
I was just thinking this earlier!Except I was thinking about the (“positive chamber”? I guess) of the R-vector space generated by the z_ns, your formulation is much more to the point
The troublesome case is when there are relations between them, because then the map from the nice integral half-lattice is not an injection anymore, and then it becomes hard to keep track of which ones are atoms and what the integer span of those atoms is.
As long as one of them doesn’t appear in a relator then we’re still ok I think
Hm, might be. But is there any particular reason we might hope for that?
Because I believe it to be so with all my heart
Does this help
Apologises if my quips aren’t very astute I’m quite distracted while posting atm
Almost certainly we'll need to use that. By skipping some of the z's we can even arrange it such that each delta is smaller than half the previous one -- or however fast we want them to go to zero.
I’m also very interested to know what evil mastermind set this problem up
This can’t have been for homework right?
Putnam
Right so there’s some bullshit reframing we’re all missing
Yeah that’s what I meant by bullshit reframing
It’s the putnam, they’re designed to be as annoyingly tough as possible
However this does allow us to rethink our approach
I'll give up for now and go to bed. Ping me if you figure it out. :-)
Do not expect a ping!
Sure, keep it to yourself, then. 
I appreciate the confidence
I for one do. It’s just the only reasonable answer
wait didn’t I show that the z_ns cannot be written as a sum of the other ones or was that proof bogus
I have extremely poor short term memory you’ll need to help me out here
Right yeah. And we don’t know why z_n-z_n+1 can’t be written as a sum of the other geezers
Ok I just completely give up
I tried iterating H down to smaller subsemigroups by taking a decomposition of a difference d and the removing those factors from the generating set but that then means some of the z are now possibly atomic
There’s no structure to work with here and I’m tired
Find the solutions and post them here
Can i have help for if u is a unit in R and a nilpotent, then u-a is a unit
What have you tried?
there's a ring theory way of proving this and a nonsense way of proving this which one you want
this approach doesn't work
the positive differences need not be in G
on the bright side
if this is a putnam at least the solution is elementary
Ring theory
The book said as a hint start with u = 1
If its a^2=0 then (1-a)(1+a) = 1
Is it just continuing some pattern like that?
right so your book is hinting at the BULLSHIT method
but yes, that's a good idea
see if you can find the inverse when a^3 = 0
that's confusing
trivial ring
i meant for their question
trivial ring
(1+a)(1+a^2)
I don't think so - we'll need negatives somwhere
to cancel out the a's and the a^2s
(1-a)(1+a)(1+a^2) is (1-a^2)(1+a^2)and then its (1-a^4) = 1 no?
oh sorry yeah
I was doing 1+a not 1-a
this is correct
wait, I said a^3 = 0 not a^4
same thing
I never understood why this proof was the go to one for textbooks. The maximal ideal argument is cleaner
The inverse of 1-a when a^n = 0 is (1+a)(1+a^2)(1+a^4)…(1+a^(n/2))
and for n odd?
it relies on zorn's
for what, the existence of maximal ideals?
ya
Is it just the same thing but do it till (1+a^((n+1)/2))
a ring theory without maximal ideals is not one I want to be in
yes
actually i think n/2 is already quite large
the ceil of log_2 n probably also works
I don't buy that for a second
we'd then have two different units with equal inverses
sorry i misread
So for the general u-a case, is it just a similar kind of thing
Modified version of it
you can turn u-a into u(1-u^-1a)
actually we can just take the infinite product
since a^m eventually vanishes
I'll tell you how this goes canonically once it won't spoil the entire thing
If u show (1-u^-1a) is a unit then multiplication of units is still a unit?
yur
For a^2=0 the inverse of (1-u^-1a) is (1+u^-1a)
Then Etc its same kind of thing
Probably
Ok go
take the series expansion of 1/(u-x) via the binomial formula
since x is nilpotent this terminates in finitely many terms and is thus a polynomial
geometric?
even better actually
good observation
$\sum_{i=1}^{\infty} ua^i = \sum_{i=1}^{n} ua^i = \frac{u}{1-a}$
Wew The Lads Tbh
n-1?
excuse the poor latex there
sure, point is it's finite
ngl i was 40% expecting "assume u + a is not a unit. then u + a is contained in some maximal ideal M such that R/M..."
nah, that's the correct way of doing it though
not only do I accept the axiom of choice. I force it upon those around me
thus giving them no choice
Lol I thought the geometric series is the standard way
Just those four elements? Well, it's a ring without identity. It's just the eM_2(F_2) where e is the fourth matrix on your list. That's a ring without identity and e e_{1,2} = e_{1,2} and e_{1,2} e= 0.
How important is it for a free object F on a set X of a concrete category to have the map of sets X->F be injective?
I'm reading hungerford and he doesn't seem to say it's injective but I remember it to be injective. Wiki says it's the canonical injection
All rings of order 4 are commutative. As a general result, all rings with order equal to a squared prime are commutative: Ring of order p2 is commutative? is that true
Rings of order 4 with identity are, yes. Your ring above doesn't have identity, but some people consider that a ring.
all right that was causing some confusions thanks
guys my lecturer's (hes a post doc) mentor taught us a lesson today
hes actually da goat
ic now why my guy is a fields medalist
is that true ?
n has this property for Sm iff its smallest prime divisor is greater than m I believe
so its false
could you provide me with a hint how to disprove it
If x^p is an isomorphism from G to G (ie an automorphism on G) then is it necessary than G must be abelian
This holds for p=2, 3 easily but I couldn't figure it out for any higher terms
Couldn't find counterexample either
What's G_1G_2 in group theory
only a little related but there's some result that says that if x ↦ x^n is a homomorphism for some consecutive n, then G is abelian
quaternions Q_8 has exp(Q_8) = 4. so x ↦ x^5 is the identity map
Bruh, I forgot about them. Thanks
Yeah if that holds for 3 consecutive integers then G is abelian
Do you know the criterion for two elements of Sm to be conjugates
That turns it into a combinatorial-ish problem
iff they have the same cycle type
so every permutation fails
as an example if n=9 then the permutation (1,2,3) fails
like wise for every other n right ?
👍
but now i realise even without knowing that i coulld have answered this
just by realising that two conjugates have the same classes
and the class of the identity element contains just the identity element
thanks
This appeared in my HW (not the problem itself):
Suppose I is an ideal that for all a \in I, 1 + a is left-invertible (A (1 + a) = A). Then, is 1 + a right-invertible as well ((1 + a) A = A) ?
I get that not all left-invertible elts are right-invertible, but I don't see the examples for the ones where the entire ideal has the property.
A?
Ah, A is a ring
Can you please share question pic
I am not getting the question properly therefore I asked
Ugh, I mean all these are typical notations
Well I might have had to specify that I is an ideal of A, but that's it
Ah well, left-ideal, to be specific
take a look at the jacobson radical, there are many equivalent definitions
rad(A) is defined as the intersection of all maximal-left ideals. but this happens to be a two-sided ideal
and has the nice description that
rad(A)
= {a in A : 1 - xay is invertible for all x, y in A}
= {a in A : 1 - xa has a left-inverse for all x in A}
Yep, and.. that was the homework
Oh
I should study towards "1 - xay is invertible" part then
Thank you!!

So the trick here is to consider the left inverse of 1+a and show that it also has a left inverse
And the way you would to that is ||to show that the left inverse also can be written as 1 + b for some b in I||
Oh thanks, that is more straightforward
Somehow I came to dislike simple algebraic manipulations..
btw, I'm pretty sure you also need u and a to commute
you really need commutativity. else consider R = Mat_{2x2}(k)
and
u = [1 1]
[0 1]
a = [0 0]
[1 0]
u+a isn't invertible.
another way it is usually defined is as the intersection of all ann(M) where M varies over simple left-A-modules. to see this is the same,
notice that for each non-zero m in M, ann(m) is a maximal left-ideal, and to see that the intersection is two-sided, check that ann(M) is actually two-sided.
the nice thing about the description
rad(A) = {a in A : 1 - xay is invertible for all x, y in A}
is that it shows this is a purely symmetric notion, all other had some "left" in it. in particular intersection of all maximal right ideals is also this.
why are conjugacy classes defined like they are
I kiiinda get it, but not really
like a mix of right and left and right cosets, which are analogous to modulo
Conjugacy classes are orbits under the conjugation action
And orbits are a very natural definition
what's an orbit ;-;
lots of group invariants either only care about things up to conjugacy, or are themselves are all conjugate
in a sense, two elements being conjugate basically means we can consider them as "the same" in a weaker sense than straight up equality
well yeah it's an equivalence class
like two matrices are similar if and only if they're conjugate in GL(n, R)
yeah it's a good example 
it just is that
just like matrix similarity is doing the same transformation but in a different coordinate system and then coming back
that makes sense
yeah, the vibes are the same for general groups
just no coordinates obvs
you'll start seeing a lot more use out of conjugacy when you study Symmetric groups/the Cayley embedding and group actions
hm
Today in "trying things that you would know don't work if you just remembered things":
Trying to show that SL(2,F3) is not isomorphic to S4. "well all symmetric groups contain all smaller symmetric groups, so I'll just check for S3"
reminder text: all non-abelian groups of order 6 are isomorphic to S3
To prove the binomial theorem, my lecture notes let $R$ be a ring with a multiplicative neutral element an $ab = ba$. then, they define $mr \coloneqq 0$ if $m = 0$ and $mr \coloneqq r + \dots + r$ with $m$ summands if $m \geq 1$. Why is this necessary?
m is the characteristic of the ring
it isn't needed to prove the binomial theorem
Integers aren't ring elements, so mr has to be separately defined
mr is shorthand for repeated addition of m ring elements
oh right good point, yeah - which part are you actually asking about
What do you mean it's not necessary, they go on to prove it right after this
Why are integers not ring elements?
is the ring a ring of integers?
Say Z/2Z
No, it's just some ring R
then you can't be assured that the integers are ring elements in that ring, so we have to define it separately to explicitly allow access
Oh, you are saying that'd be a ring but wouldn't include all integers
Ye
Then why not say "ring R with Z \subseteq R"
because what if you want a non-real ring?
(Though you can map the integers into any ring R by letting the integer m be the multiplicative identity added to itself m times, and this yields the same result)
the binomial theorem holds automatically from commutivity and distrubutivity, it does not depend on characteristic
Where do you see characteristic 
There's no mention of characteristic, they prolly just misread
a ring having complex numbers?
or a ring not having numbers at all
remember a ring is a set with two operations we call addition and multiplication (with particular restrictions). They needn't be specifically traditional integral addition and multiplication
Oh yeah the question did say R was a commutative ring
@velvet steeple just think about a ring of matrices, say 2x2 matrices with real entries
does this ring contain integers? No. Yet it is convenient to define nA as A+A+...+A (n times).
the same idea for a general ring
Oh
So they define their multiplication operation with this
without that notation we would have to write stuff like
(a+b)^3=a^3+a^2b+a^2b+a^2b+ab^2+ab^2+ab^2+b^3 (assuming ab=ba), which is not convenient
Oh
more abstract. They define a collected notion of quantity with this, in other words, instead of Δ+Δ+Δ (where triangle is not a number in any respect), we can simply say "3Δ" to represent collecting all those instances into a single collection to save space and recognize the sameness of the objects. The multiplication could be that triangle times pentagon is now nonagon, or something (being very loose with this), but defining a coefficient here is distinct from the ring multiplication.
Thanks! But now what does this have to do with "then you can't be assured that the integers are ring elements in that ring, so we have to define it separately to explicitly allow access"
nr where n is an integer is defined to just be repeated addition, it's not the same as saying n is an element of the ring and multiplying them together
If you know what a module is, you can think of this as being a Z-module, and this is the definition of the scalar multiplication
because the choose function and the exponents are integers in order to make for easy collection of terms and show the underlying structure. a and b are not necessarily numbers, but they exhibit the same "behavior" using this form of collected addition.
Oh, yep
3a^2 in this ring would be (a∙a)+(a∙a)+(a∙a) if we were to be perfectly explicit with our notation and only use ring elements. This is, however, not convenient, so we find it nicer to count the number of multiplications and additions using integers to keep track. These integers serve no purpose in the ring itself, and are simply there to make it sensible to us as we seek to understand the structure.
Oh.
Wait, but we haven't defined this with exponents yet, then
By saying mr := 0 if m = 0 and mr:= r + ... + r m times if m >= 1 we only define the "collection"
But not exponents yet
right?
We have to do that
Saying a^n*a := a^(n + 1) and a := a^1 maybe?
technically, yes, but in group theory, it is already defined clearly that x^n is the collection of n copies of x which have been joined with the group operation
So it's defined for exponents but not for factors?
well, the ring with multiplication is not a group, but a monoid (assuming the ring has identity)
more commonly, yeah. We define things like $D_8 \coloneqq \langle s,r | s^2=r^4=1, sr=r^{-1}s \rangle$ with the explicit assumption that these exponents apply repeated operation
GoldenPhoenix
point being that exponents are ubiquitous, but coefficients are not always as obvious, so it's better to be explicit
Alright, thanks.
Yeah, my lecture notes don't define it for exponents
Only for coefficients
if you play MtG, it's reminder text XD
in general, say you have an associative operation denoted multiplicatively, then x^n is defined with respect to this operation to be x*x*...*x (here x appear n times);
if the operation is denoted additively, then x^n is replaced by nx
I'm really stumped on showing these two groups being non-isomorphic tbh
different subgroups of order 8
you are doing SL(2, 3) and S_4 right
yeah but for some reason my brain really doesn't want to let me find them
I know the SL subgroup is isomorphic to the quaternion group of order 8, but for some reason the S4 subgroup is escaping me
wait a second....
hint: a square has FOUR corners
there's two non-abelian groups of order 8 so there's not much choice here
it's true for all primes
...8 isn't prime?
2 is though
I'll get there eventually, I'm sure
the structure is weird for p = 2 though but in general it looks like the special upper triangular 3x3 matrices over F_p and some weirdo C_{p^2} \ltimes C_p
which I think you can realise as a specific subgroup of Aff_1(F_p)
this is for groups of order p^3
oh, dumb thing to notice: SL(n,F2)=GL(n,F2) for all n
I think, pretty sure
certainly is for n=2,3
Not so many choices for what the determinant can be 🙂
yeh
can somebody explain to me how the extension being degree 2 implies that i is in Q(a)?
what will [Q(i) : Q(a) n Q(i)] be?
it can't be one since otherwise Q(a) n Q(i) = Q(i) which is impossible since a is real?
In the sequence p-1 of the elements should be (1,0), q-1 of them should be (0,1) and one of them should be (-1, -1)
oh wait and that would imply that Q(a) is contained in Q(i)
other wya
ah right
bigger n smaller = smaller
oh so then, [Q(i) : Q(a) n Q(i)][Q(a) n Q(i): Q] = [Q(i): Q], which is two, but [Q(i) : Q(a) n Q(i)] = 2 which we have shown must hold, then [Q(a) n Q(i): Q] = 1
ye sure, (i was thinking the other way but same thing lol. if Q(a)nQ(i) has degree 2, then Q(a)nQ(i)=Q(i) which is bad).
the complement?
why not just write (A u B) \ (A n B) so much easier to read >.<
A nice way I visualised this problem is by noticing that Q(a) \cap R = Q(a), but clearly but Q(i) \cap R is just Q, so Q(i) \cap Q(a) = Q(i) \cap Q(a) \cap R = Q(i) \cap R \cap Q(a) = Q \cap Q(a) = Q
which I think is just what det was saying but not in galois language
so I could actually understand it
wew cmon ur galois theory can't be that shit right
I have never done a formal course
that's a lot of caps, translating into latex currently
I understand we're using the tower property but it's not that intuitive to me
why so
ok let me elaborate - the tower property is VERY intuitive

