#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 172 of 1
And the Borel is always the p-Sylow subgroup for q = p?
No, the Borel is not the p-Sylow
^
The unipotent radical of the borel is!
It is in the case p=2 yes
Right, close enough 😆
But for all others it is not a p-subgroup, let alone a maximal one
I don't follow why the char poly being x^2-2x+1 implies M is GL-conjugate (funny fusion system on SL ;3) to an upper triangular matrix
Ah I should note, they are equal for *q = 2, not p=2.
So these are just the unitriangular matrices
yeah sorry that's what I meant
here, does a_(v) denote any product of powers a_i^v_i?
yeah just wanted to clarify
cause in F_4 you can have all sorts of wacky things on the diagonal
Similarity is determined by minimal polynomial. Or alternatively 1 is a root, so the matrix has an eigenvector with value 1
Yeah indeed it will, at the very least, be conjugate in the infinite group GL_2(\bar F_p)
maybe one day I should learn linear algebra
which is sufficient
my guess is a_(v) denotes the coefficients a_i x_i^v_i
That's kinda a cool observation, that for the defining characteristic Sylow structure you can just look in GL_2. Nice.
studying conjugation in different groups on a sylow subgroup.... someone should look into that...
I guess matrices with a certain trace pretty much have the same order 😮
For SL_2 this is true but in general nah bruv
Yeah, for SL_2
Right now in class we started groups, subgroups etc that sort of stuff and for a lot of my hw questions im kinda just pushing symbols around without really a big sort of conceptual understanding of what it means
Is that par for the course at this stage ..?
I know what it “means” but not what it “means”
i don't really see how the induction hypothesis applies here - are we assuming that f(b_1, \dots b_{n - 1}) = 0 for all a_i in S_i for i = 1 \dots n - 1? i would assume that because of induction.. but then we assume that f_j(b_1, \dots b_{n - 1}) \neq 0
are you in 113
Like , uni class code?
I am taking a course at a school in halifax Nova Scotia canad
Canada
oh nvm cuz i told a student named kian to join this mathcord and he was also in an abstract algebra course at my uni
so this particular subgroup is called the centraliser and it's important that it's a subgroup but you probably won't know why for a while
it's a specific example of a stabiliser subgroup
The definition of a group is quite minimal, so you can prove a lot of general things about them just by pushing symbols around. After working a bit with groups and seeing how they arise in different context, you'll hopefully build up a little more intuition about them.
Like are you writing a paper or something? Otherwise I accept
s
I'm happy to give a
too but yeah it's a paper
It's nothing to do with group theory but there are some group theory calculations I just can't do
Alright, I don't feel like I did anything worth mentioning, but if you want to you can credit my username or I can dm my real name.
Probably real name is better?
It's an experimental number theory paper
with a million dollars
Actually I don't remember when you helped me the previous time, but your username is very familiar
wait so does $\sum a_{(v)}M_{(v)}(x) = a_1x_1^{v_1} \dots x_n^{v_n} + a_2 x_1^{v_1} \dots x_n^{v_n} + \dots$?
okeyokay
yeah just an element of A indexed by an element of N^n
ohh ok thanks
yeah ^
Probably just a very common username 
Nono, it's the question I had about the splitting of the group of size p|SL(2, p)|
Turned out I decided not to include this part because the group theory got too hard for me
kindof common, like when working with tensor products instead of writing e_{i_1} \tensor e_{i_2} \tensor ... e_{i_n} you often see e_I where I = (i_1, ..., i_n)
simplifies a lot of formulas
The number of summands depends on n
d_n........... deez............ nuts..............
wtf
yeah also what jagr said
I mean they probably could have called it m, but they can also call it d_n, so why not
dependence tings
I don't remember that, what was the question?
I tried 
Discord et al
Ah right
ok so im trying to understand Ext and how it plays a role in considering the depth of modules over local rings:
let $(R, \mathfrak{m})$ be a local ring. then the depth of $M$ is defined as
[ \text{depth}(M) = \inf_i { \text{Ext}_R^i(R/\mathfrak{m}, M) \ne 0 } ]
what exactly does this have to do with the notion of depth? i get that Ext, in a sense, measures the exactness of the Hom functor, but i'm not sure what Ext = 0 would tell us about the structure of M
ana(functor)mono(morphism)
for the record, im using the projective resolution for Ext
would this proof work for showing that $\bigl(f(X)\bigl)$ maximal $\implies f(X)$ irreducible? Suppose we have $f(X) = g(X)h(X)$ where $g(X)$ and $h(X)$ are non-units and hence of degree greater than or equal to 1. In particular, $f(X) \in \bigl(g(X)\bigl)$, so $\bigl(f(X)\bigl) \subseteq \bigl(g(X)\bigl)$, contradicting the maximality of $\bigl(f(X)\bigl)$.
okeyokay
i guess my current thought is that, considering the projective resolution
[ \cdots \to P_1 \to P_0 \to R/\mathfrak{m} \to 0 ]
then taking the cochain complex
[ 0 \to \text{Hom}(P_0, M) \to \text{Hom}(P_1, M) \to \cdots, ]
then $\text{Ext}^i = 0$ implies that, for every $\varphi \in \text{Hom}(P_{i-1}, M)$ and $\psi \in \text{Hom}(P_i, M)$, $\psi\varphi = 0$, but i'm not quite sure what this tells us about $M$
ana(functor)mono(morphism)
you have to show its a proper subset
but it's basically that idea
yeah
just change subseteq to subset lol
yea true but i'll pass!
(i guess to be specific if f : Hom(P_{i-1}, M) \to Hom(P_i, M), then psi f(phi) = 0 but it doesnt matter too much)
and then for the converse: suppose $f(X)$ is irreducible and that we have $f(X) \subset I$ for some proper nontrivial ideal $I$ of $k[X]$. Since $k[X]$ is a PID, $I = \bigl(g(X)\bigl)$ for some $g(X) \in k[X]$. In particular, $f(X) \in \bigl(g(X)\bigl)$, so $f(X) = g(X)h(X)$ for some $h(X) \in k[X]$. now, $g(X)$ is not a unit and $h(X)$ is nonzero, so since $f$ is irreducible, we must have $h(X) = u$ for some unit $u$. But then [\bigl(f(X)u^{-1}\bigl) = \bigl(f(X)\bigl) = \bigl(g(X)\bigl)]
okeyokay
I think these work
wew can u help me 
tbh with you no probably not
cool
I don't know much about ext
Sylow
alternatively, k[x] PID => (prime <=> irreducible) so k[x]/f not a field <=> k[x]/f not an integral domain <=> f(x) = g(x)h(x) for some other polynomials
let us journey together
im trying to read this paper
Evans, E. Graham; Griffith, Phillip: The syzygy problem. Ann. of Math.
(2) 114 (1981), no. 2, 323–333.
that i found on a list of "accessible papers in commutative algebra"
well I know that if Ext is the zero then Hom(A, -) is exact so P is projective which is nice
i knew that i would use these to like. learn algebra and learn as igo but like. damn i dont know this
aren't all P's projective by virtue of being a projective resolution?
oh I just assumed P was a module and started ranting immediately
yeah see you're applying Hom(-, M) there, different functor
here's the start of this madness
this conclusion is true by virtue of being a cochain complex no?
yea
im just trying to figure out like
how it relates to M
as opposed to the cochain of Hom
hmm I see
here's the paper
for more context
i guess im just trying to figure out what depth really tells us about M
a fair question, I don't really know myself. Thankfully "jagr2808" is typing so we will find out shortly 
if Ext =/= 0 then you have that the cochain isnt exact at the i-th position and then something something
god bless jagr2808
pass to... homoglogoy...
mmm yes
lmfao
this is literally how the last month went when i was studying for my algebra test
The other definition of depth is the length of the longest regular sequence on M.
If M has a regular sequence of length 1, then multiplication by r_1 is injective on M. Then Hom(R/m, M) = 0, because r_1R/m = 0.
If M has a regular sequence of length 2, then consider the short exact sequence
0 -> M -> M -> M/r_1 -> 0
And apply the long exact sequence in Ext(R/m, - ). Since these all have depth >= 1, the Homs vanish. So you have that multiplication by r_1 is an injective map
Ext^1(R/m, M) -> Ext^1(R/m, M)
Hence these must be 0. Just continuing by induction, you see that if M has a regular see of length n, then Ext^<n(R/m, M) vanishes
oh yeah ok that kinda makes sense
i was aware of the definition just not the connection between the two
24 hours of local cohomology by Isengar proves a lot equalities of different but equivalent definitions like this
oh sick
i can't find a pdf so i'll look for it at my uni library
oh nvm i found an older version
this is actually sick
gotta wonder how jagr knows all this stuff
im almost jealous
scratch that i am jealous
never mind knowing it how do you even remember this junk
infathomably real
like I read a paper this afternoon and I've already forgotten 90% of the details
The trick is to just derive it on the spot
that's what I do 90% of the time
and I get it wrong 89% of the time
i dont think this proof works for numbers where its prime decomposition has numerous identical primes (i.e 4, 9, 18, etc.)
It doesn't but it works out anyway
why
(Z/p^k)^* \cong (Z/p)^* \times Z/p^{k-1} for p odd
just fyi, numbers where this isn't the case are called "square free"
so \phi(p)|\phi(p^k)
You can also prove by induction that \phi(p) divides \phi(p^k)
Or use that Z/p^k \to Z/p is a surjective homomorphism of rings
many ways
fast question, what does this symbol represent? it's a multiplicative group apparently?
Seems like that's $F_{11}^\times$, badly typeset. It's the group of invertible elements of the field with 11 elements.
Thifford Cleory (Mantjie)
The field with 11 elements can be represented by the integers modulo 11
The point being, it's all nonzero elements of Z modulo 11.
oh ok
so if i were asked the order of 2 in that group, that would be the same as the order of 2 mod 11?
Yes that's right. N.b. that it's the multiplicative order, so it's 2 times 2 times 2, not 2 + 2 + 2 etc
right. we've only talked about multiplicative order afai aware so that's what i'm going with
Yes indeed the additive order would not be very interesting.
Maybe you can see why :)
;3
the additive order of an element is its multiplicative inverse, no?
the additive group is cyclic of prime order so every non-identity element is the same order
Sort of the opposite. The additive order is how many times you have to add to itself to get 0, but the multiplicative inverse is how many times you must add to itself to get 1
oh to get 0, to get the additive identity. i was still aiming for 1, haha
prime order, so they're all additive order 11. ok i got it now
(except 0 which is order 1 bc of course it is)
:3c

How would one count conjugacy classes of group homomorphisms?
say, from Z/2Z to S_5?
it feels like a simple example but i cant quite wrap my head around it
Z/2Z has elements that are basically 1 and -1, so we need to map the identity to an identity and the element of order 2 to an element of order 2. and there are 2 kinds of elements of order 2 in S5, right? a single transposition, or two simultaneous transpositions. so those would be the 2 conjugacy classes of these homomorphisms
a group homomorphism from Z/2Z to S_5 is the same thing as an element from S_5 of order 2
as we can just asign the generator of Z/2Z to that element
this is correct yes
now the question is how big are those conjugacy classes
ok. i couldve sworn i put 2 on the test and it got marked wrong. but i might be misremembering
there are 10 possible transpositions, and each transposition leaves 3 untouched elements so you pick one of them and transpose the other two, so that's 30 pairs of disjoint transpositions. 40 homomorphisms total
there's also the map sending everything to the identity
oh, that counts? for some reason i thought that distinction was part of the structure we were meant to preserve
why wouldn't that count?
but i guess f(ab)=f(a)f(b) if f(a) and f(b) are both 1 so it preserves the operation just fine
anyway, there are 10 unique 2-cycles (5 choose 2) and 15 (2,2)-cycles
so it should have been 26 in total
the reason why it's 15 and not 30, is because (12)(34) = (34)(12)
wait is the map to the identity its own conjugacy class?
ok clearly something is getting confused here, the conjugacy classes are just a nice way to enumerate the number of maps
there are no conjugacy classes in the set Hom(Z/2Z, S_5) because it's not a group
but
the identity is always in it's own conjugacy class
i got the answers right and i feel decent about the reasoning, even if im not displaying it very well. thank you so much for your help
Can someone help me with a sanity check.. the reals R as a module over integers Z is not a finitely generated module right?
They are not
It's not even finitely generated as a Q-vector space
So even less as a Z module
Think it should be isomorphic to Q^R, which is kinda cursed I guess
Thank you
is there any non-heavy computational way to check closure conditions for matrix groups under multiplication or do you always have to multiply em out
Can someone remind me how I can go about showing $(Z^n)\otimes_{Z} R\cong R^n$ ? I think this is true
i'm this dude's #1 opp fr
HausdorffT1
tensor product should distribute over direct sums
I'll prove it explicitly anyway
And then A otimes_A M = M for any ring A and A-modules M
Got you okay thank you that was straight forward actually
Wew is still proving explicitly 
nah I'll stop now
monoidal closed :3c
just remember that (a_1, a_2) = (a_1, 0)+(0, a_2) and that's basically the whole problem solved lol
$Hom(Z^n,Z) =Hom (\oplus_n Z, n) \cong \oplus_n Hom(Z,Z) \cong \oplus_n Z$
Is this a correct argument that the dual module of $Z^n$ is itself?
HausdorffT1
I buy it
Hom(oplus Z, n)?
?
What
The second term in the equality
Well ig you do use that n is finite
probably a typo, the n turned into a Z
I'm literally too dyslexic to be confused by typos because I don't even notice them
What was the issue? Isn't $Z^n\cong \oplus_n Z$?
HausdorffT1
look at what you actually wrote
Also not sure this is the best notation anyway
Oplus_n Z to me looks like a countable direct sum indexed by naturals
When the colimit preserves left adjoints
I think the point is the moving of the inner product out
You want me to write Hom^n like it’s a trig function?!? Insane
Idk oplus_n is odd
I just replaced it with \oplus^n in my head
Without the context that it's a finite sum I would've also interpreted it as a countable direct sum
This is good
Let $R$ be an integral domain and $(f_1,\ldots,f_n)=(1)$. If $R_{f_i}$ is integrally closed for all $i$, then is $R$ also integrally closed?
Finitely Many Bananas
Is it true that if $(f_1,\ldots,f_n)=1$, then $\cap_i R_{f_i}=R$?
Finitely Many Bananas
You’re welcome
I truly am a 21st Century Schizoid Man
if anyone could help with this 🙏
Think of a suitable automorphism of Z[i] taking one ideal to the other
conjugation mapping?
is quotient group also a normal subgroup?
Typically it’s not even a subgroup
Being able to realize a quotient group as a subgroup (in a natural way) is equivalent to being a semidirect product. Realizing it as a normal subgroup is equivalent to being a direct product
actually, I was studying from herstein, ths first para in the image I attached its mentioned, a normal subgroup of G corresponds to normal subgroup of G*
So, in theorem 2.7.2 proof, I thought the same arguments goes, and
G|N is isomorphic to G* | N*
maybe its very stupid of me to think so
I have changed some notation here
please y'all 😭
You already solved that one, didn't you?
nope ive been dying 🥹
Yes
he had mentioned a suitable automorphism of z[i]... afaik, the only ones that woudl be applicable to this siutation is the conjugation automorphism
but i dont see how that helps
Conjugation maps a+bi to a-bi
like do i just say $\phi(x + yi + \langle a + bi \rangle) = x + yi + \langle a - bi \rangle$
?
okay bozo
or do i also switch it to x - yi...
You would also switch to x-yi
oh, so just conjugate everything?
i wasn't sure for the longest time since i didnt know if i could just... switch the a + bi to a - bi in the principal ideal like that
Like if you want to justify it a bit more consider the quotient map
Z[i] -> Z[i]/(a+bi)
Then compose with conjugation
Z[i] -conj-> Z[i] -> Z[i]/(a+bi)
Then show that the resulting map is surjective with kernel (a-bi)
the z[i] conj is the conjugation automorphism?
Yeah like conj(x + yi) = x - yi
gotcha
okay never mind this was way simpler than i made it out to be
thank you sm
i think i just havent had good sleep
i appreciate the help a ton
just want to be clear on the definition of syzygys:
given a projective resolution
[ \cdots \to P_k \to P_{k-1} \to \cdots \to P_1 \to P_0 \to M \to 0, ]
the $k$th syzygy is $\ker(P_k \to P_{k-1})$?
ana(functor)mono(morphism)
or am i totally misunderstanding syzygys in this context
really cool word, I wonder why they chose it for this
i think it came from astronomy
I ain't takin the projective resolution of Mimas ykwis!?!?!
bros on that Commadore 64
In linear algebra, a linear relation, or simply relation, between elements of a vector space or a module is a linear equation that has these elements as a solution.
More precisely, if
e
1
,
…
,
e
n
...
oh it's cos i got hdr turned on or something
stupid ass windows i bet a commadore 64 works better
e 1 ' ... ' e n ...
wait is the k-th syzygy the kernel of P_k to P_{k-1} or ker P_{k-1} to P_{k-2} because wikipedia says the latter
big if true
yeah nlab agrees with wikipedia here
wikipedia editors probably steal from nlab but dont cite it tbh
they add a "category theory" section to trivial articles and then copy-paste from nlab to look like geniuses
probably
lmfao
ok two more questions
- i looked up "order ideal" and haven't been able to find anything on it outside of this paper, is there some more common notion/alternative name?
- just making sure i understand the usage of Serre k-condition: we just use that instead of the "kth syzygy blah blah blah" so that we can do this over arbitrary rings instead of CM rings?
also i dont really get how it lets us drop the CM ring condition since the theorem from Auslander and Bridger assumes that it's over a CM ring
(if this message doesn't belong here, tell me where to ask)
i am a noob at Galois theory but it showed up during my research. i know (or, rather, i believe) that if the Galois group of a field extension is cyclic then the defining polynomial of that field extension is solvable. does that also imply that the solution to that polynomoal is expressible in real/complex radicals? if so, is there a general approach to find such representation in radicals?
not sure what it means for a polynomial to be solvable but all abelian groups are solvable so you would be able to express the polynomial in terms of radicals
understood, is there some way to actually do it?
not that I know of
maybe there's some nice way you can do it because it's cyclic
but even for C_2 the quadratic formula is pretty stinky!
good point
thank you!
Question: is it true that for every possible finite group G, there exists some finite permutation group such that G is isomorphic to one of its subgroups?
Basically, can permutation groups always form a "supergroup" for any finite group?
this is cayley's theorem and yes it's always possible
in fact, it's true for infinite groups as well you just need to take infinite permutation groups
see if you can prove it
Can an ideal generated by an infinite number of elements contain infinite combinations of those elements?
There is no concept of infinite linear combinations in general
So no?
This came up because I was thinking about the definition of real numbers as equivalence classes of Cauchy sequences of rational numbers. The set of Cauchy sequences can be a ring, and I was wondering if I could define the set of zero sequences as an ideal.
There might not really be a good reason to do this, it just occurred to me that this could be possible
The set of sequences converging to 0 is indeed a (maximal) ideal in the ring of Cauchy sequences
Yeah so I was trying to think of a set of elements that generate it
which lead me to that question of "infinite linear combinations"
Yeah if you allow "infinite" linear combinations here, then sequences converging to 0 would generate the whole ring
In general you need some form of topology/form of convergence to talk about infinite linear combinations. But if you are studying topological rings, you would be interested in closed ideals
what does G/pG mean for an abelian group G
you can consider G as a Z-module
so pG is like {pg : g \in G}
ah i see
how are you doing algtop without alg
you know, im not quite sure
itll be fine
Hey guys quick question; This is false right
if f,g,h,... are polynoms of K[T1,...,Tn] and none of them are associated and all of them are prime then
K[T1,...,Tn]/ <f,g,h...> does not have any nilpotent elements
I thought so too but I cant come up with an example. Im just blanking
No, that is right. if f is prime, then it has no roots or is linear. if it's linear this does nothing, and if it has no roots then this will not have zero divisors
But when I thought about it I came up with the following: I have a primeideal and if its maximal then I would have a Field which then would mean it has no nilpotent elements
Where does the 3rd isomorphism here come from?
The first is just by F being free, the second comes from how the Hom functor commutes with limits, but I was confused by the third step
which one exactly
can u write out which statement
that ur having trouble with
im assuming M^v means the dual of M
nth step means nth === sign, presumably
too hard for me
(f1 +f2 + f3 +f4 +...) --> f1 tensor (f1 +f2+f3....)i think
yeah i dont think its immediate like the other ones for me
or nvm just
do it the usual way ig
whats corollary 5.3 it referennces?
like find a bilinear map to Hom(M,R) x R^n
and then find an inverse for the map that comes out of the tensor product by the universla property
Oh wait, I see. R^n = (R (+) R (+) ... (+) R) n times. Then since Hom_R(M,R) is an R module, Hom_R(M,R) \otimes R = Hom_R(M,R)
So you just distribute the tensor product across the direct sum
yeah
Perfect, thanks!
yeah this is trash its just as u said
nice :d
Consider k[x, y] and f=y-x^2 and g = y.
Then k[x, y]/(f, g) = k[x]/x^2
Im sorry im lost. What would this mean?
Wouldnt I have a nilpotent element then with polynom x
Or did I misunderstand
Yes exactly
Where did you get this statement from? Seems very strange
It was a true or false question from a practice exam
So I was wondering if it was true or false
Would this be true? I think so:
R is Integrityring; then R[T] is integrityring
Yes R[T] means polynomial ring sorry
Sorry one more question:
Is it correct to say: Char(R) = Char(Q(R))?
I know that Char(Q(R)) is smaller or equal to Char(R)
But is it possible to show that its equal?
Its not equal right? Since Z/4Z has char: 4; But the quotientof the ring would be a field and there the Charaktersitik would have to be a prime number
Ah nvm I cant do that example
Since Z/4Z has zero divisors
Any subring of a ring will have the same characteristic.
Ah okay and then since I can see R as subring of Q(R) it holds as true
Thank you!
I'm really dumb and I know that this is true but I can't find a good way to say it. Because h^n=1, |h| divides n. where you assign X is basically "step 1" in the cycle, and suppose you assign X to some bigger value h^d+1 where d=m|h| for some integer m, then you still have an equivalence class modulo |h| in the target subgroup to deal with, which should bring... oh wait.
x to h ~ x to h^(d+1). In the former case, x^2 goes to h^2, but in the latter case x^2=xx, so f(xx)=f(x)f(x)=(h^[d+1])^2, but because d+1 is congruent to 1 mod |h|, it must be the case that x^2 always goes to h^2 (and the argument may be continued for any arbitrary exponent).
I feel like I'm missing something important.
The integers form a group under the shift map, right?
But what is the group structure
but I don't know if s is a group or not
A group involves a map G x G → G, not just a map G → G
So what's the map G x G → G. What's the group operation.
But that's a map N → N
The group operation must be a map N x N → N
Are you clear on what a group is?
Yeah, it's a set that is associative, has an identity, and an inverse
but I'm not given N x N
In particular you will note it has an operation!
Anyway, it's clear to me now that you are just not actually working with a group on N.
I thought you have to be given an operation in a problem?
You are working with the group of functions N → N. We'll call it Fun(N).
lemme just paste the problem. I'm very confused on group operations hold on
Well, your job is to prove it's not a group.
No I am going to tell you your confusion.
You are looking at the set Fun(N) of functions from N to N
Now s is an element of Fun(N), and Fun(N) has a natural operation Fun(N) x Fun(N) → Fun(N) on it.
This natural operation is composition: doing one function after another.
Now I ask you this: despite this not being a group, Fun(N) does have an identity element. What is it?
Remember, this is going to be a map f : N → N.
Do not worry about your particular question yet; you need to understand this
okay, gimme like a minute I need to think about this.
Sym(N) is a symmetric group of all the naturals
I did define this
Is this a definition?
oh woops
Actually, I made a very bad mistake with naming it Sym(N).
Because in fact we typically define Sym(N) differently. I'm going to choose a different name quickly.
Sorry about that confusion.
A definition of the operation, yes.
Please note I'm calling it Fun(N) instead of Sym(N), because Sym(N) refers to something else typically.
okay that looks way better. Fun(N) makes more sense
To answer your question, the identity would be the identity function.
Indeed it would be the function defined by f(n) = n
OK
Now let's look at your question
You have defined s(n) = n+1 and you are asked to show that s in Fun(N) has no inverse in Fun(N)
So let's use contradiction to prove this. Let's say s had an inverse, call it r maybe
What equations would this mean that r and s satisfy?
OK fine that's OK
Let's assume r is a right inverse specifically. What would that mean
?
zz^-1=1
Why is this relevant
This is totally irrelevant.
I'm not talking about right inverses of numbers.
The question says prove that s has no right inverse.
What does it mean to be a right inverse of s? Remember, s is a function.
but s is not a set, it's a function
:|
uhhhh
Do you know what it means to be a right inverse?
lemme get back to you on this in like a day or something. I just started reading this chapter
Trust me, I'm just as frustrated as you are. It's not quite clicking
I have a rough idea of what a group is
but this all to me right now is just set theory stuff it feels like
I think rather than not clicking, you need to read the material preceding this exercise. These words have specific meanings which will have been given.
Whether or not it clicks is secondary to actually being able to reference the meanings.
S is a set, because all functions are sets
but that's beside the point
This is an unhelpful thing to mention
I don't think there's much helpful to mention here tbh. There's too much information asymmetry
🤨
as in they're missing a lot of information that's necessary to even engage in the exercise
Functions having (left or right) inverses can be considered to be a disjoint matter to the elements of groups having inverses really
until you see more of abstract algebra.
I was going to lead by example and just not say anything, but I think this must be said: if you don't have anything helpful to say you can just say nothing
Also - all functions are sets... in ZF.
This need not necessarily be true more generally in terms of encapsulating what a function is.
I view ZF as one way of "implementing" math. Everything is a set.
But the idea of a function is... not necessarily tied to this implementation.
eg. in lambda calc, functions aren't sets, no.
meh, tomato, vegetable
I find it most useful in many cases to see functions as just a subset of a cartesian product because it gets a lot of the higher assumptions about functions out of the way that get baked in inductively (not math-induction). It's certainly not the only way to look at them, but I find the incredibly deflationary effect of "it's just a set" to be quite helpful in many cases.
there are other definitions that have similar deflationary effects that work just as well. I just have a preferred flavor
Well of course, everything is a set is a very handy way of doing math. Your proofs can often quite easily become definition and symbolic bashing
expand into set definition, do some set manipulation, and you have what you wanna show.
a common one I use for my students who I don't think would like the idea of making sets is "a black box that takes in [usually numbers] and spits out a single [usually number] reliably." I find that there's a lot of students that get hung up on functions being either A) continuous or B) algebraic constructions and get really confused by things like logarithms or trig without realizing that we can just assign outputs as we get inputs arbitrarily. I like using the isint (maps integers to 1, non-integers to 0) or the d6 (randomly assigns a number 1-6 to every real number) functions as examples to help break those assumptions.
silly question but i'm a little bit confused about the phrasing here, do we say a monomial occurs if it has the maximum degree in a polynomial f or if it's just simply exists in the expansion of f lol
a monomial a_(v)X_q^v_1 etc occurs in f if a_(v) =/= 0.
So it occurs in f if you see it in f when you write it out :)
lol ok thanks, i always get lost in the weeds
is this a typo? we don't necessarily have X_i^{\mu + 1} equal to X_i^{v_i} right? and if that's the case, we'll get a different polynomial, but what do they mean by the same function?
Seems so.
actually nvm i guess
Oh, we're in a finite field. Indeed.
x^q = x in every finite field (as functions, not as polynomials).
N.b. I mean a finite field with q elements
right... need to recall stuff from field theory
OK this is actually very simple
F_q has q elements. The group F_q \ {0} has q-1 elements
So if x is not zero, what does this tell us about x^(q-1)?
Finish this off by incorporating the x=0 case.
it's the identity and then x^{q - 1} = 1, whence x^q = x
ah yes i remember that
yeah lol
oh yea cuz nonzero elements of field form a group
wait i thinkkkk the group is cyclic
yeah
wait
yea
Indeed, any finite subgroup of a group of units (of any field) is cyclic.
So in particular F_q \ {0} is cyclic.
If you'd like you can prove this via a minimality argument. It doesn't really matter, I'd just keep it in mind.
yeah, i'll come back to it some time
why do we say that we have a "new polynomial" then if the function is the same?
just appearance tings?
The polynomial x^q is not the polynomial x
do you agree with that?
If you do then that's the end of the story.
i don't agree with that, or rather i don't see how that's the case
because they're equal as functions
or do we define them being equal separately
or something
But we're not considering them as functions.
We are considering them as polynomials, which are formal sums.
ohhh
If you want to know some practical reason why we'd want to distinguish it, notice that there are only four functions F_2 → F_2, but there are infinitely many polynomials F_2[x].
Supposing that we denote by, idk, PF(R) the set of polynomial functions R → R on a ring R
There's clearly a homomorphism R[x] → PF(R)
And it is surjective by definition (since we are looking at polynomial functions)
Fact: in the case that R is an infinite domain, this homomorphism is an injection.
I had to remind myself of how the division algorithm works for a sec there lol
ah yeah, i guess that makes sense
wait sorry i'm dense, what is the point you're making here?
.
I'm explaining, in essence, why you have likely not thought about the distinction before.
Since you are so used to working with infinite domains (Z, R, C) where there is no distinction
You can safely not distinguish polynomials and the corresponding functions in these cases bc of the fact I pointed out
ohhh okay i see
Conversely, in finite fields it's obviously false, since you can just take the product of all X - k for every k in the field.
That's constantly zero, and yet not the zero polynomial.
I'm feeling lazy so I won't check this carefully, but come to think of it I think this holds for any infinite ring.
guys I hate to interupt with a simple question but I can't do the last part 🤣
Set up the equations you need to and solve
Oh ofc yes lol.... Pretend I never asked
Sidenote: x . y in this case is equal to (x + 1)(y + 1) - 1 :)
I don't see how that helps
right
thanks
Take it as a hint then.
I have the answer its ok. I just for some reason, was trying to do it in my head
and whilst u may be able to do that... I can not yet
's not about me mate
i don't understand the purpose of assuming this for contradiction/where the inductive hypothesis comes in. we're assuming "if f(a_1, ...., a_n)"so why are negating it?
Oh lol this has as a corollary a weaker version of what I was just saying
Let's see
or are we maybe doing contrapositive or some shit and then contradictoin with that 😭
Yeah
wait rlly or were you saying yeah to something else
cuz you responded in like 1 millisecond
Yeah
Yeah we are doing the contrapositive
I didn’t read anything and just said yeah
I have no idea what we’re talking about
Yeah
Are we trying to show that an element in s has a right inverse (contradiction) or the function s has a right inverse?
I've never heard of a function having an inverse, only elements
like numbers
a function can be invertible though
Did you take my advice and read what the definition of an inverse is, earlier in your book?
to be invertible means that it has an inverse
It does not sound like you’re prepared for AA then
The answer to this can be as simple as 'yes' or 'no.' I'm not invested in your grade or your future or whatever – I'm not your teacher or your dad and there's no consequence to not knowing something. It just takes more time if you don't answer this outright, and that's just annoying.
I am your father
Wew is actually ur dad tho and will publicly embarrass you.
ur a father figure to me tho
I hope I'm not just a father figure, but an enemy to you all 😍 🥰
I will just try to continue through the proof. I have to find a function that, when composed with s, gives me the identity function.
You will be defeated as I am puppet for divine will
Bunker. Sincerely answer me this: if you literally do not know what a term means, how are you supposed to complete the proof involving that term?
Imagine trying to derive the quadratic formula without knowing what the symbol sqrt(x) means
You need to learn the terminology!
I'm glad you've at least got a correct idea, but you're missing a crucial detail here which is unclear if you've realised or not.
Great.
The "1" in that section when applied to this problem is the identity function
Write down, in mathematical symbols rather than words, what a right inverse to s would do. Call such a hypothetical inverse r, and write down the equation it would satisfy.
boys i'm not going insane right, by theorem 1.8 lang means corollary 1.8
cuz 1) i can't find any theorem 1.8 and 2) it seems like he would be referencing the result he just showed
nvm yea that's the case
so here is there any reason why he's not defining the content as the gcd of the polynomial? (we're considering A to be any UFD) because surely there's a generalization of a gcd in the UFD
i know these definitions are equivalent obviously but wouldn't it just be much easier to define it as the gcd
oh nvm
the coefficients are in the quotient field
if i ever write a textbook i'm writing like this mf
Lang often writes like that
so in some sense, either you learn to teach yourself a lot or you don't learn anything at all, and use another text instead
Nah I know I rlly like his style of writing
Imo you learn a lot better that way since you’re always verifying stuff
And usually the proclaimed obvious and trivial things are indeed obvious and trivial
I just find it funny how often he uses it
This is so cap
Ok straightforward, given you’ve seen these things before xD
lang will say things are obvious/trivial/exercise to the reader for things that are in fact not obvious nor trivial
lang is probably better as a "review book" than a studying book tbh
or a problem book i guess
there are just much better texts to use for actually trying to learn the material it hink
yea, i guess it's only obvious/trivial if it's a review
which, if you're taking a second course or even a grad course in algebra and this is your assigned textbook, most likely is
you do realize that if the entire class is just a review, you wouldn't be taking the class right?
surely at some point you're going to be seeing material that is new to you
and at that point, if lang writes like how he does, it may not be so trivial
but yes it is nice to work things out on your own; though i think that there are definitely points where it's just like maybe another resource would be nice to supplement with
s /circle r
r: N->N r(n)=n-1
that should give us the identity.
compose r with s
Can someone give me some pointers for this problem? It was given in my algebra class but I can't figure out a way to do it, which might be because my linear algebra knowledge is very lacking.
all I have deduced is that B preserves the eigenvectors of A and vice versa
For questions like these, there's no way I am supposed to show closure by trying so many products right?
I basically have to show that this is a nonabelain group with matrix mul as binary operation
Choose non zero y such that Ay=y, (an eigenvector y of A of eigenvalue 1), let x=((B-I)^(p-1))y, you see x is a common eigenvector of A and B with respect to eigenvalue 1. The rest follows by induction process.
When ((B-I)^(p-1))y=0 in the first place I need to think
Oh never mind, choose minimal r such that ((B-I)^r)y=0, (B-I)^p=0 so this r exists and 1<=r (<=p), then let x=((B-I)^(r-1))y
Now correct
So I'm trying this problem specifically proving it is a ring homomorphism and it seems like I have a ton of cases to go through is there a more efficient way to do this than saying something like
Case 1: k+l=0
Case 2: k+l>0
Case 3: k+l<0
then breaking these down into subcases
maybe just look at where -1 is sent
Ah so use the fact that Z is cyclic so everything is determined by a generator type argument?
well I'm thinking f(-n)=f(-1)f(n)
Wouldn't you have to say that f(-n)=-nf(1) since it's not necessarily a ring homomorphism
f(1) is 1 by definition
and n*f(1) = n = f(n)
also by definition
What's the name of the theorem that if prime p divides ord(G), there is an element of G with order p?
Is there a epimorphism from S3 to Z3 ? What about Z2
S is the symmetric group
Z is the cyclic group
I thought to Z3 yes due to caley
There’s definitely one to Z_2, <(123)> is normal so just take the canonical surjection S_3 -> S_3/<(123)>
Alternatively the sign function maps into <-1,1>
And Z3
Yeah this is what i thought off
Nah
The kernel would be order 2 and there are no normal subgroups of order 2
Okay. One last question, what about S4 to S3
I thought due to caley
What does Cayley have to do with anything
There’s a normal subgroup of order 4, the quotient must be isomorphic to S_3 because there are no elements of order 6 in S_4
Caley says that for each group of order n there is a subgroup in Sn such that those are isomorph
A fun way to see this is that S4 has 3 copies of C4 as subgroups. And act on them by conjugation.
Yes, you’re going the other way around
You’re asking about Hom(S_n, -) not Hom(-, S_n)
think about it
I thought since its a finite field i have a injective automorphism from K to K
what does characteristic 0 mean
Yup
Yes but if the characteristic is 0
What does that mean about the homomorphism from Z to your field
if some are the same, what does that mean
That if k1 is same as m1 , k and m being my amount of adding
That k-m is my characteristik
Since (k-m) *1 equals 0
Or other way
No all you know is that your characteristic divides k-m
But anyway since it’s 0 what does that mean about k, m?
But in a field i cant have zero divisors right?
Definitely not
Well or k=m is more clean/principled
It’s good to avoid unnecessary proofs by contradiction
Ah okay
So k must equal m cause otherwise i have zero divisors
But this means that my assumption k and m are not same has been nulled
And so my assumption of F finite is hurt
Yes so F cannot be finite
Ah and then in total if char is 0 F cannot be finite
Another way to say this is that every commutative ring including a field has a natural unique ring map from the integers
And the characteristic of a field is the positive generator of the kernel of this ring map
But arent mappings from field to commutative rings always injective
So then kernel is 0?
can someone give me like a 2 sentence summary of group actions? and maybe another 2 sentences on why we care about them? Orbit Stabiliser formula is pretty cool
sylow theorems
cayleys theorem
ig
like men groups will be known by their actions
wreath products usually are nicer to write down if you make a choice of group action
I'm too noob for stuff here but this is how I understand it: You know the "equilateral triangle with labeled vertices, rotations and reflections stuff" when groups are introduced in Interwebs? What really happens is that D_3 (defined in abstract "some set with binary operation blablabla") acts on the set of possible positions of vertices in that triangle.
ah yeah cool thats a good way of thinking about it, groups are simply concepts related by structure that act on sets
The set can be bigger, like you can also think of D_3 acting on hexagon (or 3n-gon generally) with labelled vertices. Now in this case, starting from a labeling L of vertices, some other labeling can be reached and some others are not reachable. That subset of reachable labeling from L is the "orbit" of L, I think.
Sorry bad pic but its Q12
Im stuck on c
Basically the question is show that every proper subgroup of Z x Z that contains C1 is Cn for some n
C1 is the set of all (a,b) with a=b
Cn is set of all (a,b) with a = b mod n
Really wanted to solve it on my own but cant spend too much time or else i wont finish the homework
Seems tricky to me
you can just do this as a chain of homomorphisms, try to find a set of h_n: Z times Z to Cn
you havent covered homomorphisms?
Correct
My break is over, but basically only done intro to groups
SubgroupS, cyclic group definitions
No isomorphism or homomorphism yet
you can still consider the set of maps, then show that the only maps with a preimage that looks like a proper subgroup of Z times Z is closed under the Cn's group operation
Not sure what u mean
I was trying to use just properties of groups and stuff like that i guess
Like using the basica
Basics
Oh yea i mean i was trying to do that but didnt succeed lol
I guess the problem rn is that i don’t intuitively see why this is true
The only way to have C1 as part of the subgroup is if the subgroup in given by some modular equivalence thing? Not sure why
Like it seems reasonable but idk why it must be true
Hmm
Is it cause if u have C1 and then two other elements that cant be related by some mod thing, then it makes it so the subgroup is really all of the group?
Maybe i can show that
Im sorry but can you explain a few parts of this to me? How do know there is a eigenvector with eigenvalue 1? And further how do you know that (B-I)^p=0 unless p is not 2? And what exactly is the induction process here, since I imagine you can't just pull out indefinitely many eigenvectors of eigenvalue 1?
actually it doesn't matter, thank you for the help anyways!
What about this subring of 2x2 matrices then
(We take matrice addition and multiplication as usual)
what is the subring
The bottom bit
like are you asking if the matrices of the form
a 0
0 0
form a subring of the set of 2x2 matrices
right
Well no but I wasn’t sure if that definition implied that it was the 1 in R
I see
the additive and multiplicative identities
showing that they also behave like additive and multiplicative identities for S is a quick lemma
So would there be a name for that S if it’s not called a subring
subset i guess lol
I see
For maximal confusion, some authors will sometimes use different definitions where this is a "subring".
since 0 in S?
So some authors will not ask for the ring and subring to have the same identity elements?
It depends on whether you consider the identity element something that's part of the definition of which ring you're looking at, or simply require rings to satisfy a "there exists an element that behaves like an identity" axiom.
The latter is a bit confusing, but it appears to be sometimes useful when working in the borderlands between rings and rngs.
fridge where did you get your definition from
My notes for algebra
i assume you are dealing exclusively with commutative rings with identity
We don’t have that multiplication is necessarily commutative in a ring for this class
But if it was then the subring would have the same identity element for multiplication I imagine
We are often just given that something is a ring and not necessarily that it is commutative
i guess the 2x2 matrices should have made that clear for me lol
Commutativity is not enough to force identities to match. Consider the subset {0,3} of the integers modulo 6, for example.
I see
Is multiplicative identity not required for rings in some textbooks?
yes
I thought the definitions of rings was the same everywhere given how important the concept seems to be
most i've seen only require a ring to have an additive identity
and a lot of the time you just assume it has a multiplicative identity, if the math you're doing benefits from it
so a lot of books will just say "let R be a ring," but will specify at the start that every ring is assumed to be with multiplicative identity
Fair enough, if it’s specified it probably isn’t too bad to deal with the differences
I think the fact that it's an important concept is why the definition varies.
Different rings come up in different contexts, and if all the rings you care about are commutative you might use the word ring and "commutative ring" interchangeably. Similarly for rings without 1.
what is a group presentation? how does it tell you how the group is defined?
i’ve had to do exercises with groups defined by a presentation in the past which i could get through but i realize i didn’t really understand what was going on
i would like some intuition for it
Yeah i think this solves it, but im curious about other proofs
wait actually smth on wikipedia just gave me the intuition i was looking for nvm lol
- because A has an (actually all) eigenvalue 1, since (A-I)^p=0, so det(A-I)^p=0, det(A-I)=0
- (B-I)^p=B^p-I^p=I-I=0
- there exists invertible matrix S having x as the first column, then S^-1AS=(1, something; 0, A1), S^-1BS=(1, something ; 0, B1). A1, B1 are of size n-1 times n-1 and they still satisfy the conditions of the problem.
is Fp isnt algebraically closed are we sure A has only eigenvalue 1
otherwise yeah i got it
but thank oyu it was super helpful
By induction process then all its eigenvalue is 1
det (A-I)=0 give us one eigenvalue 1, then we still have det(A1-I)=0 for that n-1 times n-1 matrix A1, so in the end A and B are simultaneously conjugate to upper triangular matrices, whose elements on their diagonal are 1, meaning A,B have n many 1 as eigenvalues
how come det(A-I) has a 1 eigenvalue in it though im still a little confused on that
Definition of an eigenvalue
I said det(A-I)=0, that means A has an eigenvalue 1
Do we consider algebraic structures with an underlying object that isnt a set. Like a class.
Im thinking for example:
left/right identities/inverses of functions in general. And to do this you need to consider the class of all functions under composition, right?
Congratulations. You just discovered the category of sets.
monke
(not a joke btw, category theory would be the closest thing to handling something like that)
yh but i dont see why necessary in a sense?
can we not build algebra on top of classes
I mean, proper classes are pretty unwieldly, you need a pretty strong choice of foundations to properly work with them, as opposed to just saying "yeah, there's technically no set of sets but we're gonna pretend there is to define the category of sets and just kinda gloss over some shit"

ive also thought about a similar issue with matrices under composition in general.
Well its the same issue tbh
oh nvm no, those are a set. finite dim matrices.
I'm dumb but what is a class?
how is it different from sets
just a collection too big to be a set
you can't have a set of all sets
you just give it a different name so its not a set?
too big in the sense that it cannot be under ZF
because of russell's paradox
what would the collection of all proper classes be named?
theres some theory about that zzz
well "class" is usually used informally
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Von_Neumann–Bernays–Gödel_set_theory but there's this if you must be formal
In the foundations of mathematics, von Neumann–Bernays–Gödel set theory (NBG) is an axiomatic set theory that is a conservative extension of Zermelo–Fraenkel–choice set theory (ZFC). NBG introduces the notion of class, which is a collection of sets defined by a formula whose quantifiers range only over sets. NBG can define classes that are large...
reminds me. The set of all ordinals is not an ordinal
(not a set)
it's just a notational helper as I understand it
so, the first place you see classes being relevant is probably category, right?
idk where else
if you define Set to be the class of sets, then "X in Set" is just defined to mean "X is a set"
Yeah iirc, "class" doesn't make too much formal sense in ZF(C).
But I am not that well-versed on foundations tbh
there's an area of concern when doing category theory that people call "size issues"
sometimes you bring in the big guns (inaccessible cardinals, possibly one after the other)
Is that what my girlfriend was talking to me about?
so i guess classes are relevant to CT if you're thinking about size issues
but i try not to
Size issues don't matter 
(except for when they do)
So yeah I think if you want to treat them more properly you can work with proper classes with NBG or Morse-Kelley set theory. But otherwise, if you want to be careful even with categories which is often where you'll see the term "class" used, you just take inaccessible cardinals like Rho said
for example, afaik wiles's proof of FLT may or may not depend on inaccessible cardinals in some way, just because it goes through a bunch of algebraic geometry abstract nonsense
but if it does, it could probably be excised out, idk how much (nontrivial) work that would take though
wait wut lol
Actually I'm curious, I know classes don't behave as sets, but I don't actually know how. what statements can you make about sets that you can't make about classes?
i feel like it should be otherwise itd surely be pointed out right? his proof wouldnt work in zf?
all the axioms of ZFC only apply to sets
notably powerset and the filtering one (specification/separation/whatever)
Okay yeah powerset makes sense
Is that cardinal larger or smaller than this one? http://bp3.blogger.com/_eDsYe_W-c-E/R1RGpBaBGBI/AAAAAAAAAdI/6IxcWGAuaVU/s1600-R/Cardinal-Norther,+male+IMG_0048b.jpg
this cardinal looks kind of accessible to me
so probably larger
I don't know where this cardinal is, or where the photo was taken. For me, this is not an accessible cardinal
ah ok, its probably good according to the 2nd answer https://mathoverflow.net/a/35772/478637
proof by faith
I mean my understanding is that assuming the existence of an uncountable grothendieck universe is basically just a formality to make some things easier to state and work with. You should essentialy be able to prove anything you can using it, without actually using the assumption, but it makes some "formal" constructions technically work better
yeah the answers in that MO post seem to suggest so
that is, it can probably be removed pretty easily
i'm mostly referring to the last answer
ok i take back what i said yesterday
how does this hold? isn't cont(bf) going to be a product of powers of primes
and b times cont(f) is not going to be a product of powers of primes
that is, under the assumption that $(bf)(x) = ba_0 + ba_1x + ba_2x^2 + \dots + ba_nx^n$ where $f(x) = a_0 + a_1x + \dots + a_nx^n$
okeyokay
oh
it's because it's we can multiply it by a unit
wait no
not by a unit in K
ok now i'm confused
why not?
never mind i forgot that the definition included negative powers as well
are there any polynomials with content not equal to one which are irreducible in Q[x]? i'm trying to think of some but nothing is coming to mind
Just multiply through a constant
damn you're a mod now
that's crazy
i don't really understand how this "gives us existence of the factorization" - doesn't the first display provide the existence of the factorization? what good does knowing that c = cont(f) have towards the "existence of the factorization"? i know that in a UFD the existence of the factorization is given by a decomposition into a product of prime powers up to multiplication by a unit, but how exactly does c = cont(f) show this?
also how does it follow that each p_i(X) is irreducible in A[X]? how do we know that p(X) has content 1 => p(X) is irreducible? i wrote p(X) = h(X)g(X) and assumed that p(X) had content 1, but what's stopping h(X) and g(X) from having content 1 as well?
Yes, or just do 2x
like is this part in the proof just something i'm missing that follows immediately?
having a brainfart, if $v_1,\ldots,v_n$ is a basis of $L/K$ a finite extension, why does $v_{n}\notin L(v_1,\ldots,v_{n-1})/K$
ShiN
its a basis
obviously it's not a linear combination but what stops it from being a linear combination of powers of v_1,\ldots,v_n-1
what
you dont take the power of basis
yea it needn't be a basis
if there is a power for example x and x^2
then the basis needs to be x,x^2
the basis just does the same as in linear algebra
I know how field extensions work, i'm asking why $v_n$ is still not inside this extension
ShiN
that extension is not the same as the ring generated by the basis
i mean it is if v1,...,vn is a basis of the extension
but that means powers of v1 are among the vi
sure it is, all the elements are algebraic
by definition you cant square a basis and say its in the field
what?
its the same as linear algebra
if $x$ is algebraic over $K$ then $K[x]=K(x)$
ShiN
the basis dont interact with each other
that doesn't matter though since you're taking power...
you need to seperately add the interactions
what are you talking about
what are you talking about
field extensions
I don't think you do
$v_1,\ldots,v_{n-1}$ needn't be a basis for $K(v_1,\ldots,v_{n-1})$ if $v_1,\ldots,v_n$ is a basis of $L=K(v_1,\ldots,v_n)$
ShiN
consider the field extension Q(i,w) where w is the third root of unity
what is the degree of this extension
i'm not sure how that's relevant to what i'm asking. The statement is false anyways as stated, e.g. if I take C/R with basis 1,i then 1\in R[i]
no
uhhh yes
this has degree 4 because (x^2-1)(x^2+x+1)
the basis isnt i,w
it is 1,i,w,w^2
hence degree 4 extension
yes
but thats just because i^2=-1 which is in R
yes....
yes
its still a counterexample to my question


