#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 176 of 1
if you've learned about what an automorphism group is, you can show this corresponds to certain automorphisms of the group
will this be sufficient to show that every maximal ideal in Z[x] is generated by 2 elements?
<@&286206848099549185>
Hm I mean it may need a bit more work
Since the Z-basis of I_n could be large enough
All this proof really shows is that every ideal of Z[x] is finitely generated
And you can adapt to any PID
Well
This is basically Hilbert's basis theorem if you're interested
if every ideal of R is finitely generated, same is true of R[x]
This is a special case of R = Z, where the hypothesis is immediate since we have a PID
Ye that's kinda my point lol like the proof method is too general
I can't actually fully remember what's the easiest way to do your problem lol
the only way i have is a bit too powerful
lol do you mind dropping it?
actually nah it's okay
lmao
Well basically
Let m be your maximal ideal and consider m intersect Z
that's a prime ideal of Z, hence either 0 or pZ for some prime p
But then that is the harder bit
If you know how prime ideals interact with localization, you can say that a prime ideal of Z[x] that doesn't intersect Z corresponds to a prime ideal in Q[x], hence principal
Yeah i think that's too fancy for okey's class though
I would say Z is Jacobson (and so is Z[x] as a result) which also shows m intersect Z is maximal
wait so in that case would (p, x) = M
hmm i'm not sure what jacobson or localization is
ah okay lol nw
Sorry i messed up lol
ur good
Yeah idk a non-fancy way to do this lol
Rip
fwiw the fancy way I know is actually like lol
m maximal, so m intersect Z is maximal and hence of the form pZ as jacobson
then we have inclusions 0 < pZ[x] < m
Yeah I’m not surprised
but a maximal ideal of Z[x] containing pZ[x] corresponds to a maximal ideal of Z[x]/pZ[x] = (Z/p)[x]
Ta is a menance
but this is a PID, so the maximal ideal is just generated by f mod p for some f in Z[x]
and hence m is generated by p and f
Oof
This is why a lot of the common examples are (2,x) and stuff
since 2 is a prime and x mod 2 is irreducible
But e.g. x^2 + 2 is irreducible over Z, but (2, x^2 + 2) isn't even prime
Oh wait so would that proof work with that fancy machinery and stuff
wdym
Nvm lol I didn’t know what I meant
Ohhh ok I see
How about this:
So you have an ideal generated by f1, ..., fn
Consider the ideal in Q[x] generated by the same elements, then this will equal (g) for some polynomial g. (We may assume the coefficients of g are relatively prime)
Case 1: g=1, then there's some combination of the f1 that makes 1, multiplying out the denominators there's some Z[x] combinations of f that make an integer, hence the ideal intersects Z, and you reduce to the Z/p case.
Case 2: the ideal doesn't contain g. Then adding g gives a bigger ideal, hence not maximal.
Case 3: g is contained in the ideal. We know that fi = ghi for rational polynomials h. Choose p relatively prime to all the denominators of the hi coefficients and the coefficients of g. Then the ideal is contained in (p, g) hence equals (p, g)
@white oxide
thank you, i'll take a look at that
(I guess case 2 is redundant)
This assumes you've already proven Z[x] is Noetherian though, which you more or less did here
Could I also use the hilbert basis theorem for that
Z noetherian
I think
Yes, that works
hello, I have a question, is my understanding correct?
the red line is translated to red line, and blue line translated to blue line
i'm a little confused as to why every element of the tensor product is not of the form a tensor b, if my definition the cosets of K in F are of the form a tensor b?
a (x) b + b (x) a is not an elementary tensor
what's an elementary tensor?
x (x) y
ohh ok that makes sense i think
as it says, the tensor product is generated by those elements
generated being the key word
A useful main example to keep in mind is the tensor product of two vector spaces of dimension n and m. That simply consists of all n×m matrices.
Elementary tensors are the matrices of rank 1.
oh intersesting
(Matrix rank, not tensor rank here).
What does the quotient $\frac{\mathbb{Z}[x]}{<2>}$ look like?
HausdorffT1
F_2[x]
So it just amounts to quotienting the underlying ring?
well see if you can show that
v otimes w is then the matrix v w^T.
(In particular e_i otimes e_j is the matrix with all zeroes except a 1 in the element pointed to by their indices, which tells us that those tensors are a basis for the tensor product).
Since v w^T has a one-dimensional column space (the column space is generated by v, unless w=0), not all matrices can have that form.
hmm ok i'll definitely think about that for concreteness, thanks
why exactly do we choose K to be generated by elements of the form (i)-(iii)? can somebody explain it to me like i'm five lol
those are the relations a bilinear function satisfies
if you put a "= 0" on the end because we're quotienting
is that the same thing as middle linear?
these relations
are exactly what u need
so that u go from bilinear maps in M x N to linear maps in M tensor N
cuz they are equivalent now lmfoa
Tf is middle linear
u now quotient the free module by all of these relations
hungerford
But yes this is a bilinear map
Or really it’s a like
“Balanced map” or something
Never in my life have I seen this term lol
i think that makes sense...
a little bit..
take these for granted for like 3 minutes
he then proves that this gives out the universal property instantly
hopefully it should click
everyone hates hungerford idk why 😦
or hungerford whatever
if it's the same book as yesterday this is the last straw
i think he is too far to go back now
NAH BRO HUNGERFORD CLEARSS
btw the motivation is ( i think ? ) the same
as with tensor products of vec spaces
which u probably saw in linear alg
nah we didn't even get to jordan normal form and determinants and complexification and stuff in lin alg
😹
happens ig haha
this section has one of the coolest shit ever in math for me
the "adjoint" shit with hom and tensor
hopefully it blows ur mind too
how is this easy to see :(
(8)
am i supposed to see that $a \otimes 0 + a \otimes 0 = a \otimes 0$ or smt
okeyokay
o
no because it isn't
o
wait now how tf does 0 \otimes b = 0 \otimes 0

OH
wait nvm
wait yeah
wait nvm
wait where does one use the fact that x + x = x implies x = 0
cuz
0 \otimes b = (0*0) \otimes b = 0(0 \otimes b) = 0 \otimes 0
$0(0)b \otimes b = 0 \otimes 0b = 0 \otimes 0$
okeyokay
yeah there you go
ye
but like how does 0 being the only element that satisfies x + x = x satisfy it
actually nvm
i proved it forget about it lol
hungerford my beloved
❤️
middle fuckin linear
LOL
that's based
nobody cares about categories up to isomorphism
well Lang calls ufds factorial rings and integral domains entire rings, so imma have to go w/ hungerford sadly
yeah that's understandable
hungerford does just the right amount of hand holding
lang kicks you to the curb and says good luck
yea man not really that was a joke
the only cool part is
we know more definitions
like quasi-regular
lmfao
I do
Why is the choice only between Hungerford and Lang????
This is like only babymode or hardcore mode
What other selections are there???
fartin
never heard of those; ergo they must not be good
how

do bilinear maps send (0, 0) to 0
prove it
yeah have a think about that one
considering we previously showed that a (x) 0 = 0 (x) 0 there's a slightly more powerful statement you can say
hrmmm ok
cuz i was tryna show that $g_1\bigl((a + a', b) - (a, b) - (a', b)\bigl) = 0$, so I got $g_1\bigl((a + a', b) - (a, b) - (a', b)\bigl) = g(0, -b) = g(0, 0)$
okeyokay
the map (a, b) -> a tensor b is (by definition) linear in both variables, and linear maps send 0 to 0
Is F(V)=K here?
yeah
Perhaps use your intuition?
perhaps? 
so then F(V) would include every y???
sorry if im misunderstanding something terribly here ;-;
Nah actually this is a trivial one so let me apell it out
Soo what is the inverse of 0?
anything?
Yep!
ah ok ic I think
so V(xy-1) = K \ 0
and I(K \ 0) = 0
but V(0) = K
is that right?
Yep
a drawing actually helps here lol
one fun thing is that there is an analogous thing when you consider R (with its standard topology)
It's an example of a projection map which isn't closed
was lookin through that open question article someone posted from arxiv awhile ago and the following seemed like a bit deceptively simple for a 60 yr old problem. Though my question is the original author asking about abelian extensions as abelian galois extensions from galois theory or abelian by abelian extensions in the language of group theory.
It took me a few hours to go through first 2 sections of hartshorne chapter 2. How can I go faster?
I see, thanks. I wish I could go faster to keep up with the scheme homology class.
It's not tho
I mean there's a lot of fundamental reasons why it's more than just reversing the arrows, but there's cases that you can't really define a homology theory but you can define a cohomology theory
e.g. in the case of sheaf cohomology, you can't define a reasonable notion of sheaf homology, at least at first (you can provide alternative definitions which end up being equivalent)
So for sheaves this is because the category of sheaves might not have enough projectives, bur it always has enough injectives
To define a suitable dual notion of a homology theory you would first need to be able to generalise your definition of derived functor
Which is what sheaf cohomology is built upon
While these will end up being formally dual in some sense, one is much easier to compute in general
And some properties are best seen through the lens of one
I'm a little confused by the notation here...y_j is a just a a variable in the polynomial, not a function, right? I suppose this is just referring to F_j?
Do I understand this correctly? I translate the red line into red line, and blue line into blue line.
y_j is the coordinate function
what is the coordinate function?
the word coordinate does not appear in the textbook prior to this ;-;
Oh i see
I just do not know the fundamental differences between chains and cochains.
Aren’t they just differ by how their index is given?
can anyone help me on this understanding..
Seems correct ime
Algebraically there is no difference between homology and cohomology, except the indexing convention. Both are just kernel modulo image.
But usually you don't just consider the cohomology of a random complex, but you are interested in using homology to study certain objects (topological spaces, sheaves, groups, algebras, smooth manifold, lie algebras). Whether you call something homology or cohomology then comes from how you construct a complex from your object. As a rule of thumb, if the process is closely related to Ext then it's cohomology and if it's closely related to Tor then it's homology.
It depends I guess. If you're just studying modules and chain complexes for themselves, and not as an invariant to study anything else then it makes no difference.
So for me, for example, it doesn't really matter whether I think of it as homology or cohomology. Just have to be consistent with indexing of course
Is valuation just multiplicative homomorphism R -> V? Or is there more to it
what kind of response are you fishing for here
Sorry, I’ll google for definition when I get time.
I would indeed appreciate some intuition tho
It’s the p-adic valuation but more general
In chapter 7 of Hydon's book on Symmetry methods, he describes a method to find first integrals of ODEs using characteristics of symmetries. The method very roughly takes various permutations of the Wronskian of n+1 (or more) symmetry characteristics for an nth order ODE, and their ratios under some conditions are first integrals. The system o first integrals is then purely algebraic, allowing you to solve the ODE. Since every integral is a first integral of some first order ODE, could this method be used to evaluate arbitrary/undocumented integrals?
When can the multiplication operation of a finitely generated group be extended to its asymptotic cone? I know it works for finitely generated abelian groups.
Does problem #25 basically reduce to “odd + odd = even”?
ya
Nice
what's the importance of this theorem? it seems as if it's saying that right modules preserve exactness under tensoring with certain conditions... is there anything more to this?
It says tensoring is right exact
have you seen that Hom is left exact
Fun fact:
Any right exact functor F: mod R -> mod S that preserves direct sums is given by tensoring with a bimodule
I buy it
uhh i went over it like once over the summer i think
yeah so this is just that but going the other way
is it this
yur
oh so when hungerford says "hom is a sort of dual notion to tensoring" or whatever
note how the 0 for the tensored sequence is on the other side
is this kinda what he means
they're adjoint functors
oh ye
wait so
i'm assuming the functors would be you fix a module D, then A \mapsto D \otimes A
and then for the hom functor it's just A maps to Hom_R(A, D)
WewGhostTbh
I've always wondered if this admits any nicely categorical proof lol
what the fact that uhhh right/left adjoints between module categories are left/right exact?
No lol
oh
that's the same thing
ah
That bit always feels dodgy
yeah I see what you mean now
apply Ext to the whole thing, and then since they are inverses you get back to where you started :thecosmoshumswithatunemostsweet:
show us the emoji, wew
the velvet curtain remains drawn
no that's just a thing I had in my head
isn't that what all emojis are
perhaps...
I mean A -f-> B -> C -> 0 is exact iff C is the cokernel of f. And the definition of cokernel is just that the sequence remains exact when you apply Hom(-, D) for every D
what's the point of learning abstract algebra, can it lead to proving other concepts in math that can do something within the real world, does it just stay in mathematics, or can it directly be applied to reality
heard of "quantum mechanics"?
Abstract algebra does indeed have many applications, both to other fields of math and the sciences
interesting
For example cryptography and coding theory is something you interact with in the real world every day, and heavily uses abstract algebra.
Representation theory of groups apears in solid state physics and chemistry.
Noether's theorem is a theorem in Lagrangian mechanics, relating symmetry groups to preserves quantitees in physical systems.
that's cool I always presumed that abstract algebra was just purely mathematical as the abstract name suggests lol
I mean most mathematicians simply call it algebra, the name "abstract algebra" is just to differentiate it from the primary school subject people call "algebra"
Really I think they should rename the primary school one.
is this 'extending scalars' just saying you can take an S-module and turn it into an R-module
For Z4 x Z2 are all subgroups {e} x Z2, Z2 x Z2, Z4 x {e}, {e} x {e}?
Yeah, or rather it's giving you one way of turning S modules into R modules
And Z4 x Z2
looks right
The question itself asked for all cyclic subgrps of that . So i first listed all subgrps and now i will see which ones are cyclic
don't forget Z2 x {e}
Think you're missing at least the one generated by (2, 1) for example
Oh yeah
A better way to find all cyclic subgroups is probably to consider the subgroup each element generates
Yea, prt of the reason im talking about this is cuz i feel there are better ways
Oh yeah cause a cyclic group must have some element generating it
exactly
So for this low order group its easy to check them all
the rot
oh so true
if i print physical copy
i can put 3 inch margins
so i have room to write annotations
you're a genius!
wait bro
i'm literally going over the same theorem now
or at least i think so
my question was how does alpha being a homomorphism imply that it's well-defined
i think i learned most of this tensor stuff in a linear algebra class
just generalizing to modules now
oh damn we didn't cover tensors in lin alg
tensors in a lin alg is cracked
it was kind of something we shoved at the end because we had time
why are all these tensors so large
that's all of mathematics
real
we defined tensor products, using quotient spaces to define bilinear relations, proved existence of tensor products, and then did extension of scalars
and then i guess he didnt feel like doing more so we moved onto the group of matrices and invariant subspaces
non commutative algebra is weird
im not used to thinking about left and right modules
non-commutative algebraists
geometric group theorists
what am I doing wrong here? $\alpha(r_1 + r_2 \otimes b_1 + b_2) = r_1(b_1 + b_2) + r_2(b_1 + b_2) \neq r_1b_1 + r_2b_2 = \alpha(r_1 \otimes b_1) + \alpha(r_2 \otimes b_2)$
okeyokay
Expecting the two sides to be equal maybe.
I don't see that you're doing anything wrong.
oh sorry i meant as in i'm trying to show that alpha is a group homomorphism
and that's what i need to show
that $\alpha(r_1 + r_2 \otimes b_1 + b_2) = \alpha(r_1 \otimes b_1) + \alpha(r_2 \otimes b_2)$ right
okeyokay
but i expanded them and they're not equal
No, that's not something you want to show
whatever i'll come backc i've seen enough $\otimes$ for today
okeyokay
Being a group homomorphism just means that f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y), no complicated cross addition of the two factors in the tensor like this
Okay nice
It’s a little big, very unhandy
i have one
rep theorists
also ShiN
If your algebra isn't noncommutative then you're just a geometer in disguise
NOOOOOOOOOOO
i was hoping it would be a small-ish size
How would that work with >700 pages 
NOOOOO I DIDNT KNOW IT WAS >700 PAGES
day literally ruined
i give up. im not studying hom alg anymore
For this theorem, I don't want to use the way as the textbook (see the circled part), after the step irr(beta, F) divides irr(alpha, F), can I prove it in this way?
Helo
🥹
Okay this is unfamliar notation so i shall perservere
which notation?
irr(alpha,F) but dw it's clear what it means
Yes I think yours works just fine
If an irreducible polynomial divides another, then they're the same up to units
and since both are monic they agree
I do think symmetry arguments are nice too but yes
thank you!
np
I have another question, can you help me too?
you should just post the question and people will help if they want, without making someone commit first
okay, let me type it
If I take an example, say let $f=(x-\alpha)^m(x-\beta)^n$, after I apply $\tau_x$ to $f$, do I get $\tau_x(f)=(x-\beta)^m(x-\beta)^n$? My question is it seems undefined for $\tau_x(\beta)=?$
WT
what is (c) asking me to do if not to prove (a)?
just redo part(a) for a,b in Z
oh lmfao i didn't notice it said Z+ until now thank you
Laughing My Fucking Ass Off
This feels like a lucky 10000 moment
If I take an example, say let $f=(x-\alpha)^m(x-\beta)^n$, after I apply $\tau_x$ to $f$, do I get $\tau_x(f)=(x-\beta)^m(x-\beta)^n$? My question is it seems undefined for $\tau_x(\beta)=?$
WT
That's not what you get from tau(f) though. Should be
(x - beta)^m (x - tau(beta))^n
but what is tau(beta)? it is undefined, since beta is not in F(alpha)
tau is defined on the algebraic closure of F, so it's not undefined. Exactly what tau(beta) is is irrelevant to the proof
It will just be some conjugate of beta
oh, right, I get wrong, I thought $\psi$ is undefined on beta, right? $\psi(beta)$ is undefined
WT
Yeah, psi(beta) would be undefined
(Unless beta happens to be contained in F(alpha) I guess)
thank you, yes, and is there a theorem to say about when the conjugate can be in the same extension field? for example, $Q(\sqrt2)=Q(-\sqrt2), R(i)=R(-i)$, but $Q(2^{1/3})\neq Q((2^{1/3}e^{i2\pi/3})$, while $2^{1/3}$ and $2^{1/3}e^{i2\pi/3}$ are conjugate.
WT
I'm not sure whether there is any helpful theorem, but it's equivalent to the Galois group having same order as the degree. And in particular the Galois group will be abelian.
So any degree 2 polynomial have the property. Don't know if you can say much more than that.
the degree is the highest order of the irr poly, say $n$, and the order is $p^n$ for some prime p as the characteristic. If they are equal then $p^n=n$? do I understand correctly?
WT
I'm not sure what you're saying...
This is not true. Let S= {-2,-3,-4,0,2,3,4}
2 + (-3) = -1
4+4 = 8
nvm thanks for correcting my incorrect claim lol
i didnt list a subgroup
oh, sorry I thought Galois field, I haven't learn Galois group..
they are very different?
🥹
The Galois group is just the group of automorphisms of a field extension. And you talk about the Galois group of a polynomial by considering the Galois group of the splitting field
Galois fields are just finite fields, so they're not really directly related.
is the number of automorphisms of a field extension equals the number of distinct roots in the spliting field?
Not necessarily
I encourage you to think of an example
Almost. The order of the Galois group is the dimension of the splitting field.
So tieing back to what I said before, if f is an irreducible polynomial of degree n, with root alpha then F(alpha) is the splitting field of F iff the Galois group has order n
Thank you, I will keep in mind this after I learn that chapter, currenlty I am reading spliting field and separable extension

@rocky cloak @uncut girder
If G has a unique element a of order 2, show that a is in the center of G
Nice
How we do this
Ate u reading dummit and foote @torn warren
I am reading Fraleigh
Whats the order of the conjugate of an order 2 element by an arbitrary group element?
Cool
Yes
Say g is the unique order 2 element and a is arbitrary group element. Whats the order of aga^-1?
can we view this as a degree 2 extension of K(y)? like K(V) = K(y)/(y^5-x^2)? If so then this is obvious
if we can't, then #algebraic-geometry will be more help
Yea I think that's what's happening here
Btw, is any sheaf on noetherian scheme a coherent sheaf? And is quasicoherent subsheaf of coherent sheaf a coherent sheaf
it's a degree 2 extension so {1, x} forms a basis of K(V) as a K(y)-vector space
alternatively, any higher terms x^n are either equivalent to y^m or xy^m for some m
this is of course assuming it is actually a degree 2 extenstion, I kind of got that completely from vibes
can i ask a linear algebra question in here or nah
#nonlinear-algebra
Let me ask again.
Is any sheaf on noetherian scheme a coherent sheaf? And is quasicoherent subsheaf of coherent sheaf a coherent sheaf?
I thought so after learning their definition, but professor talked about quasicoherent subsheaf of the trivial bundle, which seems to imply that this wohld not hold.
No, and then yes
Well so much for me saying "any sheaf on noetherian sheaf"
I meant to say the trivial line bundle.
This also isn’t really the right place for such a question, belongs more in #algebraic-geometry
I see, thank you.
Anybody know if there are any free modules (not vector spaces) such that the determinant is still an Euler-Poincaré map?
Let G be a finite group of order n and H a nontrivial subgroup of G. Let k = [G:H]. If n does not divide k! then G is not simple.
For groups that aren’t simple, does this imply the existence of a subgroup that is “big enough” to show the group is not simple
or is that what the sylow theorems are for
Are centres always finite abelian groups?
Consider the center of an infinite abelian group
Ah right, my bad.
vector spaces are just modules over fields

just making sure: this is the multiplicative group of the integers mod 2^n, right? i.e. Z (mod 2^n) - {0}
Yes
ok, that'll be interesting to work with.
Compute the euler totient, should give you what you need
specically those which are coprime to 2^n
yeah, got that pretty quick. I was thinking too smoll
all coprime elements at n=3 square to 1, that's interesting.
Yes, the multiplicative group of integers mod 8 is isomorphic to ℤ₂×ℤ₂
Is there a nice way to prove that for a field ext K/F that no homomorphisms from K to F exist when [K:F]>1?
It seems intuitive but I'm a bit concerned about a counterexample involving some weird cardinality.
Well unfortunately this isn't true: the algebraic closure of C(x) is isomorphic to C
Oh shit really?
C not as in complex numbers, right?
C is the complex numbers.
Weird cardinality argument comes to the rescue again
this is true for finite fields by an easy cardinality argument
Ah okay
Yeah mb I misattributed algebraic closure to C and not C(x)
Okay wait what about extensions of the form [F(x):F]? That'd still be infinite, but F(x) wouldn't necessarily be algebraically closed right?
For infinite fields F
I assume this is what one uses to prove this: Just check the alg closure of C(x) has same cardinality as C
Well a homomorphism there is determined by where you send x, which is only well-defined if you choose some element in F which is not a root of a polynomial in F... I'll leave you to see the issue there
All elements a of F are roots of the polynomial x-a right?
And the not-well-defined part comes from the fact that you can construct multiple polynomials that would be mapped to the same element, should you have picked an element that is a root of some polynomial in F?
multiple polynomials that would be mapped to the same element
immediate contradiction as field homomorphisms must be injective
Right, that's what makes it not well-defined.
double check to make sure I'm not stupid and misremembering things:
for finite, abelian groups, given the orders of x and y are a, and b, respectively, the order of xy should be the LCM(a,b), yes?
yes
G = Z/6Z. o(1) = 6, o(2) = 3, o(1+2) = 2 \neq LCM(6, 3) = 6
so yes, I am being dumb and misremembering things
Let F be the the field of rational functions in infinitely many variables. Then F is isomorphic to F(x).
I guess an interesting question is whether F can be isomorphic to K if [K:F] is a finite extension
Meh, not that interesting either, as Q(x) is isomorphic to Q(x^2) for example
That was actually the example that made me fear for a weird example involving uncountable cardinalities.
Well Q(x) is countable
oh, actually, for a finite abelian group, given |x|=a and |y|=b, |xy| must divide lcm(a,b), so I still have what I need, cool.
Uncountable cardinalities seem even less intuitive to me in these situations and allow for some unfunnyness to occur sometimes.
yeah cause (ab)^n = a^nb^n = e implies o(a)|n, o(b)|n
Sure, but this time you can't blame uncountability since Q(x^2) < Q(x) is a finite extension of countable fields
I meant as a consideration for the occurrence of a counterexample to my original question.
Yeah, so there are counterexamples that are countable, so you don't have to do any weird uncountable chenanigans
Maybe I just don't understand what you're trying to say
I wasn't looking specifically for a counterexample, it was more of just an intuition that a counterexample could exist, and that if it were to exist, where it might arise from.
therefore, |-5| divides |5| in all multiplicative groups Z mod 2^n, now I just need to show that it always contains at least one distinct element for n>=3, and I'm good.
(the proof of the statement is a previous exercise I don't feel like typing out for context, but is easily proven)
this was uhh (Z/2^nZ)* not cyclic right
yeh
there's gotta be a funny way we can use the fact that there are 3 square roots of unity mod 2^n to do it
and the fact that it's a 2-group
yeah, cyclic 2-groups have a unique involution, but (Z/2^nZ)* has three
if there are three unique square roots of unity mod 2^n then that's sufficient on its own, since every cyclic group has a unique subgroup of order [divisor of the group's order]
very good observation
but I then have to find the form of that third root outside of 1 and -1. time for a scavenger hunt ig. will be back with a form in a couple minutes.
sanouth oesndi'b3pai
I love how you can tell what kind of keyboard I use by my keysmashes
lol
I was using "square root of unity" as a synonym for "involution" but that's not true 
cause 1^2 = 1
Better upgrade to "primitive square root of unity"
I would if I knew what primitive meant
assuming it's just "root of unity of maximal order"
Ye
How do I prove the following two definitions for splitting field are equivalent?
It's clear if E is a minimal extension then it splits f(x) over F, but how can I get the other direction?
well both say it's minimal such that the polynomial splits
maybe the missing thing is that if n= deg f, having n roots is equivalent to splitting into n linear factors - is that what confused you?
I'm confused about why two splitting fields must have same dimension?
hm that isn't in the definitions
But yeah that is a non-trivial theorem
The key idea is: if you add a single root of an irreducible polynomial of degree k, then the extension is of degree k
Because that polynomial is the minimal polynomial
Then that polynomial factorises in that new extension, and if you continue inductively you get the same thing (up to isomorphism) no matter how you add roots
But that is just a sketch
I'm sorry but what is "the minimal polynomial"?
I've narrowed it down to a form:
(2m+1)^2 is congruent to 1 (mod 2^n) iff m(m+1)=k2^(n-2) for some integers m,n,k. Since these integers have equivalence classes in this modular arithmetic environment, I can probably limit m and k to both be only unique up to congruence mod 2^n, no, smaller congruence, tbd.
m mod 2^(n-1)
have u tried thinking about some obvious choices for other 2nd roots of unity?
like you'll probably want a 2^(n-1) in there somewhere, as it squares to 0
I have some guesses like the numbers halfway around the cycle or so
The numbers to either side of k=2^(n-1) (the halfway point) are k±1, and when squared they become k²±2k+1=2^n(2^(n-2)±1)+1. Therefore, they both square to 1, thus we have two distinct subgroups of order 2 (as long as n≥3, else it would be 1²=(-1)²=1). This directly implies that (Z/2^nZ)* cannot by cyclic. QED.
yup!
I am still really curious if I could go about it with the notion of showing that |5|=|-5| while <5>≠<-5>, because the fact that |5| is consistent in this group family was an interesting thing to show.
yeah that would work
I'm gonna spill the beans now
$(\bZ/2^n\bZ)^{\ast} \cong C_{2^{n-2}} \times C_2$ with the annoying $C_2$ being $\langle -1 \rangle$
WewGhostTbh
so <5> and <-5> would indeed be different, and as you say because |5| = |-5| this implies the group isn't cyclic
Oh so that's why 4 has a primitive root
sure, whatever that means!
A number $n$ has a primitive root iff $(\mathbb Z/n)^\times$ is cyclic
nHail
and the primitive root is the generator of that cyclic group
So 2 is a primitive root of 5
this is really useful for solving some modular equations
Especially equations of the form $a^x\overset{p}{\equiv}b$ (solving for x)
nHail
yeah the primitive root theorem
Question: Given an alternative algebra A, is the subalgebra generated by two commutative, associative subalgebras B and C always associative?
In the special case when B and C are both generated by one element, the answer is yes
That's "Zorn's Theorem" or something like that
I did my group theory midterm and it was pretty easy
Surprised he made it easy like that
It was just like “give example of non abelian order 8 group” and other basic questions
I get disappointed at myself though cause it feels like anytime im met with a question that forces me to think a bit , i fumble
Idk it is what it is
usually because the human mind is really good at pulling up similar problems and solving classes of problems at a time, so when you hit something you have to genuinely think about, it's because you haven't seen something like it before. If you had a basis to approach it from, it would be easy, so difficult (not to be confused with tedious) problems are also novel to you.
if you’re thinking then that should be celebrated
There are problems that are good to learn from, and there are problems that are good to evaluate students on, and they're often not the same. For midterms it's the second property that's relevant.
the best problems to learn from are usually the ones that twist your brain up in knots for a couple days and refuse to let go until you have fundamentally changed how you perceive the properties you're working with (at least a small amount)
when we say splitting field of some poly f(x), it means the minimal field to contain both F and the zeros of f(x), right? So we can say x^2-2 splits on R, but R is not the splitting field of x^2-2 ?
Yes
Though note that the splitting field of a poly is always relative to the field the poly is in and is not unique
so one often says "a" splitting field
I try to understand the word "relative", could you give an example?
let f=(x^-2)(x^2-3), where f is in F[x], if we set F=Q, then the splitting field for f is Q(sqrt2, sqrt3). If we set F=Q(sqrt2), the splitting field is still Q(sqrt2, sqrt3)?
But if you set F=R, then the splitting field is R itself.
yes, is there a non-trivial example?
For example, the splitting fields of x²+1 over Q and R are different?
I'm not quite sure what Potato means by "not unique", but my best guess is: Suppose we know about quaternions, and we ask for splitting fields of x²+1 over R. Alice says "the" splitting field consists of the quaternions of the form a+bj with a,b in R; Bob says it consists of the quaternions of the form a+bk with a,b in R. Those two fields (they are fields) are not the same from the point of view of H, but they are equally good splitting fields.
They are isomorphic, though.
For your example, the splitting field is Q(i) and R(i), right?
Yes, R(i) also known as C. 🙂
If let $p=x^3-2, a=2^{1/3}, b=2^{1/3}e^{i2\pi/3}, c=2^{1/3}e^{i4\pi/3}$, and $F=Q$, let $S$ be the splitting field of p on Q, then the degree of $S$ is 6. However, the degree of $Q(a,b,c)$ is 27, hence $Q(a,b,c)$ is not the splitting field of p. Is this correct?
WT
Is the degree of $Q(a,b,c)$ to be 27?
WT
It's unique only if you fix an algebraic closure
Bruh the fact that all that homogenous and particular solution shit from ODEs and matrix equations are just consequences of group homomorphisms 🤯
I love that kind of stuff
So fun
First time learning this so its prob not cool anymore to others lol
Yeah
The connections between everything
Nah b its still somewhat of a hot topic further in you go. although groups are insufficient for depicting general solutions of PDEs they can give a solution with special properties
there's also ergodic groups and groups that describe dynamical systems
a hot topic you say? I suppose they do have rings there.
bahah
anyone can help me🥹
If let $p=x^3-2, a=2^{1/3}, b=2^{1/3}e^{i2\pi/3}, c=2^{1/3}e^{i4\pi/3}$, and $F=Q$, let $S$ be the splitting field of p on Q, then the degree of $S$ is 6. However, the degree of $Q(a,b,c)$ is 27, hence $Q(a,b,c)$ is not the splitting field of p. Is this correct? The spliting field is not simply put the roots into Q( . )?
WT
yea i understand that, but don't we want to show that $\alpha(r_1 \otimes b_1 + r_2 \otimes b_2) = \alpha(r_1 \otimes b_1) + \alpha(r_2 \otimes b_2)$
okeyokay
How did you conclude the degree of Q(a,b,c) is 27?
or are we fixing r
yeah that's right, if I remember ur question
it was many a moon ago...
okeyokay
alas, I don't think so
huh, why is that so
expand that back out and you'll get like, r_1(x)b_1+r_1(x)b_2+r_2(x)b_1+r_2(x)b_2
doesn't addition of tensors just sum up to addition of cosets or something
yea
that's why it didn't work
i'm confused as to how to show it's a homomorphism then lol
i'll repost the theorem just for you wew ❤️
thanks boss
oh wow this seems annoying
lets call our map out of R x B -> R "f"
then a(r (x) m) = ra(1 (x) m) = rf(1, m) = f(r, m) = rm ok ok just getting some things straight in my head
hopefully you can see that commuting with the scalar product is ok
a(r'(r(x)m)) = a((r'r)(x)m) = r'rm = r'a(r(x)m)
wait yeah I don't buy this. At all
now a(r(x)m)+a(s(x)n) = f(r, m)+f(s, n) = rm+sn, there's no more simplification to be done here
a(r(x)m)+a(s(x)n) = ra(1(x)m)+sa(1(x)n) = rf(1, m)+sf(1, n) = f(1, rm)+f(1,sn) = f(1, rm+sn) = a(1 (x) (rm+sn)) = a(1 (x) rm + 1 (x) sn) = a(r(x)m+s(x) n)
hold on hold on
nw take ur time
there we go
ok
here's the key trick
$\alpha(r \otimes m)+\alpha(s \otimes m) = rm+sn = 1(rm+sn) = \alpha(1 \otimes (rm+sn))$
very devious
bruh usually hungerford verifications are very easy/not hard or tedious
Thanks for the insights @open sluice @tribal moss
WewGhostTbh
no worries, it was fun to think about
very happy I got it
what clued me in is the fact that they specify the ring had a unit
you guys are all awesome here
oh yeaa
wait so here $\alpha(1 \otimes (rm + sn)) = \alpha(r \otimes m + s \otimes n)$?
okeyokay
yeah so the explicit transformations would be
$1 \otimes (rm+sn) = 1 \otimes rm + 1 \otimes sn = r \otimes m + s \otimes n$
WewGhostTbh
right right got it
muchos gracias
sanity check: does this expression equal $\bigl(a_{11} \otimes b_{11} + a_{12} \otimes b_{12} + \dots + a_{1m_1} \otimes b_{1m_1}) \otimes c_1\bigl) + \bigl((a_{21} \otimes b_{21} + a_{22} \otimes b_{22} + \dots + a_{2m_2} \otimes b_{2m_2}) \otimes c_2)\bigl) + \dots$?
I HATE SUMMATIONS
okeyokay
yes
lol i should know this by now but whenever you see a double summation as in the expression farthest to the right is it safe to think of it as a permutation of the indices
it's just the associativity of addition
no, no it isn't
it's linearity
we have $(a_1 \otimes b_1+a_2 \otimes b_2) \otimes c = (a_1 \otimes b_1 \otimes c + a_2 \otimes b_2 \otimes c)$
WewGhostTbh
i see i see
is it $333=27$?
WT
each root has degree of 3
||if I'm not mistaken c is already in Q(a,b)||
Spoilers!!
the most minor of spoilers
Give me your reasoning for why [Q(a,b,c):Q(a,b)] is 3 for example
It's kind of the whole point
c=a^-1*b^2, so c is in Q(a,b), but is there a systemtic way to determine the degree of a extension field, instead of counting them?
well if c is in Q(a, b) it's pretty safe to see that the degree of Q(a, b, c) as an extenstion of Q(a, b) is 1
so c is a redundant zero, but it counts as conjugate
I don't know what that means, my point was that Q(a,b,c) is literally equal to Q(a,b) so as a Q(a,b) vector space it has dimension 1, and is thus a degree 1 extenstion
Does that mean everytime I have to try all combinations to see a parameter can be expressed by other parameters?
yes, my question is there a systemtic way to determine if a parameter is redundent, rather than try all possible combinations?
dunno! If you're quoitenting out by a minimal polynomial then you can read off the degree as the degree of the polynomial
are all tensor product proofs tedious
the minimal poly is p=x^3-2, so [Q(a):Q]=3, [Q(b):Q]=3, [Q(c):Q]=3
it seems like most of them use the universal property
the tensor product is the universal property ;3
yeah. but by the tower law [Q(a,b,c):Q] = [Q(a,b,c):Q(a,b)][Q(a,b):Q(a)][Q(a):Q]
so you can't just multiply these together
but what about [Q(a, b):Q(a)]? on Q(a), p=(x-a)(x^2+ax+a^2)
well if you quotient out by that you won't get a field
so the irreducible part is quadratic, so the degree is 2?
yup!
why can't we stop here, since p can be factorized on Q(a)
why we proceed to factor the quadratic part?
can you factor it over Q(a)?
p=(x-a)(x^2+ax+a^2)
no, the quadratic part
no the quadratic part can't, but my question is why we need to factor the quadratic part?
ok I'm just going to ignore the fact that you're claiming the quadratic is both irreducible and then asking why we need to factor it
We want to extend Q(a) to Q(a, b) so we need to quotient Q(a)[x] by the minimal polynomial of b over Q(a)
I see, thank you!!
i mean you kinda define tensor product via universal property
unless you really want to list out all the properties i guess
if we're considering the space of all maps of $V \times W$ into $X$ to be a module, would we consider $\mathscr{L}(V, W; X)$ to be a submodule of $\text{Hom}_R(V \times W, X)$?
okeyokay
so that the induced operation would be given by $f * g \mapsto fg$ instead of composition
okeyokay
categories with more than one notion of tensor product
No
Bilinear maps are not linear
They seem to be viewing it as a subspace of all maps V x W -> Z of sets
How did you do it?
It’s a bijection in even characteristic
Odd order <=> odd characteristic
(-1)^2 = 1^2
I’d help but I really have no idea how to approach affine varieties over finite fields
Hmm, so at least if q-1 is divisible by 4:
There is the 0 solution.
If exactly one variable is 0, this is the same as solving x^2 + y^2 = 0, which is equivalent to (x/y)^2 = -1. Since q is 1 mod 4, there are exactly 2 solutions. And since there are q-1 choices for y, that gives 2(q-1) solutions. Adding in that any of the 3 variables could have been 0, that's 6(q-1) solutions.
Lastly if all are nonzero. Pick i to be a square root of -1 and rescale the variables by ix3. Then it's equivalent to x^2 + y^2 = 1.
Let f(z) be the legendre symbol, so f(0) = 0, f(z) = 1 when z is a square and f(z) = -1 otherwise.
Then the number of solutions to x^2 = z is 1+f(z).
Now to find the number of non-zero solutions to x^2 + y^2 = 1 pick x arbitrarily. Notice x cannot be 0, 1 or -1. For any given x the number of choices for y is 1 + f(1-x^2). So the number of solutions is [sum 1+f(1-x^2)] where we sum over all x not equal to 0, 1 or -1.
Change variables to x = z-1. Then this is the same as
sum 1 + f(2z - z^2) = q-3 + sum f(2z - z^2)
Where we sum over all z not equal to 0, 1 or 2. Dividing a number by z^2 doesn’t change whether it is a square, so
sum f(2z - z^2) = sum f(-1 + 2/z)
As z ranges over all elements except 0, 1, 2, we have that -1+2/z ranges over all elements except 0, 1, and -1.
Since exactly half of all nonzero elements are squares the sum of f(z) over non-zero z is 0. Removing 1 and -1 from the sum, then gives -f(1)-f(-1) = -2.
So there are q-3-2 = q-5 nonzero solutions to x^2 + y^2 = 1. Counting for the possible values of x_3, that’s (q-1)(q-5) = q^2 - 6q + 5 solutions. Adding in the ones we found earlier there are
q^2 -6q + 5 + 6(q-1) + 1 = q^2
solutions.
you can probably do something similar if q is 3 mod 4, havent thought about it
I mean, that's basically what I'm doing when I'm dividing everything by one of the nonzero terms
Give an example of a subset of a ring that is a subgroup under addition but not a subring
Now how do I go about picking a ring
to work with
Oh yea the fact that any coset of a subgroup H has the same elements as H is almost obvious cause there are at most size of H products and theyre all unique
cuz if ah1 = ah2 then h1 = h2
I think basically any ring will work
Integers under addition and multiplication won't I think
yeah but bZ is also a subring
1?
Is 1 in bZ
no
So there you are hehe
there is no mention of having or not having identity
a set with 2 operations under one of whom it is an abelian group and the other operation is associative and distributes over the 1st operation
so we want the other operation to be either not associative or not distributive
Or just not closed
prof just proved 2nd iso. theorem
some guy asks "so what's the intuition for this? like if I had to prove it what should I think?"
and the prof responds "you'll get intuition from the 4th isomorphism theorem"

what's the statement of the second isomorphism theorem?
They're numbered differently in different texts. 
then I suppose the better question is: what is the statement of the isomorphism theorem which your prof has called the second?
A/(A intersect B) isomorphic to (AB)/B
looks like that'll be fun when I get to it.
Yeah it's not hard to prove it from 1st. iso theorem
aka discussion's greatest moment
consider a homomorphism from A -> (AB)/B
then show the kernel is A intersect B
Everyone can count to 1, and then the rest is some arbitrary permutation
But you only really need to know the first one since the others are kinda just exercises that follow from it
yeah but having the specific forms is occasionally handy
Just prove them as exercises and then hope you remember them 3 years later 
(I didn't remember them 3 years later)
Very simple question:
Classifying all groups of order 98.
Turns out, not so simple and I am in pain
The way I approached it is first via Sylow's theorem --> unique (therefore normal) Sylow 7-subgroup of order 49, so either C_7 x C_7 or C_49, and the Sylow 2-subgroups are all copies of C_2.
The case of the Sylow 7-subgroup being C_49 is very easy, as using semidirect products gives you all possible subgroups here.
However in the case of it being C_7 x C_7, the automorphism group explodes into being isomorphic to the massive GL_2(F_7), so I don't know how to continue from here if I were to use the same method.
I calculated all subgroups of order 2 of GL_2(F_7), but that's still 49 cases to consider, any way to simplify this further?
,w prime factors of 98
uh oh!
so yeah lets consider split extenstions
ok so C_7 x C_7 is order 48 so you'd want to extend it by an order 2 subgroup of GL_2(F_7)
there aren't too many of those I don't think
there are 49 of them sadly
:uponthewitnessing:
How do you know 49?
subgroup of order 2 contains an element of order 2 and the identity, so it's just finding all elements of order 2
So matrix
(a, b)
(c, d)
when squared giving I_2
most of these will produce isomorphic extenstions
right
Are there 49 of these
Huh.
there seems to be 57 of them
now lemme think
Ah. Conjugacy class..
their action on C_7^2 is given by the action on F_7^2, if it's the -I_2 case then this should give us <a,b,c | a^7 = b^7 = [a, b] = c^2 = 1, cac = a^-1, cbc = b^-1>
now staring at this it really looks like some copies of (C_7 \ltimes C_2)
Perhaps elements of the same conjugate class gives the same group?
and since the other matrices are all conjugate in GL(2, 7) they should give isomorphic extenstions
yeah exactly
so there should be two non-abelian groups here + C_49 \ltimes C_2 \cong D_98 for 3 non-abelians in total, plus the two abelian ones for 5 in total
If I understand things correctly, for context I have not done split extensions
Via semi-direct products, for any homomorphism π: C_2 -> Aut(C_7 x C_7) we can form a semidirect product [C_7 x C_7] °π [C_2] here
What I'm wondering and whether I am correct on this, two semidirect products like that are isomorphic as long as im π is in the same conjugacy class of subgroups order 2 of Aut(C_7 x C_7)
by "split extenstion" I just mean a group formed by a semidirect product
Right okay
this is true but I can't remember why...
gimme a min
Yeah that's what I was about to ask about
I'd guess it's this theorem extended slightly somehow
That would make sense
Let $H, H' \leq \text{Aut}(G)$ and consider $X = G \rtimes H, X' = G \rtimes H'$, furthermore let $H = \phi H' \phi^{-1}$ for some $\phi \in \text{Aut}(G)$. Then I believe the map $\theta \colon X \rightarrow X'$ sending $(g, h)$ to $(g, \phi h\phi^{-1})$ is an isomorphism.
WewGhostTbh
I think this is analogous to some linear algebra fact
Hmmm
it will be in our case cause we're viewing our group as F_7^2
Ah yep
I was playing around with the idea of conjugate matrices having equal eigenvalues
but it just seems easier to view it like this
So now the question becomes, how do we show all non-identity, non- -I_2 matrices of order 2 in GL_2(F_7) are conjugate
proof by throwing it into magma
classic
a matrix is order 2 if and only if all of it's eigenvalues are square roots of unity
Huh, magma
so we have 3 possiblities, (1, 1), (1, -1), (-1, -1)
first is the identity, obvs
h u h
But that assumes Diagonalizable
no? it doesn't
Hm, doesn't it
the eigenvalues of any matrix raised to the nth power are the eigenvalues to the nth power no?
yeah I googled it, it's true
I mean, same eigenvalue does not guarantee the same conjugacy class. Or does it
Is it something that holds specifically in this case
Also yeah this should be an isomorphism very easily
similar matrices have the same characteristic polynomial
anyway this is way overcomplicating it
But how about the vice versa
We need that when they have the same characteristic polynomial, then they are similar.
this is still true
so the eigenvalues must still be the square roots of unity
(-1, -1) is central so it's off on it's own
Yep, but there can be more conjugacy classes.
Like
(1 1
0 6)
Is this in the same conjugacy class as
(1 0
0 6)
except everything in (1, -1) is diagonalisable because they have unique eigenvalues with multiplicity one each
again the group theory is simpler 
the group theory was easy until the conjugacy class shenanigans
and once you get that you get everything else
.>
can it be extended to groups of order pq^2 where p divides q-1?
I see no reason why not
this seems too easy.... if g is in the normalizer of <x>, then gng^-1 is a map from <x> to <x> for all n in <x>, and for all members of the cyclic group of x, there exists some integer a such that n=x^a (technically infinitely many, but who's counting?), therefore, g being in the normalizer of <x> necessarily implies that there's some integer power a of x which gxg^-1 maps to, because of the definition of these two objects. Am I missing something?
(other than the second half of the question)
here's the second half, and I'm stuck on the final step, showing that for all 0<=i<n, the elements are distinct. What if a=0?
conjugation is invertible
I know that means something but my brain just isn't taking it nicely
it's a bijection
suppose gxg^-=1, then it must be that gx=g, and then therefore that x=1, so for any non-identity x, that would be a contradiction, ok.
idk why that was so hard
so then for any mappings that give you x^ak=x^am, k must be congruent to m mod n, which means that only one of k or m is in the desired range of 0<=k<n, therefore it must be unique. good
What are the biquaternion unitary groups? There are three choices for the involution: the biconjugate, the complex conjugate, and their composition. I know the first one gives Sp(2n,C). What about the other two?
would we also generate M with linearity in the other components? i.e. we would also consider M to be generated by $(x_1, \dots, x_{i - 1} + x_{i + 1}', \dots, x_n) - (x_1, \dots, x_{i + 1}, \dots, x_n) - (x_1, \dots, x_{i + 1}', \dots, x_n)$ and then similarly for every other component
okeyokay
can somebody please help me understsand why the induced map takes the value 0 on N? or how f being multilinear implies it?
N is pretty much defined to be the kernel of any multilinear map you put on M
I think it means for each i, lol a little poorly worded
assuming this is construction of the tensor product of the E_i's
lol yea i figured
ye
also is this a definition for the action of a on x tensor y
or can it be proved
you can prove it from the construction
you can show that both of these elements are in the same equivalence class of the quotient you've just done
in fact the quotient was designed so that this property holds
yep, specifically that you're quotienting the free module generated by the product, which are finite R-linear combinations of elements in the product of the E_i's
so the elements of the tensor product $A \otimes B$ look like finite sums $a_1 \otimes b_1 + a_2 \otimes b_2 + \dots + a_n \otimes b_n$ right
okeyokay
because A x B generates this quotient module
yep, not uniquely though
hmm okay
this shit is hard to wrap my head around lol
do you know of any good videos which explain em?
actually i found a really good one it seems like
The tensor product of vector spaces (or modules over a ring) can be difficult to understand at first because it's not obvious how calculations can be done with the elements of a tensor product. In this video we give an explanation of an explicit construction of the tensor product and work through several example computations, such as finding a g...
holy fuck this guy is phenomenal
A good way to think about this is when you have two modules A and B, you want to form a bigger space where you can "multiply" elements of A and B together in a bilinear way, like how a(b + c) = ab + ac. The natural way to do this (lol it'll seem natural after a lot of experience at least) is that you take the free module generated by pairs (a, b), and then quotient in such a way that (a, b + c) and (a, b) + (a, c) are equal.
quotienting is literally like, imposing new relations on a structure
in terms of pairs (a, b + c) and (a, b) + (a, c) are different, so you just force them to be the same
yeah that makes sense!!
he was just talking about that in the vid but i think ur explanation really reinforced it
lol but you're right, it's definitely difficult to wrap your head around at first
eventually though this construction is like, THE way to form new structures with relations you want to hold
like you want to find some "universal" structure where certain formulas hold, so you form some free structure, and quotient by those relations
i see, so for example we're just quotienting by distributivity
cuz a tensor (b + c) = a tensor b + a tensor c
similarly scalar multiplication
exactly
so that we can have equality in the bigger space
yeah exactly
got itt, def making more sense let's go
lol and more generally basically every algebraic object is the quotient of some free object
Line bundles be like:
cause like, you have some algebraic structure A, you form the free structure generated by A as a set, and then quotient out by exactly the original relations in A
which is pointless obviously lol, but it motivates the idea that if you want to find certain algebraic objects which have certain properties, you should form some free thing, and quotient out by the relations you want
the tensor product is arguably the most important, because a lot of other objects are formed by taking quotients of the tensor products, like alternating products, symmetric products, any thing where you multiply and want certain weird symmetries/antisymmetries to hold
suppose r1, r2, ..., rn are roots for poly of degree n, then we can prove in general that Q(r1, r2, ..., rn) : Q(r1, r2, ..., r n-1)=1, right? because we have Vieta's formula.
i see that makes sense, thanks!
so the tensor product kinda allows us to "multiply" vectors
kindof, though technically it's the space of "multiplied vectors"
if you really want to form a space where you can do multiplication on vectors, like take a vector space V and be able to arbitrarily multiply them together, you need to start with the ground field K, add in all elements of V, add in all v \tensor w, add in all v \tensor u \tensor w, etc
then (ignoring tensor product symbols for a moment), you can form r, v, rv, vw, vwu, v^2u, all products like that
but it's a very large space lol
it contains V and all possible tensor products of V with itself
i always thought of it as the space of all possible multiplication-like operators between two vector spaces
oh hm yea i'm about to go over ground rings
does this induced linear map T(f_1, \dots, f_n) arise from the universal property of the tensor product? or is it more or less a canonical map
yeah but if you form V tensor W, that's like, JUST the space of two vectors multiplied. It's not a space in which you can multiply vectors, it's the space which contains the product of two vectors
i see, i guess that makes sense
iti doesn't contain any vectors in V, or 3 vectors multiplied together
like would this map just be given by $(e_1' \otimes e_2' \otimes \dots \otimes e_n') \mapsto (f(e_1') \otimes f(e_2') \otimes \dots \otimes f(e_n'))$
okeyokay
It's the unique linear map T such that T(e'_1 \tensor. .... \tensor e'_n) = f(e'_1) \tensor ... \tensor f(e'_n) for all e'_i, yeah
but actually, you need to be careful about just assuming you can define T on tensors and assume that properly defines a map, because tensors are equivalence classes
lol this is a subtle point, but you can't just say define T(a \tensor b) = .....
like you first have to define a bilinear map S: V x W -> X, and then use the universal property to conclude there exists a unique linear map T such that T(v tensor w) = S(v, w)
yeah it seems like all of these proofs are relying on the universal property in order to show that two things are isomorphic lmfao
yeah, that's really common
showing that X is isomorphic to V \tensor W often just means you're showing X satisfies the universal property of the tensor product in a clever way
yeah that makes sense
just to get your hands dirty, prove the tensor product of R^n and R^m is the set of linear maps R^n -> R^m
lol fair enough!
verifications are exercises!
yeah but they're mostly tedious ones/not very enlightening...
like show such and such is a subgroup!
check that it's multilinear!
this shows that it's surjective since this bilinear map induces this linear map out of the tensor product right
the bilinear map that i'm referring to is the one in the last sentence, before "Gives rise"
yeah so the universal property says that for each bilinear map out of E x F there is a UNIQUE map out of the tensor product, giving rise to a bijection

