#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 181 of 1
oh cool thanks
how exactly does $F[X]/\bigl(p(X)\bigl) \simeq F[\alpha]$ and $F[\alpha]$ being an integral domain imply that $p(X)$ is irreducible?
okeyokay
oh sorry to interrupt my b
Well suppose it were reducible, and try and see why that would mean F[X]/(p(X)) would not be an integral domain
oh
is it just that if $p(X) = h(X)g(X)$ then $\bigl(h(X) + p(X)\bigl)\bigl(g(x) + p(X)\bigl) = 0$
okeyokay
yes
my condolences
r u at berkeley?
ya
Anyone know what l.o.t means?
That makes sense, thx
For this definition, it means for example, $x^{360}-1=0$ is solvable, the primitive root is $a=e^{i 1^\circ}$ (I use degree to measure the angle), but what is $\cos(1^\circ)=?$ This is not constructible.
WT
wait, is this solvable?
is there any non-annoying way or do i just have to solve a system of equations to get (\alpha - 1)^{-1} in the form
because i got to a system of equations but it's inconsistent
i was able to get the first expression as a linear combination of the basis elements
just multiply and equals 1, then expand and compare coefficients
what is wdym?
what do you mean

(a alpha^2+b alpha+c)(alpha-1)=1
expand and compare coefficients
and reduce alpha^3 by using this
have you managed to do the first part okeyokay?
can you help me on my questoin?🥹
quite literally no, I hate galois theory
why
and you wrote e^i1^\circ which is an abomination
too many words for things that are the same
yeah i meant that i was able to express (a^2 + a + 1)(a^2 + a) as a linear combination of the basis elements
bro's a mod
yur
would the order of N_G(P cap Q) being 36 be a contradiction since i havnt used any sylow 2’s yet and already have 216 elements of order 7 in a group of 252
oh smart
but I am confused on the x^360-1=0, is this solvable?
magma won't compute the galois group for me so am I actually going to have to think about cyclotomic polynomials chat
is that something I'm going to have to do
wait i don't know why i didn't decide to multiply both sides by alpha - 1 oop
Too much is changing in this server
can't handle it smh
Gl with your cyclotomic polynomials, wew, and NOTHING else lmao
yes, it is cyclotomic polynomials
the book gives this lemma, but it depends on the cyclotomic ploy is always solvable, right?
They’re all I need
what is smh?
Google it
I don’t know enough Galois theory to comment
Shaking my head at this question
oh no
thankyou..
sharps what's the minimal polynomial of the splitting field of x^a-1
I think these are the same statement?
Y-(x^a-1)
it is (x-r1)...(x-rk), where r1, ..., rk are all the primitive roots
makes sense
computer says no
computer? do you ask GPT?
apparently Gal(x^8-1) (I don't know the notation nor do I care) is C_2^2
Yeah I’d believe that
Sounds about right for flopping da circle around or wtv
The galois group of the nth cyclotomic polynomial is (Z/nZ)*
yeah I buy this as well
So duh doy, it's Abelian
x^8-1 and x^4+1 has the same splitting field, because they have the same cyclotomic polynomials
Wym don't you trust me??? >:(
Yeee cyclic-y momento
You can see this super easily if you just consider where the generator lands
sorry I only trust BOOytjie
I AM HE, HEATHEN
Some primitive root of unity must land on a power of itself, and those powers are primitive exactly when the exponent is coprime to n
A shoddy explanation I know but it is enough to recover at least that it's a quotient of the group of units
I may hear the siren's call but I will continue to sing
You are the siren
Yeah I hear the sirens.... 👮
anyway back to the galois theory
and the elements are relative primes to n, hence includes phi(n) elements, where phi(n) are Euler function.
:theuniversehasamostmelodioushum: or something
One might even call that the definition of phi(n)
In fact... many do!
I think I just had my third eye opener by realizing Galois groups are the things permuting realizations of types
Which is like, comically obvious but I just now thought about

For this example, how to show the splitting field is contained in some radical extensions? how to choose alpha1,... alpha4?
“Yes it permutes polynomial solutions”
nobody does this
You can definitely look at like, automorphisms f fixing some set X (pointwise or setwise as appropriate) and clearly tp(a/X) = tp(fa/X) or such
But in big enough models you can get converses and such
Idk how related stuff from Galois stuff works out, or structures on those associated aut groups, but I do know of this
But uh, types = “orbits of automorphisms” holds literally for “rich enough” models, which you can oftentimes see fixed as a universe
If by definition the splitting field of $x^n-1$ on Q is Q(r1, ..., rn), where r1,.., rn are roots, then apparently $r_k^n=1\in Q$ for $k=1,2,...n$, so the radical-extension-field is just Q(r1, ..., rn)? Can I say this?
WT
Question i needed to do was compute factor group Z6xZ4/<(3,2)> and i noticed some things and was thinking yooo is this new group gonna be cyclic? And it was!
Then apparently it means that Z6xZ4 is called metacyclic
indeed it does
i'm a little bit confused here, what exactly is C? Lang says it's a class of extension fields, but then proceeds to say things like "k \subset FE is in C" so is C a class of inclusions or smt?
or is this just imposing some relations on the class of extension fields
an extension field is a pair of fields
so k \subset F is an extension field and F \subset E is an extension field
tbh i've seen it more in the notation of like k/F
oh yeah i guess you have to refer to what it's an extension of
true
well this dude calls integral domains entire so...
WHERE MY CHARACTER THEORISTS AT
how does one show that a finite abelian group of order n has exactly n characters
at first i thought about the homomorphisms determined by the generators of the group
which is euler-phi(n)
but alas
no....
Well here's one way: Classification of finite Abelian groups + what you know about characters of cyclic groups.
Show that a cyclic grou of order n has exactly n characters, show that the character group of a product is the product of character groups, and use the classification theorem for finite abelian groups.
Conversely you can do it purely by counting: the irreducible characters of an Abelian group are all of degree 1, and the sum of the squares of the degrees of the irreps is the order of the group.
hm okay i'll try to show this when i have time
reason i'm asking is because maclane is using it as an example and i'm unfamiliar with it
like for example what's the difference between DG and D(G)
or are they same thing and it was just a typo
cuz i thought that the character group was the set of all homomorphisms from G to the nonzero complex numbers under multiplication
Oh you're not talking about rep theory characters
These are slightly different in the way they're presented
maybe i should skip this example then LOL
Linear characters of G are in bijection with Hom(G, R/Z) because the group of units of C is isomorphic to R/Z
But n.b., only linear characters
Characters of degree 1
oh yeah i guess that makes sense
Frustratingly, some texts use 'characters' to mean linear characters into some field, possibly other than C. So that may be the confusion.
hmm R/Z being isomorphic to C* is kinda weird tho
Whoops
I didn't mean the group of units
I meant the group of the unit circle
mb
oh yea that makes more sense then
oh yea
can anyone help me?
french-pilled
why this definition works? for example, x^7-1=0, how to use this definition to show the radical expression for the roots?
for the primitive root r=exp(2pi/7), but what is the radical expression for this?
r^7 = 1 which is in F
yes, but how this works? I mean by definition r^7=1 in Q, so Q(r) is the radical extension of Q, but how does this help to show r can be expressed into a radical form?
and what is the radical form for r
What do you mean by radical form?
r=exp(2pi/7)=cos(2pi/7)+i sin(2pi/7), how to write cos(2pi/7) into radical form?
I forgot if that was feasible for all n or not.
But this is not obvious
Like, I think in some cases such cosine value might not be written in radical form
and in general, x^n-1=0 are solvable by this definition, so how to write cos(2pi/n) into radical form
I think there would be an assumption about root of unity.
what assumption?
Usually there is an assumption like, the base field F contains roots of unity.
Oh, you do not need that
what you said is the next step, which is this lemma, and they consider two cases, the base field F contain or not contain the root of unity.
I guess you use Galois theory to show that cyclotomic extensions can be found by taking strictly radicals.
Yes
there should be an algorithm to write cos(2pi/n) into radical forms?
I guess there would be algorithm for that, but you do not need explicit algorithms.
Just the fact that cyclotomic extension is a abelian is enough.
cyclotomic poly needs to know all primitive roots, if n is fixed, then the Euler function phi(n) is known, so we just need to know the form of exp(i 2pi/n) , then everything will be done, but my question is how to find this?
Nah, you do not need to find it explicitly
The abelian Galois group simply gives the result.
why?
Consider when a field extension is of prime degree. What would be such a field extension?
wait, it is not nessesarily be prime degree
Ugh, I mean
the degree equals phi(n)
Of course cyclotomic extension is not of prime degree
But recall what Galois theory was about.
ok, then the G(K/F) is cyclic
Well yea, it is even cyclic
Then you have chains of subgroups, where the index is prime at each point.
Since all these are abelian, they should all be normal as well.
Now what happens?
I don't get it, if the order of Galois group is prime, then why there is a chain of subgroups?
Nah
Galois group of cyclotomic extension is cyclic. You got this, right?
It is not of prime order.
But it has chain of subgroups where the index is prime.
it is isomorphic to the multiplicative group of Zn where the elements are relative primes to n
yes, so each index is prime, and all subgropus of cyclic group are cyclic
since G(K/F) is abelian, all subgroups are normal
Yep
so each level's extension are normail extension to the previous level' extention field
Indeed
then what?...
...well that's why I told you to consider what is the extension of prime degree(index).
sorry i am lost, where is the starting point?
Huh?
my question is to ask how the definition of the radical extension helps to express cos(2pi/n) into radical form?
so I am expecting some algorithm (based on the definition of radical extension) to write this into radical form, you said there is no need.
so i am lost...
but I don't get how your said is to solve this question
It is nearly done
your starting point is to consider a prime order cycl-poly
Basically, this approach gives a way without explicitly constructing the root of unity with roots
Nah
It was just about a field extension of prime index.
Do not confuse this prime index extension with cyclotomic extension - cyclotomics are not usually of prime index at all.
ok, so if F=Q, and then we consider an extension with degree p
so we forget cycl-poly
hello?
What's going on?
just now i saw someone post a solution, then take it back
Is this line of reasoning correct? If I have a finite group G and assume it is simple, there exists a map from G to S_k where k is the index of some subgroup in G
so if G doesn’t divide k! then it is not simple
That sounds right
but also, since i am assuming G is not simple, it has no subgroup of index 2, so i can actually map it into A_k and get a better bound, like k!/2
Otherwise it has a kernel
this is my question
this is the part i’m less sure about i guess
It can be done but you'd have to do some work. Are you familiar with Gauss sums?
no i don't..
I guess you're saying, let k be the index of some H. You have a transitive action of G on G/H, so this gives a homomorphism G->S_k
Compose this with the sign homomorphism S_k -> \pm 1. Unless |G| = 2, in which case this problem is kinda lol, this homomorphism has to be trivial. So yeah the image of G lives in A_k
I'll do this for zeta_5
zeta_5 solves x^5 - 1, and in fact we can divide by x-1 to get the cyclotomic polynomial x^4 + x^3 + x^2 + x + 1
Sloth King Daminark
what's zeta5? is zeta5=exp(i 2pi/5) ?
Yea
ok, I can do the next steps
but question is , we have four roots, how do you set which one is exp(2pi/5) ?
Geometrically
and how to show the general case exp(i2pi/n)
The calculation I did above was agnostic to which root of unity, and you'll notice that we get a \pm, so you'd need to think of which one holds in the particular case
I think doing it explicitly is gonna be hard in general, but I think these types of objects are useful for that. Look up "Gauss sums"
this definition is a recursive way, so I guess there is some algorithm to build the radical expression recursively?
So what I did for zeta_5 gives you that Q(sqrt(5)) is an intermediate extension
I think Gauss sums will be the way to go to get one step of the way, but doing it explicitly will be hard
and just now @cobalt heath said we don't need the explicit form, but I don't know what he had in mind...
A field extension is solvable in radicals iff its Galois group is a "solvable group"
So if you're just looking for a proof of the fact that cyclotomic extensions are solvable, you say well the Galois group is abelian, and thus solvable
There is some work needed to prove this, called "Kummer Theory"
my question is not that far, it is just the initial definition: when they define the radical extension, then why this definition works? so I just want to see an example, like x^n-1=0, this satisfies this definition, but how can we express the root into radical form
Yeah I'm saying, using some theory we know it can be done. But doing this example in general is not easy
This is where I said to look up Gauss sums, they're what we did for n=5 and I think are gonna be pretty important in general
But it's not a napkin proof
the definition didn't say how to choose those alpha1, alpha2...
my question is how to choose them
The definition just says "The extension is solvable if there exists such alpha_i"
Now if someone hands you a solvable extension and tells you it's solvable
I don't know of a way to compute the alpha_i by hand. Even in cyclotomic function example, it's some hard work. A common way of proving solvability of an extension is using group theory, that you'll do soon enough
do you mean this?
Yup
This gives you a way to show that such a_i exist. It might not give them to you explicitly (tbh I forget how the proof of Kummer theory goes, maybe if you work really hard and unwrap it it does? But it doesn't give you an easy way)
it proves one way, but not the reverse direction
I mean the proof can be done in general, it just isn't done by this book
thank you, and do you know a good material to cover this part? friendly to beginers
Fraleigh's book is very brief on this section
I have a pin in #book-recommendations for algebra books
Nutshell is, Artin is probably good
Is $\mathbb{Z}_3$ and subgroup group of $\mathbb{Z}_6$?
my answer is no,
because the operation is different even though they are subsets
.doc
please verify my answer
Sure, if you're saying Z_3 = {0, 1, 2} and Z_6 = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5} then one is certainly not a subgroup of the other.
How did you define Z_3 and Z_6 ..
Residue set?
remainders upon division by m
Ah, so basically what Boyt said
Yep
Yea it all depends on how you identify these.
By equivalence classes.
quotient group?
Like $\bar{1} = {1,4,7, …}$
Absta
This is also equivalance classes but partition of Z
Yes your Z_3 is commonly referred to as the quotient group Z / 3Z.
What’s the notation /3Z?
so we remove them
from Z3?
Because it's a normal subgroup, you can quotient
I haven’t reached there yet i guess
Z/3Z = {3Z, 1 + 3Z, 2 + 3Z}
I’ve pretty much only reached till permutation group
Hm but yea, Z_3 itself is not subgroup of Z_6 without alternative identification, even in this way.
Here 1 + 3Z = numbers that are 1 above a multiple of 3 and 2 + 3Z = numbers that are 2 above a multiple of 3, so we get back to residues
Why is the field generated by F_p and some finite set of elements from the algebraic closure still finite?
An algebraic extension generated by a single element is finite-dimensional, so in this case the field remains finite. Induction solves the rest.
I understand, thank you
lol the section on cosets, normal subgroups and factor groups have taken me so long to understand at a level im happy with
I really liked this section though
after this we are done with groups and going to fields and polynomials
how exactly is schur's lemma used here ? it feels like what's used here is that if L would be non-zero, it would contradict irreducibility of the reps
I mean I'm especially confused since Schur in the book is only concerned about self maps of representations
is there an easy way to prove there's no nonzero maps between inequivalent reps in the infinite dimensional case ?
I'm having trouble with a group classification problem, I'm trying to find all groups of order 174 (2*3*29). For the abelian case we clearly just have the cyclic group. For the nonabelian case, clearly there's a normal sylow 29-subgroup, and there's either 1 or 58 sylow 3-subgroups.
In the case with 1 sylow 3-subgroup, we take a product of the sylow 29 and sylow 3-subgroups to get a normal group of order 87, and then we can take a semidirect product with one of the sylow 2-subgroups to get up to 3 possible groups.
In the case with 58 sylow 3-subgroups, I got that there are either 1, 3, or 29 sylow 2-subgroups. If there is only 1, we take the product of that with the sylow 29-subgroup to get a normal group of order 58, and then semidirect that with a sylow 3-subgroup. But, since Aut(Z_58)=Z_28 we can't take a semidirect prodcut here. Now, the 3 and 29 cases are where I don't know what to do, we can't just take an easy semidirect product or anything obvious that I can see.
It would be cool to go through linear algebra again, after having learned some abstract algebra
I would do it this way: there is always a normal subgroup of order 29, so there is an exact sequence $H \to G \to X$ where $X$ is a group of order 6. If $X$ is $Z/6$ then you can show that the short exact sequence is split (think about why). If X is $S_3$ then there is a short exact sequence $K \to G \to Z/2$, which is obviously split, and you have to classify groups of order 3*29 and the actions of Z/2 on them.
n-Coskeletal E-Girl
then classifying groups of order 87 is easy
To show a group of order 252 is not simple, can we use the fact that we have 36 sylow-7 subgroups of order 7, and so 216 elements of order 7. We also have either 4,7,28 sylow-3 subgroups. We can’t have 4 by constructing a map into S_4, so we have atleasy 7 sylow-3 subgroups. But then 36(7-1)+7(9-3)> 252 which is a contradiction to the order of the group
like i feel like i assumed the best case scenario, the smallest number of sylow 3 and the biggest intersection and still had too many elements so i’m done?
why cant you have 4?
your group is of size $497$
n-Coskeletal E-Girl
so there could be a nontrivial map to S_4 which acts transitively on the 3-sylows
ah but i see you are trying to prove that its not simple
okay
this is good! this works
To show if homomorphisms are injective we can just look at the kernel , but why cant we do this for some function u would study in calculus from R to R, or something like that?
Those functions cant be considered homomorphisms of R?
Recall the definition of homomorphism
Right, so a function from ℝ to ℝ that doesn't satisfy the definition of a homomorphism isn't a homomorphism
Which part of this is confusing?
Its not really
Already knew why, but was wondering if there was some more insight somewhere
Also i think maybe a bigger problem is that a set function cant even really be considered functions between groups normally. Like i suppose f: R -> R, f(x) = x^2 + 1 cant even be considered a function between groups because you are using two different operations within R for the output of f
Part of Schurs lemma says that there is no nonzero map between inequivalent irreducible representations.
This is easy to prove, by just noting that the image and kernel of a homomorphism is a submodule.
what if the linear map has dense image and zero kernel ?
I know the "full" version of schur's lemma for finite dimensional reps, but for infinite dimensions I don't quite see the argument
the point is that the group is compact and all of the representations are unitary
so then this reduces to the proof of the finite dimensional case, if you take "image" to mean the image in topological vector spaces which should be the closure of the image
I don't quite get what you mean sorry
I get the unitarization part
but how does it solve this problem ?
unitary reps of a compact group are hilbert space sums of finite dimensional representations
perhaps you have not proved this yet?
ohh right yes I (technically) did
anyway and distinct finite dimensional irreducible reps have no intertwiners by the usual argument
(intertwiner meaning G-equivariant hom)
right so in this case it's just that the irreps in question are finite dimensional
yes basically, although schur's lemma is a very general principle
thank you, missed that detail embarassing lol
not embarassing! no worries
I see, but aren't all irreducible representations finite dimensional anyway?
it does make sense indeed, if G is compact, morally for a fixed vector u, pi(G)(u) should be compact and G-invariant
this can easily be seen by realising that all compact groups are finite
how to find the book? when I click it takes me here
oh, thank you! I found it.
Artin and Dummit, which one is good for the Galois theory part?
thanks for the help! that makes sense.
how exactly sigma being injective imply that sigma(E') has the same dimension of E'? is it just because sigma just permutes the generators of E'
Rank-nullity
oof don't remember that from lin alg
dimension of quotient space
Or you could just
say the image is isomorphic to the space
hence of the same dimension
You should burn rank-nullity into your mind
oh
fundamental theorem of linear maps
bruh why is lang not using kronecker for showing a polynomial over a field has a root in some extension
my favorite theorem :(
yeah i'd just say that
What does the symbol at the bottom mean?
The field with 71 elements
Are those elements the numbers 0 to 70?
71 is kind of an underrated prime
How would you rate it?
can someone look at problem 7.3 and tell me whether 0.1 and 0.2 are necessary or one or the other is fine
just tryna understand the proof
71 
dragonslayer do u think u could tell me if 0.1 and 0.2 are needed in the proof or 0.1 or 0.2. cuz it says we will show two ways.
They are two independent solutions
Though they reuse the part about geometric series
so either suffice to explain the statement if a|b, F+b_a inclusion F_p^b part
Yes
cool thanks
So I've tried approaching this problem in a couple different ways, but I haven't had any luck. My idea was to use induction on m, but after I finished the base case I didn't really know how to progress. I mean for the induction step, clearly I just need to show that N_1 is equal to the commutator group, but I couldn't see how to do that.
Proof. (Existence) For $q=p^n$, consider $x^q-x$ in $\mathbb{F}_p[x]$, and let $F$ be its splitting field over $\mathbb{F}_p$. Since its derivative is $q x^{q-1}-1=-1$ in $\mathbb{F}_p[x]$, it can have no common root with $x^q-x$ and so, by Theorem 3.15, $x^q-x$ has $q$ distinct roots in $F$. Let $S=\left{a \in F: a^q-a=0\right}$. Then $S$ is a subfield of $F$ since
- $S$ contains 0 ;
- $a, b \in S$ implies (by Freshmen's Exponentiation) that $(a-b)^q=a^q-b^q=a-b$, so $a-b \in S$;
- for $a, b \in S$ and $b \neq 0$ we have $\left(a b^{-1}\right)^q=a^q b^{-q}=a b^{-1}$,so $a b^{-1} \in S$.
On the other hand, $x^q-x$ must split in $S$ since $S$ contains all its roots, i.e its splitting field $F$ is a subfield of $S$. Thus $F=S$ and, since $S$ has $q$ elements, $F$ is a finite field with $q=p^n$ elements. (Uniqueness) Let $F$ be a finite field with $q=p^n$ elements. Then $F$ has characteristic $p$ by Theorem 6.2 , and so contains $\mathbb{F}_p$ as a subfield. So, by Lemma $6.4, F$ is a splitting field of $x^q-x$. The result now follows from the uniqueness (up to isomorphism) of splitting fields, from Theorem 5.18.
.
does my proof answer the question properly?
wait the fact that (a-b)^q=a^q-b^q is called Freshmen's Exponentiation is hilarious to me lmao (also I can't help you unfortunately sry)
lmao
dw
what have you proved so far? you did the first part?
anyway it's crucial to use that the quotients have prime order, so the abelianizations are cyclic
can someone help me prove this?
Do you have Fermat’s little theorem? Or Lagrange’s theorem
fml
*fermat's little theorem
not f my life lmao
can you imagine why it would be an issue if a nonzero element wasn't a root of unity?
Perhaps that approach is better rather than invoking field extensions
i mean id prefer using field extensions tbh
um lemme think
Well if you know about field extensions surely you have lagranges theorem
consider the subset {z, z^2, z^3, ...} consisting of powers of a nonzero element z, and picture how it fits into your finite field
oh sorry i read lagranges as lebesgue lol
Then the group of units is a finite group, apply Lagrange
I prefer this method though, it’s lower level
im still not understbaiundg
does ths imply z is a root ofg x^n - 1
Yes, in any finite field F_q every element is a root of x^(q-1)-1
By Lagrange
Alternatively, following rho’s method
If z wasn’t a root of unity z^k would be different for each k in N, so our field would be infinite
i think i got it actually
Let a be a nonzero element in $\mathrm{F}$. We want to show that a is a root of unity, which means that there exists a positive integer $n$ such that $a^{\wedge} n=1$.
Now, let's consider the set $S=\left{a, a^{\wedge} 2, a^{\wedge} 3, a^{\wedge} 4, \ldots\right}$. Since $F$ is a field, it follows that the set $S$ is closed under multiplication, and it contains only nonzero elements.
Because $\mathrm{F}$ is a finite field, and $S$ contains infinitely many elements $\left(a, a^{\wedge} 2, a^{\wedge} 3, \ldots\right)$, by the Pigeonhole Principle, there must be at least one pair of distinct positive integers $i$ and $j$ such that $a^{\wedge} \mathrm{i}=\mathrm{a}^{\wedge} \mathrm{j}$ for $\mathrm{i}<\mathrm{j}$.
Let's consider the element $a^{\wedge}(j-i)$. We have:
$$
a^{\wedge}(j-i)=a^{\wedge} j / a^{\wedge} i=\left(a^{\wedge} j\right) /\left(a^{\wedge} i\right)=1
$$
So, we've found a positive integer $(j-i)$ such that $a^{\wedge}(j-i)=1$. This means that $a$ is indeed $a$ root of unity, with $n=j$ - $i$ being a positive integer. Therefore, every nonzero element of the finite field $\mathrm{F}$ is a root of unity.
does this make sense
.
why tf did i write wedge instead of exp bru
$a^n$
n-connected Ryx
that is so funny
yes i has a ltex sheet right next to me idk why i did that lmao
does my proof look alr? i used ur hint rho
- S is closed under multiplication basically by definition, not because F is a field
- i don't think at this level you can just state that "S does not contain 0" follows from "F is a field." you should give a better/clearer reason
- S does not contain infinitely elements. to invoke the pigeonhole principle, you can say that you have a map from the positive naturals to S sending n to a^n, but S is finite.
- i am not sure what the purpose of the second equality is (where you parenthesize your numerator and denominator)
other than that, looks good
Holy moly that is a long proof
Let z in F non-zero, then because F is finite we have to have z^m = z^k for some m, k - which in turn implies z^(m-k) = 1
bro wtf howd u simplify it in one line
oh yeah you don't really need to state that S doesn't contain 0
the beauty of proofs is screaming its name right here
if you have a^i = a^j then just multiply both sides by a^(-i)
do i not need to clarify anything in this
this proof is just relying on the def of finite field right
:theheavenlytuneofawellwrittenproofbringsjoyandblissupontheearth:
do you need to clarify?
i would write "for some positive k < m" instead but then it's fine
what does z in F non-zero mean? im p sure ik what hes saying but idk
yea thats what i meant by clarifying
z is an element of F and z is not zero
alr yea thats what i was thinking
nah you can have m < k it works as well, but yeah write this unless you want to write the extra z^n = 1 <=> z^-n = 1 step

can i get a hint to show that if G is a group of order 36 which has more than one sylow-3 that is isomorphic to Z_3 x Z_3, then G is isomorphic to A_4 x Z_3
i have gotten to the center of G being either order 3 or order 6, but i’m not sure how to contradict order 6
Maybe I forgot but, perhaps you can quotient by Z(G) to obtain a group of order 6
Then see how it goes.
i wasn’t sure where my contradiction would be there
could i get a hint for this problem please?
i'm supposing for contradiction that it's reducible
Uhh, could maybe go reducible -> divisible type route?
I’m thinking that’s nicer?
i tried some shit by dividing g by f
Well, you won’t be just outright dividing g by f, but it’ll factor to like h•j+qf or something ye?
But well I’m not sure that’s the way to go?
what about using the fact that F(\alpha) intersection F(\beta) = F
using the coprime condition
stole that from someone i know as a hint but need to think about that for a sec lol
oh write dimension F(a) dimension F(b) are coprime duh
yeah lemme try doing a dimension argument maybe?
If it’s reducible your dimension of F(a,b)/F(a) goes down
But it’s divisible by both…
||so what’s the lcm||
oh wait is this something like $[F(\alpha, \beta): F] = [F(\alpha, \beta: F(\alpha)][F(\alpha): F]$
okeyokay
oh the dimension goes down because if you can factor g(x) = r(x)s(x) then beta is a zero of r(x) or s(x) right
ye that makes sense
no zero divisors
Also one of them has degree 1 at least so 
hUh
it's evening and my brain is not working
oh
misread
ARRRGH
i'm so close holy
so say deg f = m and deg g = n
then F(a, b)/F = F(a, b)/F(a) times F(a)/F
if g = rs with deg r < g, deg s < g and say r(b) = 0
with deg r = k
then we have dim(F(a, b)/F) = nk....
but in particular m divides this....
uhhhhhhhh
so then m must divide k
Say we have degrees x, y
g is reducible over F(a), so deg min poly b/F(a) = z < y
But xz is divisible by y
Since it’s y * deg min poly a/F(b)
@white oxide
here x refers to deg f right
okay yeah that makes sense
hm yea rn i'm trying to convince myself that y divides xz
xz = [F ab/Fb][Fb/F]
= something*y
shouldn't it be Fa?
Those are the same final product
It doesn’t matter whether we stop by Fa or Fb as the intermediary
But [Fb/F] = deg g
The square shape <> thing
You should remember a similar thing from like, group theory stuff
are you talking about lattices of fields?
You remember mf Lagrange
Ye those too though, the Galois stuff is related since ya know
Obviously
😂
Can I ask how do I obtain lasting knowledge regarding the e.g. groups? Like the Sylow group stuffs
How do I avoid forgetting the theorems and concepts?
for me, just doing as many problems as i can without looking back at the theorems/text
Use a lot of group actions and rederive details as necessary
I forgot like, how groups of order p^2 q could be classified.
Group actions?
Oh actually, can I derive these facts more easily once I learn representation theory?
Ok so I'm back with the same question, turns out I missed a key part of the question so I was able to get a little farther, so it's pretty clear that m=n, now I'm struggling to see why you can't reorder the composition factors to get a different composition series, in which case this would be false.
I think (elementary) group theory is mostly about techniques and clever constructions. So given some problem in group theory, you might want to look for (in no particular order)
- A well-behaved set Omega to act on
- A nice action on Omega, where the objects you are dealing with are characterized in terms of the stabilizers/orbits/etc of the action
- The group G that acts on Omega
Usually, you won't have clear choices for all three, and even none. But if for example you find a plausible Omega, it may be clearer what the action should be and what G should be.
Given a very general statement one should always keep in mind "general" actions, namely, conjugation and multiplication (on elements of the group or cosets...). In this case for example the difficult part will be to find Omega and G
I think by focusing on the techniques and methods, rather than on the results, it will be easier to remember group theory
I ended up figuring it out finally lol
I see, thanks for great writeup!
did I do this right? This one along with 252 have been the hardest orders less than 300
why do they say "internal" ?
because G need not literally be P_1 \times P_2 \times ... P_n
just isomorphic to it
hence the internal direct product rather than the external one
it follows pretty much immediately from every Sylow being normal and the fact that if P, Q are sylow at different primes then they must intersect trivially
Internal means that the map $P_1\times\cdots\times P_k\to G$ defined by $(p_1,\dots, p_k)\mapsto p_1\cdots p_k$ is an isomorphism?
Croqueta
sure, although that's not how it's usually phrased
https://www.math3ma.com/blog/whats-a-quotient-group-really-part-1 this was good but it didnt go into why you need the subgroup to be normal
I realize that most of my posts for the past, er, few months have been about some pretty hefty duty topics. Today, I'd like to dial it back a bit and chat about some basic group theory! So let me ask you a question: When you hear the words "quotient group," what do you think of? In case you'd like a little refresher, here's the definition...
Suppose G is a group of order 385. Show that one of the 7-Sylow subgroups is a subgrup of Z(G).
For Q24 doesnt the factor group have 5 elementsv
385=11×5×7 and I find there is only one 7-Sylow. How do I proceed to show that it is a subgroup of Z(G)?
Oops ur right thank you becuz its invertible matrices
it's a silly notation that predates thinking about groups up to isomorphism
Since C7 is a normal subgroup, conjugation defines a group homomorphism G -> Aut(C7). What can such a map be?
I've been stuck on this problem embarassingly long:
If $I$ and $S$ are a disjoint ideal and submonoid of a commutative ring $A$, then for all $r\in A$, either
[(I+Ar) \cap S = \varnothing ]
or
[\langle S,r \rangle \cap I = \varnothing ]
sergeEmbedding
this is equivalent to krull's separation lemma, which i am trying to prove
I PROVED IT NOW???
I've been at this for days, and NOW???
as soon as I ask for help?
it's like 4 lines, too
krull's separation lemma says
if M is maximal in the set of ideals disjoint with a submonoid S, then M is prime
and if x,y not in M,
X=M+xA
Y=M+yA both properly contain M.
since all ideals disjoint with S are contained in M,
X and Y are not disjoint with S.
that allows us to find
s1 = (m+xa)
s2 = (m+ya)
and thus
s1s2=s3= (m+xya)
and therefore
M+xyA is not disjoint with S.
this means M+xyA is not equal to M
therefore, no element of xyA is in M.
therefore, xy is not in M
thus, M is prime
i can't believe i came up with this in like 5 min after failing to solve this problem for days
@rocky cloak for all g in G I have g^-1 C7g=C7
Sure, that's just saying it's normal
yeah, I don't get what your hint says@rocky cloak
So are you aware that x -> g^-1 x g defines an automorphism from C7 -> C7?
yes
And do you know what the automorphism of C7 are?
np
Any $\varphi \in Aut(C_n)$ has the form $\varphi(x)=x^k$ with k coprime with n
Seagull
Indeed, so then Aut(C7) is a group with 6 elements
Now, how many possible homomorphisms can exist from G to a group with 6 elements?
If I have $aHa^{-1} \subseteq H$, does it follow that $aHa^{-1} = H$? When the assumption holds for all $a$, then it's true, but what if we fix one $a$?
Shiranai
I'd think so but haven't been able to show it
No, it's not true in general
do you have an example? I think you're right now that I think about it
If H is finite, then the statement is true. If not, it need not be true.
For a counterexample consider G^Z for some group G. Then Z acts on G^Z by shifting the index.
Consider the semidirect product of G^Z and Z with respect to this action. And let H be the subgroup G^N. Then conjugation by a the generator of Z maps H to G^N+1
(N meaning natural numbers and N+1 meaning numbers that are n+1 for a natural number)
I'm not too sure how to tackle this problem. Any advice?
Have you tried checking some examples?
Oh I got it, since the order of the image of an element divides the order of the element there is only one such homomorphism and it maps g to the identity automorphism.
Thanks
why exactly will the polynomials g involve a finite number of variables?
That's just the definition of a polynomial. A polynomial is a linear combination of monomials, thus a finite sum of things that only involve finitely many variables
oh yeah that makes sense
thanks
here what would the root of fsigma be? would it just be sigma(x)?
any gs?
What’s f sigma
$\sigma f$
okeyokay
with sigma applied to the coefficients
So you see that sigma k is basically just k since field ye?
yea
But im presuming S is your variables made up by basically adding every possible root?
Or rather, to each polynomial you give a root
Namely: X_f
And sigma f(X_f) = 0
oh i thought lang constructed S to be associating each polynomial f in k[x] with a letter X_f
does he mean that they're the roots or smt
wdym what
They’re symbols added to ensure everything has at least one root
how do you know that tho
Because f(X_f) -> 0 
It’s a root of f
In the field k[S]/m
Or, sigma(X_f) a root of f^\sigma specifically
By definition
this old article on pokemon is interesting
"Are Your Children Nuts About Little Cartoon Creatures From Japan?
Don't Know Why?
The Diagnosis Is Simple: -- Pokemon Fever"
wait wrong channel
If you’d prefer the logic version, you accept that every specific polynomial f can have an extension where it has a root, and you can add finitely many at a time, we can invoke compactness to get a field to get a root for everything at once basically
Might not wanna take maximals since choice, instead only prime ideals, but you can still weasel basically the same construction into a field and by basically the same way get that it’s alg closed
cool thanks i went to the beginning of the section and am rereading and verifying everything, but will look once i get there
you a g fr
so some people include the condition that ring homomorphisms send 1 to 1 right
but it's not necessary
i'm confused
It's necessary in that you get something different if you don't require it
Typically people who consider rings to be defined to have 1, also require homomorphisms to map 1 to 1
Let me put it this way
If you don't consider homomorphisms of unital rings to map 1 to 1, you are the devil and deserve everlasting punishment
Let me put it another way
In order to form a variety of algebraic structures in the universal algebra sense, rings must include a unit, and they must be preserved for everything to be right in the world.
I phrased that badly. What I mean to say is that if you want your rings to be unital, you need to include it as part of the data for a ring.
If you don't know any universal algebra, dw about it.
i see
i think that makes sense
thanks
i'm struggling to see what would the multiplicative inverse for an element S in E be
oh
would it just be itself?
wait
no
if $x \in S$ then $x^{-1} = \sigma^{-1}(\sigma^{-1}(x))$
can't use any homomorphism properties since x is not in k sadly
nvm
i've confused myself
ohhh
it's going to be $\sigma^{-1}\bigl((\sigma(x))^{-1})\bigl)$
okeyokay
where $(\sigma(x))^{-1}$ denotes the inverse of $\sigma(x)$ in $F$
okeyokay
Model theoretically: put the 1 in as a constant, not an existential, because those aren’t preserved under substructures
eg Fields

Yes, since multiply that with x
Mfw groups being simple is invisible to the theory
I do not understand why rings without 1 are bullied, given that they arise naturally
\mu(0) of an ultrapower of the reals 
Which is also graded-ish, but certainly not N graded
Should be like something like Z^\mu/Z additively
What
Or uh the positive side anyway and throwing out 0
Since nothing stays in the same slot
It’d just be like, N^\mu/N graded and unital if you did |x| <= 1 though 
I missed some Dragonslayer ultraproduct classes, so I'm lost
$\mu(0)$ being those elements $x$ of $\bR^\mu$ so that $|x|<\frac 1 n$ for every natural $n$.
Dragonslayer Sharp
Is mu just some infinite set?
No it’s exactly the things satisfying those inequalities
It’s also an ideal of the finite elements 
(And a prime for obvious reasons)
can someone smart, sexy, and strong explain to me why $p(\alpha) = 0$
okeyokay
sigma is basically defined to be an isomorphism yes?
So sigma(x) = 0 iff x = 0
Algebraically manipulate and expand through p(a) since you know sigma(p(a)) is 0
Because it’s basically defined that way
What would make two polynomials over a field F not associates of each other?
Does it have something to do with irreducibility?
Aren't the units just F?
I think f and g are associate iff f=ug for some unit u, and the definition applies for any ring
What do you mean by that
The things you can take inverses of are the field your coefficients are from
That’s it
I'm confused but don't know why
When are elements associate
wait so here sigma is just the canonical projjection right
Say f and g are polynomials over a field F, then f and g are associates when there exists some a in F such that f = a*g
I'm not sure if a is an element of F or F[x]?
Okay, say x^2+1 and x are two polynomials over R. Then these are not associates because there's no real number a such that x^2+1 = ax. Does that work?
Yes
So does this counterexample work for the problem I'm solving?
I think so
Recently had a sheet question to prove that $f(x,y)=y^2-x^3-x^2$ is irreducible in $\mathbb K[x,y]$.
I did this by following a suggestion from someone on another server and think I used a generalisation of the Eisenstein criterion where the requirement for $p$ to be a prime integer is replaced by the requirement for $p$ to itself be an irreducible polynomial in $\mathbb K[x,y]$ Is this generalisation a valid deduction and how would one prove it in general ?
Ama Dablam
Yes, Eisensteins criterion works over any integral domain.
When R is an integral domain, P is a prime ideal in R and f(x) is a polynomial in R[x] such that the leading coefficient is not in P, the other coefficients are in P and the constant coefficient is not in P^2 then f is irreducible
The proof is exactly the same as for when R is the integers
Thank you very much 😌
what's a nice noetherian ring where the lengths of ideal chains are unbounded
these probably exist right
Um... Z?
There is no finite bound on the length of ideal chains in Z
I think that's the nicest possible example
answered
can i get a hint to show that if G is a group of order 36 which has more than one sylow-3 that is isomorphic to Z_3 x Z_3, then G is isomorphic to A_4 x Z_3
i don’t know how to show A_4 is normal in G so i can apply the direct product theorem with Z_3 that was contained in the center
There is a famous example due to Nagata. Though I'm not sure I would call it 'nice'.
so I'm working on showing that D_8 ≅ <(1 2), (1 3)(2 4)> ≤ S_4 and I've worked out that if I can demonstrate a proper mapping between the generators of this subgroup and some of the elements in D_8, as long as I have at least one element that can be represented as a product of s and a power of r, I should be able to generate all of D_8. I've been calling these generators x and y, respectively, to save some time, but somehow I've managed to get that x(xy)^2=yx, which implies that yxy=yx which seems contradictory. dunno where I went wrong lol.
there we go: A=<(1 2), (1 3)(2 4)> ≅ <s, sr> = <s, r | s^2=r^4=1, rsr=s>, therefore A is isomorphic to D_8
I'm sure it would also work by symmetry with <s, sr^3>, and probably also with the other 6 pairs of order 2 elements x,y s.t. |xy|=4, but I like my objects smol for arbitrary standards of aesthetic beauty.
so thoughts: I'm showing that S_4 is generated by two distinct elements of order 4. Since their cyclic subgroups only share the identity, and their order is 4, that means that the subgroup they generate together is at least of order 8. Multiplied together they create an element of order 3, which implies that the order of their generated subgroup is a multiple of 12 (4x3=12) and at least of order 8. This leaves me with the subgroup being of orders 12 or 24. I'd like to be able to avoid multiplying out all combinations, because that's a lot of multiplying to do. can't I leverage the intersections of these subgroups to avoid actually doing all the multiplication? It seems to me that the intersection of two cyclic groups is trivial (contains only identity) iff the generator of one is not generatable by the other.
if the subgroup they generate is order 12 then it has to be A_4, but 4-cycles are not even permutations and thus cannot be in A_4, so there are some elements outside of A_4 in the group they generate, hence it has to be the entire group
something here seems non-obvious. I'm not recalling what A_4 is, which might be part of the issue
the only subgroup of S_4 of index 2 is A_4 maybe
index is not something I'm familiar with at the moment.
I've been chatting in this channel for several months now but autodidact timetables are quite a bit slower than classical academia 😅
ok then, A_4 is the only subgroup of size 12
you definitely know what an index of a subgroup is if you're writing out presentations of D_8
how to put this.... I probably have understanding of the concept, but I have not as of yet been introduced to the formal notion. The presentations of D_8 above have been composed intuitively based on patterns I'm noticing in these groups which I can recognize but can't yet explain precisely and efficiently. I know that the presentations above work because one is the definition I was given originally for dihedral groups, and the other can produce both s and r in isolation, which therefore means they must have closure as part of the group generated by those generators (which entails that D_8 would be a subgroup of the group generated by that presentation, subgroup in both directions implies equality, etc).
by context, I assume a coset is a companion subset to a group? ain't got to them yet lol
... ok what the fuck is your course
insane syllabus
in that case I do legitimately think you are just expected to multiply everything out
do you have lagrange at least so you know that when you reach 13 elements in the group you can stop
my course is "read through every section of Dummit and Foote in order"
yes I have LaGrange
ok good
this is why I ask these kinds of questions, because I'm teaching myself without a prof, so I'm double checking that things I see that I think might be patterns in these groups and exercises are actually patterns, and not just a quirk of the particular examples that the text is choosing to use.
if you're asking about your presentation of D_8, it is correct yes
I'm being a bit more general about it. I guess I'll come back once I find 13 unique elements in this group lol
good thing is I went back to look at symmetric groups and was reminded that the inverse of a permutation is just writing its permutation backwards (then shifting 1 to be in front), so that minimizes work ig
you should already have 9 so not much to do
true
there we go, 13 found, thus the order must be 24 and the only subgroup of order 24 in S_4 is S_4 itself.
I love when they spam notation at me I learned like 3 months ago and have to look up lol
@teal vessel you are self-studying abstract algebra?
what is your procedure for doing so? my course rn goes up to some ring and field theory but stops before galois theory
i want to self study further afterwards
facts dude
im wondering what your procedure for self study is
well, my procedure so far has been roughly as follows:
- be curious about something
- get recommendations for a textbook
- read said textbook, performing all available exercises (or at least most of them) until you reach a concept that you realize you should have learned on its own earlier.
- read what you should have previously learned.
etc. I have read through and studied the foundations of linear algebra, axiomatic set theory, and some of multivar calc this way (got bored, I'll come back to it eventually). Now I'm going through abstract algebra. It's really just always having a problem cooking on the backburner while life happens around you. This problem here will probably take me the weekend because I don't get a lot of time working only on my math
yeah
so I let it stew until something clicks, then finish the problem.
working problems truly is where the learning happens, thats true
this is a good method
but these "generator" exercises are really tedious, and you clearly know what you're doing for the most part
so don't be afraid to skip some of them
They're varied enough to focus more on trying to exploit the particular group I'm working with. I also am only doing 1 or 2 at a time, so it's good for spaced repetition. Otherwise I might end up with this the same as my linear algebra memory: really spotty except for real basic stuff like loving systems.
Teach others. I teach grade school math for my job, and I regularly use results from my learning as part of my teaching, it really solidifies the knowledge. The proof of √2 outside Q is a favorite of mine.
Who falls into the '+'-category?
Everyone 
I get the occasional college algebra or calc student.
I'll teach you my opinion on string theory and type theory, too, but I wouldn't take those opinions seriously, they're outside my expertise
the additive inverses of all those falling in the '-' category
How do you figure out whether x^3+x+1 is irreducible over Q? I was able to show whether it was irreducible over R, F_1, F_2, F_3 and F_5 but Q is kinda weird
it's irreducible over Q iff it's irreducible over Z by Gauss's lemma
and being irreducible over F_p for any p implies irreducible over Z
:)
Try filling in the details of this
Hello
I have a theorem to prove which says if (G,*) is a group and $a \in G$ then:
$a^m * a^n = a^{m+n} \forall m,n \in G$.
To prove this I need to prove 5 cases
- Where m=n=0 then m+n=0
- Where m,n are greater than 0
- Where m,n are less than 0
- Where m is less than 0 and n is greater than 0 such that m+n is greater than 0
- Where m is less than 0 and n is greater than 0 such that m+n is less than 0
So I proved the first 4 cases but I stuck with fifth one (actually I did prove it but I'm not sure if what I did is right or wrong).
Alireza
A cubic is irreducible iff it doesn't have a root. And you can use the rational root theorem to show that the only possible roots are 1 and -1, neither of which are roots
RRT is beautiful
and actually you can combine our methods
go to mod 3, say, then check no roots to show irreducible mod 3
then use what I said to pass to Q
Is "normalizes" a symmetric relationship when restricted to subgroups? Pretty sure not but I don't want to spend an half an hour testing by hand for counterexamples
Take one group to be not normal, and the other to be the entire group
(assuming H normalizes K means that hK = Kh for all h in H)
oh nice! yes that works
yup
cool, that helps a lot
these three problems seem related. The behavior of these matrices seems suspiciously similar to those permutations I was working on.
I don't understand this example, why beta^3 is in Q?
what is the relation between beta and alpha?
They're saying F is not a simple radical extension. I.e. F is not equal to Q(beta) where beta^3 is in Q
Simple radical meaning you can get F by adjoing a single nth root
but why they choose beta^3 is in Q, maybe beta^7 is in Q?
F has degree 3
Your polynomial is of degree 3
If jagr sends answer right before I do, I can't get gaslit!
but the definition didn't say those n1, n2 must be the order of the extension field?
it only says exist n1, n2
The question then is what can the degree of S(a) be in those cases
is this a typo? it should be $a^n\in S$
WT
Yes should be in S
let's go back to the initial symbols, if F is a simple radical extension of Q, then exist some beta, such that, F=Q(beta), which means exist some n, such that beta^n is in Q
so far is good, right?
Yes
because [F:Q]=3, and alpha is root for x^3-3x+1=0, which means beta can be written as the combination of alpha^2, alpha, and 1
but I can't deduce beta^3 is in Q
So you know Q(beta) has degree 3, so the minimal polynomial of beta must have degree 3
yes
So consider the minimal n for which beta^n is in Q
but how to show the minimal n=3?
Just assume n is not 3, then show that the degree of the minimal polynomial wont be 3
so if I assume the minimal n such that beta^n is in Q, then this n will be the degree of F over Q, since it was shown the degree is 3, so n must be 3, right?
There is some complications since x^n - beta^n doesn't have to be irreducible.
so we can only get $n\ge 3$
WT
You can also freely assume prime, since if n/m = p, then beta^m would generate the same extension with (beta^m)^p in Q
I am confused, so can we simply say it is due to F is of degree 3?
or it can be greater than 3?
like 7?
Well, there are some details when you really spell it out as you can tell
But a root of x^p - a will either have degree p or p-1 depending on where a has a pth root or not
then it says $\beta \omega$ is also in $F=Q(\beta)$, I know both $\beta$ and $\beta \omega$ are the roots of the same ploy, say $f(x)=x^n-b=0$, but it didn't say F is the split field of f(x), how can we tell $\beta \omega$ is also in F?
WT
F is Galois, thus normal
oh, right! it mentions in the begining, so it got omega is in F, but the minimal irr-poly for omega is of degree 2, but Q(omega) doesn't divide F, hence it is a contradiction, right?
Can this example be a part of some theorem? it seems like "if the Galois group is not the full symmetric group, then it must not be a simple Radical extension?"
The full symmetric group is definitely too strong. But the splitting field of x^p - a should contain the pth roots of unity. So the Galois group will either be (Z/p)^* or the semidirect product of Z/p with (Z/p)^*
why it is either? there are p-1 automorphisms, hence the Galois groups is ismorphic to the multiplicative group Zp^* only?
So the splitting field of x^p - a is F(a^1/p, w) where w is a primitive pth root of unity.
Then either F(a^1/p) = F(w) or they are different. If they're equal, then the Galois group is (Z/p)^*.
If they are different then x^p - a, must be irreducible and F(w) is a normal extension with galois group (Z/p)^*. So the Galois group is an extension
Z/p -> G -> (Z/p)^*
And if you just write out the Galois automorphisms explicitly you see that this is a semidirect product
a^1/p stands for the real pth root?
Just any root really
could you give an example for F(a^1/p) = F(w) ?
Well it's equivalent to x^p - a having a root. So will be something like a^1/p = rw for some rational number r
Easiest example being a=1 I guess
x^3-1 ?
Sure
and for the case #2, the example is x^3-2, hence the intermediate field is F(w), where w^p=1, there are p-1 automorphism on F(w), and the splitting field K=F(a^1/p, w) has degree [K : F(w) ]= p , so [K: F]=p(p-1) , right?
Yes
can we generalize it into composite number n? then the case #1 will be the multiplicative group with order $\phi(n)$, and the case #2 will be the order $\phi(n)(\phi(n)+1)$ ?
WT
Compile Error! Click the
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This is incorrect in general? For example, if $w^3=1$, and let $F=Q(w)$, so $F$ is a radical extension of $Q$, but $[F:Q]=2$, since $w^2+w+1=0$
hence for the simple radical extension $F=Q(a)$, if $n$ is the minimal integer such that $a^n\in Q$, then we can only guarantee $n\ge [F: Q]$
WT
So F(w) will have degree phi(n) and (Z/n)^* will be a quotient of the Galois group, but the kernel might depend on a I think.
Like the Galois group of x^6 - 4 and x^6 - 2 should be different I think
WT
Because x^6 - 2 is irreducible, while x^6 - 4 = (x^3 - 2)(x^3 + 2)
thank you, I will work on this example!
Hi, a serious question ... is Lam: A First Course in Noncommutative Rings actually meant for a one-semester course on noncommutative algebra? It seems like an insane amount of content for just one semester???
what is the multiplicative structure of the algebraic closure of F_p
jayz
Should be
{a/b in Q | b relatively prime to p} / Z
I think. Because Fp-bar is the direct limit of all finite subextensions, whose multiplicative group is cyclic. So it's the direct limit of Z/(p^n - 1). And for any b relatively prime to p, there is an n such that b divides p^n - 1.
ye, so basically, all complex (p^n-1)-roots of unity (taking all possible n), right
but ig that's a nicer characterization
Are there any theorems similar to warning's or chevalley's theorem but the degree of your polynomial is greater than or equal to the number of variables?
I was asked to post this here as well
Or any theorems that make a statement about the roots when you have lesser variables than degree, not looking for an exact analogue here.
That's clearly wrong (1/x^4+1 is definitely not equal to 2/x^2+x+2), the numerators of the fractions should be written linearly (you don't automatically know they're constant), i.e. Ax+B and Cx+D (proceed then as you did before).
if $L$ is an extension of a field $k$, $L$ being algebraically closed doesn't imply that $L/k$ is algebraic right?
okeyokay
Not at all, take C/Q for example (an algebraic extension of Q is countable, but C is uncountable).
If L/k is algebraic and L is algebraically closed, then that is exactly saying that L is the algebraic closure of k.
If L is bigger than the algebraic closure then the extension won't be algebraic.
E is algebraically closed and f can be considered as a polynomial over E (since k<=E), so there's a root of f in E, which then necessarily belongs to k^a, since this element is algebraic.
ohhh right
makes sense
thanks
and is alpha in k^a because it's algebraic over k^a, which implies that it's algebraic over k and by construction it must be in k^a?
yes
even better: your group maps to the group in question in a natural way, by reducing mod p
The only group of order 6 is the cyclic one right? If G has order 6 I can choose g in G and either <g>=G, and we are done, or wlog we can suppose <g> has order 2, but this means I can express G as a direct product <g><h> for some h in G of order 3.
Seagull
Is this ok?
by $(\sigma\beta_1, \dots, \sigma\beta_n)$ differing by a permutation from $(\alpha_1, \dots, \alpha_n)$, do they mean that for a suitable permutation $\tau$, $\alpha_i = \sigma\beta_{\tau(i)}$ for $i = 1, \dots, n$?
okeyokay
Yes, that's what that means
Can I get some help with the second part of b ii please :))
if $[E: F] = 2$ and $p(x) \in F[x]$ such that $p(\alpha) = 0$ for some $\alpha \in E$, must we have $\text{deg } p \leq 2$?
okeyokay
ah facts
if $[E: F] = 2$ can we assert that $E = F(\alpha)$ where $\alpha$ is a zero of a irreducibe polynomial $p(x) \in F[x]$ of degree 2?
okeyokay
If E is a separable extension, then E:F=2 means it is finite, hence it is simple extension, but if E is not a separable extension, maybe this is false.
hmm yeah i'm just trying to show that if [E: F] = 2 then it's a normal extension
i kinda forgot what separable means tho
to show it is normal, you need to show it is separable and splitting field
well i'm going off of Lang's definition, he defines separable extensions in the next chapter
i do remember that's how fraleigh defined it
how does he define normal?
any extension field satisfying these conditions is normal
which is equivalent to fraleigh's definition
at least i hope
anyways, i'm trying to show Nor 1 - if the assertion that [E: F] = 2 => E = F(a) for some a in E, then any automorphism is determined by where a is sent, but i mean there's only two choices, a and -a right so it has to be a automorphism
idk
all these are equivalent for the definition of splitting field, it didn't say anything about separable or not
yes, but what i'm saying is that his and fraleigh's definition are most likely equivalent if they are to follow mathematical convention
where does he say this is the definition for "normal"?
on the next page
oh is E normal literally because if E = F(a) then E is the splitting field for irr(a, F)
can you send the photo for that page?
If normal = splitting , then why waste one word?
I don't believe it
is what?
what does he mean "distinguished"?
You don't have to be seperable to be normal.
Not closed under towers most likely
Unlike separability, being algebraic etc
If alpha is an element of E, then the degree of its minimal polynomial divides the degree of E. So if [E:F] is prime, then E = F(alpha) for any alpha in E \ F
this book defines normal=spliting+separable
That is quite unusual I think. Usually you call an extension that is normal and seperable a Galois extension
These characterizations are equivalent to the standard definition (no seperability involved)
this book avoids the use of Galois extension, this word didn't appear in the book