#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 163 of 1
If that involution is -1…
Then it actually is a derivative but backwards
Perhaps it is a generalisation?
i couldnt quite match it up to this, it does seem more general yeah
Oh I see - yeah
Perhaps it would be more accurate to call this a F_2-graded derivation or whatever but that’s a mouthful
I mean usually something is called anticommutative if
xy = -yx
Here you have that the "commutativity" of x and Omega is governed by omega. So at least if omega was just multiplication by -1 I think it would make sense to call this antiderivation
true!
does the proof just consider the product of all polynomials
in the ideal
and its f.g
cuz its noetherian?
thats what i thought about
like A = V(I) for some ideal in R[x.y]
but this is finitely generated so ?
or maybe i can do it by like
that classification thoerem
cuz ik the irreducibles
of A^2(k) in general if k is any infinite field
So fg is 0 if one of f and g is 0, thus V(fg) is the union of V(f) and V(g), while V(<f,g>) is the intersection of V(f) and V(g)
Are you able to find a polynomial function such that h(f, g) is 0 iff both f and g are 0?
fuck ur right
okay but ig this si the
only proble
so
just
square them
lmfao
shuld fix it
right?
so like f^2+g^2
Yes
Note that it's important that we're working over the real numbers here
(or at least an ordered field)
it states at the end of the problem "
thats why we consider an algebrically closed field "
idk what closure has to do with anything here
or non closure of R
So if f^2 = -g^2 it could still be that f = ig, without them being 0
yeah ur right
damn
these little things just went over my head
haha
ur right
so ig the main point of the problem was to show how like
algebraic sets of diff fields differ for the same polynomial
(which is obvious? or idk)
Well, it's showing that the Nullstellensatz doesn't hold
An alternative approach, instead of limiting yourself to algebraically closed fields, could be to replace A^2(k) with the spectrum of k[x, y].
That basically amounts to evaluating your polynomials on the elements of the algebraic closure of k. (Up to some Galois automorphisms anyway)
idk whats that yet anyways
as u can see its still the next section
but cool
tysm
yo
bad question
the fact that rad (I) = intersection of all prime ideals that contain I
is it analogous to like
the decomposition of algebraic sets into irreducibles?
can someone help at hellp 20
yea sure
Well primary decomposition is
Yes
yea
i kinda felt that it is just primiary decomposition
but idk the proof just felt instant
where with primiary decomposition is much harder
to show that it works for noetherian rings
Hm the proof I remember seeing on the decomposition of algebraic sets is just an appeal to Lasker-Noether lol
points in C^n
😄 HAHAHAHA im just memeing i literally just learnt this like 2 hours ago
its probably wrong
wait
yeah he said inifnitley many variables
which isnt even noetherian so
AG fails
Anyway you can show that C[x_1,x_2,...] is Jacobson
lol
which is at least a partial answer
Yeah okay i checked and it seems you should still get the same answer essentially using this
Lemme think of the argument lol
Ah okay lol here goes lol i love this stuff
Basically uh idk if you've seen the "cheap" proof of Nullstellensatz for C
Basically uh
Let $\mathfrak m$ be a maximal ideal of $K = \mathbb C[{x_i}_{i \in I}]/\mathfrak m$ where $I$ is a countable set. We claim $K/\mathbb C$ is algebraic - if $t \in K$ were transcendental then $K/\mathbb C$ would be an uncountable extension (since the elements $\frac{1}{t-a}$ would be independent) whilst it's clear this is impossible
potato
And then uh
That implies K is isomorphic to C, so we have an isomorphism K -> C which we can think of as coming from a map C [ {x_i} ] -> C with kernel m
Now any map C[ {x_i} ] -> C is just given by sending x_i -> a_i for some a_i in C
And the kernel contains all the elements x_i - a_i
So m contains ( x_i - a_i | i in I)
However, the latter is a maximal ideal
So we have equality
This idea is actually kinda funny, like there's a similar proof that uhhh
Any endomorphism of C^infty must have an eigenvalue i think
as if T had no eigenvalues then the operators 1/(T-a id) for a in C would be linearly independent in some sense etc
is it true that $N\bigl(\frac{\epsilon}{c + di}\bigl) = \frac{N(\epsilon)}{N(c + di)}$ for $c + di \neq 0 \in \mathbb{C}$?
okeyokay
try to prove it
That what is a lie group?

<@&268886789983436800> see msg history of 979887687353896990
what did I miss
for 6, wouldn't it be better to use the division algorithim
given 5) lol
i.e. given an ideal I select an element with minimal norm and use the analagous proof used for showing that Z is a PID
idek if that makes sense but it was my first thought
:3c or just show all euclidean domains are PIDs
the proof is basically the same cause Z is inital or whatever ;3
yeah idk why they mention euclidean algorithm
Like just do it all at once
rather than for Z[i] and then again later for all EDs 
i'll try this then hopefully i don't get points off for not using the euclidean algorithim lol
i don't remember how hard the proof is
yea my prof has hella typos but this seems too big to be a typo anyways
lol i would just say "I assume division alg is meant ?" but maybe i'm too snarky
had to do that in an exam recently lol
I feel like this question is fine
i mean
for showing that Z is a PID we were instructed to use the euclidean algorithim but i posted a question about it and the TA said just use the division algorithim lmfao
so hopefully it should be chill
me correcting the prof's question on exams 
so i would have to take the infimum of the norms then to select a minimal element since they're real valued
nvm
i'm stpuid
gaussian INTEGERS
Whats the difference between division algorithm and Euclidean algorithm
division algorithm is such a dumb name for it. It's not an algorithm
eucilidean algorithm is the annoying long one that does it loads of times
and gives you the gcd
ig you can just say lol "subtract b"
yeah that is what is in Elements apparently
and then just say the algorithm terminates in finite time ig
so i could choose the minimum of floor(x), ceil(x) as my integer coefficient
right.
So that's not quite it
$\text{min}{|\floor{x} - x|, |\ceil{x} - x|}$
okeyokay
nvm
closer
kinda
not realy
Here's how I would write it
Let $a_i = \begin{cases} \text{floor}(a_i) &: a_i-\text{floor}(a_i) \leq \frac{1}{2}\ \text{ceil}(a_i) &: \text{ otherwise} \end{cases}$
Ryx (Home for flowers)
can somebody explain to me the intuition/usefulness of projective/injective modules? i'm kinda struggling to see the importance of its defining property
projective is like free modules but actually general enough to come up
injective is the dual
a useful fact to know about projectives (for me) is that if P is projective then there exists some Q such that P+Q is free
you also have nice things like projective modules are flat and torsion free
oh yea i remember seeing that briefly
wait every free module is projective or every projective module is free
the former right
being free is just being projective without requiring the map involved to be surjective (and the induced morphism is unique in the case of being free but who cares)
i see
how does proposition 5.2 follow from proposition 5.1? i understand that stab(H) is the normalizer of H, so the order of the orbit GH should be equal to the index of the normalizer of H in G. but i'm not seeing how every element in GH is a conjugate subgroup of H
S={subgroups of G having same cardinality with H}, G acts on S by g•K := gKg^-1 for g in G, K in S
Nearly just said “apply orb stab” without realising how useless that would be here 
guys could someone help me with these exercises
what exactly does it mean to say "\bar{x} = e^\varepsilon x is a Lie group?"
half asking because you probably have a definition to work from and half asking because i have no clue what that could be
It's like in group theory only I don't make sense of the first exercise since it is a composition and assumes a binary operation.
As in this example, I don't know from which sleeve this was taken. \widetilde{x}
I have done this exercise in this way
Sorry if I send a lot of screenshots, I feel it's easier to understand the question I guess.

This is the weirdest notation I've seen I think, but the point is that you have some subset of R or R^2 that forms a 1-parameter group
And then f: R -> G is a group homomorphism such that
f(s + epsilon) equals the right hand side, when f(s) = x (or (x,y))?
If so I guess you would just plug and chugg to show that it's a group homomorphism
P is projective, therefore a summand of a free module of finite rank. k[x] is pid, Recall that submodule of a free module of finite rank over pid is still free
If G finite group and H proper subgroup of G and H abelian, ord(G)=2ord(H) and Z(G)={e}
The problem says to show that every 2 elements in G\H dont commute
The index of H in G is 2 so H normal
Pick any a not in H, Notice that any element of G\H is of the form ah for some h in H
A pair of commutative elements in G\H=aH will lead you to a belonging to Z(G)
Look at my try
And explain me what I did wrong
If we pick x in H{e}
|C(x)|>=|G|/2
But C(x) it is a subgroup of G and x≠e and Z(G)={e}
So |C(x)|=|G|/2
For every x in H{e}
Now from class equation
We have |G|=|Z(G)| + 2(|H|-1) + A, where A is sum of index of centraliser of in G where |orb(x)|>=2 and x in G\H
We have from here A=1
Which is false
What is wrong in this plz
You mean x in H - {e}?
Yes
Btw this is from the fact H is normal cuz has index 2 în G
in*
Actually I didn’t need the fact H is normal. Simply H of index 2. Anyway I am still reading yours
Ok ok
No idea how you got 2, to me |G|=|Z(G)|+(|H|-1)+A so A=|G|/2
The index of C(x) in G is 2 when x is in H and x≠e
For any x in H - {e} The orbit of x is {x,y} two elements yes, but x,y are both in H
You count x then you can’t count y
2(|H|-1) a lot of elements overlapped
So it’s 2(1/2)(|H|-1) still |H|-1
How the orbit is 2
You said yourself, [G:C(x)]=2
So orbit of x under conjugation is of two elements
But those two elements are both in H
H is normal as you said
Np
Yeah so the mistake I did is that in class eq we need to say sum when |orb(x^)|>=2
Where x^={x,y}
Right?
Yeah
Oh it’s not help channel
Hahha
How we can finish from here
If we pick two elements in G\H the product is in H
ah1 commutes with ah2 gives you a commutes with h, where h=(h2)(h1^-1)
Then a commutes with all elements
I probably thought something wrong, rethinking
Oh nvm, I fix it like this:
Two elements x and y commute , any a in G-H we have ah1=x, ah2=y, so a commutes with some h(a)=h2(h1^-1)
Now any b in G-H, similarly bh1’=x, bh2’=y, so b commutes with h(b)=h2’(h1’^-1)
But h(b)=h2’(h1’^-1)=(b^-1ah2)(b^-1ah1)^-1=b^-1ah(a)a^-1b=b^-1h(a)b therefore h(b)=bh(b)b^-1=h(a)
h(b)=h(a)
So for all elements in G-H we can choose a common h that commutes with all of them
so h in Z(G) contradiction
I have to do a degree project based on this topic and apply it to the Galois group.

The worst part is that this is not my forte, but I really like abstract algebra.
How I can show that on every finite set M with ord(M)=2^k, we can define a Boole ring (M,+,×).
M can be identified with the power set of some set with size k - take the boolean algebra of this power set and then pass to the corresponding boolean ring in the standard way?
does that work?
by "the boolean algebra of this power set" I mean the boolean algebra arising from the subset lattice of the set of size k- I'm not sure what the standard terminology is sorry
I'm struggling with part b, why should a cycle not change the product here?
hint: conjugate by x_p
no worries!
Can a group of order 25 have five subgroups of order 5?
I think this is false but I am not able to prove it. Can someone please give a hint?
or is this even actually false?
hint: check Z25 first 
do you know anything about groups of order p^2
It can have 6
(no idea what goes on in here)
There aren't that many groups of order 25, one of them has 1 the other has 6
if you do, this is very easy to answer - if you don't then I'll let jagr explain lol I cba
i think ik which one has 1

I did, it only has 1 right?
correct
there's one which can have 6?
now check C_5 x C_5
👀
woah thanks, I think I might be getting somewhere
in fact you're done
those are the only two groups of order 25
don't know if you can use that fact or not
sir, i request a proof
is there a specific reason why that's so?
Have you done Sylow
I am following Dummit and foote, does it have theory related to it
nope
Well, every group of order p^2 is abelian, and there is a classification of finite abelian groups
jagr please stop sniping me on the internet I might start crying
The second part is definitely something you should check out if you haven't. The first is a little more involved to prove
here's my source nerds
https://books.google.co.uk/books?vid=ISBN9780198535485&redir_esc=y
I was born a camper
Always have been
infinity is a prime number, now what, sir
thanks
would do, thanks!
Random question: is there a big focus on p-groups when you do this fusion system stuff, or will any group do just as well?
They have to be on p-groups by definition
I see
Cause sylow is nice or whatever
I have already forgotten the definition, but why doesn't it work with other groups?
You could define the exact same concept on an arbitrary group I just don’t think the theory is developed or interest to nG
I see
interesting to nGroupoid?
Exactly
Found this
I think I looked at this book for some stuff from my REU
There was that one text on finite Morley rank simple groups which suggested a sort of fusion thing for 2-Sylow kinda
always banging on about the morely rank bro morely this morely that I can't take much morely of this
pretty much nobody - I read the first sections of that paper completely thinking in categorical terms lmfao
the strange thing is I can't see what's made easier by the algebraic interpretation? perhaps it's in the section on sylow stuff
If only I knew enough to make a pun, but I’m simply not to that degree 
you couldn't sink sylow to make a pun
We're morely and morely, woooooah
Free if and only if iso to R^n for some n perhaps?
It’s a fact. A projective module is a direct summand of a free module
So it’s a submodule of a free module, therefore it’s free itself since k[x] is pid
Structure theorem for PIDs 
Im a bit confused. Why is the affine n space over k written as A^n_k if it just means k^n? Atleast that is what I seem to be reading unless I'm misunderstanding it
Because A^n_k doesn’t mean k^n, it is spec(k[x1,…,xn])
A space is more than just a set, it usually comes with other structure. In this case with a topology and a sheaf of functions
k^n also has structure that A^n doesn't have, because k^n is also a vector space. It is only by choosing a coordinate system you would get an isomorphism between A^n and k^n
Just to differentiate it from k^n as a vector space, you think of A^n as a topological space (with the Zariski topology) where k^n is the underlying set, not as a vector space (even though k^n obviously is).
Restrict scalars from k to F1
MODS
Can somebody explain to me how one would start on this problem? Let $M$ be the $\mathbb{Z}$-module of $\mathbb{Z} \oplus \mathbb{Z}$ generated by $m_1 = (1, 2)$, $m_2 = (2, 3)$ and $m_3 = (3, 4)$. Decompose M as a direct sum of cylic modules, and express $m_1$, $m_2$, and $m_3$ as linear combinations of generators you choose
okeyokay
Apparently you were suppose to come up with the generators for Z \oplus Z using a linear combinations of the m_is
So I lost all points on that question
what do you mean by "the Z-module of"
Z-submodule
right ok
or sub-Z-module
uhhh smith normal? lol
hmm
yea

i have no clue what that is lmfao
bezout's lemma 2345 times if it fails
anyway lets do this ad hoc
we can get (1,1) clearly (huzzah!)
Basically you can view this module as like uhhh
Take the map φ: Z^3 -> Z^2 given by mapping e_i |-> m_i basically and then M = Z^3/ker φ
@ okey
And then you can express the kernel in a nice way etc
But yeah uhhh
wait I'm confused, so we had to know that M was Z \oplus Z at the start of the problem? because the answer was to show that (0, 1), (1, 0) was in M and was thus equal to Z \oplus Z
oh damn
yeah, that's what I was in the process of doing before I got distracted
damn bro i wrote some really idiotic shit lmfao
since (0,1) and (1,2) is in M then (1,2)-2(0,1) is in M so (1,0) is in M ergo M = Z \oplus Z
sneaky tricky crazy
oh is M just the whole thing lol
yeah fair
hm
i don't think it shoul be but maybe i am smoking
uhhhh
yes nvm ur right yes ignore me
I've been told by the mark scheme that I am right
lol
lol here is a dumb way
submodule of Z^2 is free of rank <= 2
jk
cause that doesn't give you the generators
yeah it's a subgroup of a free abelian group and is thus free abelian
prove that
but we need da representaiton
(idk the proof)
google nielsen-schrier nerd
it's not nielsen-schrier though
it's not it's way easier than NS
There’s a separate thing by Dedekind for free abelian
structure theorem for f.g modules over a PID
Prove it without full choice
The pressence of the word abelian helps a bit
f.g.
IT'S RANK 2 TF U MEANNNN
ye but my question is how do we know that the action of conjugation by all elements of G on H yields H again bc isn't the orbit GH just equal to xHx^{-1} for all x in G
Lol
make sure you email me the proof so that I definitely won’t write an article on the failure of NS to imply choice
Actually where does choice come into the topological proof like just when constructing the "correct" covering space?
I didn’t say they are all H, the orbit is exactly {gHg^-1: g} as you said
According to Wikipedia:
In the proof based on fundamental groups of bouquets, for instance, the axiom of choice appears in the guise of the statement that every connected graph has a spanning tree.
Idk what the context is but if you take an infinite product it's probably there
explicitly, (0,1) = 2(1,2) - (2,3) and then (1,0) = (1,2)-2(0,1) for the fans in the back
ye but the proposition says the the orbit of GH is equal to the index of (G: Gs) which is the index of the normalizer of H in G which I understand, but if I substituted what they said in prop 5.1 for H then I get the orbit of GH is equal to {gHg^{-1} | g in G} = (G: N_H) so i guess i'm confused as to how {gHg^{-1} | g in G} consists of all conjugate subgroups to H (don't we require gHg^{-1} = H for it to be conjugate to H)?
i'm sorry this is prob a fundamental misunderstanding lmfao
lemme take a look
cause I bet this is either orb-stab or burnside's
don't we require gHg^{-1} = H for it to be conjugate to H
absolutely not
do we require y = gxg^{-1} = x for y to be conjugate to x? no
by the very nature of being gHg^{-1} it is conjugate to H
lol i should look at the def of conjugate again rip
y conjugate to x means there is a g such that gxg^{-1} = y
replace y and x with subgroups it's the same
No it doesn’t have any thing to do with gHg^-1=H
G acts on X , the bijection G/Fix(x) -> orbit containing x is mapping gFix(x) to gx
so the set of conjugates is (hopefully) clearly the orbit under the conjugation action
So G/Fix(H)->orbit containing H
gFix(H) |-> gHg^-1
Where Fix(H)= N_G (H)={g: gHg^-1=H}
So [G: N_G (H)]=|orbit containing H|=number of subgroups conjugate to H, I don’t see any question in it
Group theory is so hot
By the way your new question. You can calculate its smith form. That three rows two columns matrix
Oh they already said that
damn i've never heard of that nor have we went over that in class
but thanks i'll ask in OH about that
a temptress....
also
so many questions
first of all what is M(x) 💀
as you can see i was copmletey fucking lost
field adjoin i would guess?
nah we haven't gone over fields yet lol
Multiplying by the ideal (x) I guess
Or xM
I think I'm gonna be sick...
#leftmodulegang
that module is awful
Here k[x] is pid. So again smith form shows up, like considering the smith form of diag{((x-1)^2)(x^3), (x-2)(x^2)}
x^4 = 2x^3+1
x^3 = 2x^2
scrumptious
oh ffs yeah of course u can just smith normal again
ignore me
M(x) looks so awful compared to (x)M
dude how am i suppose to know how to do that when i've never encountered smith form in my life
damn that's crazy'
wait is this related to jordan normal
e.g. these are actually elementary row operation on a secret matrix
are they the same thing
no they are not the same thing
damn
different decomps
you can do smith normal on non-square matrices
which is why it's so good here
inb4 some nerd explains that ermm technically there's a generanlsation of JN form...
You can just use Chinese remainder theorem
fuck
You don't know that one either?
nah im not really in touch with my culture
wait you don't know CRT
the ol R/I_1...I_n \cong R/I_1 ... R/I_n for disjoint blah blah blah
smith form of diag{f,g}=diag{gcd(f,g), lcm(f,g)} btw
ok so i took a discrete math class about a year ago and basically goofed the entire class, saw it recently and read over it once but note nough to internalize it
I dunno what you cover in "discrete math" I don't know what that is
did you do ring theory
realising this sounds like I'm drilling you
I'm just confused is all
Yeah discrete math sounds not very math to me, according to what other describe it, it seems to be a course gathering elementary results in different fields…
yeah it's just the shit in #discrete-math lmfaoi
you know
covers proof-writing for 2 weeks
number theory for 2 weeks
probability theory for 2 weeks
etc.
then some graph theory
not enough time to internalize shit at all
Yeah graph theory, some simple Boolean algebra…
No idea what is the purpose of this course…
a little dash here a little dash there
me neither
ig it's like
to expose you briefly to different concepts you might encounter in upper div classes but even then the premise is dumb
I thought the point of discrete math was "here's the math you'll need for your computer science degree"
isn't that notation defining M(x)
yea that's true but im not a cs major
and it's also required for math majors
Ah no wonder some people mention things like “calculus 3” I have no idea what it is, but according to them it’s a course mixing calculus and linear algebra. I guess it’s for engineering, just like discrete math for CS
wym
sorry annotation i mean
though i don't really understand that annotation either since it has m^r
Oh yeah your picture
It isn’t full. Apparently you wrote the definition of M(x) near it.
We can’t see the full context of it…
(If it’s not (x)M…)
yeah i thought that def was wrong tho... these were just my thoughts
i remembered some notation lang used and guessed it was that
im confused, what does my prof mean by the group of automorphisms being a set of integers coprime to n? how are integers automorphisms? by left multiplication or whatever?
yur
multiplying on the left/right by any element of a ring yields an endomorphism of that ring
in this sense then every single left multiplication is an auto right
oh yeah
endo imeant
so i dont have to check that, i think this becomes very easy if you know that stuff which aren't zero divisors are the integers coprime to n, which satisfies injectivity i believe
or maybe he wants us to show that integers coprime to n are not zero divisors to satisfy injectivity 
oh wait
is there no multiplication structure since we're only considering the group
Zn
oh wait no i'm dumb
ok no that's a fair point
no clue what that means
me neither
I'm just looking at Z/(n) as a ring
what about Zn as a Zn module lmfao
which then gives the action of Aut(Z/(n)) on it actual meaning
The author wants you to discuss U(Z/nZ)
I was trying to dance around outright stating that multiplication is an automorphism iff ur multiplying by a unit but meh
Oh
tbh they realised it couldn't be a zero divisor which for Z/(n) is good enough
i'm glad he gave us #1 that was a fun warm up
wdym
oh
wait why couldn't we justinterpret it as Zn as a Zn-module lmfao
am i high
He wasn’t talking about Z/nZ
oh
??? ok now I'm confused
He was talking about Aut(Z/nZ), group binary operation defined by composition
Aut(Z/nZ) is isomorphic to U(Z/nZ), group of integers coprime to n mod n under multiplication
so yea he's saying that Aut(Z/nZ) are integers coprime to n
So multiplication
ohh so he wants to show the isomorphism basically
yes
so i just send a to left multiplication by a i'm assuming....
A homomorphism f from G to H, where G is cyclic
having a generator x
f is determined by f(x)
U(Z/nZ)
cogwheels you say U(Z/nZ) right
hm i've never seen that b4
kinda trips me up the U is like a union
(-)* is morally correct (funny adjoint to R[-] or whatever)
this one is based
A* or A^ ❌ are usually for when A is a field , I guess
I've literally only ever seen U(-) used for Z/nZ
it's so the little undergrads don't CRYYYYYYYYY WAHHHHH
I see Jacobson use U(A) to denote units of A
Don’t know what notation Lang uses though
actual beast of the beneath
damn bro i'm tearing up rn
U(Z/nZ) is fully discussed in 4.11 in Jacobson btw if you want to know all the cases
alas
my downfall
surjectivity requires some knowledge of elementary number theory
of which i have none
it's equivalent to stating the existence of an x such that ax \equiv y mod n for y in Zn given and a coprime to n
it's clearly invertible
you're multiplying by a unit 
you most certainly will NOT! that place STINKS!!
damn
does every field K of char 0 admit a proper valuation ring R
so for every x in K either x in R or x^{-1} in R, but K!=R
As long as K admits a subring of dimension > 0, the answer is yes
Take R such a subring, consider R_m for m not height 0, and then we have a local subring of K
Then K is dominated by a valuation ring
This is gonna be equivalent to having a valuation ring because other direction is trivial
Oh
It’s char 0 so Z < K
Lol
I thought char 0 because in char p you can take Z/pZ
So what I said was wrong, you need a subring of dim > 0 with field of fractions K
can somebody explain to me how r1, \dots, rk are relatively prime? r4 and r6 will have a common divisor of p_1^{n_1}, so that they aren't relatively prime? what am i misinterpreting
what did dim>0 meant isn't this the same as saying that R is not a field?
Yeah I guess so
ok
and you can definitely find a non-field R such that K is the field of fractions of R right
I think so
I think if you took the integral closure of Z inside of K that might work
But also, idk
Or uh
Do like, take K as an extension of Q
Grab generators
Adjoin them to Z
isnt the integral closure of Z in Q(x) just Z lmao
That probably works
Yeah so adjoin variables so that like K/Q(shit) is algebraic
And then adjoin as many variables to Z as needed
maybe look at K^x as a group, and find generators
No that’s complicateder
Hi
Take a transcendence basis S for K over Q
yeah right
yeah
Hello my Name is tom
Now you should be able to like take an integral closure
Wat
Are there any simple examples where $H \times \bZ \cong K \times \bZ$ but $H$ and $K$ are not isomorphic, where $H$ and $K$ are groups?
The only one I can find online leaves me thinking “Ok. How was I meant to think of that?”
Micose
how does p^nc in p^nA - 0 imply that there is a least positive integer j such that p^jc \in Ra? is it just saying that the set of positive integers such that p^kc are in Ra is nonempty and thus by the well-ordering principle there exists a least positive integer with that property?
so reading about valuations I find some people dont care too much where the value group lives, so I was wondering about the following (see image for clarity). So then the question would be to classify the fields K such that rank(K)=1, etc. Is this something known?
EDIT: uh wait I messed up the definition of rank(K), I meant the smallest Omega that works for all R lol
In mathematics, especially in the area of abstract algebra dealing with ordered structures on abelian groups, the Hahn embedding theorem gives a simple description of all linearly ordered abelian groups. It is named after Hans Hahn.
more context:
so my main question is when does G(R) embed into \mathbb R for all valuation rings R of a given field K
This is the same as saying that for all x, y in R such that 1/x,1/y not in R there exists an n in N such that x^n/y in R, and this should be true for all valuation rings R of K
uh wait I messed up the definition of rank(K), I meant the smallest Omega that works for all R lol
How would you motivate the solution that I’ve found to the problem?
It very much feels like something you’d never even think to think of
I am curious too cause this was presented to me as like an olympiad style question
And apparently it is true if G, H are abelian
I guess what's happening is you can think of G as a semidirect product between C1023 (there's a typo in the answer it appears) and Z^2.
And while (1, 0), (0,1) and (2, 5), (1, 2) are both free bases for Z^2 the action that each basis vector has on C1023 is quite different.
But yeah, it's a kinda crazy example
It’s trivially true if they’re fg abelian
Well
Not too trivial
But like
I can prove with little effort
Then there’s kinda my implicit question
Is there a nicer example?
Yes
This example is very minimalistic though. Like I'm not sure what a simpler group could be that isn't abelian
It’s also true if they’re finite not necessarily abelian I’ve seen
I think maybe you can bring that 1024 down to 32, unless there is something I'm missing
Yeah since the only finite subgroups of H product Z are H’ product {0} I think
Can anybody give me an example and a counter example of prime ideals in ring theory?
(2) is prime, (4) is not
ideal generated by the guy inside
So you must have a commutative ring right
these are ideals in Z
You assume R is commutative with 1 then P is prime ideal in R iff R/P is an integral domain
yes
I'm having difficulties understanding the quotient
what about it
I don't really get it
Have you seen quotient groups?
Remember that a + P = 0 iff a in P. So somehow "belonging to P" translates to being zero in R / P
You can generalize the notion to noncommutative ring, but generally when people talk about prime ideals they mean for commutative rings
so the idea of being prime involves ab belonging to P, and being an integral domain involves ab = 0
which is why P being prime (meaning ab in P iff a or b in P) translates directly to R/P being an ID (ab + P = 0 iff a + P = 0 or b + P = 0)
Yes Z/6Z
OK, so ideals are like normal subgroups. If you ignore the multiplication on the ring for a moment, quotient rings behave exactly like quotient groups
The additional requirement that they be closed under multiplication from the ring is exactly what is needed to make this a ring, and not merely a group.
The way to work with quotient rings is therefore exactly the same as one would with quotient groups. Think of the things that are 0 in the quotient ring R/J as exactly those things that are in the ideal J.
A normal subgroup is like having a group then you divide in into n groups right?
I do not know what you mean by that.
I'm trying to think of it in terms of diagrams
Or maybe I haven't familiarized myself with examples enough
Anyhow I'm learning about these because I'm starting alg geo soon
Hope this helps 👍
that's more the idea of a quotient G/H, you take a group G and cut it up into copies of H. The reason why we care about normal subgroups is because the set G/H becomes a group itself when H is normal
What does it mean when H is normal
Hold on a moment
Have you seen the definition of a normal subgroup before? Are you just asking for a reminder?
normal means gH = Hg for all g. But really this definition makes not a lot of sense unless you think about what's required for G/H to be a group
If you're not comfortable with normal subgroups and quotient groups, it would probably be best to review that before working with ideals and whatnot
it's a really important exercise to take a subgroup H, consider G/H, and ask yourself "well I can multiply cosets aH * bH = (ab) H, but does this even make sense? Is it well defined?"
That's really how you arrive at the idea of normal subgroups
otherwise being normal is a REALLY weird definition
This wall is so talkative
I really like the idea of classifying different types of ideals in terms of the properties of quotients, like prime corresponding to integral domains, maximality corresponding to being a field, even just the quotient having the same structure corresponding to being a kernel, it's cool
Me too :) another cute one is that an ideal is radical iff the quotient is reduced
It's probably best to review quotient groups and normal subgroup before going into rings
yeah, and you can ask so many questions like that, "if R/P is an {insert type of structure}, then P is a {insert type of ideal}"
Yes.
I hope you understand that this question was trying to gauge exactly that
if R/P is a ring then I is an ideal :3
I remember thinking about the first isomorphism theorem just starting from regular set functions f : X -> Y. Like you consider the equivalence a ~ b iff f(a) = f(b), realize that f(X) ~= X / ~ as sets, then ask what happens when f is a group homomorphism, realize the equivalence classes are all copies of the kernel, blah blah
that was kindof an "oooh shit I get it!" moment
Right, and this is exactly what the first iso in universal algebra says in this case
@cursive spindle what is your motivation/interest for studying alg geo? Just curious
Complex geometry, Diophantine equations and enumerative geometry
And much more
I think I like complex geometry more than real geometry

cringe
so cringe
honestly I dont even know what complex geometry is
like ik what Riemann surfaces are and so on, but where's the geometry
A nice question
I should be more open minded probably
I am starting to questioning the algebraic geometry. Where is the geometry?
Why am I always trying to transform a question in algebraic geometry into a question of algebra or cohomology
then i am just doing algebra
ok if you pick Euclid and show him algebraic geometry or even just modern geometry for the first time he will be like

but something similar would happen with modern number theory
I mean anything trying to touch algebra will eventually be taken over by algebra.
look at algebraic topology. you start with some nice pictures and imagination, then you open a book on homotopy theory, just loads of diagrams and sequences.
OK. maybe need to move the channel to vent. sorry for that
is there any notation to denote some lifting of an element of some quotient?
what about when you are lifting a function or a polynomial
it may be confused with the derivative

by find a decomposition of this group into cyclic groups for n = 9 do they mean give an isomorphism with a direct sum of Z_p^is or whatever
ykwim
fundamental theorem of finitely generated abelian groups ya
HIP HIP HURRAY YOU HAVE WON THE DAY!!!
DUDE I'M A FUCKING GENIUS
genius you may be, but an answer I do not see
$\mathbb{Z}_3 \oplus \mathbb{Z}_2$ i hope.
okeyokay
or as I like to call it, Z_6
gotem
3 + 2 is not 5 
Why is $(\pi(\tau)f)(x_{\sigma(1)}, \dots, x_{\sigma(n)}) \neq f(x_{\tau\sigma(1)}, \dots, x_{\tau\sigma(2)})$?
okeyokay
also am i wrong for thinking this is cursed notation
It’s plugging in the sigma shuffled indices to the already tau shuffled function?
Maybe
so true bestie...
in groups, rings, whatever, you can consider the substructure generated by a set.
You either define it to be the intersection of all substructures containing that set, or you construct it by generation using the structure axioms.
What exactly do we call this phenomenon where the 2 are equal. Like some sort of compactness? 
not sure if it has a name
it just means that the underlying set was already a subgroup/subobject
nuh, i mean like <S>
oh
<S> = intersection of all subgroups with S in it
= {words formed by S}
Hm I mean not compactness but like
this smells like model theory
This is basically just one fact right
well do we see it outside algebra?
The smallest thing containing a set is what you get by iterating the stuff it has to be closed under
the smallest dude is the one contained in all the other dudes
why am i not finding this obvious 
ill have a think
Topology generated by a set of subsets of a set ig too
Inductive sorta shenanigans
has to be a substructure for this to work
This kind of induction
Ye, if it’s a substructure, then that immediately gets you what you want
And if that’s all words formed in your language + S, then any operations = words made out of elements of it are in it
😵💫 troo
This isn’t always a substructure if you have extra conditions though
Like some existential shenanigans and all
In particular, there’s some statement about how this sort of substructure thing works iff it’s universally quantified stuff
I forget the exact one
But think how substructures of fields need not be fields
Universal algebra has entered the chat
bro wut
Boytjie probably knows what I’m referring to here
There’s no inversion function symbol
That kind of thing
Only that an inverse exists for all nonzero
ill have a thonk, i think i recall this
So no words with inversion
And if you have relational symbols, words with them are kinda 
i mean for fields
say your set is {a, b, c}
cant u have like
words like this (a + bc - a^-1)^-1, and then chuck out the non well-defined ones
Well there’s no ^-1 symbol
ok i think i get u
Also for finite things consider Wedderburn’s theorem
theres none in the categorical sense or something right
because this symbols has to apply to every element
There’s no symbol in the universal algebraic sense, or model theoretically
Since we want M -> M
yh sure
This can be turned into a categorical sense too
Since ya know
Commutative diagrams for the axioms 
which works kinda iff it’s universally quantified stuff since haha LEM?
I knew it was model theory
oh yh i was kinda thinking about this the other day
rings are endomorphisms of abelian groups
but fields are not quite automorphisms of them...
I remember it now
Substructures are also models iff universal formulas
Uhh assuming they're actually subobjects in the category, the statement that each subobject of X is the intersection of all subobjects larger than it would be something about the poset (lattice) of subobjects of X
Consider fields as comm rings + existential for inverses and all that
That doesn’t preserve into subring s
But the universal commutativity does
altho that might not precisely correspond to generation from a subset since that might be icky to state from a category pov
That lattice thing is pretty related here, and intersection is product in the subobjects
Thing is: predicates are also subobjects
And if your thing isn’t universal then you’ll run into issues
*this is a subobject in a slightly different sense, and passing back and forth between the structures and sets, but it still more or less holds there too in a sort of internalized sense?
yeah okay this might not work as well to state as i thought at first lol. But you might be able to state something about lifting subsets from Set (subsets as subobjects of UR, under th eforgetful functor U) to Ring or whatever through intersections blah blah blah idk
?
Think how ideals are predicates of divisibility
Pretty sure some wackyness like this is related ye
Since we know that intersection of subobjects as sets is a subobject again in the category (and the intersection in the categorical sense), this is kinda the idea? Since then intersection commutes with the forgetful functor I guess (up to some isomorphism or something)
Something something HSP theorem
Subobjects of fields 
Term shenanigans (the words made out of applying operations to a set) working is quite tricky for if you have existentials or relations
But universal & function only stuff would have it be a substructure and hence a submodel?
I am trying to show that D12 (order 12) is isomorphic to D6 cross Z/2Z. I have elements a,b in the direct product group that satisfy the presentation for D12, so i guess i have a homomorphism. I’m just not sure how to argue that this is in fact an isomorphism, i only need to show one of injective or surjective.
I don't believe this isomorphism, the centre of D16 is order 2 the centre of D8 x Z/2Z is order 4
oh i’m sorry. you’re right.
i have shown that they weren’t isomorphic by counting elements of order 2
Btfo’d instantly
let me fix it
ummm
i think they are isomorphic, right?
it's a semidirect product with C_2 I believe
definitely not direct - the centre argument holds again
like im not sure any dihedral apart from small ones is a non trivial direct product
is x not cross?
well wew at least seemed to think ofherwise
I certainly wasnt rlly aware of this kinda stuff tbh
the hint for the problem was to find elements in the direct product group that satisfy the presentation for D12, which i have done
a = (r^2,1) and b = (s,1)
where b^2 = 1
oh wait sorry, D_6 is order 6
so it's just S_3
right I believe this could work
so D_12 = <a, b | a^6 = b^2 = 1, bab^-1 = a^-1>
yeah this book is using D2n but i’m used to Dn so i tried to specify
D_6 x C_2 = <a, b, c | (ac)^6 = b^2 = [b, c] = 1, b(ac)b = (ac)^-1>
naively
yeah ok so the C_2 goes "into" the copy of C_3 inside D_6 to turn it into a C_6, then you still have the semidirect C_2
I completely believe this now
how does this generalise?
Is Cp the cyclic group of order p
yus
now that you believe me 😂 how do i argue that the kernel is trivial
oh
D2k where k is odd should work im guessing
I don't think that's the right map
you think the statement isn’t true?
from the top
D_6 x C_2 = <a,b,c| a^3 = b^2 = c^2 = [a.c] = [b,c] = 1, bab = a^-1>
= <a,b,c| (ac)^6 = b^2 = 1 = [a,c] = [b,c] = 1, babc = a^-1c>
= <a,b,c| (ac)^6 = b^2 = 1 = [a,c] = [b,c] = 1, b(ac)b = (ac)^-1>
= <ac = w, b|w^6 = b^2 = 1, bwb^-1 = w^-1>
D_12 = <x,y| x^6 = b^2 = 1, bxb^-1 = x^-1>
not very rigorous (why must ac be order 6, what to do about [b,c] before applying the tiestze transformation in step 4? whatevs.)
going off of this I think the map you want is x -> (a, c), y -> (b, 1)
surjectivity of this map shouldn't be too hard
what are you doing in all the presentations, like what’s the purpose
trying to think of a map?
just so i’m following, i map x,y in D12 to (r,1) and (s,0) respectively
uhh yeah
maybe (s,1) would have worked actually
I thought you were using 1 to denote the identity
i’m C2 i’m using 0,1
then sorry for going on this massive diatribe 
from what i’m gathering, since the elements i have found satisfy the presentation it is surjective?
i’m not sure what that is
swag
or do i need to show that the elements i’ve picked out of the direct product group that happen to satisfy the D12 presentation generate the direct product group
that is a one liner if you do
yeah we havnt learned the substitution test
that's alright
so do this you think?
it's very obvious that they do, but sure go show it anyway
you don't need my permission
to quote genesis 4: "Do I look like my brother's keeper?"
Ew reverse 🇵🇱
That quantifier in parenthesis hurts
The way the () slant

stfu nerd
bad
please see my previous message for my response! Ok ttyl hugs and kisses xoxoxoxoxoxo

whats theta^n, is this n just a scripting letter
Is it true that a group is the union of its cyclic subgroups?
Yeah, although I’ve never used that fact lol
thank you
what do we call the general structure of $(\bR_{\geq 0}, +, \cdot)$
like a semifield?
yeah
(for no particular reason) i want to say the vector norm is a morphism of one of these
kinda. but not quite
like kernel is 0
but u have subadditivity
the vector norm doesn't map out of a semifield, and need not preserve addition
oh right, we dont even have f(v) = 0 <=> v = 0 making any of these things necessarily an injection
inner product, norm
that's pretty much the only property a norm does have that we want
Some texts mention that 'Such and such groups have such and such subgroups up to isomorphism'. I get what they mean by that, but what else is there to consider apart from isomorphism when we are trying to find the number of subgroups? And can that change the number?
if they say something holds in a group G "up to isomorphism" it means it's the same between all groups which are isomorphic to G, and the number of unique subgroups is one such property, yeah
I get that but I am asking why 'upto isomorphism'? Why do you have to specifically mention that? Is there anything else out there that, when taken into consideration can change the number of subgroups?
could you give the actual exerpt
because this could either be what kryojyn is saying or that it contains an isomorphic copy of some other group as a subgroup
I mean as an example, there are many 'different' groups of order 2
so you can't say there's only 1 group of order 2
yea that's the context
but they're all isomorphic
In group theory, one of the things we wanna do is find every group. This is quite literally impossible, but we can find the interesting ones. In doing this we restrict to isomorphism
it's less that they're "not interesting" and more that we just literally don't care about what the elements specifically are, just the structure
if you want the mathematical precise definition, you can look at isomorphism as an equivalence relation on groups, and a property P(G) holds up to ismorphism if it's well defined on the equivalence class of G
well yea, this is what i mean by interesting. It's not interesting to find out {1,-1} exists if i know about {1,a | a^2 = 1}
I can say Q_8 is a subgroup of SL(2,3), but this is annoying to work with if you don't also have an embedding of Q_8 into SL(2,3)?
tbh I don't really understand what you're asking at all
what's the actual thing you're not understanding
for a broader context, almost all of group theory is concerned with properties of groups which hold "up to isomorphism", like those are specifically group-theoretic-properties
No I mean I get the point that you want to study the structure and I get why you'd say upto isomorphism. But I was asking if embeddings, automorphisms also affect that number? I am in the middle of an introductory group theory course so yea, taking some time to convince myself.
ah so you want the number of embeddings, then yeah it does
take my Q_8 example, precomposing any embedding with an automorphism of Q_8 gets you another embedding
ahhh
as does post-composition with any automorphism of SL(2,3)
but that's not general I don't think
actually no I'm not sure that's even true here - it is for inner automorphisms (by Sylow) but again that might not happen generally
so just ignore
oh well I'll just check out cases where it holds
atleast now I have some more context
I, presonally, like to think about (Z/2Z)^n (mostly because i'm lazy at times). Maybe this'll help you
👍
x -> whatever
I don't think so, but you could maybe do like a "partially defined" homomorphism or soemthing
oh right you want one for each ring

