#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 160 of 1
@oblique thorn u are probably using christof par's textbook
there is a youtube playlist that covers it and does many examples ( the hwole course + EEA )
even if ur not using it
check out this video
For slides, a problem set and more on learning cryptography, visit www.crypto-textbook.com
Here's my notes that I had with me rn
don't worry, i am taking cs courses for reasons
Here are my notes
It’s 4 pages
And they want us to do a = 51 and Fp = 2^17 - 1
i see, we did it in 2 pages lmao
Do you get what the pseudo code is?
who writes pseudocode like that
I see
that's an iterative algortihm, that's why it's so convoluted
Cryptographers
the recursive algorithm i sent you is much cleaner
Can’t read that lol
I have taken crypto classes, and they don't so it like this lmao
really? need a doctor
Yeah our ta admitted he doesn’t really know what he’s doing
Psh. Well I’m on my iPhone mini that’s prob y
maybe
But my university is notoriously bad at teaching and it’s in Florida
They are known to have the worst schools
But anyways how would we go about a = 51 and b/p= 2^17 - 1
So a would be 51
And b would be 2^17 - 1?
But change it to p cause it’s prime I think he said
Yea I think i figured it out. I just want to show you how confusing he made it
Is Q[x]/<x^2-2> isomorphic as fields to Q(√2)?
Okay I guess this is just the evaluation map thank you
is this map from M to aM? if that's the case then obviously it's image is contained in (v1,...,vn) since aM is a subset of (v1,...,vn). and since aM is isomorphic to M, we get that M is free since a submodule of a free module is free? just wanted to make sure I understood this correctly
It's a map M->M but the image is exactly aM
ye the image is aM which is contained in (v1, ..., vn) which is obviously a free module
yup
here, by isomorphic to the product of cyclic modules they mean $E \simeq E_1 \times E_2 \times \dots \times E_s$ where $E_i \simeq R/(p^{r_i})$?
okeyokay
Yes
ok thansk
how does this argument show that the sum is direct?
or how is it equivalent to stating that their intersection is trivial for that matter
That's the definition of a direct sum
oh
A module is the direct sum of two submodules if (1) they sum to the whole module and (2) their intersection is trivial.
ye sorry i meant like how is that argument equivalent to the second condition you just posted
This looks more like the whole “can be uniquely expressed as a sum” definition
Which is equivalent
right i could prove it but i'm too lazy so i just asked the server lmfao
like ig that's my question
why are they equivalent
may I interrupt with a question
sure go for it
Does the proof that if x is nilpotent then 1+x is a unit involve the fact that x^n is a zero divisor?
Not really
x being nilpotent exactly means that that thing is eventually 0
Unluck
It does in the sense that x^n is a zero divisor because x is nilpotent
but in no place do you need to say "and since x^n is a zero divisor there exists..."
and ofc it depends on the fact x is nilpotent because otherwise that wouldn't be there
Well since x^n itself is 0 it’s true for every element of the ring no?
Or well
If X = Y o plus Z then we can write each element as y+z - if the intersection of Y and Z is trivial then we can’t have y’+z’ = y+z as this would imply that y’-y = z’-z is in both Y and Z
Ah ic what you’re saying
I forgot how to do it lol sorry for the delay
Not really, for a hint look at the proof of why a + ax + ax^2 + ..... converges to a / (1 - x) when |x| < 1. They're surprisingly related
What the
This is why I don’t like R[[x]] it’s SILLY
ah and y' - y and z' - z are nonzero
Yur
ok cool thanks
lol like just the normal geometric series from calculus, I know it seems crazy but trust, the proofs are similar
I don’t want to look
lol okay well for another hint, consider (1 - x)(1 + x + x^2 + .... + x^n)
if n is big
don't want to look at what
hints 😭
I simply cannot bring myself to peep
oh have you not done
It’s too late so I’ll try it out and see what I get
But it feels like if I can’t come up with it myself it’s kinda pointless to do the exercise, unless it’s some super arcane trick or whatever
then keep trying
I agree you need to feel the pain more
false.
yeah no worries, no offense taken!
hehe..
stop giggling and go solve the problem
tea time to me means like 3rd meal of the day lol
I usually have it in the morning and evenings but I pulled an all nighter so I woke up in the afternoon
i'm confused, why don't 1 and 2 just immediately follow from the hypothesis? bc f is injective it the sequence is exact so that there exists a left inverse right, and g is surjective so that there exists a right inverse
like how does 1 directly imply 2 if the hypothesis that the sequence is exact already implies those two
The sequence being exact doesn't imply those two though. Just because f has a set-theoretic left-inverse doesn't mean the left-inverse is a homomorphism
not really
hi pseudo
the usual approach is constructing maps
when i proved that thing once, i did it via finding a lot of isomorphisms, because i couldnt figure out the map ¯_(ツ)_/¯
hello
ok, i'll attempt it thanks
welcome to the server
thx
are you a phd student?
what area
i found a potential advisor, but i need to get through the university screening to get a scholarship
supergeometry generally
close cousin of complex geometry
so its a field where you can do use differential geometry and algebraic geometry
oh geometry
where as algebraic geometry is my strong suit
I'm terrible at geometry
well i like to say, that these things are not really geometry
i never once used geometric intuition to solve a problem in algebraic geometry
opens wikipedia page
sees "sheaf"
it's geometry
Real
more so differential geometry
true
why did you ask btw
because of your message in adv lounge
ah right
but yeah, looking for a phd position is kind of rough
especially since i dont want to go to america for a phd where its relatively straightforward
Z/2 moment
exactly
Ah so that variant of super
is there another variant of super?
im working on formalizing string theory, so that stuff popped up
so glad i took algebraic geometry courses
because its a 5 year program, with non dodgeable coursework
and also qualification exams
i might add, that i usually do horrible on exams
Well idk about the 5 year thing always being that long but
most phd programs are straight research everywhere but US and canada probably
Yeah ok fair
like the first two years of US phd is basically a masters coursework
and i dont want to do that agian
I mean US PhD starting with a masters is kinda literal tbh
In some places, if you can pass quals from the beginning wouldn't you get out of the coursework?
Idk entirely how it works
a friend of mine informed himself about taht stuff, according to him you can dodge at most 1 year of coursework
and then again im usually so bad at taking exam
I think you can do something similar some places, or if you already have a master’s-ish
I think this is true of most places in the US
not taking the chance of potentially wasting 2 years
I wouldn’t recommend coming here in particular, but you can definitely just skip things here
As in, my school
well im hopefully going to australia
but if that doesnt work out i prolly stay in germany
is (-1)^n = 1 for n even and -1 for n odd in an arbitrary communital ring? I want to say yes but I’m having trouble proving it :pepelaugh: and I can’t find anything on the web
and just try to get some money by teaching
luckily i have existing parents that support me
yes?
-1 * -1 = ?
It suffices by induction to just prove that (-1)^2 = 1
I don’t know
If that helps
I think I did this
Okay
That does help
I will go by induction
Then you're done lol, simple induction
Hope this helps 👍
2?
don’t monke me u fkn losers I’ve been forced to abandon all intuition bc of this damn subject
it doesn't help, feather is looking for a simple and intuitive answer
Feather it's -1 * -1
I basically suggested the same thing as Ryx
Except he said induction
but is it simple and intuitive?
Yes?
i wouldnt wait for him to sleep to act...
shuri look behind you
I think I’d just have to give him a linear algebra problem
he’ll probably die from thinking too hard
bro
IM SORRY
you didn't know what -1 * - 1 was

bro u didnt know Z dense whatevertheshit
THAT WAS HALF A YEAR AGO BRUH
“Z is complete because it’s dense-in-itself”
I started learning math a year ago
new flex for my little sister taking algebra 1
u wont hear the end of it in a decade
I unironically don’t know where dense in itself came from
Real (me too)
stfu ryx
Bro skipped right to p-adics
my anniversary is coming up soon
Perhaps he was thinking of closed? ==> complete
dont mess up the date then
I explained
I asked in discussion what dense linear order is
like what that property is called
(I now know it)
Density
someone said "dense-in-itself"
In the name
so I thought "idk any topo so I'll just believe them"
Yeah
so every cauchy sequence is eventually constant
that was my thought process
here
this is when I started learning math
Discrete topology moment 
Yeah and still having troubles with power series 😔
real
You should learn topology
Should learn real analysis
6 am to to 4 pm every day
is a pain in the ass
I either get no sleep or no time to do anything
that's what I'm planning on doing once I graduate high school
I will take real analysis 1, 2, and 3
and linear algebra 1 and 2
at uni
Swag
smh. Or let epsilon = 0.5 in the defn of cauchy
bro is lost
I just find it really annoying that people keep on bullying me for the same stupid things I said
like trash talking me for it once is ok
but not every single day
ok maybe i should stop counterclowning
Iwwumi 
I will stop clowning iwwum okay
I think the fact that it’s math makes it easy to do that
what did you guys do
-1 * -1 = 1 tho feather ok
bc once someone learns something it sticks with them forever and it’s “easy”
I’ll still find it odd to jump right to p-adic analysis
now prove it
uh
-1 + 1 = 0
(-1)(-1) + (-1)(1) = 0
(-1)^1 = 1
People would be clowned less if they didn't skip straight past prerequisites 
it's also hilarious that ultra went back 20k messages and half a year worth of messages just to trash talk me
I don’t
Bro had a vendetta
because I want to take algebraic number theory 2
yeah
Because then they would have better intuition for stuff
people want to study the stuff that’s interesting
and he said I should take the seminar on p-adics that he hosts
because it will help (and is a prereq) for alg nt 2
I think you’ll run into issues but
obviously better to build the prereqs properly
Not my problem
but who cares it’s their life
im genuinely struggling to follow this 
kekw
now you see why I was doubting myself? 😂
it's also more fun to skip to harder stuff, tho it's probably not fun for the people that try to help me when I ask on here
apply one axiom per line
-1 * -1 = ??? fuck if I know
ya I feel this hard
Oh I
Typo’d
It's probably fine
At the end
feather
Yes
(-1)*a = ?
-a
Yeah
I get wanting to go straight to the advanced stuff
can somebody please give me a hint for 1 --> 2, idk where to start
-(-1)
Yeah that’s it
lmfao
I’m clowning you for this one
deserved 😭
But it's more of a you say you're studying p-adic analysis, but then you ask some very very fundamental questions that make it seem like you don't understand the basics necessary to study what you say you're studying
-1 + 1 = 0
-1 . (-1 + 1) = -1 . 0
-1 . -1 + -1 . 1 = 0
-1 . -1 + -1 = 0
-1 . -1 = 1
This is the problem every time people skip basics
ok happy now 
The power series thing really felt like this
LMFAO shuri yes
Like I get it you can do it
I wouldn't have studied p adics if my prof wouldn't have recommended me to do so
But you're missing baby fundamentals
I just wanted to take alg nt 2
P-adics are cool tho I get it
yeah don’t let anyone discourage you illumi :)
Like I was thrown into some more advanced stuff by my prof
which ones
But we also started with covering the backgrounds
this should be the splitting lemma
u prove it by the five-lemma
yea i'm tryna prove it without
cuz like lang doesn't have the splitting lemma
unless like
our prof wants us to prove/find the splitting lemma
Not pointed at you specifically, but being comfortable with basic real analysis and metric space analysis/topology is very helpful for understanding p-adics
💀
eg?
Again, in part for building intuition, but also since terms form them will often just be thrown around since they are considered "basics",
Let $m \in M$. Show that $m - \varphi \circ g(m)$ is in $\ker g = \mathrm{im} f$. That might hint at how to define the map $\psi$
walter
oops i forgot to reply to okeyokay
huh okay thanks, i'll solve the other parts of the question first then i suppose
yea
Idk, like compactness, connectedness, completeness, ... Stuff like that shows up a lot of.
btw this is like the goat of theorems okeyokay
the fact that u have these maps imply that ,
M is a direct sum of M' and M''
I think what you mean is like typical first course in analysis material
what does algebraic number theory 2 cover
And topology I guess
global-local
neukirch chap 2
That seems like cool stuff, idk anything about local fields
yea i remember reading about this in hungy
Something like that
yeah
its not like terribly hard ig
or idk
i never tried it on my own
just say by the splitting lemma this is the diect sum and then use projections to find ur split
and run
u only get 10% of the problem pooints so worth
idk if i can use the splitting lemma tho so maybe i have to prove that too
here's the actual exercise
bro's doing crazy math in hs
i barely got a 3 on the ap calc test senior y ear
if the proofs already been done in 3.2 but ur just verifying details then yeah should be ez
maybe you are more comfortable with this statement
I thought neukrich didn't have that high prereqs, like just a year of group/rings/modules/galois is enough
nah i've never seen short exact sequences of groups lmfao
nah he showed M = Imf dsum Kerpsi
true
all abelian groups are Z modules!
Modules & Galois stuff is the trick there
given that statement the map you should construct should be relatively clear tho
finitely generated only right
:breakfast2:
Second semester algebra here starts at rings
no, all abelian groups

what have i managed to confuse... lets see
here's a hint nerd... all modules are abelian groups... and all rings are Z...
oh nvm
No Sylow, no iso theorems beyond the first iirc, etc
here first course algebra is groups to galois theory
second course algebra is atiyah macdonald
until like integral closure
Yeah it’s not very intensive here 
All rings are Z 
The uni I'm at doesn't even require algebra to graduate with a degree in math 
Real
what the fuck
anyway yeah obviously they're not Z but Z is inital in Ring
Mfs from that uni gonna be as funded as Wew
so they basically are
You can literally take computational calc, some analysis then some random stats and cs classes and be done
I don't know lmfao
sad
algebra as a whole seems very under-represented in undergraduate courses
but it could just be that all of pure is
I think my uni is only cares for engineering or something 
,ti 218876477146398720
This user hasn't set their timezone! Ask them to set it using ,ti --set.

It should only be algebra anyways /s
only mandatory algebra courses here are linear algebra 1 and 2
but thats not really algebra
Just make the entire math major a survey of algebra 
I've been given an equation to solve over the quaternions. Since I don't know much about it, I moved the problem to a matrix equation using a very well known ring isomorphism and got 2 non trivial solutions. My issue is that I'm a bit confused about how to get the corresponding quaternions to those solutions.
that's the isomorphism I'm using
go back through the isomorphism? that's kind of the whole point of an isomorphism
yeah, but there's an issue I didn't expect
every quaternion is expressed a+bi+cj+dk, where a,b,c,d are real numbers
when I find the linear combination of the solution with respect to the matrices I J K and the identity I get complex coefficients
what's going on? I don't get it...
yes this is an isomorphism with a C-algebra
if you want it as an R-algebra you will need a 4x4 matrix
hmm, good point
well, I already spend the whole afternoon doing calculations by hand 😆
better to continue with this approach
Is ths question even possible?
I was actually very stuck w this, so i looked this question up, and the only answers I see are for the finite abelian groups
It must mean abelian
The proof for the abelian case is rather straightforward
The order of the product isn't specified
so that would not really be a well-defined product if not abelian
you weren't
This has to be a error on the textbook
I agree that's some bullllshitttt
perhaps it's true and the order doesn't matter? But I'd be a bit surprised if that's true
C_2 x any 2'-group LMFAOOO
The council meditating on the correctness of the book
For anyone curious, the book is algebra chapter 0 by paulo aluffi
I chose it bcs it introduces abstract algebra from a category theoretic view
It's a nice book, but you should be cautious. There's a link to errata for the book
Thank you!!
Why is a finite simple ring isomorphic to a matrix ring over a field?
i only can prove some basic stuff on semisimple rings
Yeah thats whats missing from what i need to know
ig
pretty standard you can find this by just looking up the name
even wikipedia sketches a proof iirc
Np
I was reading a book on group theory and came across a spectacular theorem that didn't seem to get much attention in the book. It says that for every vector space whose mappings form a representation of a group, every member of the vector space can be written as a sum of functions which form partners of the different irreducible representations of the group. This seems to be an amazing way to find basis of arbitrary (finite or infinite) vector spaces. Is this a famous theorem with its own name?
Unless I’m misunderstanding what you’re saying you’re basically describing a variant of Maschke’s theorem?
yeah this is Maschke's, and the functions you're describing are characters
every complex vector space though
has to be complex
Any good resources on it?
fulton & harris is standard text for rep theory i think
(which i also plan on starting to read soon hopefully) 
anyone?
can you define those 2 objects
finite ring - finite elements?
matrix ring over a field - matrices with entries of that field?
well firstly Id hope finite simple rings have to have prime characteristic?
mmm then maybe u think about frobenius kinda things
but ive only seen those kindof results for groups
bezout
bro saw it immediately
it's ideal since it's (1) not 1
either way it’s essentially bezout
but yeah w/e same thing
oh
there’s something to get 1 as a sum
(S) = (gcd S) in a good enuf ring

probably needs euclidean domain
mm no, i think bezout doesnt need that
bezout domain 
:o
but theres no gcd unless ur in ed ig
wait why is Eb \cup Ec = 0
gcd domain 
E_b is the kernel of x --> xb btw
what
oh
(as one sees immediately)
oop
their gcd is 1
(he also said E_b \oplus E_c so uhhh)
ok no, I can guess the idea but im sure i dont see it 
yo i'll venmo somebody 50 bucks if they can tell me why E_b \cap E_c = 0
i don't see it 
whuh
the kernel of x --> bx
bro i'm aboutta post this shit on r/explainlikeimfive
can u gib example of finitely generated torsion module
so if cv = bv = 0, what can you say about v?
nvm i defo do not know any of these 
ur right
perchance, it has something to do with v = xbv + ycv
take this
I’m not sullying that but I will
your self sully

you know what cv and bv are by assumption of v in the intersection of the kernals
what does this tell you about v
v = 0!
This seems odd
shittttt
go sleep my man
I’d have to look further back in it to see how some of these things are actually defined 
Let m in R, m nonzero. We denote by E_m the kernel of the map x \mapsto mx.
nah just wing it
that's what I always do
So the things annihilated by m?
ye or having exponent m if you wanna get fancy
Why did the finitely generated torsion module get an award?
Because it had a finite amount of "torsion" for acceptance speeches!
bruh that's what "exponent a" means 
So
cxbv = xav
W or L joke by chat gpt btw
Is this commutative or smth
I would hope so but I’ve known moamen’s book to be screwy
bc=a and E has exponent a
So if cxb = xbc = a, then that’ll hit you to 0 no?
At least half are your own get outta here
you gotta beat the person in #book-recommendations
think i know which one you mean but you gotta be specific
there's at least one in the past month that has like 15 sullies
If we had v in E_b and E_c, then bv = cv = 0
ayyy man what can I say I'm my #1 supporter ya feel me 😭
Dragonslayer Sharp
good point 
1v = 0
pedestrian mathematicians
Nah yea I got it but tyy

did you see it immediately?
oh
Once I saw how the things were defined
Damn bro sharp being seeing everything immediately
I still have no idea what E(p) means
Bros on addy or some shit
Lmao thats hilarious
Not a sight thing
oh ya true
What are some cool polynomial identities that hold in commutative rings?
My motivation for this question was the binomial theorem
don't see why k_2 + mz is in K in that case, anyone explain?
also sorry the typesetting in this book is really awful, if a symbol looks random just replace it with one that makes sense
if m is a multiple of p part?
For that one, look above and see pz=k in K
yes just that sentence
divisible group moment

divided 
divide my... wait wrong channel

Divide and conquer
waffles
I guess pretty much any polynomial identity that doesn't involve dividing should hold no matter the ring. So binomial theorem. Geometric series:
1 - x^n+1 = (1 - x)(1 + x + x^2 +...+ x^n)
Some less familiar ones, a polynomial is nilpotent if all coefficients are. A polynomial is invertible if the constant coefficient is invertible and all other coefficients are nilpotent.
galois ones 
how should i go about disproving that if $R$ is a comm ring and ${I_\alpha}{\alpha\in A}$ are ideals such that $I\alpha+I_\beta=R$ for all $\alpha,\beta\in A$ we have that $R/(\bigcap_{\alpha\in A} I_\alpha$) is isomorphic to $\prod_{\alpha\in A} R/I_\alpha$
most likely to get denied G+

2Z + Z = Z but Z/2Z isn't isomorphic to Z/2Z x { 0 }

it is? 


Timo is dying in the background
ok back to this nasty problem
this is what u get for writing oplus as cartesian x
Well let's take the basic example of R = Z. Then for any two distinct non-zero prime ideals (p) and (q), we have (p) + (q) = Z. But what's the intersection of all these non-zero prime ideals?
(i think there's a simply counterexample in ||the ring of integers||)
good work team
Its true in the finite case, so a counterexmaple would have to be infinite
(pq.....)Z
Is that ideal non-zero?
i think its 0
I guess I should clarify that I'm looking at the family of ideals {(p) : p is prime}
Yeah, the intersection is zero
so now we have that Z/0 is isomorphic to Z/2ZxZ/3Z...
but theres only 1 element in Z/0
One way to see that is to note that an integer n is in the intersection of all of these iff p divides n for all primes p. But every non-zero integer has finitely many prime divisors
and this is obviously not surjective
Hmm Z/0 is isomorphic to Z
qhar
If I quotient out by the zero ideal, I'm not making any identifications so I just get my original ring back
oops
Z/Z would be the zero ring
ok yeah
nevermind this problem wasnt that bad at all
It's also the case that one side has zero-divisors and the other doesn't
Happy to help
oh true
Is it necessary for a element of a group to be in a some subgroup?
consider the subgroup generated by that element
you mean cyclic?
or consider the additive group G with only 2 elements 0 and 1 with 1+1=0. The only subgroup is the trivial group {0} and G itself.
there are groups without order 2 elements? not sure why you brought C_2 up
if it's generated by a single element it's automatically cyclic
by definition
You mean like for any element say 'a' belongs to finite group G so
a^order(G) = e (identity element)
am I right?
no
if a is an element of G
then <a> = {1, a, ..., a^whatever} is a subgroup of G
the statement you made is correct but I don't see the direct relevance
I think Valentino was trying to point out, in a roundabout way, that G is a subgroup of G, and in some cases you can do no less than that
actually I want to prove that group of order 9 is abelian,
so subgroup of only 3 is possible which is cyclic and abelian too, so I am wondering about other 6 elements, I thought maybe those can form subgroups of 3 or is it something else? please if possible give hint only
Yes, was proving sylow second only but then decided to do some problems
should i try by class equation
could be a good idea
I'm not actually sure how to prove this without citing results about p-groups and G/Z(G) so this should be fun
actually I just need the result about G/Z(G)
Similar to what Wew said, I think you'll need to involve some properties about group actions of p-groups. Specifically noting that G acts on itself by conjugation and the fixed points of the action is exactly the center of G.
ah that sucks there's no nice way to do it specifically for p = 3
write out all 9x9 cayley tables
Z/0 triggers me
like it's pretty clear that there are no non-direct split extenstions of C_3 by C_3
I don't think it involves that much its in herstein just after homomorphism section is finished
assume non-abelian, and take two elements a,b, if either is order 9 then the whole thing is cyclic so both must be order 3
so we know that everything in this group is order 3
no that is absolutely not true
D_8
Q_8
sorry quanterian was there
upper triangular matrices with det 1 over F_3 ;)
gah if p = 2 this would be immediate
and there are exponent p groups which are non-abelian so we have to somehow use the fact it is both exp p and order p^2
this group has to be 2-generated (minimally), as it's order 9 and the generators must have order 3 each (and it can't be cyclic)
Maybe there is a brute force solution you know that the weekend are
1, a, a^2, b, ab, a^2b, b^2, ab^2, a^2b^2
Then for each of these see ba equal to them and derive a contradiction
I was trying to show that all commutators are trivial
yeah that's basically the same
It is true for prime square order groups that aren’t cyclic
let a, b be the two generators, obviously we cannot have ab = b or ab = a or ab = a^2b or ab = ab^2 as nothing involved is equal to the identity
ab = b^2 implies that a = b, likewise ab = a^2, and ab = 1 implies a = b^2 which isn't possible
do you think I wasn't completely aware
Oops I may have accidentally assumed b and b^2 have different cosets here
ok now for the hard ones - why can't it be a^2b^2
No but I was saying the argument would’ve worked, it seemed like you were saying otherwise
my question is what's the structure theorem for modules over R[x]
is it literally just "these are the modules" lol
i have no clue about that either
yo could I get a hint for showing that if there exists a submodule $N$ of $M$ such that $M = \text{Im}f \oplus N$, then there exists $\varphi: M'' \to M$ such that $g \circ \varphi = 1_{M''}$, I've already shown the existence of $\psi: M \to M'$
okeyokay
so I know that $g \circ f = 0$, so I suppose this question reduces down to showing that there exists a bijection between $M''$ and $N$?
okeyokay
Do you know why they write 0 on the left and on the right?
yea, f is injective and g is surjective right
Also which direction are you proving, since in the case of assuming it splits
You get way more than just the direct sum
i'm trying to show that if there exists a submodule N such that blah blah blah, then the sequence splits. i've already shown the existence of psi such that psi(f) = 0
Refer to this me thinks
I would use the other equivalent notions of being split exact
That you recently proved
Wait is there not a third part, that says this splits
yea there is a third part, i didn't include everything
and i gave up on trying to prove the equivalence of the conditions lol
This exercise is basically the same thing, but its more self contained, so maybe you can try to solve that
hm ok i'll try this then
thanks
yea
this is really fucking helpful lol
yea

So $\phi: M \to M' \oplus M''$ given by $m \mapsto (\psi(m), g(m))$ should be an isomorphism
okeyokay
Ya
wait hold up how does injectivity follow
cuz psi and g are surjective but not necessarily injective
At some point you need to actually use exactness
Im semi sure that to get surjextive or injective you need to use that
hm ok
is it the case that exactness goes the other way? as in, Im$\varphi$ = Ker$\psi$
okeyokay
Can we just say this is true always since in case these x_i*y_j sum could not be all broken down into some ideal representative and the other constant parts, we could just argue that in such case we always have identity element to represent the ideal through?
oh wait
no
I need to think a bit more
i'm not sure what you're saying here
just show it's closed under addition and multiplication in R, I have no idea what you're talking about with the representative stuff
yeah ignore it
It was me messing up assuming this forms some sort of equivalence classes 
but I recalled
if you still remember how to can you give me a hint on how to use exactness to show injectivity 💀
commutative rings don't need that to be true
bc like $\phi(m) = \phi(n) \implies \psi(m) = \psi(n)$, but i can't really express $m$ and $n$ as outputs of $f$ if that makes sense, nor take inverses and what not, not rlly sure how to use exactness to show m = n
okeyokay
do you think it's really an ideal? If I assume J1 and J2 are both ideals of some commutative ring R, I can't really seem to be sure of fact that the J1 J2 will be a subgroup of R under addition
it's definitely an ideal
remember that J_1J_2 isn't the product of all elements in J_1, J_2 - it's all sums of products of that form
but if I take two elements from it, and add them, it's not closed imo, let's say I have x1y1 + x2y2 and x1y1, and add them to get x1y1 + x1y1 + x2y2
this is not in that set
yeah it is, it's a sum of products of things in J1 and J2 so by definition its in the set
what value of k in that expressoin will lead to x1y1 + x1y1 + x2y2?
3
but that would be x1y1 + x2y2 + x3y3
it doesn't say that x_1 and x_3 can't be equal
I think it should not be equal
cause it can lead to things like this
otherwise it does not make sense to me at all
you're just taking all finite linear combinations of ab with a in J_1 b in J_2
I am really weirded out
you're really overthinking it
I mean just think of span{v_1, v_2} in a vector space. It's all linear combinations of v_1 and v_2, including v_1 + v_1 or v_2 + v_2 + v_2, it's just all possible linear combinations
it's exactly like that
then why it didn't write it as sum with index i and then sum with index j instead?
all it says is that its a_1 + ... + a_k where each a_i is x_iy_i for some x_i in J1 and y_1 in J2
that's all the definition says, so if you add two such sums, you just have a bigger sum
It’s just the abelian group generated by the set {xy : x in J_1, y in J_2}
I don’t know how to make this simpler sorry
both x and y use same index there
so I am not really able to make sense of it
no matter how hard I try to think of it
What’s the problem with them both using the same index
You have some sequence of products x_iy_i
yeap
And then you add them up
This is the same image as before
don't think this lol, they specifically don't say unique
uniqueness of each x_i isn't part of it
so I think he missed the part that it's True/False problem
Why should I not?
I am really puzzled
because you're adding things to the question that aren't in it and getting stuck on it
isn't it much saner to assume the general case that they're just some elements
and prove general case
assuming uniqueness seems weirder
Why would adding assumptions be more "general"
imo the saner thing is to prove what the question asks
It asks true/false question
is it an ideal?
adding assumption is not general
that's what I am saying
then don't add an assumption that the x_is have to be unique lol
have you never seen a constant sequence? x_i = 423 kinda deal
some element in J_1 yeah
not like "oh yeah for every x_i there is j so x_i = x_j"
I really can't...
ugh
this is weird af
Tbh I still can't really see what you're getting stuck on
maybe I am just missing some common knowledge
but I can't really point to what either
Do you know what the definition of an ideal is?
subset (say I) of elements of commutative ring (say R) such that it forms subgroup under addition and for every a in R if i is in I, ai is also in I?
of course you can
what happens if J1 and J2 are not finite?
is there a mean looking guy with really big bushy eyebrows glaring at you from across the room with a sign that says "x_i \neq x_j" or something
again I ask, have you never seen a constant sequence in like, the real numbers
I have but..
there's just no issue whatsoever here
You have J1J2 defined by finite sums...
this goes against all the Math I have done so far
What
tho I agree that I am a dumbo CS student 
well thanks anyways
I will just think a bit more maybe and ask later
It's 1 AM too for me
it really really doesn't I'm sorry but this just isn't correct
take the sequence a_1 = 0, a_2 = 1, a_3 = 1
and another sequence b_1 = b_2 = b_3 = 1
I never denied existence of these sequences
then the corrisponding sum would be 0*1+1*1+1*1 = 2
Come on
I am saying assuming these to hold true for that set is absolutely wrong way to do it
You’re denying it because you seem confused about 2xy = xy + xy being in it
No
yes
It’s for every finite sequence yes
please elaborate
Your definition of J1J2 is over a finite sum of j1j2
yeap
So if you believe xy is in it, then xy+xy is also in it
how come?
J1 J2 is not proved to be ideal yet
we have to prove or disprove
bro it’s a finite sum of j1j2
yeap
Yes that’s it

okay maybeI am getting it
I think I am attaching too much importance to indices
nothing more
You are trying to show that the set defined as finite sums of j1j2 is an ideal
If you don't want to call it anything yet that's fine
I think my confusion was caused by indices
Yes
but I kinda get it now
yeah
fk
I am sorry
Thanks again everyone
Now I get it
problem was this
I thought x1, x2, etc to not be just any element of X, but be specific elements
this caused whole fiasco
Now you get it 👍
It's okay, you figured it out in the end 
til the smallest finite group in which an element of the commutator subgroup is not a commutator, has order 96
can somebody tell me if I'm on the right track for $1 \implies 2$? so I know that every $x \in \text{Im} f$ can be written as $m - \varphi(g(m))$ since $x \in \text{Ker} g = \text{Im} f$. therefore I want $\psi$ to somehow transform $m - \varphi(g(m))$ back into $m'$, where $f(m') = m - \varphi(g(m))$ if that makes any sense. at first I thought about applying $g$ then adding $m'$ but obviously that's not well-defined
okeyokay
u are
ok cool
yeah unfortunately i can't use isomorphisms or the splitting lemma or anything right
bc that uses the fact that the two conditions hold
yea i would guess so
oh wait no
i can use the isomorphism
namely M is isomorphic to the direct sum of M' and M''
since the proof of that only uses one of the conditions
nvm
nvm
oh wait i think the easiest thing is to define an isomorphism from M' direct sum M'' to M using the homomorphism phi/the sum
then i can do some shit with projections and inclusions and i think that should work
please please please
oh god i should've known holy
but as youve probably seen in my solution, i just didnt see it
so i did it another way, but in the end after all those identifications i finally saw it
when i looked at ur solution and saw first iso i was like damn that's a lot of effort


