#groups-rings-fields
1 messages ¡ Page 170 of 1
it must output something in Hom(M,N)
f(phi, n) -> something
right?
what does an element in Hom(M,N) look like? Just some homomorphism right?
Hom(M,N) is defined to be the set of all R-module homomoprhisms from M to N
right
so if you're taking f(phi, n) what would an output look like if it were in Hom(M,N)
u suggested nphi(y)
which is correct but the way you said it did not make snse
so what u probably meant was
that's just what I thought of, but isn't that an element of N and not Hom(M,N)?
what is g?
.
ah
now this g is a map from M to N
and hence this makes sense
it takes elements from M
and spits out elements in N
is x just a variable?
yes
x is the input of the function that is ssupposed to be spitted out from our homomoprhism that we are trying to find
cuz as we said
this f must send things to the set of all R-module homomprhisms from M to N
I don't really get the meaning of g_\phi, n
like I don't get why you need it, what's the purpose of it
we are defining a map
this map must send this (phi,n) to a map
so g_phi,n is our map that we define to be g_phi,n(x) = nphi(x)
this g is our assignment
so like this?
yea
ok so now we have f, we need to show that it is bilinear right? Then we can invoke the universal property?
how does finding an inverse work? Can we not just invert our opertaions?
or is it more involved
huh
ig
we can do some magic
with the Hom properties
cuz we now that they are free
know*
so we want to find another map from Hom(M,N) to M*xN now?
no
u now have u
u want to find the inverse to this u
so its to M* tensor N
but i think this becomes a bit easier if we like
huh
1 sec
like in the universal property diagram
is g actually g
in the diagram
and is f f?
we found g : M* x N --> Hom(M,N) so this induces a map u:M tensor N --> Hom(M,N) such that u o f(x,y)) = g
f(x,y) is just x tensor y anyways
so u(x tensor y) = g now
we want an inverse to u
induces a map u such that u o f(x,y)) = g
this is afforded by the universal property right?
what does this mean?
an inverse map
that is a homomprhism
just like when u show any map is an isomphirms
so like u is a homomorphism from M* otimes N to Hom(M,N) and we want to find a map from Hom(M,N) to M* otimes N?
ok I guess I'm still a bit confused about g
So we now have
u(phi \otimes n) to g_phi, n right?
and we want to find g_phi, n to phi \otimes n?
yes
no
we want to find h : Hom(M,N) --> M tensor N
such that h o u(x tensor y) = x tensor y
the identity map
why does that matter?
R^n tensor R^m is something cool
but the thing is
we could have used that long ago
cuz
we could have went like Hom(M,R^k) is sum(Hom(M,R)) is Hom(M,R)^k which is M* tensor R^k
but i just got lost midway ig
anyways if M = R^n for some n
then R^n tensor N --> (R+R+R+...)tensor N = ( R tensor N ) ^k = N^k
we want to show that our map we defined is an isomporphism
right
we want to show that u is an isomoprhism right?
can we just show injectivity and surjectivity instead of finding an inverse map?
yes but not of this map
to recapa
we have our ingenius map from R^n tensor N to Hom(R^n,N) correct?
the "u" map..
yea
now we know R^n tensor N is N^n
right
and we know Hom(R^n,N) is N^n too
so now we have umm
two isomoprhisms on the left and right
and the bottom is the identity
so what does this tell us
and the bottom is the identity
wait what?
these are all isomoprhism
isomorphisms
think of the square Hom(R^n,N) --> R^n tensor N
and then from R^n tensor N down to N^n
and from Hom(R^n,N) down to N^n
right
So, N^n cong R^n tensor N --> Hom(R^n, N) cong N^n
So now we have a homomorphism from N^n to N^n?
then from N^n to N^n we have the identity
the identity
oh
I see
and so that implies that u is isomorphic?
like by some chain of isomorphisms?
like
can you argue:
R^n tensor N cong N^n cong N^n cong Hom(R^n, N)
So R^n tensor N cong Hom(R^n, N)?
$\cong$
Pancaker
I get the image I think
all good
ok yeah that's the kinda image I had in mind, so we can use that path as the inverse map?
yea by inverting all of these kings
tbh idk if this is 100% correct tho
cuz we didnot use N being f.g
but it works the same if we assume N is f.g but M isnt
like the same map same same everything
oh i see, if both weren't FG then there isn't an identity map between them right?
or wait
uh
how is Hom(M,N) isomorphic to N^n again?
the direct sum - product property of the Hom
Hom( directsum(P_i) , B ) = product Hom(P_i,B)
but since this is finite dimensional
these i's are finite
so the sum and direct product coincide
Hom(R,N) is N
so we get N^n
or whatever
yea honestly once i saw this problem i kept looking if i could use the most cooll fact
in math
which is Hom(M tensor N,P) is Hom(M,Hom(N,P))
10x more cool but i didnt know how to use it here so meh
rip haha
ok so
We can construct a bilinear map from M* x N to Hom(M,N) where (phi, n) gets sent to g_phi, n = nphi(x)
We also have our basic mapping of M*xN to M*otimes N which is also bilinear.
So then we can invoke our universal property, which means that there must exist a unique homomorphism u from M*otimes N to Hom(M,N). But we need to show that this homomorphism is invertible becaue then it is isomorphic. We can do this by showing that M*otimesN is isomorphic to N^n and that Hom(M,N) is also isomorphic to N^n. Since we have the identity map from N^n and N^n, we can use that as our inverse function between M*otimes N and Hom(M,N)
is this the end idea?
barring some specific things I need to prove in the middle, like bilinearity and isomorphism to N^n
that last part
its more like
wait let me write it out
first
do u see that R^n tensor N is N^n
and Hom(R^n,N) is also N^n
yea, I think so
ah ok, cool! Thanks so much, that actually made a lot of sense
yea cool
gl
isomoprhism to N^n is straight forward if u have R tensor N is N
u can do that just the same say as we did this
find a map R x N to N ( f(r,n)) = rn
and then find an inverse
just to cut things short the inverse would be g(n) = 1_R tensor n
oh assuming R has the identity ofc
if R doesnt have identity then everything i said is false
we assume that R has the identity in this class
yea cool
do you have any tips for getting better at algebra?
no
im not any good at algebra or anything in math really
u should ask people who are more serious
wait, does this work even tho we have M* tensor N not M tensor N? is it still isomorphic to N^n?
oh
finite dimensional ofc
yup
đŽ
R is a field remember
and M is f.g
so u basically have two vec spaces that have the same dimension so meh
that was question 1 I think kinda
let me see
yea
take M and N to be Z/2Z
is it possible to show that this isn't an isomorphism by just counting the amount of elements on both sides?
What
queen im honestly watching breaking bad rn for the 10th time
so im not totally focused
sorry
đ sorry
Just out of interest I am learning group theory and using Dummit and Foote whilst supplementing it with Galilean. I noticed that whilst Dummit uses * (any binary operation) in proofs of, for example uniqueness of identity element, Galilean uses x, does this make any difference in the future or can these two approaches be interchanged?
The symbol used (at least in this context) is irrelevant, so you can interchange them as long as you are consistent with it
Ok, which one would you do? Also which book would you recommend me paying more attention to? i.e. focusing on as the main text...
That depends on you. I think Gallian is more beginner-friendly but it has a weird presentation (I remember it talks about homomorphisms or isomorphisms very late in Part A), and it absolutely avoids group actions which I think is pretty silly in retrospect
I think dummit does look more comprehense, hence why I planned on using it
Galilean looks a bit simplified tbh, but maybe it's not and I am just assuming wrong
If you're learning on your own then comprehensiveness on a first pass is often not strictly necessary
I am a physicist and have taken this as an extra course, but I still value my pure maths ability, thus wish to do a good cover of it
Well yeah, it does avoid very technical jargon but I see that as a plus than a minus with its target audience (presumably someone taking a first course in algebra with little or no exposure to writing rigorous arguments)
I have done analysis 1 and am self teaching metric spaces/topology atm
I'm not too worried about how rigoures it is
I see. I think there are multiple textbooks on group theory with a physics audience in mind, but I'm not sure if one of their goals is to establish the results themselves
Ah okay, then DnF should be fine I guess
(usually one wouldn't use any symol for multiplication tbh)
That's what I meant but to make it clear I used x
I see, well Ik in future đ
Feel free to jump around. You can always refer back to relevant sections if something doesn't click.
E = mc2
If only I E = mc cared
So this is the only channel where I can say I really understand

groumps, rimgs, and fielmds
I dislike recalling what shape projective and injective modules give
As a diagram
Maybe I would always try deriving it from exactness of Hom Functor đ
injective is "in"
projective is "out" (It projects!)
Well, that only explains one part
here's how i remember projective: a module P is projective iff for every "bundle" (||or "quotient bundle" from the AG point of view||, epimorphism N -> M) you can lift a map into the base space (P -> M) to a map into the total space (P -> N)
and bundles are like projections
injective: a module Q is injective iff for every subspace X of any space Y (||or subbundle from the AG point of view||, monomorphism X -> Y), you can extend any Q-valued quantity on X (map X -> Q) to a Q-valued quantity on Y (map Y -> Q)
here i am thinking about functions as generalized quantities, like how a scalar field is a number that depends on where you are in the space
cool perspective
Which part is missing? In the diagram for projectives stuff points out of the projective, in the diagram for injectives stuff points into the injective.
Or are you not recalling which map is epi/mono?
Yep, not recalling the arrows regarding the two modules other than the projective module.
Ohh, cool perspective! (And I just discovered someone else already used this expression)
Okay, but there the mnemonic is the same. Injective involves a mono (an injective map) and projectives involve an epi (a projection)
And then you need to figure out one more
Namely, what is given and what is derived as "exists"?
Well, that one should be clear. The one that is just the composition is not derived, because being able to compose morphisms is not a special property
Like you have
$\begin{tikzcd}
& P \ar[dl, swap, "f"] \ar[d, "g"]\
M \ar[r, "h"] & N
\end{tikzcd}$
add the c in boss
Then the fact that f induces g is true no matter what P is, so its that g induces f that is special
jagr2808
Lol using the word derived here is confusing my brain
I'm trying to recall why $x^p-x-t$ is irreducible over $\mathbb F_p(t)$. This is equivalent to the Galois group of the splitting field acting transitively on the roots, which I know are of the form ${\alpha,\alpha+1,\dots,\alpha+(p-1)}$ for a fixed root $\alpha$, however I can't think of a field automorphism that would move the roots like this.
Ocean Man
How about this:
f(x) is irreducible iff t^p f(x/t) = x^p - t^p-1 x - t is irreducible. F[t] is integrally closed, and x^p - t^p-1 x - t is irreducible over F[t] by Eisenstein.
Oops t^p f(x/t) = x^p - t^p-1 x - t^p+1
So I guess that doesn't work
oopsie
Okay, attempt number 2:
It should be clear that alpha is not in F[t], so the minimal polynomial has some other root (alpha + i), so there is a Galois automorphism s mapping alpha to (alpha + i).
Then s^n(alpha) = alpha + ni, and since p is prime ni runs through every number mod p.
One way to see is eisensteinâs criterion applied at t=0
What does "at t=0" mean though.
And an easy change of coords
I'm not seeing this change of coords
So I guess I actually mean at t=infty
Since the change of coords was t \to t^-1
The point being that here you can apply eisensteinâs criterion since the Newton polygon is a straight line with slope 1/p
The intuition is that geometrically your cover defines an unbranched cover of A^1 but such a thing must be totally ramified at infinity because there are no unbranched covers of P^1
I think I'm going to cry
learnt what the newton polygon is at least, cool construction
The Newton polygon is p cool
Itâs definitely easy using ring theory!
(Blumming)
ok, so SE tells me thats Z2 x Z2^k-2
Because 5 = 1 + 2^2 so we can expand 5^n to second lowest order in 2 as 1 + n*2^2 + ? which is only zero when n is 2^{k-2}
and i presume 5 = (1, 1)
wow ok I see how it is
basically what I was saying but way more concise why are you complaining 
We appreciate all wews here
didn't help I was making the proof up as I went
I should probably really learn the pattern of orders of elements mod n but I can just generate them with python so who cares
There isnât a pattern itâs really hard
oh ic
even for n = p^k?
like going off of the proof that 5 generates the part of U_2^k that's not stupid
hmm no wait not so clear
I think the thing is that even for just n = p itâs complex
I donât know a smarter algorithm than multiplying something by itself at most p-1 times
yeah I mean to me it's a total mess but I always just assumed there was some clever galois theory nonsense you could do
Yea it is clear, but it needs some thoughts
I dislike that
Given a set A, free groups are the group component of initial objects in the category where objects are functions f:A -> group G and morphisms are defined to be commutive diagrams in the obvious sense
But, suppose (f:A->G) and (k:A->H) are both initial
then are G and H isomorphic as groups?
initial objects are unique up to isomorphism, and what would it mean for two objects to be isomorphic in this category
right so these 2 objects are isomorphic
which means that there is a unique homorphism a:G->H such that k=af and a unique homormopshim b:H->G such that f=bk
my intuition is that b and k are inverses but im not sure how to prove this
sorry just trying to figure out how to write this without diagrams 
oof
uhh
webwhiteboard then copy paste screenshot? idk how much effort that is tho
so since these objects are initial we have a unique morphism from f : A -> G to itself, the identity triangle obviously
but the triangle H <- A -> G which induces our maps a, b gives us the map ab which also satisfies this identity triangle, so we have to have that ab = Id_G, likewise for ba = Id_H by an identical argument, so a is an isomorphism between G, H
does this work?
I'm using "the identity triangle" to mean like G <- A -> G with the identity map between the Gs
1 sec im gonna draw this lol
the only bit I'm not 100% on is ab satisfying the same triangle
The two objects being isomorphic means that they are isomorphic. But yeah this together with what wew said is how you would show they are isomorphic
the 2 objects being isomprhic means that the objects are isomorphic, not nessecarily the group components r
in this case yes
still checking the details
yeah, they want that the codomains are isomorphic as groups
wait free groups arent isomprhic?
they are, but that's not what you're after
yea
wait no inital objects in this category are free groups sorry
lol
I'm getting mixed up
i was confused
A morphism is just a homomorphism of groups with some extra properties, so an isomorphism is just an isomorphism of groups with some extra properties
yeah I wanted to make this argument but I wasn't sure!
cones as morphisms are scaryyy
Anyway, k=af -> bk = baf -> f = baf -> ba = 1
The image of f is very much not G...
ok @delicate orchid i checked your stuff its perfect!
wow that's a once in a blue moon occurrence
you have baf=ba and deduce ba=1
Because f, G is initial
how does that help here
ba: G -> G is such that baf = f, hence is a morphism in your category. f, G is initial so such a morphism is unique hence equals 1
also unrelated question: if (f,G) is initial then that does not imply (g,G) is also initial where g is a diff function A->G right?
No, only if (f, G) and (g, G) are isomorphic, which need not be the case
thx
đ
idk why i needed that spelled out to me
i think thats what wew said though right?
just condensed
Indeed it is
This argument also, basically immediately, generalizes to any category, i.e. initial objects are unique up to (unique) isomorphism.
yes
nice argument, i just used it to also show that free groups on finite sets of the same size are isomorphic
there's a much quicker argument for that
the map phi is a bijection between the two sets, which exists as they're of equal sizes, the diagonals are the obvious compositions which induce the dotted maps, which are unique and so their composition must be the identity on F(X) or F(Y) depending on the order you compose them
getting condensed
I prefer this argument because I don't have to think about coslice categories
lol
Had another brain fart I need some confirmation on something....I'm thinking that <3> in U(8) is precisely <3>={1,3} right?
3^2 = 1 so yeah
scholze alt spotted
What is that program called?
A modern commutative diagram editor with support for tikz-cd.
quiver my beloved
Not sure how to approach this other than just listing the automorphisms of D_8 and just seeing that there are generators that satisfy the normal properties of D_8. Obviously there's a quicker way involving using the fact that D_8 is a normal subgroup of D_16, but I can't see it.
this is odd, the orbits of elements of D_8 under the action of Inn(D_16) is just the regular conjugacy classes, perhaps there's another automorphism of D_16 which fixes the copy of D_8?
ah no that's not true, {r, rt^2} and {rt, rt^3} are fused
yes yes that's exactly the action of the outer automorphism of D_8
oh wait
the only other outer automorphism of D_16 fuses conjugacy classes of elements of order 8 I think so it's irrelevant here
but why do we have Aut_{D_16}(D_8) \cong Aut(D_8)
Aut_{D_16}(D_8) \cong N_{D_16}(D_8)/C_{D_16}(D_8) \cong D_16/Z(D_16) which is iso to D_8 so that's good
wait ok
what does the notation Aut_{D_16}(D_8) mean?
like
the action of the automorphism of D_16 on the subgroup D_8?
yeah
ok
right
this question seems REALLY stupid!
lol
why would you do it like this?! nobody does it like this!
we still don't know if these are even all the automorphisms!
a previous exercise had us prove that |Aut(D_8)|<=8 so that's fine actually
oh then we're done
so wait
cause we have it's iso to D_8
can you envoke the NC-theorem though that seems a bit
cringe...
it's the one that tells you that the normaliser quotiented by the centraliser is isomorphic to the subgroup of Aut(whatever) that's given by conjugation of elements in the larger group
first \cong in this
I think we've shown that the centraliser is a normal subgroup of the normaliser, but we haven't shown the second part iirc
We only pretty recently started doing things with the automorphism group
ah ok
hmm
maybe then just directly show that Inn(D_16) is D_8 and then D_8 is fixed under these maps?
so they restrict to automorphisms of D_8
and then we know that Aut(D_8) is size 8 or smaller so we're done
that's probably what they wanted you to do in hindsight
sorry
it's all good
anyway see if you can make a rigorous argument out of that 
ok lol
How do i do math without thinking
join another server
To be precise
I want to chase diagram without much thoughts
And memorize algebraic structures such that I do not need to think
some things just aren't diagram chases
Yea, I mean I want to do diagram chasing mindlessly
Not all math, some deserves a thought
but why this channel specifically
Because I face diagram chasing a lot with module theory. (And groups, rings as well ofc)
Diagram chases are just "monkey at a typewriter"
Try your different options (you only have like 2-10 reasonable ones lol) until it works
no thought needed (usually)
Huh, so I've been doing it wrong
Hmm, yea. So my intuition is right that I've been doing it wrong
Should I memorize rules like e.g how monomorphisms act on composition?
Like If f is monomprphism and f . g = 0, then g = 0
mono = injection = left cancellable
epi = surjection = right cancellable
Ahh
(not literally = of course, but with how they work with composition and w/e)
Theyâre not identical, consider Z -> Q as rings, but itâs still essentially surjective because itâs all determined by the image after all
my mummy says I'm epic
Why can you speak to a pharaoh
Who said they werenât a Buddhist monk
Idk "Thifford Cleory", why don't you tell me?
how would i prove that k^2/ p = 1 and that (1 + k^-1 / p) = (1+k)/p? cuz in my proof i think i just assume it, but now that im thinking about it, idk how to prove either lol.
Huh, was that epi
#discrete-math maybe
anyway where can you find a a group theorist with no legs
I laughed too hard than I was supposed to, this shouldn't be this funny
oh damn i thought this was the discrete math channel lol
mb
right where you left them
Just pretend things are sets 
I have hard time diagram chasing sets
If you're working with modules you can literally do that 
Literally just apply functions & preimages
I donât think modules are too screwy with mono/epi either
Yea, they aren't
Or if itâs abelian & small enough
Tho I did not know ring homo is.. well
Because itâs essentially modules
Problematic
Hellfire.
Itâs not problematic
Why, embedding theorem good
Z-> Q tho
Yeah why is that problematic?
Every element in Q is determined by Z in Q
Itâs basically surjective
Maps with dense image in Haus are also epix but not necessarily surjective 
Haus?
category of hausdorff spaces
category of hausdorff mfs
It determines the whole space, not genuine surjective
this is a little bit insane chat but makes sense I think
I see
Wdym
cHaus is algebraic
since i accidentally posted it here, do any of u mind going to discrete-math and answering my question? if not, ill just wait.
continous functions are defined by their values on dense sets right
that's like a thing
Yep
What I said also holds on cHaus
Just not interesting there lol
I guess cHaus is not compact hausdorff
The further cHaus comment is that the forgetful to Set reflects isos or wtv
Yeah
Which is what I mean by algebraic
Yes I know
Wtv, now thats a new word
Cursed
It is
But maps with dense image are still epic in cHaus since they're surjective
But yeah, epic just means itâs basically surjective
monadic categories 
reflects isos??? this crazy talk... what Coexter System we got on this thang?? What's the WEYL GROUP NERD
Not necessarily in the sense of forgetful functor, but you get some internal logic stuff (which is what diagram chasing seems like to me)
I donât care 
what do you actually mean by reflects isos though
I've heard this thrown about
maps isos to isos?
If the underlying function is a bijection, then it was an iso
Uhh F(f) bijection -> f is an iso
Ahhh
So you can pull em back
Or generally, a functor F: C --> D reflects (whatever) if, whenever Ff is (whatever), then f is also (whatever)
So forgetful reflects iso into the simpler category
Absta what are you even saying
(Meanwhile idk forgetful somehow)
ah ok you go backways
whatever can be iso, mono, epi, weak equivalence, ....
cool cool
swag, even
Anyhow
Well I was just rambling
Because you did not show me whatever wtv means
The internal logic of Ring should not look like applying the forgetful functor, because it doesnât preserve monic, epic or wtv?
But internal for modules should
I think
wtv = whatever
Welp.

Now I feel like I learned entirety of math
(just by learning what that abbreviation means)
what
Common ring category L anyway
So bijective morphism is sometimes not isomorphisms. Maybe ring is an example?
Rather, isomorphism might not be bijective
..well, ring isomorphism seems bijective to me
what
They are, if you can map them to sets
???
I have no clue what the fuck you're talking about by this point.
Huh, right.
an isomorphism is an invertible morphism, so if we're working in a concrete category.... I'll let u fill in the rest
I'm trying to grok this
Functors preserve isos moment
This is unrelated?
Was looking for counterexample to: forgetful functor to Set reflects isomorphism.
Topological spaces
Aha!
Again, not gonna find an example in algebra. So topology is your next best bet

just don't consider compact Hausdorff spaces since they are also algebra
Categories which do this are called algebraic for a reason
You gotta have some relational structure
Or be something preimage-y like topology
I donât think topological spaces nicely fall into some model theory language stuff 
Huh, interesting.
Having some trouble proving a theorem without using Cauchy's theorem....here's the theorem.
If G is a group with order p^n, p is prime, show that G must have a proper subgroup of order p. If n>=3 is it true that G will have a proper subgroup of order p^2?
I'm thinking bout proving by contradiction. FSOC assume not. Let g in G-{e}. Then g has order p^k for some k in {2,3,...,n}. Not really sure where to go from here.
sorry lol typo
For the first part, I realize I need to essentially find an element k of G such that <k>={e,k,k^2,...,k^(p-1)}
i.e., some k with order p
k^2=k^2 mod p so Legendre symbol (k^2/p)=1
Not those two terms equal, but taking sum are equal since both are taking sum for units in Z/pZ plus (0/p)
I think some group action approach is best?
In Z/(p^k), what elements will have order p?
Or rather, there is an easiest one
Z/p^k Z yes
oh um let me think
<g> is gonna have order |p^k| and be cyclic for some k
No group action needed since only prime divisor is p but I was thinking just doing Cauchy 
Nope
See here
nontrivial elements
Although I think your picture has errors. It should be sum from k=1 to p-1 in the beginning, so k=2 to p in the end
um an order p subgroup for Z_{p^2}
yes thatâs what I said
I feel like I'm missing something so trivial
whatâs the order of p
p must have order 1 or p or p^2. Can't be 1, might be p?
Thereâs no need to split it up like that, literally just add p, 2p, ⌠till you get p^2
I know the only possible positive divisors of a p^k are nonnegative powers of p up to and including k.
wait
ohh
Donât overcomplicate this one
If you are allowed to use Sylow then use Sylow directly, if not forget this
This is Cauchy not Sylow anyway
okay this makes sense so <p>={p,2p,3p,...,pp}
I mean to prove his statement
Order p not a maximal p-Subgroup
Sylow doesnât require maximal
Just any r such that p^r | |G|
Number of subgroups of order p^r=1 mod p
This is obviously overpowered for this
wait so how does this work for a general group G of size p^n when G isn't Z_{p^n}?
Whatâs the order of g in G
So I said if he doesnât know Sylow then forget this
I'm supposed to prove it's p, but I have no idea why that's even true
<g>={e,g,gg,...,g^{p-1}}
For a nontrivial g in G it must have order p^k for some k in {2,3,...,n}
The subgroup generated by an element is cyclic.
So once we have an element of order p^k for some k, we can reduce it to the cycli case.
right
No need to say itâs n>1, no contradiction needed
Okay
i'm thinking for nontrivial tho so k can't be 1
Pick g that isnât e, and look at <g>, this is Z/p^k Z
because <e> doesn't have order p, so I'm assuming g is not e
Thereâs no need to assume g doesnât exist with order p, also, just take any g with g=/=e
So essentially, you want ot think about it this way:
In the integers modulo p^k, what number, when added to itself p times, will give you zero. Or in other words, what number in {0, 1, ..., p^k-1}, when you multiply it by p, will be divisible by p^k
(aside from 0 of course)
p^{k-1}
And once you have this, thatâs your element of order p

So nontrivial g has order p^k for some k in 2,3,...,n. So then <p^{k-1}> is a subgroup of order p
for such k
Why do you keep saying k isnât 1
because if g isn't k can't be one right?
if g isn't e, and g=g^1=e, then isn't this just a contradiction because g wasn't supposed to be e
I'm saying g=g^1, right?
and then so if g has order 1 (and if g is not e), then we get g=g^1=e
oh god
g^p = e
Now go off and write down the answer to this homework
okay yes to using LaTeX it would be
\begin{proof}Let $g\in G\setminus{e}$. Then $g$ has order $p^k$ for some $k\in{1,2,3,\dots,n}$. For such $k$, $\langle g^{p^{k-1}}\rangle={g^{p^{k-1}},g^{2p^{k-1}},\dots,g^{pp^{k-1}}}$, which has order $p$. \end{proof}
(again, use \langle g \rangle)
Also, it should only go up to g^{ (p-1) * p^{k-1} } since g^{pp^{k-1}} = e
k is 1 to p
k is at most the exponent of p in |G| = p^n
logician
ur right oh god I keep making silly mistakes
So just proofread a bit
guys I'm lost on something about this
How do we know that all the elements of <g^{p^(k-1)}> are all distinct? and that g^{p^(k-1)} has order p. I know based on how we wrote <g^{p^(k-1)}> it's a subgroup of size p
Hi guys, I have the polynomial f(x) = 3x^5 + x^4 + 15x^3 + 12x + 4
and I need to represent it as a product of linear factors, can someone tell me if this question is related to this topic or no?
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4781062/representing-a-quintic-polynomial-as-the-product-of-its-linear-factors
Because the order of g?
If not, try to see how that would contradict the order of g being p^k
If there aren't rational roots, good luck lol. Quintics and above can get really wacky
Famously, you can't solve all quintics with radicals/roots. So it's not just a "put it into a formula" question.
And I don't see anything obvious that would let you factor this one?
oh okay so since g^(p^k), there are p^k elements that are all distinct. So all natural number powers i up to p^k yield g^i being something not already in <g^(p^k)>. That makes sense
Thereâs specific quintics you canât write via roots even 
Not just âcanât do em all with one formulaâ
Well okay it does have a nice real root it seems (unless that rounding error by desmos) so after that you can apply the quartic formula for the other (complex) roots (probably rounding error I think)
But uhhh have fun with quartic formula? Also nasty
This makes sense now too since p^k doesn't divide any of those integer powers 1p^k, 2p^k,...,(p-1)p^k since they're all natural numbers smaller than p^k so it would contradict the minimality of p^k if one of those gave e back
That reminds me
Is there a method to find an algebraic integer root of a (non-monic) polynomial?
For this second part I'm thinking it's false because g may have order p^k with k>1 and k<= n, but g^{p^(k-2)} may not have order p^2 since k-2 could be negative.
right if p=2 I see that
I'm confused how does this help me anser if n>=3, and |G|=p^n, will G have a proper subgroup p^2?
p is prime
I'm confused why is that a case tho, couldn't we just have only one element of order p which I proved in the first part that there is at least one, and another element having order p^2.
hi guys
can someone help me find the galois group for this poly?
f(x) = 3x^5 + x^4 + 15x^3 + 12x + 4
Well, if you have an element of order p^2
Then you are done.
I assume this is over the rational numbers.
It has only one real root, so the galois group contains a double trasnposition (complex conjugation). If the polynomial is irreducible (which it appears to be), then the galois group contains a 5-cycle.
The subgroups of S5 generated by a 5-cycle and double-transposition is D5 and A5, so at the very least the galois group will contain D5.
Now, you say earlier that what you want is represent this as a product of linear factors. I doubt computing the galois group would be very helpful in that regard. I don't know what kind of expression for the roots you're after. There is a general formula for the quintic involving radicals and the bring radical. But the resulting root will just be a useless mess. So I guess you first need to ask why you want to express this as a product of linear factors.
does somebody know how I can prove the existance of the inverse in $\mathbb{F}_p$
(it should not be too hurd, since I need to explain this to one first year student)
damn_guuurl
Do they know about bezouts theorem or Euclids algorithm or fermats little theorem?
Nope, that's the problem
What do they know then?
They only know the definition of a field and finite field and didn't have abstract algebra yet
Like literally
And the proof in the skript is left ad an exercise đ
okay, so a nonzero mod p, means a and p relatively prime, hence a^n and p is relatively prime. By pigeon hole a^n = a^m -> a^n(1-a^m-n) = 0. Since p doesnt divide a^n it must be that a^m-n = 1 (mod p)
so the inverse is a^m-n-1
this is just the proof of FlT
similar proof but without FlT is to consider ab for all b nonzero mod p. If this is never 1, then by pigeon hole ab = ac, but then a(b-c) = 0, which is a contradiction since p is prime
does this mean the poly is radical solvable?
If the Galois group contains A5 it is not. If it doesnt then it will be
I would guess it is not
you said there is a general formula for quintic, is this true? and if so can you send it here (?
The formula is given by transforming the quintic into normal form, the applying the bring radical. A description is given here https://math.stackexchange.com/a/542228/306319
using a quadratic Tschirnhausen transformation, it will take me a bit processing that out 
thanks for linking me up , jagger 
btw
`x = polygen(ZZ, 'x');
L.<v> = NumberField(3x^5 + x^4 + 15x^3 + 12*x + 4); G = L.galois_group(names='y')
G.order()
120`
sagemath says the galois group is S5

so strange that it is not radical solvable, since
my prof, told us to represent the poly as a product of linear factors
what kind of a class is this?
Real Analysis
then Im even more confused
and thats the whole exercise? just write this random polynomial as a product of linear factors?
even if the polynomial had all rational roots, that would be kind of a weird exercise, like what would be the point?
I mean there is a filter that I have to pass in order to enter university, here the university is free to enter like there is no requisites beforehand but there is a whole year where you need to solve multiple puzzles in real analysis and algebra

and this is supposed to be a real analysis puzzle?
yea
Maybe they just want you to prove it has only one real root
that would at least be analysis
That would make much more sense
Why the hell would you need to factor a polynomial in real analysis???
Much less a not-so-nice 5th degree poly
Just graph it 
fake analysis
Yeah this seems more like an algebra exercise with Eisenstein criterion
Polynomials over the ring of regular functions, maybe?
how can you make this metatheorem rigorous
characteristic subgroups are unique under the action of automorphisms of G - that is to say that they are the only orbit representitive, so they are "the something" in G
I guess
so you have some formula describing some subgroup of an unspecified group G. Then if H satisfies the formula sigma H should satisfy the formula too
well if it's characterisitic sigma H is H
I'm not talking up to isomorphism here I mean as sets
ik
but the point is, you prove that every group G has a subgroup H satisfying that formula and that it is unique, therefore it must be characteristic. This is the metatheorem
nice example is Sylow groups, even though they're all isomorphic you wouldn't say the Sylow group unless there's only one of them - and when a Sylow p-subgroup is normal it's characteristic
yeah
I like this intuition
like
the intersection of all sylow subgroups is characteristic
because if S is Sylow, then sigma S is also Sylow
but what confuses me a little is that the definition of Sylow uses the order of the group and the subgroup, which is not purely group theoretic. Although ig this is fine because automorphisms preserve size
you can do it entirely by looking at p-elements
what is a p-element?
an element of p-power order
these all live inside sylow subgroups obviously and generate them
yeah and I hope it's fairly clear you can't make a group bigger than a Sylow subgroup with them
although let me actually think about that
you can?
no nvm that's definitely not true
like if it has more than one sylow, what they generate will be larger
take 2 different embeddings of D_8 inside S_4
you can make 3-cycles here if I'm visualising it right
shame!
yeah?
Maybe some model theory stuff. Like any subgroup that is defined by formula in the language of groups is characteristic.
yeah, but what is the language of groups?
I think this is what they were getting at
because we are also allowed to invoke |H|
Right, you want some second order stuff
You should be able to talk about the order of elements with just first order stuff though
yes, elements is fine
Okay, but so, first order group theory + quantifying over subsets is not enough?
Wait, your meta theorem is not stated as an iff
So it's not saying that every characteristic subgroup is a "the something"
Alright, and you want something stronger than first order group theory?
isnt every characteristic subgroup a special instance of a "the something"? like pick generators and relations, then H can be described in that way inside G
I mean, I guess H is always "the group in the same orbit as H"
Im just asking how to make that precise, not claiming anything
Make what precise?
this might not be true
but idk
If G can have two distinct characteristic subgroups H and H' that are isomorphic this is false
is this possible? because idk
I think the point they may be trying to make here is that sets defined by formulae, without parameters, are characteristic? Like they might be saying "the something" instead of "the something of something else"
But yeah also the uniqueness thing idk
Also, what does the next sentence say. Since it does look like it's clarifying what "the something" means
Context....................... CONTEXT!!!!!!!!
Yeah indeed
Their immediate example of something non-characteristic is something that depends on some other object
So it seems to me what I am saying is correct.
Model-theoretically, they are saying something about definable sets I reckon.
O_p(G) is characteristic? neat
Alright, so at the very least the definition of "the something" should include Z(G') and O_p(G).
So then first order theory is not enough. But if you can quantify over subsets it should be fine.
im reading something and it mentioned "the direct sum of the infinite cyclic group and the cyclic group of order 3", but online i could only find a definition of the direct sum in terms of subgroups. what is it likely they mean?
Z x C_3.
For Abelian groups, like all modules, we usually call it the direct sum.
i get confused when we talk about direct products for Z_n things 
just think bout them partitions
Could someone help me in a thing about rings?
Let us consider the ring of remainder classes modulus m, and take one of its elements [a] (an equivalence class), [a] is not [0]. Why if GCD(a,m) > 1 then [a] is a divisor of zero? That is, there exists another class [b] different by [0] such that [a][b] = [ab] = [0]?
English is not my mother language, I had to translate, I hope it is understandable
m/gcd(a,m) * a = 0 mod m
^
and obviously if gcd(a,m) = 1 this doesn't mean a is a zero divisor cause you're multiplying it by 0 in that case
It does actually
No, wew is correct.
then every element of every ring is a zero divisor.
which is plainly nonsense
welcome again, I remember seeing you once or twice some time ago, and never again đ
In the definition a is a != 0 is zero divisor if there is b != 0 such that ab = 0. You don't take 0 by definition
That is exactly what wew is saying
Clearly there's some miscommunication here, but I think in any case the question has been answered.
Oh yeah, my bad
how long ago? i've come n gone a few times now
Several months
yeah that woulda been the last time i posted, back in the grinder
at the end, the prof did a mistake with the poly, it was incomplete đ¤Ł
Model theory-y?
Multiplication, identity, & inverses 
Basically, thereâs not a whole lot you can do with them, but if you have extra stuff like, say
Totally transcendental, or if thereâs any extra structure, then thereâs a fair bit you can do
The intersection of all definable finite index subgroups is a definable finite index subgroup, if you have a totally transcendental group, for example
Since, if you can define a subgroup H, you can do cosets because a ~ b iff ab^-1 in H is definable
Also, thereâs a way to make Sylow 2-subgroup stuff work?
Ah no I mean a lot of the Sylow subgroup theorems, the subgroup neednât be definable
I think I might cry
But you can do like a connected component of it I think
Which is definable?
Not quite sure how to guarantee itâs a nonempty collection, but intersect ur finite index definable subgroups of the Sylow subgroup
Sharp what are you talking about lol
Why is the group not defineable
Or sorry subgeoup
wait I only care about finite groups
Because you might not have a first order formula for it
Since G is infinite & we guarantee it exists by zorn
Formula for a subgroup?
right so the centre should be definable, for example
Definable = thereâs a first order formula s.t. the formula exactly carves it out
Yeah, $\phi(x)\equiv \forall y. xy=yx$ right?
At least in the profinite case
Dragonslayer Sharp
yeah
A subgroup carved out by phi is normal iff forall g phi(x) iff phi(gâxg) ye?
Anyhow, not sure how to guarantee we have a definable finite index subgroup of the Sylow 2-subgroup
They work out nicely for finite RM groups because itâs a sort of finiteness condition
No infinitely descending definable subgroup chain, for example
Which guarantees those connected components I mentioned exist after you have that definable finite index subgroups exist. Since G is definable and finite index gg
Also, because of how these formulas are built, for any automorphism f, we know phi(x) iff phi(fx)
Because f preserves inverses, multiplication, identity, equality
So definable subgroups canât be shuffled around, though you canât necessarily say itâs pointwise the identity there though
Boytjie mentions definable without parameters, but if you have parameters from any set thatâs fixed under all automorphisms I think you can get away with more
If that set is itself definable we can kinda toss it out, but you can get undefinable stuff fixed under every automorphism. For example: try defining Q without parameters in R or C
Well, the case of R is also
because no automorphisms but still (as fields, in this case ofc)
Pretty sure C is like, omega-(super)stable, funny trolled finite RM or smth?
the descent into madness is complete
Same
Insanity
Well, R is not totally transcendental and is very much so unstable, so it has a lot of nastiness despite any sort of o-minimality stuff you can get?
elgato
R is a commutative ring with unit
Depends on the definition
ehh, basically R[x_1, .... x_n] is a polynomial ring of x_n where the coefficients are taken from R[x_1, ..., x_{n-1}] and you can commutate x_i, x_j when multiplying
consider f:left -> right, where f(r) = r for r in R, and f(x_i) = x_sigma i
try showing that turns into a bijective ring homomorphism pretty nicely?
Invoke da universal ploperty
So two rings are equal up to isomorphism, I guess that would work.
I thought you were supposed to prove equality
ie. there is a ring iso between them which is the identity map
They're not equal as sets
Just like Dedekind cut reals and Cauchy sequence reals are not equals as sets.
Wait, they are not the same set? I think ultimately you get the real numbers, right
im confused what
if you consider the symbol "x" used in both to be equal
then they are equal as sets
x1 + 2x2 in one is 2x2 + x1 in the other, for example
Am I missing something?
I think the issue is when you consider multiplication
is x_1 x_2 the same element as x_2 x_1
sure, but n is finite
and this is a ring?
comm*
oh ok, thats defo worth asking sure
^
Yes
if you wanted non-com you'd write something like R<x_1, ..., x_n>
ok yeah, i didnt think of that detail myself
no idea how poly rings with non-comm
if R is non comm, R[x, y, z] means ???
:thevisceralsoundofthegatesofhellopening:
i feel like u have R[x, y, z] and [x, y, z]R or something 
you make the variables commute with everything ig
R[x_1, ..., x_n] is the monoid ring on the free monoid generated by n elements. Which should make sense without R commutative.
grothendieckfan1 (Ryx)
wait fuck s in S not S in S
0 in N
le troll face
Just a minute. Let's get back to the definition of R[x]. It is a R-algebra, which means it is a commutative ring with a ring homomorphism R-->R[x]. Iterate this definition, we have a comm ring homo R[x]-->R[x,y].
oh yeah R need not be commutative, R<x_1, ..., x_n> is for when you don't want x_ix_j = x_jx_i
Jail.
Do you define a polynomial ring as some weird equivalence class of strings of symbols or how do you make this true?
i uh... no follow for now 
ah N is which power you want for the variables
eh wait (nope me no get)
slam |S| copies of N together than put a ring under it. I don't like this description of the polynomial ring. It SUCKS!!
That âfree monoidâ is commutative

I guess you're defining it as the monoid ring, but then R[x, y] is not literally equal to R[x][y] I guess
It should be finitely supported functions from R --> N^n (or more generally N^S). Which sounds like a polynomial to me
Really youâd want a free (non commutative) monoid if you donât want the x_i commuting?
Well yeah. Asking for isomorphism is the correct method anyways, if you dig deep enough, asking for equality if nonsensical
just take the free object in R-alg nerds...
Since ya know (1,0)+(0,1) is kinda
the singular free object
I never claimed that what I said what noncummutative. I just said poly ring 
You need to fix coherence data for the monoidal structure coming from sums of sets
Then I guess the answer is "yes, it's a stupid question" 
Oh wait no I see now I forgor noncummutative monoid exist. So it should be free cummutative monoid on S, my bad.
can someone elif. wtfs the map 
thats a map from S -> N right
it's not a map it's a monoid
S-tuples of natural numbers, only finitely many of which are nonzero
(Or if you want, finitely supported functions S --> N)
yh so like like like, this is the free commutative monoid right?
otherwise im not making sense still
if it was free monoid, u just have strings, abbbababaababbbab
Yeah my bad it's commie
Is the maximum order of a permutation on 16 elements 140?
Consisting of 3 disjoint cycles of length 7 5 and 4
To verify answers for questions like these, I suggest you look up the relevant sequence on the OEIS, in this case, Landau's function.



