#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 165 of 1
ana(functor)mono(morphism)
(i think)
(maybe it's not true because aR + bR \ne R?)
but i guess if we consider the case where M = <x> (+) <y>, we have something like the submodules <x> and <y> are comaximal
i'm not sure how to see this is true. if $p(x + (p^n)) = 0$ for all $x + (p^n) \in (R/(p^n))[p]$ then why is it not true that $p^{n - 1}(x + (p^n)) = 0$?
okeyokay
aR + bR = R, because a and b are coprime
oh wait yeah
oops thanks
oh maybe i should be considering something like M/aM and M/bM
either that or M/<x>M and M/<y>M, since <x> and <y> are comaximal
If you think about R/ab = R/a x R/b, what are some nice elements in R/a x R/b?
a typical element would have the form (m mod a, n mod b) but i’m not sure of any nice elements
Right, so what are the simplest elements of R you could pick for m and n?
0?
0 is a good one, so maybe picking one of them to be 0 and another as something else simple
Well, ab will just be 0 mod a and b.
So what is a simple element we could find in any ring
1
1 is a good one
yea how is this possible? say $p^{n -1} + (p^n)$ was a generator, nonzero by hypothesis. But then $r(p^{n - 1} + (p^n)) = pp^{n - 2}r + (p^n) = 0$
okeyokay
So an element like (1, 0), it corresponds to something in R/ab
mhm
Does the notation (R/(p^n))[p] mean the submodule annihilated by p or something?
yea
If so p^n-2 is not in there
It should correspond to an element that is 1 modulo a and 0 modulo b
ohh
1 mod a implies it has the form ra+1 and 0 mod b implies it has the form sb
wait maybe the first one isnt true
i think it is tho
oh so would the submodule annihilated by $p$ just be $p^i + (p^n)$ for $i \geq n - 1$
okeyokay
I mean it will be things of the form rp^n-1 + (p^n)
right oops lol
thanks!
does A being a cyclic R-module of order r in R just mean that it's generated by r?
Deeply messed up that they're using \varepsilon instead of \in...
This is a little weird to call it the 'order' but I believe they're saying that A is isomorphic to R/(r). It wouldn't be generated by r, no.
$\varepsilon$
okeyokay
It is generated by a single element, hence the name cyclic :)
;3
:3c
it's kind of insane how you can write every cyclic module as an ideal AND a quotient
quirked up to the max
ah ok thx!
wtf is clifford theory
study of how characters split when restricted to normal subgroups
@coral spindle I'm currently in the middle of setting the foundations to do clifford theory on fusion systems because I am a lunatic
Absolutely epic move…
I had to consider the Clifford theory of blocks recently. All I can say is I do not understand blocks still
they're just funny connected components of the brauer graph :)
just work out the decomposition matrix ;3
wahhh wahh do it for C_2 at the prime 2 and then see if it's so hard nerd
so now do it for any p-group at the prime p
and since all groups are p-groups we are done

wow i missed boy :3cing
Thank u sir I have seen the light

cliffordjie
Rudin moment
let $\varepsilon \varepsilon \bR^+$
Show ann(x+y)=abR
(Remember coprime ideals I and J we have I cap J=IJ
,tex The number of elements not equal to their own inverse will always be even since every element $a \in S$ will have a corresponding inverse $a^{-1} \in S$. A group $G$ of order 4 should have three possible groups by the previous statement. One where there are 0 elements not equal to their own inverse, 2 elements not equal to their own inverse, and 4 elements not equal to their own inverse. However, 4 elements not equal to their own inverse is impossible since a group must contain the identity. Therefore, there are only two possible groups for 4 elements. The idea can be generalized to a group with n elements. There are then $\lfloor \frac{n+1}{2} \rfloor$.
Fuzzy_Alpaca
C_3 only has one element equal to its own inverse
ugh true
What are you trying to do here
trying to generalize it to n elements
Generalise what
Given n elements, how many possible groups are there (except for renaming the elements with different symbols)
Good luck
It’s definitely not linear
Over 99% of the groups of order less than 2000 are precisely order 1024
ok, i'll look up a paper. Thanks
Might be 98%
Doing the number of abelian groups is much more doable if you know a few theorems
Well, you mainly only need one theorem lol
,tex The number of elements not equal to their own inverse will always be even since every element $a \in S$ will have a corresponding inverse $a^{-1} \in S$. For a group $G$ of order 4, the previous statement implies three possible scenarios: one where there are 0 elements not equal to their own inverse, one with 2 elements not equal to their own inverse, and one with 4 elements not equal to their own inverse. However, having 4 elements not equal to their own inverse is impossible, as a group must contain the identity element. Therefore, there are only two possible groups with 4 elements.
Fuzzy_Alpaca
Ok for now, is that good? Before I go down some rabbit hole with this nonlinear stuff
Given 4 elements, how many possible groups are there (except for renaming the elements with different symbols)
Yes there are only two groups of order 4, but I would say that your even argument only holds because the group is order 4
u just haven't discovered the last one
,tex Ah I found an additional thing. If the order of G is even, there is at least one element x in G such that x \neq e and x=x^{-1}. Does that make it more concrete
Fuzzy_Alpaca
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
,tex Ah I found an additional thing. If the order of G is even, there is at least one element x in G such that $x \neq e$ and $x=x^{-1}$. Does that make it more concrete
Fuzzy_Alpaca
Your last statement is true. Just not sure how it will let you achieve your original goal of classifying groups of the same order
,tex My final result is this: If $S$ is the set of all elements of G which are not equal to their own inverse, the number of elements not equal to their own inverse will always be even since every element $a \in S$ will have always have a corresponding inverse $a^{-1} \in S$. Conviently, $\lvert G \rvert$ is even, so the number of elements that are their own inverse is even. So a group of order 4 either has exactly one non-identity element that is its own inverse or all the elements are their own inverse since if the order of G is even, there is at least one element x in G such that $x \neq e$ and $x=x^{-1}$.
Fuzzy_Alpaca
Given 4 elements, how many possible groups are there (except for renaming the elements with different symbols)
there are 2 groups of order 4
Yeah, that's my final conclusion, but is the logic correct? (like the big chunk of text at the top)
your logic here is correct in classifying the possible numbers of elements equal to their own inverses
but more broadly, you have an issue in your approach if you're trying to classify groups of a certain order up to isomorphism which is what you said
which is that the structure of a group carries a lot more information than just the number of elements of order 2 (and it just happens to be true in order 4 that the possible values for this correspond to the two possible groups)
classifying all of the finite groups up to isomorphism in general is an extremely difficult problem. I think the closest thing we have is the classification of finite simple groups, motivated by the Jordan-Holder theorem. However, there are very complicated ways potentially to put simple groups together so that doesn't classify all finite groups.
and there doesn't seem to be any cheatcode that'll tell you the number of groups of order n without understanding which groups exactly they are
however, since you seem interested in the number of elements equal to their own inverses, which are just solutions to x^2 = 1, I suggest generalizing that to the number of solutions to x^p = 1
personally I found a way to show that if G is a group of order n where p divides n, and k is the number of solutions to x^p = 1 in G, then ||k = p mod p(p-1)||
in the case p = 2 this is equivalent to your observation that the number of elements not equal to their own inverses must be even
in your latter case isn't k always 1 or am i missing something
oh right I am stupid
of course
I edited it to make more sense
it just happened that the same reasoning could be used to get a similar condition in the other case but I was silly and didn't notice it's a degenerate case
,w oeis a069420
Is it possible to deduce the weak nullstelensatz from the hilbert nullstelensatz
ok I'm sure it is but how?
It is, and it's a good exercise. Pick a good choice for the ideal in Hilbert's nullstellensatz.
what choice are you referring to?
the implication is immediate
they are asking about nulstellensatz -->weak nulstellensatz, not the other way
Oh yeah mb Idk why I talked about choices at all
I also read it as weak nullst to nullst
I didn't read it that way, I just had the wrong idea in my head.
here's my attempt at showing it:
The weak nullstellensatz claims that V(J) is non-empty for any proper ideal J of k[x_1,...,x_n] with k algebraically closed, because (V(J) is non-empty if and only if there is some point where all of the polynomials in J vanish by the weak nullstellenstatz)
So if we take a proper ideal J and apply the Nullstellensatz, I(V(J)) = \sqrt(J), if V(J) was empty then I(V(J)) would be k[x_1,...,x_n] but the \sqrt{J} cannot contain 1, as that would imply that 1 was in J contradicting the fact that J is proper, so V(J) cannot be empty, showing the weak nullstellensatz
I completely disagree that this implication is "immediate" as it took me 5 minutes of thinking
Are there any errors in the proof for a group of order 4? So for now, I'm not trying to generalize it
I'm just trying to show that a group of order 4 only has two possible groups
to show that
R is a ring , if all R-modules are projective then R is semisimple
do i consider R as a module over itself , take N to be any submodule
and then consider 0 --> N --> R --> R/N
and this is split exact so N is a direct summand of R and im done?
cuz i have shown that every submodule admits a complement basically?
I think this works - you know it splits because R/N is projective right
yes
yurrr
What you have shown is that for a group of order 4, either all elements are their own inverse of exactly two of them are. And that is correct.
But you would still need to show that there is only one group where all elements are their own inverse, and only one where exactly two are.
... yes? lol
when showing that all modules over a division ring is free
why cant i just say if A is a D-module ( or any module in general )
then A is isomoprhic to D^n/ker(phi) where ker(phi) is an ideal of D^n ( which is trivial idk )
i think i messed up the categories or idk
cuz like
this isomorphism is of modules right?
a module isomoprhism
yes so ker(phi) would be a submodule of D^n as a D-module
thinking
like unless A is just a subset of D
this is not trivial
cuz its not a division thing
nah it wouldn't be
do you have the result that tells you that division rings are semisimple
i think we just did it no? cuz all modules over divison rings are projective
exactly, perhaps we can leverage that here?
idk how to hmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmm
same
You can just reuse the proof that every vector space has a basis from linear algebra I guess
does that work despite non-commutativity? epic
okay
Yeah, the proof never uses anything about commutative.
yea
so i go like find the maximal linearly indepednant set
by zorn
and then take any element not in the span
take this set U that element
this is linearly dependant by maximlaity
and then write that element as a lienar combination of the elements in the maximal linearly independant set cuz i can divide now
and im done?
is that how it goes
i skipped linear algebra
That is indeed how it goes
cool
tysm eren jeager
but wait
i will get deducted marks
if i do not shows
show
this is nonemtpy right?
The empty set is linearly independent I guess
So I'm struggling to deal with the group action part of finding the splitting field
I got the order easy enough, but then I think I got (\mathbb{Z}_2 \times \mathbb{Z}_6) when the answer should be (D_6)
StarvinPig
wait jagr srry if someone already asked but are u phd?
i know u teach right
I'm a phd student yeah
oh nice, hope i can get to ur point one day
I'm sure you will
I do rep theory of finite dimensional algebras
Or just homological algebra more broadly I guess
oh wow okay nice
Hi! I recently started learning group theory, and I'd like to know if my proof for the following problema is correct:
"Let $G$ be a group, and let $N$ be a cyclic subgroup of G such that $G/N$ is also cyclic. Prove that $G$ is generated by two elements."
Here is my proof:
Since $N$ is cyclic, there exists $n \in N$ such that $N = \langle n \rangle$. Similarly, there exists $g \in G$ such that $G/N = \langle gN \rangle$. Then, for any $a \in G$, we have that $a \in g^iN$ for some $i \in \mathbb{Z}$.
So $a = g^in^j$ for some $j \in \mathbb{Z}$, Therefore, $G = \langle g,n \rangle$.
Does this look correct?
ucheo
that looks perfect
Yeah nice
u look perfect

Ok fair
Can anyone help me see why a k-module M (k a field) must be isomorphic to some $\bigoplus_{i \in I} k_i$? I know modules are a sort of generalization of vector spaces, but ignoring that and just going by the abstract definition of modules... how would I see this?
reking
It takes a fair bit of work to see that.
And absolutely you must look at more than just the definition.
Anyway, this is equivalent to every vector space having a basis. That’s what this is saying.
The same does not hold for modules in general.
well I understand that actually, that every vector space has a basis i am taking for granted
but what is the link between that and modules over fields, i guess is what i need to see
not sure what you mean by "link"
Are you aware that a vector space is, by definition, a module over a field?
modules over fields are exactly vector spaces
the slight generalisation is that of a "free module"
oh okay, no i wasn't aware of that definition of a vector space
what is your definition of a vector space
whatever your favourite definition is, I suggest you try to convince yourself that they are equivalent.
because that statement is true by the standard definition of a vector space
hmm maybe something that looks like $\bigoplus_{i \in I} k_i$. thats a vector space to me
reking
concerning

have you done lin alg?
yes
ok so you should know that a vector space is an abelian group with scalar multiplication (with the scalars in a field)
and a module is also just an abelian group with scalar multiplication (with the scalars in a ring)
well what i mentioned above is just the set, you need to take it with addition and scalar multipliication and some axioms i suppose...
It's most certainly not just the set! We do not use that notation for mere sets.
well no that is the vector space but I was just making sure you knew the actual definition
tfw Set isn't abelian
i feel like when they give you examples of vector spaces, they don't do it in the form \oplus_i k_i. so you probably think of vector spaces in more ways than just that direct sum
Maybe we should make this question clearer: do you know the definition of a vector space, as found in linear algebra?
not off the top of my head, but i have done linear algebra
is the point that the definition coincides exactly with the definition of modules?
(when the module is over a field)
exactly, yes
i guess i will go through the proof of existence of a basis in a vector space and just insert the word module as i go along
I must underline the fact that this does not hold for modules in general.
just a little sanity check... Perm(G) is isomorphic to S_n where |n| = G, since we can just rename each element of G by {1, ..., n}
yup
consider {Z_p^i,phi_i,j} where phi_i,j Z_p^i --> Z_p^j is just the inclusion
why is the limit of this system divisible
Consider looking at it as subsets (subgroups even) of the circle group in C?
If I’m reading your thing right
(Which inclusion seems like an odd term imo)
oh u mean like
elements that are of order p^n for any n
right?
just to clarify, saying that $a$ has two conjugates is basically saying that if $H = {gag^{-1} \mid g \in G}$ then $|H| = 2$
okeyokay
these are the prufer groups yes
Basically, I think that’s what you have
I remember telling you about these when we were talking about the injective hull of Z_24
yea but
i am now trying to learn about that hahaha
Z(p^\infty) time
if u remember i told u did not understand the answer
Or smth
ah ok, yeah the proof that they're divisible is kind of the same that they're their own injective hulls
I’d think showing it’s divisible would be easier but idk injective/projective hull stuff well so
lemme recall the definition of a divisble group just so I don't have to hold it in my head
a group is divisible if and only if nG = G for all integers n
yea if its divisible as Z-module its injective
the Z-mod action on the p-prufer group is given by n\omega = \omega^n right
idk
has to be
i really dk anything abuot the prufer group and i cant find any resources
like literally
just an nlab and wikipedia
this is just abelian groups atm
which are useless
It’s that direct limit
im not entirely comfy with direct limits
i saw that its Z[1/n]/nZ
Or, ya know, associate subgroup of the unit circle in C
oh true fair point
duh
Yeah lmfao
Direct limits can be presented as a disjoint union of the underlying objects
Showing it’s divisible directly sounds way easier
so now we check out our little z^n doodads, obviously G -> nG bijective if n is coprime to p but what about if it isn't?
what
Especially since I have 0 clue what an injective hull is
what bijective
Modulo the equivalence relation of eventually being equal if you follow successive morphisms
I'm thinking outloud
ok ok
Colimits as induction 
so for example what would Z_3^inf look like
yeah, it's basically an element of the product where morphisms between elements behave as they should
one can see this directly from the diagram
So for a chain of inclusions here you get a sort of disjoint union of them as groups
What does this mean?
the 3-prufer group
i.e lim Z/3^nZ
Moamen, spit Z/3^nZ into the unit circle
the includion of Z_3 into Z_9
how is that
n -> 3n
arent they diff equivalence classes
do you not know about cyclic groups?
Moamen, literally just look at it as roots of unity on the unit circle
i do
then Z_3 is obviously a subgroup of Z_9!
anyway this is the way to go who gives a fuck about cyclic groups they're all in S^1 anyway
This literally makes it very obvious
Z_p^\infty is the group of all points on the unit circle with order equal to a power of p
as in like elements with x^3^n = 1?
correct
Yes
okay
For p=3 ofc
ngl I can't yet see how p(Z/pZ^\infty) = Z/pZ^\infty quite yet, obvious if we replace p with something coprime to p
arent they diff sets
Now imagine how this is a limit of taking (3^n)-th roots of unity
Z_9 = <g|g^9 = 1> then Z_3 = <g^3> idk what your confusion is
Well it still has order a power of a prime, since like x^p^n = 1, then (x^p)^(p^(n-1))
And that’s ur p operation
i thought like
as in Z/3Z and Z/9Z they are diff equivalence classes
it's obvious it shunts all of the grade n elements to grade n+1 but
Because there’s also all the terms of order x^p^(n+1)
Because it’s infinite
I haven't considered isomorphic objects "different" in literally 3 years
So this is passing down via Z/p^(n+1)Z -> Z/p^nZ
I suggest getting into the same mindset (all categories are skeletal) - but your point isn't valid? An inclusion is an injective homomorphism
it need not be a subset
no I'm not following, it's passing up isn't it?
oh no
no yup
I like to reserve inclusion for literal inclusion when it’s a literal subset, but if not then it’s just injection
yup yup yup yup
It’s rotating around the disk
you're raising to the power of p but that drops the order by a power of p
Yep
now wdym
what 😄
oh wait, this is because if we let G act on itself by conjugation then the orbit of a has two elements, so the index of the stabilizer of a is 2 so it's normal
yea
ceral2
x -> x^p
because it sends the order p elements to 1
But we still get the same thing back out
Dragonslayer Sharp
idk just mod p lmfao
like just mod p it
or yeah i would love to divide by p ig
im lost honestly
Try multiplying by p
do u mean the other way around
No
from p^n --> p^(n+1) ?
You know how to go up, by what wew said
How do you go down, multiplying by p
Draw it out for 3^2 and 3^3
Bro I don’t know what to say to that
Map Z mod 27 to Z mod 9
Yeah, now use that to show the group is divisible
can u
describe the group
as the direct limit
with these morphisms?
or nvm
if its easier with
like x^p^n = 1
These are the oppose direction
If you do this, it’s literally inclusion
Use the circle group subgroup and see it’s divisible
Then, use that intuition to show it for the direct limit
Wrote out my solution and I’ll post after
Because I think you should use them at least once
As for injective stuff, I honestly don’t know why you’d use that
But my modules & homalg are sorely lacking
If you wanna try that way too, pass me a defn
Hmmm injective modules le cohomology chungus
Yeah idk why you’d use this here
Injective hulls are the largest essential extensions which SOUNDS important
F-essential subgroups!
whuh
l||et p^infty be the set of all roots of unity with order equal to some power of p. We wish to show this group is divisible, that is to say that np^infty = p^infty. For n coprime to p this is obvious as raising the p^kth roots of unity to n is a bijection for all k if n is coprime to p. So we reduce the case to showing pp^infty = p^infty. Raising p^kth roots of unity to the power of p results in a p^{k-1}th root of unity. This map is surjective, so pp^infty = p^infty. Thus p^infty is divisible.||
different use of "essential" dw about it
a bigger module that has the property that all submodules of that module intersect nontrivially with the smaller module
yea i think i see what ur saying now
yea
i got git
showing its p-divisible works
I see what ur saying
Bro peeked smh
Anyhow, show it’s divisible with the direct limit anyway
and the direct limit is like
It is quite literally the same thing
the union of those and any two elements that differ by some power p are the same?
is that it?
no
or idk
that would be the inverse one
you can include the group of units with order at least p^k into the group of units with order at least p^{k+1} by inclusion
with mulitplication with p
and this time I do mean inclusion
literal subsets of complex numbers
hopefully with this you can construct an isomorphism
okay so the equivalence relation would be like
a ~ b iff a = b mod p^k for some k
or what
no homie look at the definition
of what
filtered colimits 
That’s not symmetric, but you can extend that
It’s kinda just building something inductively
transfinite composites 
is b just asking if we're given some stabilizer G_xi, then we can write it as yG_xjy^{-1} for some y in G and x_j in S?
so a ~ b iff a mod p^i = b mod p^j for any i,j j>i
lets put some sort of grading on the complex numbers thing right
let p^\infty_k = {\omega \in S^1 : o(\omega) = p^m, m \leq k}
then our inclusions in the direct limit is basically saying that every element in p^\infty_k is the \emph{same} as that element in p^\infty_{k+1} - which is obvious when we embed p^\infty into S^1 as the maps are literally set inclusions!
im talking about the direct limit
yes
These two notions of Z/p^n Z and p^n th roots of unity in C are the same?
Like my guy they’re isomorphic
yea
So replace them by roots of unity
ok
And see that your inclusion on the Z quotients
yeah so ur like
talking about the sets {z^p= 1} and {z^p^2=1} , ... and so on>?
No??
so ur tkaing disjoint union of those?
How do you define the direct limit homie
okay fuck my definitions
give me
one
i trust u
lol
let A_i be abelian groups indexed by I
and phi_i,j be phi: A_i --> A_j be homomorphisms
and then consider the disjoint union of A_i
I only got one for general direct limits lying around lol
I lost my spiel by copying and pasting this ffs
define a ~ b iff phi_i,j(a) = phi_k,j(b) for any i,k,j
then the direct limit is the set of all equivalence classes under this relation
thats it
What’s your equivalence relation if A_i is a subgroup of A_j for j>i
is that correct?
Yes
okay
Give an explicit characterization
arent then they equivalent if they are in the same group
Bro no
now lets say \iota_k is the inclusion from the p_kth thing to the p_{k+1}th thing
so consider an element in the coproduct \coprod_{i=1}^\infty Z/p^iZ, call this element a = (a_1, a_2, ...)
this element can only be in the direct limit if \iota^{op}_k(a_k) = a_{k+1}
I think - sharp, thoughts?
I don’t like it
I don't either
For one, that’s not how coproduct should be
if they are the same element ig
Direct sum is cofinitely zero
Yes
yea
So take a union
agreed, something wack is occouring
That’s the inverse limit
But you swapped the arrows
oh for FUCKS sake I hate this naming convention
I know
Wew?
okay
I'm putting an ^op on the inclusion I don't care anymore
Still doesn’t work because coproduct don’t do that
Quotient the coproduct
no.
That coproduct should be a disjoint union, so in set anyway
anyway focus on moamen
Anyhow, moamen convince yourself that if we coherently replace each thing in the direct limit with an isomorphic thing and the squares commute, then we get an isomorphic direct limit
If you have that, then you automagically get the direct limit out of the unit circle one
write out the direct limit
with a mod p^j --> pa mod p^k
being the morphism
so i have the relation being pa mod p^j = pb mod p^j iff a ~ b
ORRRRR
Show it’s divisible by just using how multiplying by p shifts you down a step surjectively
i wanna show that this is the same as the p^k roots of unity for k inte
It is not the whole circle
yea b
mb
if u can help me show this
then both i dealt iwht the direct limit and i can show its divisble
this is how wew did it i think
and i would be eternally grateful
untill the end of the world
That’s basically what I did to convince wew 
Sorry, are you suggesting the direct limit should first be formed in Ab by taking disjoint union?
Yeah because concrete things are quite nice
same thing it's a coproduct
anyone? im super tired
and i wanna sleep and im so stupid now
are you telling me that if.... a = a... then... a ~ a....
is htis correct
The inductive treatment of it via the morphisms won’t work for moamen atm
direct limits make sense i think but im just stupid now so sorry guys
its like what cat said
u can have ur own sense fo eventually getting closer now
of*
Can you not show Z/nZ is iso to the nth roots of unity?
with ur morphism of choice
i can
then do that but more
okay wait
ohh
i think i got u now
if i think of the Z_ns as those circles
then it wont be multiplication by p now right?
it owuld be the inclusion
is that correct?
I find it very funny to think you sat them down because of this
yea mb
i got it now
and now
with the inclusion being the morphisms
a ~ b iff a = b anyways
right?
Yes
so it would just be the disjoint union
So union em
Well don’t disjoint Union
like x is in this iff x^p^k = 1 for any k
They should be very much so overlapping
yea mb adhd
phew well i hope ur grateful u dealt with one of the greatest minds in math history
thanks guys
could i get a hint for c) pls
What’s G_x
stabliser for x perhaps?
I meant for them to write it, but welp consider N is a kernel of some sort
oh shit sorry lmfao
Stabilizer
Consider G/G_x-> Bij(S,S)
Ur the group guy, I was the one interning your domain
“”Hint””
I know p-Prüfer group is divisible obviously. But how do we prove the limit is p-Prüfer in the first place… why it can’t be larger…
Like an element (x_1,x_2,…) such that image of x_i under inclusion Z/p^iZ->Z/p^(i+1)Z is x_ i+1
How do we know that when n large enough it’s constant…
upon the witnessing
Well, for one, it’s inclusion so…
this is what seemed off to me in my little doohicky up above
That’s not just if the map is literal inclusion too btw
hmm
Since x_i ~ x_{i+1}
I really don't like the fact that it's constant forever
I could believe that once it wasn't the identity it was constant forever
I might just be skill issuing here
Oh nvm… I view Z/p^iZ as a subgroup of p-Prufer group , and inclusion Z/p^iZ-> Z/p^(i+1)Z as inclusion of two subgroups of p-Prufer group in the first place…
like don't get me wrong it absolutely is a constant sequence by the definition of a limit lmfao
We have $\phi_i: A_i \to \lim_{\rightarrow} A_i$ and $\phi_j(\iota_{ij}x_i) = \phi_i(x_i)$
Dragonslayer Sharp
but then how do we get anything other than pth roots of unity?
almost like we need a bicomplex going on or something
Well, we get the p^n+1th too
no we don't. Inclusions preserve order
Because inclusion isn’t necessarily surjective
??
what is the representation of a p^2th root of unity in the direct limit
an element from the p^2th set passed up through the inclusions
we cannot place anything in the x_1 slot as then the entire sequence is equal to a pth root of unity
They’re not sequences
So there isn’t an x_1 slot
it's a quotient of the coproduct
So it’s not sequences
this is so much easier when it's over an arbitary category one second
take the direct limit over (N, \leq)
consider the funny triangles
right ok yeah I got it now
Coproduct isn’t functions
you do literally just start at the p^2th root of unity and keep going up
ok you don't have to patronise me
I'm very biproduct pilled from working in R-mod for 2387465 years
tbh there's a good chance i've got direct and inverse limits the wrong way around in my head again
Infinite coproduct not being biproduct 
Classic naming conventions never being confusing
It’s \bigoplus A_i not \prod
(And further quotiented)
happy to know it's not just me fucking this up
there's just something about limits man I can never get a good intuition for them
If you need anything further, try applying ||b) to the fact that N < G_x||
Tf is that emote
Colimits are just inductive-y constructions
thanks!
Limits are screwy
limits are completions of rings but more so
Based
like they're so easy to think about
I think colimits are nicer
I realise now that my general category definition I posted before was for an inverse limit not a direct limit 
Names 
inverse limits and direct limits can go to hell
NOOOOO MY WHOLESOME SEGAL COMPLETION THEOREM NOOOOOOOOOOO
Call em limits or colimits
hmmm... maybe
With appropriate adjectives
I'll call em inverse limits and colimits
So what was it… the person who asked said limit, I assumed he meant limit as in category theory…
it was a colimit
Yes
I think I'm going to cry
Direct (co)limit
Then it’s just p-adic integers?
No
that's the limit
that's just a limit in the dual category 
Direct limits are colimits
p-adics is limit with projection maps
WOW!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
Inverse limits are limits
Oh yeah…
Wew & cog actively getting beat by names
I'm at my fucking limit
welp guess I'm never doing model theory
Well, they’re directed colimits across a bunch of products
based
I need some direction in my life
Same
same
I am dumb… yeah the cone Z/p^iZ to p-Prufer group is universal…
galactic, even
galactic properties
Limit, colimit. Direct limit, inverse limit.
Limit = inverse limit. Colimit = direct limit.
Way under half
Weird collisions like this are always noticed because they’re so obnoxious and annoying
dumb question. for the right direction, we have p divides G and every element an order of a power of p, how does that imply that G is of order p^j for some j \geq 0? what if we have G = p^jm for some m which doesn't divide p and j nonnegative?
m won’t divide p because p prime, but anyhow, see how if a prime q divides G then there’s an element of order q
yeah
Why the restriction (underlined with red) on multiplication?
A vector space is over a field of scalars
This is to define a vector space on a field extension to prepare for the study of constructibility
Here L is a space and K are the scalars
Akin to how we can multiply a vector in R^2 by a real number
But not by another vector
Does this help at all
Sorry for late response, thank you for the help
Isn't the whole point of direct limits that you can construct them in Set (i.e. using the disjoint union).
The construction with direct sums works for any colimit, so then restricting to direct limits is kinda pointless.
Me??
Yeah… I don’t know why some people require colimit defined when index set is direct too, when the general case can also be constructed…
I mean you can construct it either way, but the construction for direct limits is much easier to deal with an has much nicer properties like being exact.
What is the general result about colimit we have?
(Like do we have taking colimit is right exact or something? in what categories?)
(I thought I saw taking colimit is right exact in small abelian categories, something like that, not sure…
Taking colimits is always right exact I’m pretty sure
Where it makes sense to talk about exactness of course
Yeah colimits commute with colimits, because it's a left adjoint. And that works in any category.
In particular it's right exact.
Oh thank you both. I am dumb, I forgot adjoint things F -| G right where G is like constant , G(B)(i)=B G(B)(f)=id B thing right
Wait then what is special for direct limit ? You said exact, taking direct limit preserve monomorphism?
Yes, in Mod R anyway
Like each element in the direct limit is actually mapped to by something in one of the objects in your system. And something is mapped to 0 in the direct limit if it is mapped to 0 by some function in your system
So you have a really explicit description of what the elements in the direct limit are.
Where as for a general colimit, you can think of it as sums of things coming from your objects, but it's pretty tricky to tell when two such sums are "the same".
Yeah, I see
Oh like some arrows having same source and target
I remember i saw counter example of colimit case once , coequalizer used
Yeah, the cokernel is not exact
Thank you. No wonder there is a name of it
I just hope people in the future can call it direct colimit or something 😂
The real question is why care about direct limits, when filtered colimits have all the same nice properties but are slightly more general. And also have a less confusing name 
Are direct limits explicitly on the funny chain category?
I thought they were literally just colimits but with a different name
I see, filtered , interesting
Super annoyingly some people use "direct limit" as a synonym for colimit. Which is just the stupidest naming convention ever
Maybe somebody can help me with this:
There are math overflow comments that the representation theory of the exterior algebra on a ≥3 dim vectorspace is wild, since it is a quotient of a pathalgebra with 3 loops. I cannot find any treatment at all of when quotients of pathalgebras are wild -- only of when pathalgebras themselves are wild. Does anybody have a reference?
If a pathalgebra contains the rose with 2 petals it’s wild right?
So uhhh where did I read that fact 
Something to do with simultaneous diagonalisation of two matrices I’ll have a look for it
I think if there is even one loop in the pathalgebra it is wild. But I am a differential geoemtry phd student and not an algebraist.
The delooping groupoid of the trivial group definitely shouldn’t have wild representation theory I don’t think
You could be right though I’m no expert myself
@rocky cloak thoughts?
No this should definitely be the case - there’s only one parameter to change in the entire rep here
here is what I meant about a single loop making it wild
https://www.math.uni-bielefeld.de/~sek/kau/leit6.pdf
Theorem. If Q is a connected quiver which is neither a Dynkin quiver nor a Euclidean quiver, then Q is strictly wild
Ringel computes a few minimal examples of representation wild algebras
https://link.springer.com/chapter/10.1007/bfb0081230
If you can show that your algebra has one of these as a quotient, then it will be wild
Wait. Aren't direct limits the same as filtered colimits, where the index category is filtered or directed. I think that's why it's named so.
Thanks, that sounds like a great reference
direct limit = indexing category is directed system
filtered colimit = indexing category is filtered category
If it has one of them as sub-algebra it is also wild, correct?
No, I don't believe so. Not without further requirements anyway
Alright, thanks. I'm sure I can reconstruct one of the algebras in this paper as a quotient of an exterior algebra, just need to think so more. So its very helpful 🙂
The algebra he calls (a) is a quotient of the exterior algebra.
Oh really, I was looking at the others because I didn't understand what M_2 is supposed to be
It's just everything of degree two
That means the quotient is the algebra with 3 generators and all products are zero?
Exactly
Wow, it feels like that should appear as a quotient of next to everything
I think its pretty easy to see that this is wild actually.
If (V, A, B) is a represenation of k<a, b> (A and B matrices acting on V)
Then just let X, Y and Z act by upper triangular matrices with I, A and B in the upper right corner and 0 everywhere lese
This will then give a representation embedding of k<a, b> into k[x,y,z]/M_2
should be fully afithful and everything
I'm guessing it works like this: Suppose you have a decomposition of the rep. of k[x,y,z]/M_2 (wich is a rep on V \oplus V), project the decomposition to the first V factor to get a decomposition of V. I can't see why the result is invariant under A, B
Oh is it? I don't actually use them that much lol, I had only just seen it written with direct sum
An argument like this shows that if Phi is any idempotent xyz-linear map on V^2, then it's just given by an ab-linear map on V
So in particular if this is a projection down to a summand, then V also has a nontrivial summand
@chilly ocean
Very nice, thanks 🙂
I was looking at certain families of spherical harmonics, it was a surprise when googling told me that the classification problem I encountered is a classical impossible problem xD
Yeah, there is suprisingly little complication needed before problems become wild
Why are solvable Lie groups and algebras natural to consider?
What's the intuition behind them?
They seem to be closed under various things: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Solvable_group#Properties
They show up in Levi's Decomposition theorem, but they don't seem intuitive.
do you want specifically lie groups or will an exposition about solvable groups be ok
cause I don't know enough about solvable lie groups to comment
Ideally, their relevance to Lie groups would be better.
Wikipedia provides some motivation with solving polynomial equations (in characteristic 0) and Galois theory.
yes that's the classical motivation for them, I'll let someone else with more lie group knowledge answer instead
The original motivation was the Galois theory stuff
For Lie groups / algebras the decomposition here & the associated exact sequence can be seen as showing solvable ideals measure obstructions to being semisimple
oh that's cool
By Cartan's criterion we can also look at the Killing form as measuring this
And in some sense semisimple / solvable are "opposite"
I don't know if there's any great intuition for this in terms of the derived series
Lie groups were originally considered to try and extend Galois theory to differential equations, if I remember my history
So I believe this was the first motivation for working with these
However it was quickly realized that Galois theory doesn't bring much to actually difficult differential equations
i'm a little confused - so given a group K, we say that aKa^{-1} for a in G is a conjugate of K when it's of that form, but we say that H and K are conjugate if H = aKa^{-1}?
H and K are conjugate if and only if.... H is a conjugate of K...
I don't mean to be rude but that's fairly obvious
I thought you were asking more advanced questions a few days ago
As in not group theory
hey group theory can be advanced.....
Good to solidify your basics
Or maybe all the blue names have just blended together
yeah i think i'm mixing up the definition of what it means to a conjugate of K and when H and K are conjugate
are they the same thing
just because it's basically solved and a dead field doesn't mean it's not advanced...
like this is such a minor difference in language I'm surprised you're getting tripped up on it this late in
it's aight i'll just look it up somewhere else
if H is conjugate to K, then H = aKa^-1 for some a
like, by defintiion
of both things
That's not what I meant but I thought okay was the one asking about modules
that could be moamen?
Oh
It seems that Cartan's criterion might follow from the Levi decomposition theorem. That, or the other way around.
Blue names 
blue name [derogatory]
yeah but here in the pic we say that hKh^{-1} is conjugate to K but it's not equal to K
I didn't look at the pic tbh
and yes...? what's the problem?
K doesn't have to be normal in H?
but i thought a conjugate of K had to be equal to K by definition?
??????????????????????????????
bruh
post your definition of conjugate
there could be a conflict of language going on here
It seems that "solvable" should have a geometric motivation that isn't just its historical origin in Galois theory. I suppose the Levi Decomposition should suffice. I don't know what I'm asking for.
Let H be a subgroup of G, acting on the set of subgroups of G under conjugation. For h in H, we say that hKh^{-1} is a conjugate of K (they're isomorphic but not necessarily equal)
Levi Decomposition reminds me of the Witt decomposition of a non-degenerate quadratic form.
well there we go
but they're isomorphic and not necessarily equal?????
yes?
are we considering them up to isomorphism then?
there are three copies of C_4 in Q_8 all conjugate
because fundamentally there's a difference between isomorphism and actually being equal
we're doing the opposite? we're saying they're not equal
Because you've got these nice factors ("simple" ones maybe?) and then this giant horrible factor with "here be dragons" written all over it. In the Witt decomposition case, it's the "anistropic" factor, and in the Levi decomposition it's the solvable subalgebra.
I have absolutely no idea where on earth you got the idea that conjugates are equal
perhaps phrasing it as
"two subgroups are conjugate if they're in the same orbit given by the action of conjugation by some larger group"
makes it clearer?
yeah sure thanks
It uses Jordan decomposition which can be seen as a speciation / variant of Levi's
What did you do to me!!!
Though they are distinct
smote
could i get a hint for this question pls
think about the elements of H that are fixed by conjugation from G
yeah that's what i was considering earlier, here I let G act on H by conjugation but that gives H is congruent to H_0 mod p where H_0 = {h in H | gh = hg for all g in G}...
and H_0 is exactly the intersection of H with the center of G i believe
wait i'm stupid is that it
cuz |H_0| \geq 1
Was searching around, didn't really find anything specific - has any study of the direct limit of the cayley dickson algebras been done? The most I could find were some stackexchange threads that culminated in "rather than looking at the direct limit of CD, just find the minimal CD algebra that contains your the two elements that are being operated"
"speciation"?
oh wait no this wouldn't work bc they could both have remainder 1 when divided by p
fuckkkk
Sorry this is a nonsense term here
I meant as in Levi decomposition can be seen as a generalisation of Jordan decomposition
So Levi => Jordan => Cartan's criterion?
I don't see how Levi => Jordan.
You'd have to see an element g of a Lie group G as somehow giving rise to a Lie group in its own right, which you then decompose.
The Jordan decomposition of a linear operator has a case for (the Lie algebra of) endomorphisms of a vector space
Sorry I was a little vague I do not believe it directly implies this
Spiritually, they look similar. Just look at the terminology.
Hmmmm is one the decategorification of the other? 🧐
You might actually be able to recover Jordan decomp from Levi via the adjoint representation
Sorry I just got back from lunch and am a little distracted so those last couple messages are a little nonsensical
I have a problem
L commutative field and K a subfield of L with K≠L s.t. for every a in L\K, there is b in L\K with a+b in K and ab in K. If 1+1≠0 show there is x in L\K with x^2 in K and L={a+bx| a,b in K}
I supposed that for every x in L\K, x^2 in L\K
So x+x^2 in K and x^3 in K
If 1+x in K then x(x+1)=a with in K so x=a(1+x)^-1 so x in K false
So 1+x in L\K for every x in L\K
|H| divides |G|
And |H| > 1
If 1 in K: 1+x=b with b in K so x=b-1 but because K subfield then x in K false
So 1 in L\K
x+1 in K for every x in L\K so x(x+1) in L\K because x in L\K
Are you sure 1+x is in K
It just guarantees some b for x+b in K
(And xb in K at the same time)
Oh sorry
x in L\K implies x+1 in L\K
Yeah I was wrong
I need to rethink
2x in K
Think how you’d find i in C
@chilly ocean take x in L\K, and let’s say the guaranteed term is y in L\K
What’s (x+y)(xy)
Thats in K
