#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 154 of 1
like polynomial multiplication but you just keep going
just like how you would think it is
damn that's crazy
okay i tried to do a proof by like assuming some element is left-quasi regular
and then showing that it must be of the form a/b where a is even b is odd
damn what a jump
prime ideals straight to Nullstellensatz
do uwanna check it out? ( its prob wrong and trash )
I can look at it, but I don't know/remember what left-quasi-regular means
okay
a left-quasi-regular element is an element a such that there exists r such that a+r+ra = 0
the jacobson radical is a left-quasi regular ideal which contains all left-quasi regular elements
I mean the ring is commutative and unital, so shouldn't need this many adjectives
oh yea left is right but whatev
okay so suppose a = x/(2k+1) is quasiiregular , there exists r = x'/(2k'+1) such that x'/(2k'+1) + x/(2k+1) + xx'/(2k+1)(2k'+1) = 0
so we have x'(2k+1)+x(2k'+1)+xx'/(2k'+1)(2k+1) = 0
--> x'(2k+1)+x(2k'+1)+xx' = 0
solving for x we get x = -x'(2k+1)/(x'+1+2k)
we wish to show x is even so suppose -x' is odd
then x'+1+2k would be even which contradicts x' being in R?
so -x' must be even
and thats it?
Makes sense
cool so now i just showed that if a is left quasi regular then its the claimed set
now i want to show the reverse inclusion correct?
And I guess you're able to follow the same argument in reverse to just make it an iff
that is i want to show that an element of this form is quasi-left regular?
like im stuck here now
idk what argument should i do
oh but ig
the jacobson radical is the unique maximal quasi-regular ideal correct?
That's right yeah
so i just need to show that
any element of this form
is quasi-regular
and im donzo?
Yup
wait
how did u know
i just gave u the definition half a second ago
Well, I extrapolate from the unital case
But yeah, should probably check it for nonunital rings as well
This ring is unital anyway, so...
yeah ig
yo do i just like
fuck it?
like
say a is in the claimed jacobson radical , a = 2k/(2k'+1)
then we wish to find r in R such that r +a +ra = 0 , r=L/(2L'+1)
then just like solve for r?
That should do it
so r = -2k/(2k'+1)/[(1+(2k/(2k'+1))]
something lke that correct?
so now every element of this set is quasiregular
and every quasi regular set is in this set
can u just show why this leads to this set being the jac?
cuz if i were to use that the jac is the unique maximal quasiregular ideal then why wouldnt this be enough
So are the prime ideals of polynomial rings generated by linear functions in the ring?
theorem 2.3
Depends. Over an algebraically closed field, yes.
Yeah, for example the ideal generated by x^2 + 1 in R[x] is prime.
I see
So the first half I understand fine up until V(I)
So I is an ideal in our polynomial ring (I understand this fine)
V(I) is the set of all x such that for any element of f our ideal (i.e. any function f in our algebraically closed polynomial ring), f(x) = 0
So all the roots of polynomials in our ideal
Is that right?
Yes
x is in V(I) iff it is a root of every polynomial in I.
So Nullstellensatz says that if we have a polynomial which vanishes on V(I) (so one of its factors is an element of I), then some multiplicity of our polynomial is in I? O.o
That's right
yeah
Some power I guess would be the right word
Yeah that's so much better lmao my bad
That doesn't make sense to me intuitively
Nor do I see why it's such a strong result
Maybe think in just one variable.
Take the polynomial generated by f(x) = x^2 . Where does it vanish? At x=0.
What other polynomial vanishes there? g(x) = x for example.
And g^2 = f
Yes
O.o
The big take away is that if we restrict ourselves to these "square free ideals" (called radical ideals) we can recover the ideal from the set V(I)
o_O
0-o
So in this example V(I) = {0}, so we know that I must be generated by x^n for some n
Imposing that I is "square free" we get that it's generated by x
What do you mean by square free?
in a way it "lifts you" to the largest ideal that generates that variety
what did u think V stood for 
and these are a specific (very nice) type of variety
I don't know LMAO I just took it as notation 😭
I'm sort of stealing terminology from integers. But formally I mean that whenever f^n is in I, then f is also in I
I see
V for very nice
Intuitively this corresponds to squares not dividing the generators of our ideal.
Why are you saying squares specifically if it can be any natural n?
But that intuition doesn't quite formalize in several variables
Well x^2 divides x^n , so it's enough to check for squares
AHHHH I see now
or wait i will wailt untill ur done
cuz i think this is a mathematical revelation
so i wont intterupt
spotted the analysist
If we see p^n
We can recover the smallest factor p
Which is a (the?) generator of our ideal?
And we like generators for obvious reasons
Did I just speak English or nonsense?
u did not speak u typed
How do you know they're not speech to text
If what I said is correct
Is there some linear algebraic formulation / relation to linear algebra? The concept of "smallest" ideals (prime ideals, generating polynomials, whatever the technical terminology is) reminds me of the concept of vector space bases
I've not done any algebra beyond goop theory so forgive me if I sound like a nimrod
Guess it's time to Google Gröbner basis
any goopers?
Or topological bases if you take union as a sort of product
Whaattttttt
This is exciting
I've never heard of that
Dude literally fuck Loch so much
I've turned into what I despised the most
are you using his notes lol
Well not really but I feel like I'm walking down that road 
No he just got me interested in AG
which I had next to no interest in before and then one stupid conversation with him and now I'm into it
and it wasn't even directly related to AG iirc it was about elliptic forms and he transitioned into AG
What is HS here
high school
WTF IM LITERALLY THE GOAT?!?!?
is actually an open problem
The way I just predicted mathematics 🤯 watch out Riemann
next grothendieck
Nah I want my $1m first then I donate it to all the poor grad students here
thanks
If there is a God out there
Or you know if all rings are Artinian
So what is the correct entry to AG
how the hell is that a conjecture
lmfao its open from 1930
i asked the same question some time ago
what is your background
geometry of schemes!!!111!
well
first do a+m
I'm skimming it
insane
Introductory real analysis and surface knowledge of everything except combinatorics, category theory, and number theory
Lmao
ive always wondered, what does wew actually work in
Because some rings are noncommutative
what is a+m
fusion systems
at least in discussy channels
try to get better at algebra as in like commutative algebra using either AM or an easier book
atiyah macdonald
thats just imo
oh
and also learn point-set topology
Yeah I think that's what Tterra recommended
I know enough PS top to get by
lems may disagree
ps?

yea and i think some knowledge of like diff geo should be cool too
yeah I do
point set
sure.... whatever u say....
for basic AG tho
i remember when i tried to do AM and one of the exercises were like "draw Spec(Z)
Real
i instantly threw it out and went back to munkres
bruh lumi
you should've thrown it out when it told you to draw spec R[x]
yea it had all of those haha
that's a shit exercise ngl
it literally defines them in section 1
Better than drawing spec(Z[x]) at least
yea i would have been a tenured AGeometer now but i threw it out .. 😦
haha
a sheaf is a way to put data on an open set in a topology
like for every open set you assign it some data
a sheaf is someone who cooks food but written wrong
then there's conditions so you can combine them
go from one to another
glue them
stuff like that
that's why.... you're reading.... the book....
I'm on pg 8 and I don't see it
there's nothing before this but one page and blank pages + title
what
The Geometry of Schemes
feather maybe try to check out the textbook called ideals , varieties and algorithms
it has a low starting point
Yes lemme open my copy
Notice: The post An atlas of the affine line over the integers and the page An atlas for $\mathrm{Spec},\mathbb{Z}[x]$ might be interesting if you came here...
what
Yes
the jacobson radical is unique in the sense that it is the biggest left-quasi regular ideal correct?
LOL
I.1.3
so if i show that every quasi-regular ideal is contained in this set, and show that this set is quasi-regular then im done right?
@rocky cloak
im just trying to wrap my head around the argument
i had it as a plan but then i forgot what i am trying to do midway lol
@formal ermine i think you need not like trivial category theory to understand these definitoins right?
like a sheaf is a functor ig
Can someone give me an example of a zero ring
0
0
I may have lost the thread on what you're proving
there's only one zero ring it's a terminal object
problem 7
zero pretty much always means trivial
a monoid?
yea but it has additive structure too
likke both additive and multiplicative
but no identity
xd
just remove it then 
so a non-unital commutative ring with distribution reversed
Yes, the Jacobson radical is the ideal of all quasiregular elements as in the image you posted, and you already showed that the quasiregular elements where exactly those described in the exercise
work for what
no ideal of any ring will work for this as they all contain 0
2Z+1?
yea
thank you so much
Like the natural numbers?
yeah natural numbers work
Real
So sort of like a semiring / rig
@delicate orchid sat through a mf talking about quiver reps and grassmannians
Sounds like a Tuesday
Something something explicit descriptions of rigid representations of Kronecker quiver
oh boy I can't wait to find the reps of the category with one object and two morphisms! (clueless)
send a link to the talk
Let me know when you have a classification, it will be a wild ride
i'm having trouble showing the (ii)
moderators ban this user for a terrible pun
i know that, by exactness, f(A) = ker(g)
Given a commutative ring A and ideal a, A/a is a subset of a right?
no? it's a quotient ring
but i'm not sure how to show that ker(g) \cap j(C) = {0}
In person so doesn’t exist
But uhh basically he classified every sub rep of rigid reps or smth
makes sense to use a grassmannian for that ig
My thinking was that A/a = {a'a : a' in A} but by definition a'a is a subset of a since a is an ideal
And -> cell decomposition of the associated grassmanian
I just Wikipedia'd what a quotient group and coset are
sorry if misunderstand
Which was known to exist by Zielinsky or however it’s spelled
I think there's a typo here - j should be C -> B
yea that's a typo
sorry should've specified
a'a is a set
Yes
but yeah idk how to show (ii) still
I'd use the universal property of a free modul- oh you've done (i)
But for fixed a' and all elements x of a, a'x is in a, so why is a'a not a subset of a
isn't A/a = {a' + a}, where a' \in A and a is the ideal
oh right I see
yeah this
@delicate orchid https://meetings.ams.org/math/fall2023e/meetingapp.cgi/Paper/25937
Given a quiver, we can define the cluster variables of a cluster algebra. If th...
Oh
you mentioned quotient groups for some reason and it crossed my wires
Here ya go
OHHHH because the ring is an additive group
So rigid means without self extensions, or does it mean something else here?
So we need to use the addition operation
yeah ideals are just a special type of additive subgroup
Bro said “im not defining it”
Unironically
then who CARES
Okayyy I see
Anyway link above
I nearly studied cluster algebras instead of fusion systems
Since it was a more informal variation of the talk
But the ideal is only closed under multiplication so of course this makes no sense to automatically assume subset under addition
This should give a better idea
uhh yeah all i can think about is like
in fact there's a fairly obvious counter example - consider the ideal generated by 0
What's a fusion system to a child?
(In the ring of integers yes?)
in any non-trivial ring
Anyhow I’ll look and see if I can find an arXiv link
||if we're not in the zero ring there's another element x out there somewhere, and x+(0) = {x} definitely isn't (0) = {0}||
take $v \in f(A) \cap j(C)$. by exactness, $f(A) = \ker(g)$ and so this is equivalent to considering $v \in \ker(g) \cap j(C)$. now $v \in \ker(g)$ implies $g(v) = 0$, but im not sure why this implies that $v$ itself is 0. maybe something like $g \circ j = 1_C$ so $j(v) \in \ker(g) \cap j(C)$ implies $g(j(v)) = 0$, implies $v = 0$?
ok wait, you're doing AG without knowing what a ring is? that's cracked
Yeah
idk how right this is tho
I know what a ring is I just don't know anything about them :^)
ana(functor)mono(morphism)
g has an inverse so it's bijective
Doesn’t exist it seems 
sorry, no
we have the embedding 1 + pZ_p ---> Z_p^times, if we now reduce mod p^n we get G --> (Z/p^nZ)^times where G is the image of 1 + pZ_p under Z_p^times -> (Z/p^nZ)^times, how do I show that the restriction of the reduction 1 + pZ_p -> (Z/p^nZ)^times is continuous?
I see, rigid objects should correspond to cluster variables so that makes sense.
it only has a right inverse
exactly
yeah
Holy fuck this channel is too busy
so we have that g is surjective (by exactness) and j is injective (since g is its left inverse)
😭
Yeah he just said “im not defining it” since time constraints so idk
oh wait
so then C \cong j(C) by injectivity
no problem "ana(functor)mono(morphism)"
yeah and then this just follows since A \cong f(A) and C \cong j(C) since they're both injective
yeah yeah okay yeah
need to use the restroom can y'all watch my laptop for a second
@crystal turtle 
Like how do you know G --> (Z/p^nZ)^\times is continuous?
ker(f) = {x in A : f(x) = 0}
Let a in A and x in ker(f). Then f(ax) = f(a)f(x) = 0f(a) = 0, hence ax in ker(f)
This is enough to show ker(f) is an ideal of A right?
I'm a bit unsure about the last step 0f(a) = 0, from the ring axioms I don't see anything about rings necessitating/implying a multiplicative 0 element?
yes yes I know I'm lacking prerequisites just bear with me
u need it's closed under addition as well
no no no an ideal
Should just be by restriction to a subspace, if that's what you mean
not a subring
erm actually 🤓 f(a)f(x) =/= 0 f(a)
needs to be a subgroup under addition yes
Yes the ideal needs to be a subgroup under addition
0 is always in the centre of a ring
How about the statement I made at the end here
shut up youre ruining my moment
How do we know that there's a multiplicative 0 element
rings are always additive groups so they must have a 0?
oh you're asking why 0a = 0
prove it
Commutative ring loser
it's a fun exercise
I'll blackbox it for now and tryto show additive subgroupness of kernel
ah lame
I wouldn’t call it fun but it is an exercise
ran from the grind
it's one of those nifty ones like showing the identity is unique
2 and 3 are so annoying bro
yeah which is why they're both annoying
Let f: A -> B be a ring homomorphism
ker(f) = {x in A : f(x) = 0}
Let a in A and x, x' in ker(f).
Then f(ax) = f(a)f(x) = 0f(a) = 0, hence ax in ker(f)
Also, f(x + x') = f(x) + f(x') = 0 + 0 = 0, which is in ker(f), so it's closed under addition
I'll pretend the rest of the group axioms are true (or maybe they're inherited? Too lazy to think and figure it out rn)
Is that right?

Literally my class’s homework 
you don't need to show the rest of the group axioms - cause you're showing this is an ideal
hopefully not this years HW
those are the two properties of an ideal
But I need to show it;s a subgroup under addition
I got it yesterday
pretend 
Which requires closure under addition and the rest of the axioms no?
hopefully you've taken a group theory course before, so you know that a ring hom is a group hom under addition so the kernel is a normal subgroup already
hopefully
the rest of the axioms suck balls
ok you need to stop doing AG right now
But it'll set in with time lols
pretend the 0 field is a field
NOOOOO not you toooooo
Boring :(
Don’t be ilum
mf you are attempting to read ancient french literature without knowing what a "je suis fatigue" is
I'll learn as I go, I'm happy with surface-level understanding :c
this leads to crankery
You’re fine but don’t just intuit group theory
Okay
I know like 10 times more algebra than u and I'm not even close to begin AG lol
yeah but you care about understanding it properly, I don't :^)
ive never heard anyone say this to anyone
numberphilepilled 
“I just intuit real analysis” has changed me
zadge
that's based though
I wonder if I can begin AG after finishing Rotman's first volume
real analysis is literally just the most boring topology known to man
truers
Real
do not ask me to show that e^-x converges to 0
But it leads to struggles with why ln converges as a power series
It's enough to show that 0a = 0 in a commutative ring since the right multiplication follows from commutativity right
I mean...
But you can show it without that too ofc
holding up my hands in two L shapes in front of my screen rn
ok by like why care cmon 
Yes
im sure its like a few more lines
Why care about what
Oh
Yeah
LOL
0a = a0 = whatever
I guess I can give it a shot (if I can figure out one direction)
Literally one extra addition
moment
yo boys, could i have a hint on this one pls
oh now THIS is swag
I hate how this is true for k[[x]] but not k[x]
have you investigated what the ideals in this ring look like
What do they look like 
I
i'm fucked then
lmfao
i mean kinda? my dumbass just took some elements of k[[x]] and looked into the principal ideal generated by them
well what do you think the maximal ideal should be
Have you seen in this ring elements like 1-x have an inverse
idk i tried the ideal generated by 1 + x + x^2 + x^3 + ... for some reason lol
then attempted the argument sent by chmonkey
hint: the quotient has to be a field
this one
okay so I'll give a couple hints
- ||if your ideal contains x^n, by the ideal condition it has to contain...||
2.||conversely, given any ideal, consider the element of minimal degree in the ideal and try to form some kind of converse to hint 1||
Let A be a ring and a in A
Then
0a = (1 - 1)a = 1a - 1a = 0?
yeah that works
then prepend a0 =

I don't know what you mean Shuri
prepend
holy nerd emoji
add a0 = to the start
0a = (0 + 0)a = 0a + 0a
a0 = 0a = (1 - 1)a = 1a - 1a = 0
ooh.
Yes I like this better
so this is neater because it doesnt rely on the ring having a 1
right?
works for more general rings
But a ring has to have a 1 no?
oh sorry, u heard nothing
no

what
rngs which some people call rings dont have 1.
that there are like 5 different definitions of what a ring is
it is indeed true that not every definition will assume the existence of 1
y'all ain't ready for felds
Ah ah ok this is like manifolds
I think most general is that you are an abelian group under addition, semigroup under multiplication and distributivity
the most general that's generally used is that a ring doesn't have 1 and isn't commutative
What is a semigroup
skew feld time ?
actually a common term in PDE
I see
non-commutative "fields" are called skew-fields
Oh
like the quaternions
those don't exist
I see
in PDE it's more homomorphisms from [0,infty)
I smell so fucking good
I've never actually explored semigroup methods in PDE but I assume it takes its name from some kind of operator like the flow map in diffgeo
Double monoid 
in any case feather - the earlier point was, the fewer axioms u have to use for your proof the cleaner/better 
cus it then holds in more general structures
Right
the best proof is the first one I come up with because then I can stop thinking
just come up with the right one 
a semigroup usually refers to a (continuous) semigroup homomorphism of [0,infty) into bounded operators on a Banach space
Which semigroup 
I said semigroup maybe I meant monoid
lie algebroids
I was joking under * or +
That’s a monoid yes
it's kinda like 1-parameter subgroup
Sion would call it a semigroup 
it's a homomorphism not a subgroup
ok here's my attempt
$\ker\varphi \subseteq \ker\varphi^2 \subseteq \cdots \subseteq \ker\varphi^i \subseteq \ker\varphi^{i+1} \subseteq \cdots$ as submodules
But $M$ Noetherian implies there is some $n$ for which this ascending chain stabilizes. So then $\ker\varphi^n = \ker\varphi^{n+1}$ implies $v \in \ker\varphi^n \iff v \in \ker\varphi^{n+1}$ implies $\varphi^n(v) = 0 \iff \varphi^{n+1}(v) = 0$. But $0 = \varphi^{n+1}(v) = \varphi(\varphi^n(v)) = \varphi^n(v)$. Since $\varphi$ is an $R$-module homomorphism, we have that $v = \varphi^n v$ and thus $v = 0$?
ur a bit of an algebroid
ana(functor)mono(morphism)
wait what we doin again
lie algebroids are pretty nice
the name might sound funny, but there's a lot of differential geometry you can do with them
so then the submodule \ker\varphi^n = 0, and thus every submodule contained in it is {0}, and thus \varphi has trivial kernel, thus injective
injective + surjective + R-mod hom implies bijective
something seems off about my proof
idk if i can conclude v = \varphi^n(v) like that
could you elaborate a bit more on why $\phi^n(v) = v \Rightarrow v = 0$
Wew Lads Tbh
because we have that $\varphi^n(v) = 0$
ana(functor)mono(morphism)
since $v \in \ker\varphi^n$
ana(functor)mono(morphism)
right of course
Why is v = phi^n(v)
yeah idk that's what im tryna figure out

this is definitely the right idea though I remember that chain of kernels
What was the original problem
^
yeah i mean im pretty sure the main idea for this proof is to show that the "stabilized" kernels are just {0}
Ah
my original idea for v = \phi^n(v) was to use that \phi(v) = \phi(n) implies v = n
but i def didnt use that right
if at all
ur morphism is surjective not injective
Uh is this a typo
ngl i've become so overwhelmed by the sheer amount of concepts in aa that i might just do elementary algebra and trig for a while
Should it say x neq 0
Stabilize phi - id?
Idk
Because 0 is a zero divisor of Z otherwise then no?
I think they literally used \neq to mean the phrase "not equal to"
lazy bastards
LMFAO
LMFAOOO
That's awful writing smh
I'm starting to see why math nerds prefer books like this though
With less exposition
The longer books are starting to wear me out with all the talking
Lurie
can u find an example of a ring with zero divisors?
Uhh it’s surjective so phi^n surjective right
This is similar to fittings lemma:
For f: M -> M, if M is Noetherian there is an N such that f is injective when restricted to im(f^n) for n > N. And if M finite length then M is the direct sum of ker f^n and im f^n
But kernels stabilize
yur
So the kernels stabilize, but what about phi(v) -> kernel of phi
for all m there exists an m' such that phi(m') = m then just brbrbrbrbrbr all the way through the composition
Which has to exist such a v since surjective
And we know 0 -> 0, so if x neq zero is zeroed, what about y in phi^-1(x)
wikipedia at least thinks 0 is a zero divisor
So we should always add another kernel element
I came up with what I think is example and I'm trying to prove to myself that it's a ring with a zero divisor
on the other hand wolfram mathworld thinks it isnt
oh sorry didnt see the 1st line was a spoiler
delete Shuri?
ring theory gotta be the messiest terminology battleground in math
or at least gives foundations a run for its money
limit points, cluster points etc in topology too
Im fine with 0 as zd but
really I think those are pretty agreed upon no?
Makes some lemmas need uh “zd but not 0”
Ye exactly

the differential geometry in question:
although I suppose that's more notational than terminology
Aww the thing I wanted to use as an example doesn't work
differential geometers don't understand their notations enough to be able to fight over it
I wanted to consider neighborhoods of a topology tau under ring addition = set union and ring multiplication = set intersection
this sounds like a mad ring
wtf is this
BUt there's no additive inverse
That’s close to a Boolean ring
Integers and polynomial rings
that's it
ok those won't get you any zero divisors
all fields are rings ||but no 0divs||
since you don't know quotients
Yeah oops lol duh
I know quotient spaces
that's it
which examples of.
What about other things you know about with multiplication
But now I know what quotient rings are I think
And addition
You explained earlier
wtf is ur pedagogy bro
Like, idk, what about functions?
what is this about

Linear ones?
None Wew, I'm an engineer lol
anyway you know another type of ring that has zero divisors
Bro you took LA
no quotients needed
this
Zero formal math experience beyond an introductory real analysis course, the rest of it is just "self-taught" me skimming through books and articles and chatting with people here and learning stuff as I go
Uh ok let me think of what LA example you're thinking of
what's the question
Since the LA one that I’m thinking of has a few fun things
Don't spoil pls
Bro use your thinker
I want to be a better math student
ok
Except for the part where I do my prerequisites properly
but everything else
ANyways
||what u clicking for goofy ah||
Vector addition and scalar multiplication
sharp trapping the fish
But there's no nonzero zero divisors no?
unfortunately the multiplication has to act on the same set
Okay
scalar multiplication takes a field element
Dot product is what my mind immediately goes to
and a vector space element
But let me check
dot product is not a binary operation either
You are an engineer
I am an engineer Dr Sharp :(
What do engineers use
need to think of "multiplication" as a binary operation
eigenstuff
Not just vectors
takes two things and returns thing of the same kind as the two things you put in
easy
And you can multiply them
dot product is bilinear? 
Yeah how is dp not binary
Maybe we should ask Morpheus
u dont land where u came from
binary operation is not the same thing as a bilinear map
they are
well unless its the dot product in R
very different things
your vs being R
i mean

Your vector space is over itself ******* (this is a pretty useless tangent)
Agh I have class now and this professor is pissy about being off topic lol I'll come back to tihs later, will think about it in class though
screaming and crying rn
Real
If you can't figure it out you may have to ask an Oracle
Or pray to the holy Trinity
breh, sharp led them down the trap 
but yes worth clarifying that cant be ring multi
I was trying to point towards ||matrices||
that mf ||nonabelian||
yeah that's where my mind went too
Yeah and
:uponthewitnessing:
gross
gimme an abelian one that isn't a quotient
cereal2 even
real ones would ||function||
:cereal4:
everything is a quotient
we can pick special ||matrices that commute cant we, or dis fail||
oh yeah true
||matrices commute if and only if they're simultaneously diagonalisable so this looks like a product of ur base field||
actually there you go there's another one
dumb proposition; M = the set of all power series with zero constant term works
||tfw nondiagonalisable||
||isnt this an answer||
I came up with this naught but a few moments ago
so much [redacted] in the chat today huh
||shhhhhhhhh then||
Well is it the only maximal?
CIA hours
Well, the problem statement says yes but
that is maximal yes
i will attempt to prove this and either arrive at yes or no.
huh wdym
Well, what are your units?
this is ||principal|| right
probably irrelevant to the original Q
in k[[x]]? just the series with nonzero constant term right
btw i got that from wikipedia lol
k is a field...?
yea
nah it's a letter
What are your units
uh so i'm guessing that's a no...
i thought it was a yes...
yeah those are the units
a0 + a1x + a2x^2 + ...
think how to cancel this
i am racking my brain over that noetherian kernel blah blah blah question
math sucks i gotta change majors to like art history or something
Oh I read it wrong
Ye that’s right
I misread it as the problem again 
I do not know how I did this
It’s indeed the units
What do you know about local rings
oh shit this is clever
See I can be big brain from time to time
Idk commalg well but
classic gradeschool teacher moment
I at least know baby stuff :^)
it's just trying to remember all the baby stuff
4 what? 4 apples? 4 lads? 4 curbstomps?
4 applies
4 imaginary units.
A spacecraft FAILED because someone didn't specify units
mars climate orbiter
no clue what that is
rings with a unique maximal ideal
1 stomp this time!
slideeee to the left
if only they worked in a field
ok so u probs don't know the thing sharp is using
If you don’t know properties about these, consider [set of nonunits] and [set of units]
Hopefully you see the relation of the former with your ideal
Consider a ring hom into a field k[[x]] -> K
(Which you know occurs for a maximal ideal quotient)
What then

||or we just show that the ideals form a chain (x) \subseteq (x^2) \subseteq (x^3) \subseteq...||
either or at this point
Eh that seems more meh imo
frick u
sorry i don't lol, is it just that k[[x]]/M is a field so k[[x]]/M iso K --> there exists a homo from k[x] --> K induced by this iso? i have no clue
well arent we done with the previous observation of units. The ideal contains all non-unit elements, hence it contains all other non-proper ideals
Well there’s obviously a map k[[x]] -> K
Ya know
First iso
Yeah basically
yeah sharp I have absolutely no idea why you introduced this map
I mean I get where you're going but it's a bit out there
thinking practice
too radical for this moderate groups-rings-fields channel
Idk it’s the first that comes to mind imo
is it just that if N is another maximal ideal not equal to M, then there exists some power series with constant term nonzero in N which is a unit and hence N is then equal to k[[x]]? is it just that?
anyway your continuity thing you sent (idr where/what it was exactly) should just be resriction of the domain of some continuous map. idk if you saw my earlier response 
yeah actually it is just that
Basically yeah
oh okay cool
Or it’s a sub ideal of M
And that’s anti - maximality
You can’t send a unit to 0
Since 1 —> 1
So it falls out immediately
i can do whatever I want, thank you. Especially if I don't require 1 --> 1
Oh
It collapses very quickly
Ring of matrices under matrix addition, multiplication
Yes
LOL
now find a commutative one

ayyy hello
so whats our 0 divisor tho lol
I'll come up with a commutative one
Oh
Let me do the math lol
One second
I just went off intuition 
can someone give an exmaple of a left primitive ideal that is not maximal?
we have the embedding 1 + pZ_p ---> Z_p^times, if we now reduce mod p^n we get G --> (Z/p^nZ)^times where G is the image of 1 + pZ_p under Z_p^times -> (Z/p^nZ)^times, how do I show that the restriction of the reduction, i.e. 1 + pZ_p -> (Z/p^nZ)^times, is continuous?
how do I know that Z_p^times -> (Z/p^nZ)^times is continuous lmao
oh lmao
How are you defining the topology on (Z/p^nZ)^\times? Is it not the subspace of quotient topology?
motherfucker what
Just give it the topology to make it continuous then??
surely just...

how the fuck do you expect to have a continuous map without topology

Bro intuited it

The intuit strikes again
bruh im so confused
how can u have a meaningful statement
using the discrete top
why care about continuity then
I need to show that the kernel of that map is an open subgroup in its domain
so I thought about just finding a topo where it's continuous
Give Z/p^nZ the quotient topology under the projection Z_p ---> Z/p^nZ
all sets will be open yeah?
This will make it continuous
Now restrict the domain/codomain as needed. It will stil be continuous under the subspace topologies
generally if you want to make a map continuous, you don't give the codomain the discrete topology
Thanks
That greatly restricts your options for continuous maps.
discrete = easy to map out of, indiscrete = easy to map in to
I had though you already knew the map was continuous in my first response lol. Sorry 🙃
but yes this should work?
so just to clarify we first restrict to Z_p^times ---> (Z/p^nZ)^times and then to 1 + pZ_p -> (Z/p^nZ)^times yes?
and the initial projection is continuous because it's a quotient map right (just repeating how we defined it)?
Give (Z/p^nZ) the quotient topology, restrict the (co)domain to the map Z_p^times ---> (Z/p^nZ)^times, then precompose with the inclusion 1 + pZ_p ---> Z_p^times
Yeah
Yeah, giving it the quotient topology just means giving it the finest topology for which it's continuous
Right
It’s continuous kinda by definition, trick is does it get your kernel open?
Is {0} open
GL on that one
SL on that one
(I think this should give discrete topology on Z/p^nZ^times anyways? Not confident in that)
if we assume discrete on Zp^nZ^times then {0} is easy but the continuous thing might be harder ig?
Yeah might not be continuous then
argggh
0 is open I'm pretty sure
Well, it is if the kernel is open (which it is)
But proving that is ya know
The issue
Under quotient map Z_p --> Z_p/p^nZ_p (which is iso to Z/p^nZ), the preimage of {0} is p^nZ_p, which is just an open ball lmao, hence {0} is open in the quotient topology
this whole thing is to show that the kernel is p^n Z_p 
then you do yout weird restriction shit and it should give the soution
who here is a wizard at latex?
also what?
I was gonna go kernel is open -> is nbhd of 0 -> closed set -> must be p^nZ_p
Why would you do it like that
Bro tf is the definition of the map homie
It's a projection onto a quotient bro
Tf the definition of your p adics are you on crack
of course the kernal is what you're quotienting by?
Unless I am misunderstanding your intentions here
Is there even a general formula
but the kernal of Z_p --> Z_p/p^nZ_p is exactly p^nZ_p. Conjugate by whatever isomorphism you need to get Z/p^nZ instead
...
huh no. well maybe. but i meant find just one.
Oh
"conjugate"?
Well give me a nonzero matrix
the kernal of 0 after you restrict will just be p^nZ_p intersected with your subspace
1 0
0 1
Sure
why did u want that...
yeah
maybe not the right word idk. Just identify Z_p/p^nZ_p and Z/p^n with each other is what I had in mind
so I need to show that p^nZ_p is contained in my space
let him land



