#groups-rings-fields
1 messages Ā· Page 178 of 1
also I'm saying character instead of rep again, sorry
ok
force of habit
so if you have a module U over the group algebra, you can look at algebra maps from U to itself, this forms a new algebra End(U)
it's important to know this dimension for decomposing the group algebra
right
I can't recall any quick tricks for calculating it, unfortunately
would you be able to help with this proof of Maschke's? I've tried some things but I'm not sure if they are allowed
My proof for 1 and 2 just both feel super iffy
well what's your proof for them
My idea for 1 was to show that we can use this isomorphism
but then I ran into issues of trying to show surjectivity
so I wans't sure if it was the correct approach
this looks promising
I could show injectivity
but then I tried to show surjectivity by saying like
phi(v) = k x w
But then I wasn't sure how to actually always write v so that it works
k = v - phi(v)
and w = phi(v) so v = w?
v = k+w perhaps, which we can write because we know the map is injective
so V is isomorphic to a subspace of ker(pi) (+) W
lemme think about how I'd do it
so
then we would have like
(k + w - pi(k + w)) x pi(k + w)
is pi(k + w) = pi(k) + pi(w) allowed?
let v in V, then pi(v) = w, so write v = (v-w)+w, this shows that ker(pi)+W = V, now to show the sum is direct we just need to show that ker(pi) intersects w trivially, so assume w is both non-zero and in the kernel, then this is an immediate contradiction as pi(w) = w \neq 0, but pi(w) = 0 by assumption it's in the kernel
why wouldn't it be?
it's a homomorphism of modules yes
yeah it seems to work
part 2 I was a bit lost in
uh
lemme see what I did
oh
I didn't use the G-invariant fact
or
G-equivariant fact
yes you need to use that fact to show that it plays nicely with scalar multiplication
I just said let's look at pi(a) + rpi(b) = pi(a) + pi(rb) = pi(a + rb) so it's in the image
I won't be able to say rpi(b) = pi(rb) irght?
where r in k[G]
not immediately
but you can conclude it from G-equivariance
ah
so like
an element in k[G] can be written as like
k + kg + kg^2 + ... +
right?
(k + kg + kg^2 + ... +) pi(b) = kpi(b) + kgpi(b) + kg^2pi(b) + ... +
we want this to be equal to pi(kb + kgb + kg^2b + ... + )
since it is G-equivariant that means that the first line is
kpi(b) + kpi(bg) + kpi(bg^2) + ... +
k(pi(b) + pi(bg) + pi(bg^2) + ... +) = k(pi(b + bg + bg^2 + ... + ))
am I allowed to just take the k in now?
this assumes g is cyclic
$z \in k[G] \Rightarrow z = \sum_{g \in G} k_gg$ for some $k_g \in k$.
WewGhostTbh
right
I think your logic is correct though
ok
I'm curious for question 3, do you think I can assume that pi is g-equivariant?
because I get like
and if I can just assume that pi is g-equivariant then the proof is done right?
but \pi isn't g-equivariant
the key thing here is that you're summing over the entire group
so when you multiply p(v) on the outside by some g' in G you're just rearranging the terms of the sum via the bijection g |-> g'g
hmm
oh
yeah it does just say projection, nothing about G-equivariance
see if you can use this idea to prove it, I've gotta go to bed lol
3am here
Uhh isn't that the assumption??
?
Part 2 says pi is G equivariant
yea, but I wasn't sure if we could assume that to be true for part 3
Read the first sentence of 3
Maybe
wait why does the first setnence mean that pi isn't g-equivarient?
It means you can't assume it
oh ok
Because you weren't given this fact
I see
And in fact you don't need it
Like wew said, this is a very common trick, multiplying by an element just permutes all the group elements
right
so the summation is the same
wait
ok so like from here
we have this idea of a bijectino from g |-> g'g as wew pointed out
why does this mean they are equal
So you can put h into the sum
And then you get hg
So now set g'=hg and sum over g' instead
ah I see
ok I think I kinda understand parts 1-3
but I don't get how it ties to part 4
(Note the h appears inside pi cuz you can write g=h^-1 hg, so g^-1=g'^-1 h, verify this)
If V is not simple, there is a nontrivial k[G] submodule.
You can always project onto W. You learned how to turn this projection into a G-equivariant one, such that V decomposes into smaller k[G]-submodules. Continue by induction.
It gets easier
I don't understand how to do it
It's always hard the first thing
Time
But a lot of these techniques are standards
You'll get the hang of it
My task is two find all invertible elements in F_4[x]/(ax^2+bx+c) where the poly has two different roots . I thought I could get my life easier if I show the isomorphism above and find all invertable inside F_4 x F_4 but then I realised that I don't know how to work with F_4 x F_4 in this context, like what operation, since it is not a field.
That'd be the direct product of rings.
Maybe start by seeing which elements are zero divisors
Just to get a hang on the operation.
Oh rereading maybe I should ask you what do you mean with \cong R^2? Is that you observing that you know the dimension is 2 or do you know how the isomorphism to the direct product of rings works already?
the isomorphism is f(x) ->(f(a), f(b)), where a, b are the roots
Iso as rings or vector spaces?
as rings
Ok gotcha. So if it's two fields product together, what's the unit?
unit x unit? in our both cases it is 1x1
Yeah that seems right. It's like ptwise multiplication of the functions which are only well defined on the set of your two points
So given you know the unit, what's the inverse of (x,y) supposed to look like?
There is the problem. how multiplication is defined for FxF? is it ab x cd or something else?
How would you know the multiplicative unit if you don't know the multiplication?
this is the second problem š
I understand what is on the left of the iso, but donāt what is on the right
direct product of two rings, yes, sum must be the same as usual, but what about multiplication?
Ok let's start over. If it's an isomorphism it's surjective. What's an element of the polynomial ring that is taken to (1,0)?
the second one is root, the first one I need to calculate, since we must have zero divisors, so the first could be not 1
Can we assume it is (1, a root)
Is f->(f(a), f(b)) surjective?
with zero divisors I doubt that
So it's not an isomorphism?
yes, then yes
Idk you had me convinced it was an isomorphism before.
I mean there's clearly an isomorphism of vector spaces because you know the dimension.
So how did you know that one was an isomorphism?
I think the space of functions from a set of two points to F_4 has the structure of a ring with ptwise multiplication. Its also a 2 dimensional vector space over F_4 with ptwise addition and can therefore be identified with a ring structure on F_4\times F_4. The element (1,0) representing the function taking a to 1 and b to 0, and the element (0,1) taking a to 0 and b to 1
We can take mapping R[x] -> RxR as i mentioned above. Its kernel is <(x-a)(x-b)> and it is surjective, then by the first iso theorem R[x]/ker -> RxR must be an iso
Now is that the first isomorphism of groups, vectors spaces, or rings????
You claim it is surjective. Which polynomial is taken to (1,0)?????
For the second claim why do we require kerpi \subset kerpsi?
I never used it, but this means my proof is probably wrong?
You havenāt formulated b) correctly
When did you ever show the existence of delta only from the fact that ker pi < ker psi?
Your entire proof only ever deals with a delta which was already assumed to exist
@rapid junco
I strongly urge you to prove these as a) and then as b) both for clarity to the grader and for yourself
Or err⦠I have tripped myself up a bit too
take delta to map h in H to $\psi(\pi^{-1}(h))$
which can be done since pi is surjective
You have done that, but also just random thing you said g < ker pi, you want g in ker pi
Brayden
Your map is not guaranteed to be a homomorphism
But also psi(pi^-1(h)) is not an element
Thatās a set
pi^-1(h) is an entire set of preimages
oh so take a representative of it and show it doesnt depend then?
Yes
ah I see
And this is where your hypothesis comes into play
And this lets you also show that delta is a homomorphism
can you clarify this?
(You need to use that pi is a homo morphism)
You used the symbol for subset, g is not a subset of ker pi itās an element
So you want to use \in
oh no thats element
bad quality pic
Had to zoom in xD
Anyway, do you know the first iso????
Yeah
Yeah you absolutely need the hypothesis about the kernel
why where does it fail
Oh sorry do you mean for a)?
oh okay sounds good
Yeah?
yes
Sorry for my critique being a little incoherent lol
But I hope I got across the fact that you need the hypothesis for existence
š
Well okay
So if you took two preimages of the same guy
Call these preimages g and gā
Yup.
You want to compare psi(g) and psi(gā) to make sure these are the same
Oh but psi is a hom
Right
ggā^-1
But right
So if ker pi < ker psi all you would need to know is that ggā^-1 in ker pi yeah?
So like
More generally
Or like, okay what everyone says
Is that g and gā ādiffer by something in ker piā
This is saying their difference (ggā^-1) is in ker pi
The point is that if f is a homomorphism, then f(g) = f(gā) iff g and gā differ by something in ker f
If the word ādifferā here doesnāt make too much sense, if G was abelian weād be writing g - gā so thatās why itās their ādifferenceā
Anyway, so the point is just, if g and gā were preimages of h, their difference lies in ker pi < ker psi, so that means psi(g) = psi(gā)
This is literally what you just proved
But this wording of ādiffers by something inā¦ā is a really good way to express these things
In words
Ya dig?
Iād try to prove this real quick
This is a fact u will use a lot
I want to show G = HK where H = {g^m | g in G}, K = {g^n | g in G} and mn is order of G. Iāve shown HK is a subgroup of G, how do I show G is a subgroup of HK?
Or is there an easier way
Is this really generally true 
Are m n coprime?
im thinking surely not if mn = 8 = 4 x 2
How come adjoining a single root of an irreducible polynomial in some cases automatically adjoins all (e.g. cyclotomic polynomials or x^p-x-a in characteristic p) and hence yields a normal extension, while in other cases it doesn't (e.g. Q(cube root of 2))? I'm trying to remember whether there were definitions/theorems in field theory that make sense of this phenomenon, but I don't think there are any. Does it have to do with the polynomial having a cyclic Galois group? The question may be rephrased as "when are roots of an irreducible K-polynomial representable as K-polynomials of a single root".
"why"... 
I feel like this can be understood in terms of quotient groups, using the galois correspondence
i dont feel like cyclic is rlly related
The Galois group being cyclic implies this, but the converse isn't true.
For example the Galois group of the cyclotomic polynomial x^4 + 1 is C2xC2.
I'm not sure that there is another nice characterization of when this happens.
Is the primitive element thm relevant here? the single root part
Sort of I guess. If you take a Galois extension, then the primitive element theorem tells you it's the splitting field of some polynomial with this property. But I don't see that it says anything about the polynomial you started with
So I guess a take away would be that there are plenty of such polynomials
(and that there really is no restriction on the Galois group)
What are all the things that we can say about a group with odd squarefree order
Do they always have a nontrivial centre
What is the center of S3?
i was gonna give the example of an abelian group too
I see so if I add an extra condition that p_i does not divide p_j -1 for i not equal to j
that leaves you with square free odd ordered groups, no?
you know any fun facts bout those
I should have mentioned it like that
No
there's a rather difficult to prove theorem for that class of group, hopefully it wont be required for whatever you're looking to show here
I would still like to know
look up feit-thompson theorem
its also known as the odd order theorem
took about 51 years to prove after burnside posed it
and requires a lot of knowledge bout characters n representation
Oh ah it's about solvability
Well I am not concerned with solvability for now
So I'll pass
Anything more for this
that leaves you with square free odd ordered groups, no?
This is not equivalent to the above condition entirely i guess
yeah i suppose not all pair of odd primes fulfill that criteria
I agree so I have a stronger restriction
perhaps come up with a more concrete set in then and see what kinda groups live there
Okay I'll try that for now š thank you
in proving this, I just proved that the numbers are all congruent to 1 mod p by using n_p(G)=1 mod p. Is it posssible to do the problem without proving this stronger claim? In particular, without using n_p(G)=1 mod p
Using only the second Sylow (the Sylows are conjugate) I proved that n_p(G)K=n_p(G)L mod p where K denotes the number of subgroups of order p^a in a fixed Sylow S and L denotes the subgroups of order p^a in G
If a group has order pq (p > q) and q doesn't divide p-1, then the only such group is the cyclic group of order pq
In particular, n_p(G)^2=n_p(G) mod p
In fact all such groups must be cyclic:
Let G be the smallest non-cyclic group of this type. Since every group of square free order is solvable G has Cp = G/N as a quotient group. Since N is smaller N is cyclic, so G is the semidirect product of two cyclic groups Cp and N. Since p doesnt divide phi(|N|) the product is direct, so G = NxCp which is cyclic, since |N| and p are relatively prime.
Dude my prof writes stuff down that is LITERALLY WRONG
He just wrote āsubgroups of order 2 are normalā
Da fok?
{e, (1,2)} order 2 subgrp of S3
Its not normal
Subgroups of index 2 are normal though
Yea thats what he meant
We are all human
um.
Yeah true, but tbh im just a bit salty cause he always does this sort of thing which makes it very hard to learn from him
All hail shuri, out great robot overlord
take it as a challenge to pay attention and correct sht when its off
Yeah thats a good point! Its good in that sense but only if i pre-studied the material
thatās something you should be doing anyway tbh
I do when i can
this is true as long as you can't count higher than 5
anyone have any hints for this?
Induction.
Hello please I have more difficulty to get something about group and rings , how can I give me some advice for have intuitive notion about it
Do lots of exercises š
recommend book for it
am i insane or is this what i should do
Fix a k and m and induct on i.
// please
dummit and foote or serge lang, or herstein
Alright we can't all type that fast
trivially $\sigma^1(a_k) = a_{k+1}$ because that's the definition of the permutation
z
sniped me
now suppose $i = r$ and proposition is true for some $r \in \mbb{N}$
z
in other words $\sigma^r(a_k) = a_{k+r}$. Then comes the induction step. we can re-write $\sigma^{r+1}$ as \sigma(\sigma^r)$ right?
z
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
since its composition of functions
ok I finished the proof but do I have to mention that this is reduced mod m
or prove anything regarding its reduction modulo m
What is sigma^m?
1
Thereās your modulo argument
sigma^i = sigma^i+m for example
oh
$\sigma(a_k) = a_{k+1}$ which is trivially true from the definition of the permutation. Now comes the inductive hypothesis. Let $i = r$. Assume $P_r$ is true for some $r \in \mbb{N}$. That is, $\sigma^r(a_k) = a_{k+r}$. Consider $i = r + 1, \sigma^{r+1}(a_k) = a_{k+(r+1)}$. But we can use the proposition to achieve this result too:
$$\sigma(\sigma^r(a_k)) = \sigma(a_{r+k})$$
in other words $\sigma^{r+1}(a_k) = a_{r+(k+1)}$
is this ok
z
does that make sense or
You're missing the part about reduction mod m. What if r+k+1 > m [or for that matter, even k + 1]? What does a_{r+k+1} mean?
yeah thats what i thought. if r + k + 1 > m then we take r + k + 1 mod m
But why does that work is the key point
(use the definition of mod plus what you said about identity)
If we take the morphism $\mathbb C [x,y] \to \mathbb C [\cos, \sin]$ that sends $x \mapsto \cos$ and $y \mapsto \sin$, then how can I show that the kernel is $(x^2+y^2-1)$. One inclusion is ok, and for the other, we can divide some $f$ in the kernel by $x^2+y^2-1$ and take the image of this to get $\sin \cdot p(\cos) + q(\cos) = 0 $, but i don't see how to show that $p = 0 = s$.
zxxz21
Cmon you didnt need to give it away!
Sorry
its alright they probably would have realized it by the time they came back
I hate to be that guy but what was the 2% 
I calculated phi(100) wrong lol (euler totient function) and my answer for the biggest order of a permutation on 12 elements was wrong
I just wasnt careful on finding the partition that makes the biggest product
For the order
simple mistakes lol. That phi(100) calculation sounds annoying
unless you do the ol phi(n) = \prod_{d|n} phi(d) thing
Yeah. You know this does make me think though, how do grad schools interpret grades from undergrad? Like, at the uni i got my bachelors from, their abstract algebra classes are TOUGH and the averages are very low
Thats why i didnt do them cuz i didnt want to tank my goa
Gpa
And i wanted to solely focus on it without other bs classes
Which is why im doing it now
But this uniās class is clearly much easier
i'm having a little trouble seeing the equality underlined in blue for if $i \neq j$; for then we would have $\iota_j^*(a_j \otimes b) = (0, 0, \dots, (a_j \otimes b), \dots, 0)$ but ${\pi_i\iota_j(a_j) \otimes b}{i \in I} = {0 \otimes b}{i \in I} = {0 \otimes 0}_{i \in I}$ no?
okeyBOOkay
i mean i understand that equality holds if we take $i = j$ and it makes sense that it's generated by all elements of the form $\iota_j^*(a_j \otimes b)$
okeyBOOkay
it is always true that gH = g^{-1}H correct?
oh wait this reduces down to showing that H = 1 H
No, that's rarely the case.
oh I see
my actual question was if g_1H = g_2H then g_1^{-1}H = g_2^{-1}H
here is the work I have done so far. and its in the first paragraph but missed a lot of class so wanted to confirm if I was indeed correct
gH -> Hg^-1 is well defined bijection because it's left multiplication by g^-1 and then right multiplition by g^-1
the actual proof looks fine
Your condition that g1H = g2H iff g1g2^-1 is in H, is reversed. It should be g2^-1g1.
Also not sure why you want to prove that since you don't use it for the proof.
Right
well [G : H] is the number of left cosets
we havent established that the number of right cosets equals the left number
they both partition G into sets of size H
it's pretty obvious they're the same number
Well you're proving that in your paragraph.
The inverse maps gH to Hg^-1 so that's a well defined bijection. It never comes up wheter g1^-1H equals g2^-1H
Maybe you just meant to write Hg1^-1 = Hg2^-1...
i'm a little bit confused as to how this is defined LOL. like are they showing that $[(\alpha f)(a)]$ is the homomorphism in $\text{Hom}_R(A, \text{Hom}_S(B, C))$? if so, then why does it have input $b$?
okeyBOOkay
OK
yeah
alpha f is the homomorphism in Hom(A, Hom(B, C)). Then you evaluate that at a and you get something in Hom(B, C)
ohhh, and then $[(\alpha f)(a)]$ is in $\text{Hom}_S(B, C)$
okeyBOOkay
so they're just defining it's action on an element of $b$
okeyBOOkay
i guess that makes sense yeah
AAH! Your name scared me š
JESUS
A name for the season
ikr it's pretty fucking terrifying
they never see it coming
anyways uhh yeah if you know currying for set functions (like given a function f : A x B --> C, fixing an a gives a function f(a, -) : B --> C), this is basically the same thing
the term currying is very new to me
Currying is just the cartesian product-hom adjunction 
;3
:3c
\text
$\newcommand\Hom{\operatorname{Hom}}\Hom(- \times S, -) \cong \Hom(-, -^S)$ is usually how it's written
why
Ramify it (extensions) down
I will die on this hill
WewGhostTbh
perfect
ah much better
bro why do you do \operatorname
PUONTEHWIGS?
Why do you
true
Idk it's the ostensibly right way and I am a massive fucking pedant
guys it's HALLOWEEN??!!? lets not fight during the holidays please
okey is right though
Oh no I was hoping if I did it slow it would come out nicely but no
discord bad
:uponthewitnessing:
š¼ ā¹ļø āļø ā 3ļøā£ šøš² š® š³šļø _ _
okeyBOOkay
i can't really do any fancy things in the tensor product since $R$ and $S$ are not necessarily unital
okeyBOOkay
$(a_1+a_2)\otimes (b_1+b_2)$ should be $a_1\otimes b_1 +a_1\otimes b_2+a_2\otimes b_1+a_2\otimes b_2$, not $a_1\otimes b_1+a_2\otimes b_2$.
Dong_Valentino
it's like expanding out (a+b)(x+y)
oh huh
i've been adding them component wise
bruh
well ig that makes sense
since we can kind of think of tensoring as multiplication right
cuz distributivity
associativity of scalars
very naive question: why is it that not all modules M over a ring R are flat? the map in the second entry is the identity, which is injective, and similarly $\varphi$ in the first entry is given to be injective. why then is $\varphi \otimes_R id_M$ not automatically injective?
okeyBOOkay
is there a counterexample?
ooh ok i'll try it out, thx
How many solvable groups are there?
Asking about the quotient (# solvable groups of order <= n)/(# groups of order <= n) as n goes to infinity
p-groups are solvable. Most finite groups are 2-groups (https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/241369/more-than-99-of-groups-of-order-less-than-2000-are-of-order-1024)
I had the impression that it was going to be positive
thanks
waah this is Chmonkey or Ryx
šµļø moment
I should hope it's positive, considering both parts of the quotients are positive...
I meant in the limit
could be zero
Lol yeah
Oh it is listed there that it's still open whether "almost all finite groups are 2-groups"
I wonder if it makes a difference whether we count isomorphism classes of groups or, say, binary operations on {1,2,..,n} that happen to satisfy the group axioms.
The former seems morally correct, but I think the latter would make it depend almost entirely on the largest order considered (since more elements = more "groups" by just relabelling)
Like there's one group of order 7 say, but now there'd be 7! relabellings of it that you'd count
But divided by how many automorphisms it has, I think.
I think that works then? Dividing by n! I mean, not Aut(G)
mmmh are there nice bounds on the size of Aut(G)
nvm
Aut(S_n)=S_n I think
oh wait but thats not too bad, because then they have the same size
I think the automorphism group of (Z/2Z)^n has size n! ? because its essentially permuting coordinates? 
Except for n=6.
and n=2
Okay right.
because of this, the upper bounds will be shity
I would anticipate that's about as bad as it gets though
log_2(|G|)!
you have to take the log of |G|, tho
It's worse that that: the automorphism group is GL(n,2).
right
oops
And the order of GL(n,2) is between 2^(n^2/2) and 2^(n^2), which makes it asymptotically something like |G|^(c log |G|).
I found that its greater than 2^(n(n+1)/2)
Sounds plausible; 2^(n^2/2) was very crude lower bound.
Much cruder than I intended it to, in fact. It should be 2^(n(n-1))
yes I realized
I took out just a 2, when I had to take 2^(n-1)
you have f(n)=(2^n-1)2^(n-1) Ā· f(n-1), right
WewGhostTbh
Right, that's what I was trying to bound with some simple closed expressions.
yes, trying to estimate that in terms of like 2^(c n^2+...) where c is some constant
this sounds fun
Yes, I got that too
I used (2^n-1)2>=2^n many times, so there is considerable room for improvement
In certain cases you can choose End(G) to be arbitrary so if it's the same case as for Aut then bounding it could be a problem
I've got this as $2^{\frac{n(n-1)}{2}}\sum_{k=0}^n \begin{pmatrix} n \ k \end{pmatrix} 2^{nk}(-1)^{n-k}$
WewGhostTbh
I think I can see why that will be the worst for abelian groups, but idk for nonabelian ones
so I'm trying to show that if $R$ is an integral domain, and $I$ is a proper nontrivial ideal, then $R/I$ is not flat. is this because if we let $\iota: I \to R$ be the injection, then $\iota \otimes_R R/I: I \otimes_R R/I \to R \otimes_R R/I$ is not injective since for $a, b \in I$, $ax \otimes r + I \mapsto ax \otimes r + I = x \otimes a(r + I) = x \otimes I$ and similarly $bx \otimes r + I \mapsto x \otimes I$?
okeyBOOkay
since $ar$, $br \in I$?
okeyBOOkay
This isnāt gonna pan out for you
:(
You really arenāt going to be able to argue about injectivity like this using simple tensors like this because itās nearly impossible to say that two simple tensors are not equal
The map you will tensor with which will become noninjective is a map R -> R
hm ok, thanks
does this really boil down to there being so many manipulations you can do with simple tensors that it's very easy to show that they're equal or smt
Yes
The relations you quotient by are insane
Itās incredibly difficult to show any particular simple tensor isnāt 0
wow okay, i'll keep that in mind moving on lol
Legit
The only way I know how to show x (x) y is nonzero when you arenāt in a very particular tensor product (like with R or R/I when you can rewrite it)
so what would be the best way to demonstrate non-injectivity then lol if you can't take two "distinct" elements or rather it's very difficult to take two elements that you think are distinct and show that they map to the same thing
Is to take a bilinear map M x N -> L such that (x,y) maps to something nonzero
Because then the universal property gives a map M (x) N -> L sending x (x) y to something nonzero
oh yea that makes sense
Because tensoring with R/I against R just gives you R/I
Thatās the answer to this
yeah ok
So you arenāt looking at a map on some tensor product with fucked up tensors
Itās just a map R/I -> R/I
Which you can decipher what it does if you know what the isomorphism M (x) R -> M is
On simple tensors
oh is that just because for any R-module A A(x) R is iso to A
Yes
checks out
hm ok
cool thanks, i'll attempt
hmm so basically if we can find a map $f: R \times R/I \to R \otimes R/I$ that has nontrivial kernel and use the fact that [\begin{tikzcd}
{R \times R/I} & {R \otimes R/I} \
& {R \otimes R/I}
\arrow["f", from=1-1, to=2-2]
\arrow[from=1-1, to=1-2]
\arrow[dashed, from=1-2, to=2-2]
\end{tikzcd}] commutes we'll automatically get an induced homomorphism with nontrivial kernel from $R \otimes R/I$ to itself
okeyBOOkay
Lemme try and remember how Tor works again
bro's tryna browse the dark web
Tor is overkill here + annoying to think about
You must know about exact sequences right
yeah lol
i know that M is flat if and only if it preserves exactness right
with a 0 on the left
Ok my proof strategy is a little weird, it essentially finds a condition which must follow from R/I being flat that obviously not every ideal satisfies so idk if itās the best approach
Or rather, the best approach for an introduction
perfect
Assume R/I is flat and then apply - (x) R/I to the sequence 0 -> I -> R
Then apply this
okay i'll try that, here - (x) R/I is the tensor functor right or whatever it's called
oh sorry i was planning to work on this tomorrow, i'm really bad at math at night lol
but i appreciate it i'll def come back to it
Slightly lost how does one show this?
We can assume there exist 2 integers since 0 is easy.
But then if g^k is in there then g^-k is in there
Oh wait
If G is finite and G has order p or 1 then H is cyclic
So wlog G has order m where m is not prime
Then if S has elements that all divide G then we are done
So WLOG S has an element that doesnt divide G and thus Z/m is generated by that element
Wait a sec.
H is abelian.
a cyclic group is by definition a group that can be generated by a single element, and H is generated by g by definition. I don't see what the issue is here.
Oh I see the issue then
take gcd of all a in S
that should generate it
no there's an easier way
look at $H' = {g^z, z\in\mathbb{Z}}$
nHail
that's a (cyclic) subgroup
H is a subset of H', and is known to be a subgroup of G
so H is a subgroup of H', and every subgroup of a cyclic group is cyclic
Ah
There are a lot of small results whose proof I need to figure out but thanks š this is very strong
Isomorphic structures intuitively represent two structures which are the same (the only thing differing being the "labeling" of their elements). However, I cannot connect this intuition to the formal definition of an isomorphism (which states that an isomorphism is a bijective homomorphism). Further, I have no intuition for what a homomorphism should represent.
Any help would be appreciated.
To make matters worse, not all bijective homomorphisms are isomorphism
It is a theorem for certain categories, like category of groups/rings/modules.
Well, we usually talk about isomorphism in some given settings, or isomorphism as a given structure. For example, we say A and B are isomorphic as a set when we can find a bijective map between them. We say G and H are isomorphic as groups when we can find group homomorphisms composing as identity. Homomrophism refers to structure preserving map, like group homomorphism needs to respect group operation, it is not necessarily an isomorphism (as groups).
A good way to think about isomorphism between A and B is that you can always find a structure preserving map from A to B and B to A, they compose as identity maps on A and on B.
It may require bijiectivity or may not, depends on the structure you want to preserve.
Hmm, I see. In the context of groups, for example, how does $f(x *_A y) = f(x) *_B f(y)$ mean that $f$ "respects the structure" of the groups $A$ and $B$ ? I think this is exactly what I struggle with.
Math Is Life
You could try deducing from this law the following:
A group homomorphism f: G->H sends the identity element in G to identity elements in H.
f maps like $x *_A y \mapsto f(x) *_B f(y)$
And f sends an inverse a^{-1} to f(a)^{-1}
Absta
You can see how f maps *_A to *_B, as x, y are mapped to f(x), f(y).
Might be a very basic question, but how do I say that the free group generated by two elements a+b-c and c is an index 2 subgroup of Z+Z (direct sum)?
I'm assuming you want to actually prove this rather than state this and that you mean "free abelian group" instead of "free group"?
Yeah, I mean free abelian group. I don't really want to prove it rigorously, but get an idea as to how we claim that it is an index 2 subgroup?
I don't really believe this result, or at least I can't see it either
It's much more natural to consider G = <a+b-c, c> = <a+b, c> as a subgroup of Z^3 = <a,b,c> which spans a plane as a lattice (which looks like a series of points on a plane containing the c-axis and sitting between the a,b-axes) we have that the horizontal points are spaced sqrt(2) apart by Pythagoras.
this isn't sufficient distance
if it was 2a+b I'd believe it
Essentially I have to show that <a+b-c,a+b+c> is an index two subgroup of <a+b,c>
but... that's a completely different question?
Can't I say that <a+b,c> is isomorphic to Z+Z?
<a+b-c, a+b+c> = <-2c, a+b+c> = <-2c, a+b-c> = <2c, a+b-c>
<a+b, c> = <c, a+b-c>
Very classy
Yeah, makes sense. But how do I know what manipulations I have to do? Would that be just trial and error?
since we wanted to show it was index 2 I knew I needed to get a coefficient of 2 in front of something
and we had a c on it's own in <a+b, c> so I tried to put it infront of the c
That is something I didn't know. I just wanted the quotient <a+b-c,a+b+c>/<a+b,c>. I don't have the information that it is an index two subgroup. How do I proceed without this information?
Youād want to get the presentations in as similar of a form as possible
There might be some algorithms thatās eluding me like coset enumeration but that seems very overkill here
Wew are you gonna come up with an algorithm to always know what group a certain presentation corresponds to š¤Ø
Thatās undecidable in pretty much all interesting cases
Todd-Coexter enumeration is what Iām referring to here if you want to Google it
So like in general, it's mostly trail and error?
Nah thereās got to be a clever way of doing it
Because what I was essentially doing in my head there was row reduction
Have two matrices with columns corresponding to generators and rows corresponding to the coefficients of a,b,c in each generator
Then do elementary row operations to try and get the matrix into some nice form⦠hmm
Iāll have a think, Iāve gtg
Ah, alright. Thanks for helping out
what a cop out
Been thinking about this. Itās correct but you destroy a lot of information, for example <a+b-c, a+b+c> is also isomorphic to Z^2, but itās clearly not an index 2 subgroup of itself - the generators are very important!
it it makes you feel any better it's pretty easy to get reasonably good at doing it quickly
for common classes of groups anyway
I did enough calculating of homology back in my day to get good at it š¬
(8 months ago)
alright then, what is <a, b, c | a^3 = b^8 = c^2 = [a, b] = [a, c] = 1, cbc = b^3> isomorphic to
itself
what have you been up to recently Wew
I've been gone from here for a bit
and why is my very active roll gone
C_3 x SD_16 but yeah
PHd shite
If H is a subgroup and aHa^-1 is a subset of H then does this imply aHa^-1 = H
And I mean there exists an a such that this happens
are your groups finite
no you're right, it doesn't matter
or maybe it does
cause if they're finite then |aHa^-1| = |H| and aHa^-1 subset H implies aHa^-1 = H
but I can't think of an example in an infinite group where this fails
What if H is a nontrivial centre
I don't see why that matters at all
you have a bijection from a finite set to a finite set
this isn't even group theortic really
In the infinite case just conjugate by a^-1 for the converse inclusion
I'm working on a piece of code related to baic group theory and I have a little problem with the python interpreter
>>> import numpy as np
>>> np.linalg.det([[2,1],[1,2]])
2.9999999999999996
>>>
can someone explain to me why this happend and how I can avoid it? I tried sending this in the computer science discord but my message gets deleted by some bot and I really don't have time for that kind of crap.
floating point rounding errors
but there's nothing to round
until I see the entire source code of np.linalg.det I wouldn't assume that
anyway just tack a round(...) on the start and you're be right as rain, bobs your uncle, cheap as chips, if you will
ok thanks
there's always rounding
it might even be that numpy automatically converts to float64 from the get go when creating a numpy array
I think by default it takes dtype=np.float64
so it's not even det's fault
also that belonged in #computing-software
did you need to float that ?
Dunno I just don't know if python will automatically make it a double. I don't really care though, this illustrates the problem just fine.
python's floats are double
That's nice
there's no float32
you had more than 15 zeroes anyways
(idk how many bits are used for the mantissa)
but with more than 25 0s, the size of the mantissa doesn't matter
64 bits can't do that
OK

is that passive aggressive ?
this reminds me of the horrors of my numerics courses
about this one my idea is take an arbitrary permutation in S_n to show \phi(\sigma)=\psi(\sigma), and we can write the permutation as a product of transpositions if we can show \phi((ij))=\psi((ij)) for any i,j then we can prove this. But how to get this from the given condition because not all permutations all transposition have to do with (1i), are there any properties of S_n i am missing? or it has something to do with automorphism?
(1i)(1j)(1i)= (ij)
ah thanks
Anyone else feel like basic field + Galois theory is much easier than the rest of algebra to think about? Like I find the theorems about fields much more natural than theorems about modules and stuff
Like for example intuition for Galois subgroups correspondence with subfields makes much more sense than structure of modules over PID to me
do you know about smith normal form
hi wew 
because to me structure of modules over PIDs is way more intuitive than the Galois correspondence, which is actually the whole reason why we care about Galois theory - the lattice isomorphism is not obvious at first!
lots of areas of maths are just exploiting a single unexpected isomorphism - character theory comes to mind 
hello discord user det
sounds like a case of "lack of experience makes things seem harder than they actually are"
det 
tubu 
exact opposite for me
Oh yeah lol you might actually be right, I am just now learning Galois theory whereas I was learning the module over PID stuff almost a year back.... but still I somehow feel like I have the most intuition for field theory stuff, I am able to prove most of the theorems in Lang myself whereas in modules I would be drudging through proofs from Hungerford for a long time
det 

it did something like exp(log2 + log3 - log2) cuz it computes log of the determinant so that you still have something if it underflows or overflows
if you type 2.0 * 2.0 - 1.0 * 1.0 in the interpreter what do you get?
you're going to want to cast your matrix as numpy integer matrix
looking at the source it'll cast whatever matrix you're inputting as _commontype of the matrix, which i'd hazard a guess as being your matrix of floats
If you want symbolic computation, use sympy. Otherwise there is always things to round
thanks, I did it with sympy in the end
i'm kinda confused as to how we have m \geq n; I wrote f = (b_0, b_1, \dots, b_m, 0, ..., 0) = (a_0, a_1, \dots, a_m, a_{m + 1}, ..., a_n, 0, 0, ...) and am trying to derive a contradiction (supposing m < n) - is it because it would contradict a_n being the largest nonzero coefficient? but then isn't that assuming we write f = (a_0, a_1, \dots, )?
Yes, you need to assume an != 0
Then any bk, k > n must be 0, and m >= n because otherwise you miss some unmissable coefficients
got it, thanks
My number theory take home just dropped. I'm fucked
Then why did my book consider it to be Z+Z only? The context is that this is supposed to be the group generated by boundaries of two simplicial 2-simplexes.
that certainly seems like a particular set of generators!
Specifically, it is supposed to be in RP^2
is this the usual construction for the ring of polynomials in n indeterminates?
Yes
A lot of textbooks will just call them formal symbols but behind the scenes this is the standard construction.
cool stuff
what are some applications of third isomorphism theorem of groups?
(first and second too if there are good ones)
Which one do you call the third one ā there really isn't a universally agreed-upon numbering
But it's a bit weird to talk about 'applications' because it's just something you use whenever you have to. I use the first isomorphism theorem all the time without even thinking about it, and whenever I use any of the others it's similar.
1 :)
haha i forgot that the scalars are from the field itself š
is induction the best way to go about this? it's obviously true for k = 1, and i'm assuming it's true for k and trying to show it's true for k + 1. but this is annoying since xi is not a homomorphism or anything like that
assume $x_i^k(k\epsilon_i) = 1_R$, then $x_i^{k + 1}\bigl((k + 1)\epsilon_i\bigl) = x_ix_i^k\bigl((k + 1)\epsilon_i\bigl)$ and i'm stuck
okeyokay
yes
Sure, pick your favorite group G and consider Per(X) x G. Or, pick your favorite superset Y of X, and consider Per(Y). These (and many other groups) will have an isomorphix copy of Per(X). Namely, Per(X) x {e} for the first and the permutations of Y which fix every element not in X for the second.
right but I mean as sets Per(X) and Per(X) x G are not subsets
I suppose Per(X) \subseteq Per(Y)
It's just a relabelling of them, so for all intensive purposes they're the same
because the restriction of a bijection is a bijection
I could simply relabel (f,e) as f in the first one, for any f in Per(X)
That would make it a set inclusion
I meant more like something like Inn(X) <= Aut(X) <= Per(X)
something that changes the functions themselves
not the sets
poorly posed question
Per(Y) for X < Y adds info since those functions differ?
Since ya know, being defined on Y instead
How can I find a group G in which every proper subgroup is cyclic even though G is not cyclic.
anyone have any hints, would be much appreciated?
Try small groups.
Like, start at n = 4 (1, 2, and 3 obviously won't work) and trial and error.
How many proper subgroups do you have for a group of order p^2
I'm imagining in my head like the rotational symmetries of a cube but we haven't done anything like that in class yet
4! > 4 
(I mean, you can make it work with arbitrarily large finite groups. But there are some simple, small examples)
(hint hint ||if you know Lagrange's theorem and the fact that all groups of prime order are cyclic, think about how that you can use that to limit the subgroups to being cyclic||)
(you essentially told the whole solution
)
(hidden
)
Hmm I don't know lagrange's thm yet
I think maybe working of the rotational symmetries of a cube intution could I have the set of ordered pairs from {1,-1}?
under the binary operation that just multiplies the corresponding elements?
Yes that works. You might also hear this called the "Klein 4-group" V_4
Can anyone help me understand this? what exactly does it mean that i is an inclusion when N' is just some arbitrary A-module.
(rings are commutative, with identity)
Here, the author said "unfortunately", why does he say this? Is this not the typical way?
looks like in general it doesnt look like inversions. as per the next sentence.
in that sense, he should say "fortunately"?
because he tries to teach math, it is unfortunate that the example makes something seem true generally, when it isn't
thats unfortunate for him as an educator, and for students who might be misled
then why not pick a different example? to avoid this coincidence.
ah, that i cannot tell you!
if a group G has order n, does that mean any g in G has g^n = 1_G ?
Yep
that's because the order of g (the element) divides n
And every element of a finite group has an order
(ie the cyclic subgroup)
so for this question i am showing any element of H has order dividing n and K dividing m. is saying let h in H have order k, h^k = g^mk = 1_H = 1_G = g^mn => g^k = g^n = 1_G => k divides n a valid proof? ( i have already shown H and K being subgroup of G)
because i thought g^mn doesn't necessarily = 1_G
g^mk = 1_H = 1_G = g^mn => g^k = g^n this step is invalid
for example, in Z4, 1^2=2^2=1, but you can't say 1=2
oh i dont mean like they are equal i mean since they both equal the identity then k must be a multiple of n
do you mean "for all intents and purposes"?
You understood what I meant 
it's irrelevantgardless.... these sayings are a diamond dozen in this doggy dog world....
is there any nonpainful way to prove (iii)
is that you in ur pfp
for some reason i wouldn't be surprised if it was
no this is "the nostalgia critic"
Wew lost no nostalgia November.... Like he does every year
this is actually true, I failed it the past 2 years
does anyone know if a field is closed under multiplication
it is indeed closed under multiplication
so this proof essentially answers this question, no?
since q = p^f, the field_q has prime characterisitc
i got it from my textbook, just wanted to check if it does or not.
Does anyone have an example of a finite-rank module that contains a submodule of non-finite rank? And a basic question: Let M be a module and N be a submodule of M, Is it true that rank(M/N)=rank(M)-rank(N)?
Take Z[x1,x2,...] I.e. ring of polys in inf many variables, and consider the module (x1x2,x1x3,x1x4,...) Inside (x1)
I think that's the standard example
The key point is lack of noetherianity
Also the rank of a general module over a general ring is not a well defined notion
What you said is true under suitable assumptions on the ring and the modules
if $f = \sum_{i = 0}^m a_ix_1^{k_{i1}} \dots x_n^{k_{in}}$, $g = \sum_{i = 1}^t b_ix_1^{j_{i1}} \dots x_n^{j_{in}}$, then how can you give an expression for what $f + g$ is? because this will be a hassle and involve combining like terms and stuff no?
okeyokay
cuz i'm trying to verify this and.... it's a pain
Wdym
thats actually so weird
literally same question on my pset
hi! how would i go about approaching this / these types of questions?
my first instinct would to be list all of them and check and applying some small generalizations to save checking them one by one
but clearly, the question does not want you to do this
thus, is there a better way other than trying different combinations of linear polynomials multiplied together?
I'd try enumerating the complement
count the reducible polynomials
oh right yeah
thats what i was thinking of doing but it seemed long
which is what i was implying by trying different combinations of linear polynomials multiplied together
i mean it could be feasible if theres a way to count faster without trying everything
not sure we're on the same page exactly
let's just think about monic polynomials for a sec, how many ways can I pick the roots a,b here: (x-a)(x-b)
I suggest solving this by thinking about (Z/p)[x] in general
then plug in p=5 in the end
for distinct a,b in z/5 its 5C2
if not distinct its 5C2 + 5 surely, unless im not understanding what you mean?
yeah
oh i think i see where this is going
monic polynomials can be defined by their roots
the number of monic polynomials in z/5 of degree 2 is 5^3 = 125
number of reducible monic polynomials in z/5 is nothing but 5C2 + 5 = 15 thus there are 110 irreducible monic polynomials in z/5?
the number of monic polynomials in z/5 of degree 2 is 5^3 = 125
not quite
depends on which you're wanting to count, monic or not
yeah yeah i brain farted
25 monic, 125 total
you missed some
hmmm
or I missed some lol
probably me
i was thinking like
5 ways to choose constant, 5 ways to choose coeff of x
nah you'r eright I'm just tired
ok ok
there aren't 125 degree 2 polynomials though
I was thinking slightly differently, 4*5^2
since 0 can't be a choice, there are 4 options
yeah hahah thats the same thing
but yeah both work, just wanted to give a diff perspective
yep yep
im not sure how to generalize after that because i was going to say like
thinking about (ax-b)(cx-d) next then either a,d = 1 with 25 choices for pairs of b,d
or otherwise, we want a|b and c|d which doesnt particularly work the way you want it to since
3 doesnt divide 2 for example, but 3|12 (since 12 \equiv 2 \mod 5)
with my first thought at least
no need, just the roots is enough in a field
then worry about fixing the leading term afterwards
there will be p-1 ways to choose what to multiply (x-a)(x-b) by to get a different leading coefficient
yeah, that makes sense
and we dont need to think about cases where we have (ax-b)(cx-d) since at some point with c(x-a)(x-b) it will be equivalent? (the a,b,c,ds arent the same between the two expressions)
yeah
right
so really, since each constant must be a unit in Z/p (which is probably why you were insisting on looking at prime p in the first place), then we can just multiply everything by p-1
from the monic case
wait
surely though if k(x-n)(x-m) is equivalent to (ax-b)(cx-d) and k is a unit, the number of reducible polynomials must be fixed?
for the reason that we dont care about multiplying about units when considering irreducible elements ?
or am i mixing somethign up
I'm sorta unsure what you mean, trying to count by (ax-b)(cx-d) isn't clear to me cause it mixes up the coefficient on the x^2 term up with the roots now
so it's a pain to try to count that way as far as I can tell
there are p-1 quadratic polynomials that have the same roots, they just differ by a different leading coefficient
I think you got that earlier but just reiterating it to be safe
yeah yeah
or like are you wanting to try to count it a different way
no no i understand what youre asying its fine hahaha
monic case:
25 polynomials
15 reducible
general case:
100 polynomials
15*(p-1) = 60 reducible
huge, thanks for the help
yeah, you're welcome
although I'd suggest working out the entire thing in terms of p, not just that last little piece lol
it will make the relation between the monic and non monic case much clearer that it is what you'd think it'd be
nah you explained it pretty well in my opinion dont worry
haha I wasn't, I'm just saying seeing plain numbers is lame and to do it more generally š
Intuitively, what makes a subgroup normal? I think its something to do with the normal subgroups group structure sort of "builds" the bigger group structure , where as regular old subgroups may not
A subgroup is normal iff it is the kernel of a group homomorphism, i.e. iff the quotient G/H is also a group in a natural way.
ahh yea i saw that theorem in the book but havent properly read through it and thought about it yet
So in this sense if H < G is a normal subgroup you can "build" G out of H and G/H
Ok thanks, that part is kind of what I was thinking
Still seems like for me it would be hard to look at some subgroup and intuitevely tell without checking that its normal
its quite an interesting and fun idea to me though
It can indeed be difficult to determine if a subgroup is normal, depending on what you know about it
i see
How to do number 20
I was trying to construct a homomorphism to a abelian group but the determinant one isn't just working
And I couldn't come up with more ideas
Okay I just noticed that N is a elementary matrix
So uh maybe we could make some combinatorial arguments
((a, b), (0, d)) ((a', b'), (0, d')) = ((aa', ab'+bd'), (0, dd'))
So A N_b' = ((a, ab' + b), (0, d)) = A + ab' E12
So it looks like the classes can be chosen to have representants ((a, 0), (0, d)), i.e. the diagonal matrices ?
from which you should clearly see that it's an abelian group
What do u mean by N_b'
N_b = ((1, b), (0, 1))
well you could also have seen that by interpreting it using column operations, but either way, you find this result, right ?
I just computed what the class of A looks like
and if you choose b' = -b/a (hence ad != 0 is useful) you find a diagonal matrix in its class
then this follows from multiplication between diagonal matrices being commutative
I can accept that
you should convince yourself of it
It's easy to check
yes
Also it's just scaling operations in terms of elementary matrices
and that this means the quotient group is commutative
I was trying to construct an explicit homomorphism so that I could kill two birds with one stone by using first isomorphism theorem
But this was easier
what
If I could make N a kernel
that would make it normal
since G/N is isomorphic to the image
well once you found the classes, mapping the class to the diagonal as a subset of R*² gives a commutative group with kernel N
seems quite natural
Right
and this formula guarantees it's a morphism
Intuitively G is controlled by a, b and d, and N is controlled by b. So you would expect G/N to look like something involving a and d. So the first thing you might check could be diagonal matrices with ad nonzero. And indeed, in that case, there is a homomorphism with kernel N
just to verify: all R-modules are Z modules right?
Yes, because every R-module is an abelian group and abelian groups are Z-modules
ah right
Equivalently, there's a unique map Z -> R which lets you pull back the R-module structure to a Z-module structure
so i'm a little bit confused as to why precisely $A \otimes_R B \neq A \otimes_{\mathbb{Z}} B$. because for instance, if we consider the left hand side and let $A$ be a right $R$-module and $B$ a left $R$-module, don't we get equality?
okeyokay
oh hm neat
They're entirely different constructions. Don't let the notation trick you into expecting them to be the same.