#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 153 of 1
So on the domain where the power series converge you have the identity
the thing I'm worried about is that this is in Q_p[[X]], so I wanna know that if I assume that it's true in Q[[X]] then it's also true in Q_p[[X]], surely right?
That includes the part of Q where the power series converges
I'm gonna be honest I'm not even sure how to formally justify all this I just take it for granted
It should hold as long as the expression you’re trying to show is equal to whatever is continuous in Q_p
wat
Don’t conflate the function and the power series, but they’re very closely related with analytic functions where they converge
I just wanna know
if the formal power series equation
is true
by my reasoning
arithmetic doesn't change for Q in Q_p
I’m pretty sure he said it’s true because density multiple times
The argument I’m saying does not work for formal power series

I mean as far as I know
but that's for the actual functions
no?
Perhaps there’s an identity theorem thing
Because you go back and forth between power series and analytic functions w/ Taylor’s
actual functions are just evaluation maps from R[[x]]
let f(X), g(X), h(X) in Q[[X]]. assume that f(g(X)) = h(X) (in Q[[X]]). does it follow that if we embed f, g, and h into Q_p[[X]], we still have f(g(X)) = h(X)?
Yeah because arithmetic doesn't change for Q in Q_p right?
Yeah
that's what I've been wanting to know this entire time
The arithmetic of Q inside Q and Q inside Q_p are the same
embeddings are homomorphisms no way
The only thing that would maybe change is where it converges
nor do i care to actually know
I mean it’ll definitely change somewhat in the sense that it presumably works for a non Q p-adic
Ah yeah that idk
If you just take the same ball in Q_p for the p-adic metric it should converge in that ball for reason or something
And I don’t think it enlarges because then you get a too big Q-number it converges for or something
Idk
I’m not good enough at this shit
Can’t intuit it
I WANT MY RINGS OF CONVERGENT POWER SERIES FROM RIGID ANALYTIC GEOMETRY
TATE ALGEBRAS
Please just let me intuit it I promise to only prove reasonable stuff
Cauchy proving convergent sequences of continuous function are continuous
With the right topology everything is true
jagr spitting
sorry to post this problem again lol, just returned to it, why doesn't x -> g work?
where g is not the identity
g is a unit
More directly, what does x^2 send to
e?
What jagr said is big but I mean just directly looking at where it sends x^2 should give a good idea
Is that 0
yeah?
e = 1 (multiplicative identity of the ring)
1e + 0g is the multiplicative identity, if it helps to see it this way
o
i think
if R is left artinian then the jacobson radical is a nilpotent ideal
let J > J^2 > J^3 > be a stricltly descending chain
there exists k such that J^n = J^k for all n>=k
As I said, think as polynomials
oh this is taken fuck
x^0 is not 0
We can interleave
nah go for it bro
now
Embrace the chaos
Hint: ||nakayama||
okay wait
im new to this stuff
J is the intersection of all maixmal ideals
hence contained in every maximal idela
so our hypothesis is there reight?
right*
Which hypothesis are you thinking of?
that the ideal is contained in every maximal ideal
Then yes, the radical is the intersection of all maximal ideals
if A is an ideal contained in every maximal ideal , then 1-a is a unit for all a then whenever JA=J for f.g j then J= 0
lmfao wait
J^k * J^k = J^k tho right
cuz 2k > k
?
Dawg this is descending
yea mb
Indeed
i did not attend this grade school class
okay but why would J^k be contained in every maximal ideal tho
J^k being the product of J(R)
like
wait
Because J is the intersection of all maximal ideals
And the intersection of stuff is contained in stuff
yea obv
lmfao
mb
i need to show that J^k is finitely generated right?
is it tho
Yeah, guess you need to show that
i've got this seemingly obvious problem/proof in a book i've been reading through and it's got me stumped
yea it is cuz J^k is just generated by the products of elements
of J up till k
ig
lmfao
let G and H both be abelian groups; prove G x H is also abelian
thats just how ideal multiplication works
Yeah, so if you already know J is finitely generated, that works
Just write the product of two elements in both orders and compare I guess
It's related to an assumption you made about R
A certain "finiteness" assumption
So when R is artinian it's also Noetherian, hence every ideal is finitely generated
But maybe you haven't proven that yet, so maybe you prefer going another route
that makes a lot of sense
the proof is fairly easy at least
Is it? I feel like there are some complicated steps, or maybe you have a different proof in mind than me
True for noncommutative as well, but sure
wow
okay so im done i guess
hopefully the grader doesnt like remove all points from the problem ( if comes on the exam )
An alternate approach, without going through noetherianess could be to consider the annihilator of J^k
Well you might wanna prove Artinian -> noetherian though
okay I'm just gonna clear it up because I'm actually stupid; the additive identity of k[G] if k is a field and G is a group is the additive identity 0 of k. the multiplicative identity 1 of k[G] is the multiplicative identity 1 of k.
sure, i mean you can phrase this as saying k embeds in k[G] as a subring
k*Id is the image of k in k[G]
specifically, with coefficients of the non-identity coefficients all 0 (i.e., k |--> k*e + 0*g)
F × F → F can anyone explain this notation? the arrow makes sense but I'm not sure what the cross means
yuh
OHHHH it's just polynomials in G with coefficients in k
@topaz solar
😹

we been saying this
perfect explanation, thanks my guy
cuz you're a g
anyways
x |--> g doesn't work (||it's kernal looks something like x^2 - 1, since x^2 would be sent to 1||). How do you think you can remedy this? (||char 2, btw||)
i forgot about that for a hot second eariler, even tho I pointed that out as well
lol perhaps my funny tip is just to consider k = F_2
there you have very few options for a surjective map k[x] -> k[G]
ok i'll try
ohhhh now this makes sense, x^2 gets mapped to e and we can consider e to just be 1 times e which is just symbollicaly 1?
sorry for being slow, this idea of considering a polynomial ring over some abstract indeterminate (or whatever the phrase is) is kinda confusing to me
so in this case x^0 in say Q[x] would be analagous to e
you're fine lmao, I also had a few misconceptions when I first read it
but yeah, x^2 gets mapped to e (or 1). So the kernal would almost look like x^2 (from which we would be able to apply first iso), but not quite
Instead, it looks like x^2 - 1 = (x+1)(x-1). But we are in char 2! What does this mean for us then
holding

So let's change the map accordingly. Try mapping x to 1 + 1g? (i think this works and will have kernal <x^2>: try to double check me!)
wait sorry for the moment i'm trying to see how you got to mapping x to 1 + 1g
sorry i'm going to think out loud here
nvm i'm not
good question let me think of a good justification for why other than "it sounds right?"
ohh
||I mean I guess it's kinda going back to that whole "treat it like polynomials in G" thing. We're off by a factor of + 1, so we can try to correct by factoring x^2 - 1 = (x+1)^2 (which is sent to 0). And then treating x and g as if they're the same, I'd like x^2 to map to (g + 1)^2 = 0, so there's a natural choice for this (namely, x |--> 1 + 1g)||
okay sorry just for the moment i'm going to ignore the paragraph you just posted, just cuz i wanna figure it out on my own lol, but i'll definitely look at it if i'm stuck; so x maps to g implies that x^2 maps to 1, sure. but we want x^2 maps to 0, which is equivalent to assigning x to a nonzero value of k[G] such that x^2 = 0. i can use the fact that k is of characteristic 2 to produce a nonzero element of k[G] such that when squared gives 0.
this is my thinking process so far
but (g + 1)^2 is nonzero
lemme just hide it then 🙃
thank uuuu lol
absolutely cracked that you're considering group algebras over positive char before being comfortable with them
wew coming in to save the day
OH WAIT
"save"
uhh I hope you already had that realization when you sent this...

o
g^2 = 1 => g^2+1 = 0 => (g+1)^2 = 0 => k[C_2] \cong K[x]/((x+1)^2) \cong K[x]/(x^2)
swag
apparently conjugacy is an automorphism????
yurr
a very nice class of automorphisms
special kinds
sweet wew is a math lord
called inner automorphisms
next i have to show the existence of a unique maximal ideal!
whoo!
but thank you so much @crystal turtle
huh yeah I guess that is true
only one simple rep after all
I hope you're fully aware that I am a moron
if you're a moron then I'm unconscious
I have more machinery in my mind to work with it's not a fair comparison
wew are you phd
yur, just going into my 2nd year
swag
i know a guy at my school with a british accent is it you wew
yeah i'm reading about the inner automorphisms, and it's being explained with D_6 (which does make sense considering it's talking about permutations and dihedral groups are pretty permutation-esque) but it pretty much gives a question related to D_6 and then says that conjugacy builds inner automorphisms for every group (as far as i can tell)
Same
wait didn't you already work that out a few days ago?
I thought we'd been over this about conjugation before 
oh yeahhhhh
now i need to buy dreaming discs vinyl
i have horrible memory
dihedral groups are pretty permutation-esque
all groups are lol
oh god wait showing that this is a homomorphism involves binomial expansion stuff doesn't it....
hahaha bahahahaha hahaha
UGH
can you not take that (x+y)^p = x^p+y^p in char p lol
it seems like you're passed the point where you'd need to show that
o
i mean this case it directly and easily calculable lol it's 2
you're so right
also this for char p
it's actually true over Z if you don't mind being sullied
wait wdym
Just expand the brackets and see
well I mean you directly computed it lol
i'm trippin
also something something binomial theorem generalizes something
me too
binomial thm generalizes monomial thm
multinomial theorem generalizes binomial theorem
this is easily seen by taking b=0 for (a+b)^p
:o
this is definitely a very obvious question but if conjugacy is an automorphism then does that mean an element of a group G that can be described as a conjugation is, in a sense, related to an automorphism of G
what do you mean by "described as a conjugation"?
there is a homomorphism sending any element g to it's conjugation map h |-> ghg^{-1}
That is slightly vague but there is a canonical map G -> Aug(G)
This is not an obvious but rather a very vague question
it can be described as $aba^{-1}$ for $a, b \in G$
That's every element nonpost
well
this is either a dumb question or young blud's about to figure out Cayley on his own
yeah, set a to be the identity lol
nonpost
not me
cat king cat king
And we typically call that "written in the form..." rather than "described".
i feel like i should've thought of that
Is it definable though 
Now if you want to have something nontrivial, it's interesting to note that typically not all elements can be written as a commutator. A commutator is something of the form $[a, b] = aba^{-1}b^{-1}$
Schur thing boss
[a,b] is notation defined here.
Exercise, if you wish: find all elements of dihedral groups expressible as commutators.
slight_smile

Not a hard exercise 
a tedious one
true that's not bad for D_n lol
Not tedious either, surely you've done this yourself lol
I've done it just now in my head

it was tedious
ngl i can't do one tedious thing in math for >18 minutes without making a significant error and not noticing
me
The subgroup generated by commutators is a very important one called the derived subgroup.
every exercise is hard to someone
We try to be inclusive on this server please
Except to set theorists
I will never forgive them for the continuum hypothesis
every time i "prove" something incorrectly (i did not prove it) it is always wrong at the end bc by the time i get there i've lost all train of thought 
If you'd like to know more about the derived subgroup and its importance, the relevant things to look at are the Abelianisation of a group and the concept of a solvable group
that is why I reread my proofs 30 times a minute
i just don't prove stuff
I didn't know you did differential geometry
i like how i forgot the identity exists while doing group theory
boss ur going off on a tangent
now let me talk about the F-abelianisation
Bro I'm telling the dude about a thing
i thought diff geo is fine w proofs lol
fairs...
(the dude is also 15 for reference)
Yeah and? I was about 15 when I started group theory too
Am I supposed to not tell people about relevant things?
I was 18
sir when you start group theory the first thing you talk abt isn't the intrinsic importance of the derived subgroup
And?
fair, but for someone who is young and just learning groups, talking about abelianizations and derived subgroups will go over their head?
Like I get your point
But?
yeah that's why I'm saying it's important bruh
This is so silly
it's really quite simple, it's the focal subgroup associated to the inner fusion system.
but to a beginner it's not???
It is
it's really not lol
It really isn't
🙄
how else will they apprechate the beauty of pontygain duality without it...
"can every element of a group be written in the form of a conjugation between two elements a, and b? sure would be nice if there was an element, idk 'e' that was its own inverse and had the property ea = ae = a: for all a in g, and was in every group"
Like someone is first learning basic real anal, probably not a good idea to be like "oh this actually is a statement about connected locally compact metric spaces" like??
Gelfand duality for life
Stop pretending what I'm saying is stupidly complicated.
It's true and no doubt important. Just not relevant at their level
ye it's not that complicated but there are probs more important things to learn first
Anyway, I just pointed out that although what was written was every element, there's a variation that is interesting 🙄
Thanks for saying that I should simply not mention that
Bro barely comprehends conjugation idt he knows normal subgroups
I didn't mention normal subgroups
everybody who has a problem with this can go write a 40000 word essay on their myspace maths pedagogy blog
yes sometimes it helps to think of trivial cases 
abelianization, i heard about once; derived subgroups, never heard of them; the real question is: why and how would a beginner like me need to know what something called a "derived subgroup" is
that name is inherently daunting and complex
Because you will soon see them, and I thought it would be nice to tell you what to look forward to.
I cannot believe people are acting like mentioning a name of a concept is like summoning a devil
i don't really care that much ngl
Noted.
i started learning group theory off wikipedia so tuning out jargon has become second nature to me
boytije idk why you have a hard on for abelianization but that isn't really something you'll see that much until maybe like you start talking abt solvability of groups and stuff
I don't "have a hard on" for it
can everybody chillax
I need to win this online argument to show that I am the "alpha" of the group
My manhood depends on it
I am about to rant about capitalism
It's one of the first examples you can use quotient groups for. In Fraleigh, the book I learned from when I was a beginner, it was given as a relatively early thing that he mentioned as a teaser. Oh no Fraleigh must also have a hard on for the Abelianisation 😱
you don't motivate quotients
true
the winds of time will carry the grains of truth to you
Lord protect everyone from a windvane
yeah can this not be a thing, i do not care about hearing unexplained jargon as i am used to hearing much more of it than i have here so i don't see a good reason for anyone else to care that much
if you got any more questions about conjugation or anything I'll happily answer them tho
if you don't have a negative reflex towards a lot of unexplained jargon the first paper you write will look like IUTT
Hodge theater my ass
i know you said all groups are permutation-esque; what exactly makes groups in general like permutations
It's Cayley's theorem
Every group is isomorphic to a group of permutations – that's the theorem.
i used to know that then i forgot it
Well, here's an opportunity for you to try and rederive it yourself!
The key idea is that if you look at how an element x affects other elements, you can figure out what element x was all along
i think the way i first heard it described was something along of the lines of: every group of order n is isomorphic to a subgroup of the symmetric group S_n but i forgot the exact definition i was given so don't quote me on if that statement is true or not
This is the same statement
ohhh
bro is ego searching ⚠️
and so that actually explains how conjugacy makes automorphisms
will be memed for decades to come
bro is still on this
i'm just saying that it circles back to where it started
Unfortunately Cayley's theorem has very little to do with conjugacy. The fact that conjugation is an automorphism one just has to see by inspection.
not you
exercise: prove it's an automorphism
this
what i'm saying is that cayley's theorem makes "conjugacy is an automorphism" make a lot more sense to me
OK
but it shouldn't? they're not really related
no big connection as far as i can tell
or at least a homomorphism
it's hard to explain but it just clicks
They're related in that they're about automorphisms maybe?
yeah that's it
Can you elaborate on how Cayley's theorem is about automorphisms
^
Iirc that's how one proves it: you take the symmetric group on G, and map g \in G to it's action by left multiplication (roughly speaking)
left mulitplication is not an automorphism
you can't take the permutation arising from conjugation as your map for cayely's because it must be injective
Also, symmetries of a set ~~ automorphism of the set
This is moreso what I had in mind I think
the multiplication structure being a set automorphism, sorry
can somebody give me a hint to see how the kernel is contained in (x^2)? i wrote phi(f(x)) = 0 and expanded f(x) but i've gotten nowhere lol
and i don't think contradiction is the way to go either
i vaguely know what an automorphism group is and i'll bet a whopping $0 that if bijections on sets are considered automorphisms of sets then you could probably say the symmetric group is an automorphism group on a set
Again, I don't disagree that this is a stretch for how they are related
The map is phi(x) = g+1 right?
I was just trying to perhaps voice what nonpost was maybe thinking
Just checking
ya
my brain will think two things are somewhat related if it looks like there's a decent relation between the two if you squint hard enough
well there may be connections, but you gotta have a reason for the connections lol
like ofc once you learn rings, you'll notice that there are some similar (basic) statements. That's a legitimate connection (say, universal algebra)
i don't do this for everything i see, and it's not like i'd ever use "they look kinda related" in math
Well, every power above x^2 gets annihilated, and they indeed are in the ideal (x^2). So you only need to verify that linear polynomials aren't killed by this map
I use “hm this looks like XYZ” but I don’t try and blindly connect em, I try to see if there is indeed a connection there first
Yeah something “looks like” something else, doesn’t mean like anything about them is related
alternatively could we use the corrispondence theorem some how?
me seeing two things and finding a probably indescribable relationship between the two is just a thing i do bc of my autism; it's just second nature and i do it because it's fun
yea this was what i thought, i tried to assume for contradiction f(x) not in (x^2) which would imply that f(x) is not equal to g(x)x^2 for any g(x) in k[x], and i thought that would imply that f(x) is of degree 1 or less, which would lead to the contradiction. i thought that was wrong
What precise part of that did you think was wrong
this would get us that (x) is the only non-trivial proper ideal of k[x] that contains (x^2) so the only proper non-trivial ideal of k[x]/(x^2) is (x)? am I smoking the zaza here
Oh I thought okey just wanted to verify that the kernel is as it claims
idk, my brain went "oh x^2 not being a factor of f(x) doesn't imply that f(x) is of degree 1 or less". like i thought of f(x) = 1 + x + x^2 + x3 or some shit, but i forgot that we're in a field of char 2
i guess i should try to also prove that formally lol
So here's an easier way of thinking about this
You have some polynomial, let's assume it isn't killed
we can ignore all the parts that are killed, since we may ignore them anyway because they will be sent to zero – so we are left with a polynomial of degree at most 1
ohhhh that makes a lot more sense i think
n >= 2, x^n = x^2x^{n-2} = 0x^{n-2} = 0
So this shows the kernel is contained within (x^2) after a little more thought
wait i'm confused though, 1 + x + x^2 + x^3 is not sent to zero and it doesn't have x^2 as a factor, and is of degree > 1
it's sent to 1+x
my brain is not working properly i think
at absolutely no point in human history have we ever divided by x^2
that's not what a quotient is
1 + x + x^2 + x^3 is sent to the same thing as 1+x is sent to. Cool w that?
So you can focus attention just on 1+x instead of a yuge polynomial
yes
Now as it happens you can quite easily just look at all the degree <= 1 polynomials and see where they land to confirm that they don't end up getting sent to zero
So if it ain't in (x^2), it ain't in the kernel
There are only three such things of course
huh ok. i think i've spent too much time on this problem and will return to it at some point, but for now i'll assert that and try to prove it later
my brain is like
literally non functional now
Schleep time
uwu
what i'm saying is that the pseudo-connection i made between conjugacy and Cayley's theorem is indescribable bc the "connection" is rather abstract due it being a quirk of my neurodivergent mind's slightly muddy, occasionally abstract idea of how two things can be considered "related"
You spelled my name right... this is a rare occasion
do people normally say boytijie
I've heard "bowtie" and "boytoy" and all sorts
me proving something for >20 minutes
it's best to keep the discussion at this
(it gets much worse than that btw)
I spent a few days on my lil dumb project just to prove
“Yep if this covering hits everything infinitely often it’s a transcendental”
me spending a week to show one result
me not noticing a mistake in a proof for a month
only to discover that along the way I found a much better characterisation of the property I wanted to study

prove a result about thing, write it down
work on different thing
get stuck
go back and look at first result
itisveryuseful.jpg
apply result and solve problem
derive false fact
look back on first result
spot mistake
^ 'bout two weeks
thankfully none of my results have actual applications
*this didn’t even show it had everything transcendental, just that it had one
mistake 8 pages into 35
yeah i’ll spend a good 10 minutes on a book exercise
if im feeling confident, 15
then to stack exchange i go
but if I think about a question myself (especially a combinatorial one) I will hyperfixate on it
so real
which is a useful thing to have when doing research - undergrad not so much
spent all day the other day trying to remember why the cantor set was uncountable
cause it's in bijection with R 
only for the proof to be some base 2 decimal thingy that i wasnt expecting at all
oh yeah something like that
ok thinking about this now 
well it was like you get some decimal and u do enough subtraction so its only 0’s and 2’s then just change all the 2’s to 1’s
you keep removing the middle third so what does that do to the base 3 expansion? it means you can never have a 1 right?
i think yeah u start w like .02333 or smth like that i forgot
yea
you’ll get 2’s and 3’s and 0’s i think
yeah so you get a thing with a bunch of 2s and 0s
which is basically binary
so there's a bijection to [0,1]
man im reclined in my office chair with a beer in one hand do not make me get up and read the proof from my notes
yeah
cool!
mhm yea
it gets worse? 
some proofs take hours
some take days or weeks, even months
big boy proofs take years even
(of course, broken into many parts for those, but still)
I’ve spent a few days trying to prove 1 group nontrivial
Or, find the condition where it is
spent many hours trying to show that one function was just a rotation of another for complex analysis
honestly i like conjugacy (in the context of non-abelian groups)
speaking of conjugacy, the phrase "inner automorphism" implies the existence of an "outer automorphism"
An automorphism that isn't inner (i.e., isn't given by conjugation by some element of the group) is called outer.
makes sense
For an example, take any nontrivial automorphism of an Abelian group.
A famous fact is that S_6 is the only symmetric group with an outer automorphism.
just found out about soluble groups
any tips on how to find a unique maximal ideal? right now i'm just blindly testing ideals and i feel like there's a better way to do this
like
As Wew said, the correspondence theorem. The ideals of k[x]/(x^2) are in bijection with ideals of k[x] containing (x^2). So what are those ideals.
Hint: there's only one nontrivial ideal, full stop.
oh wait wtf i didn't even know this was a thing

is that something you learn in a second course in abstract algebra
Same as with subgroups of quotient groups, if you know that one
This is something you learn in a first course in abstract algebra
wtf
You should try to prove it.
am i just misinterpreting what you're saying lol
For groups it would be "for a normal subgroup N of G, there is a bijection between the subgroups of G/N and the subgroups of G containing N"
It’s like requires to make sense of third iso
(+ some other stuff about preserving index, normality, ...)
Nah it 100% is
how wtf
You must be smokin dope
or maybe it was an implicit thing
that's interesting
I never read the book but
(this correspondense also preserves primeness of ideals btw)
If it isn’t in it the book is FRAUDULENT
And normality of subgroups btw
nvm i'm disabled


oh it was a lemma so i forgot that nobody theorem
I already said that, copy🐱
how is one of the isomorphism theorems just a lemma 💀
What the fuq
ok but fr we didn't even get to the other isomorphism theorems in our aa, we didn't even get to the fundamental theorem of field theory i had to learn all the other shit
so i prolly just forgot this nobody lemma
i'm actually dumb, $(x^2, x) = {f(x)x^2 + g(x)x \mid f(x), g(x) \in \mathbb{F}[x]}$ right
okeyokay
One of these elements is in the ideal generated by the other
So you can simplify it to just (a) for one of them
(reminding you of this!)
(you have a nontivial ideal, after passing through the correspondence)
okay now i don't understand why there's only one nontrivial ideal but i'll take boytjie's word for it! haha!
something something polynomial ring over field maybe? idk
huh ok
this problem's putting me through the fucking blender!
Suppose you are an ideal containing (x^2) [which just means you contain x^2]
Case 1: you are (x^2)
Case 2: you aren’t (x^2)
In this case you contain an element not in (x^2) which means a polynomial f(x) which isn’t divisible by x^2. You can thus be written as
f(x) = x^2•g(x) + ax + b
Where a or b must be nonzero else you’re in (x^2)
Subtracting away x^2•g(x) you remain in this ideal, so the ideal contains ax + b
If a is 0 then you contain a unit and so you’re (1). So assume a nonzero. Multiply by a^-1 and it contains x + b/a
If b is 0, then you contain x, and the ideal (x) is maximal so the ideal is (x)
Now multiply x + b/a by x, you contain x^2 + xb/a
Subtract away x^2, you contain xb/a
Multiply by a/b and you contain x
So you’re (x)
The only ideals containing (x)^2 are (x^2), (x), and (1), QED

sorry, why are you allowed to subtract away x^2? that is if we're assuming that a and b are nonzero
Im not sure my course last semester covered first iso even, or Sylow
You contain (x^2)
i'm disabled
x^2 is in the ideal so if we subtract x^2•anything it remains in the ideal
thanks forgot about that
That’s a lie
No shot
ah the proof makes complete sense man
We 100% didn’t touch Sylow
damn idk how you even come up with that stuff on the spot 💀
And I’m 50/50 we didn’t do first iso
It isn’t that hard
100% didn’t do second iso
damn ok
And from there you just hack away at it, each step is pretty obvious I think
I knew the goal is to get x in there
I don’t think it’s the server
I mean also yeah I live and breath commutative algebra so
What is there to do with goops without iso theorems 
I’ve considered this ring hundreds of times
I think the only ring we considered was like, Q[sqrt 2]
Did you go to a university for toddlers(
It be like that sometimes
(Yeah it’s not a big math uni, which is related to me being as braindead as I am)
Program?
I think there are 2 professors who do algebra here
Wdym
They said “10 people in my problem”
Oops
0 who do any models or logic stuff, certainly no commalg/AG
Rip
They do have applied math and PDEs tho
Bro goes to Le Courdon Bleu
So I’ll give em that
Nah it’s funny American still but
Definitely not top uni in math
Le Courdon Blue is (was) an American university
oh no
Oh wait
Hmmmm…..
I swear there was a US campus
Or maybe those fucking ads on TV was actually for people to go to France
In which case ????
(Btw the issue with the definability I mentioned is because defining the transcendence basis is the issue, not extending once you have it)
In the United States, 16 schools used to operate under the "Le Cordon Bleu North America" name through a licensing agreement with Career Education Corporation (CEC), a for-profit education company based in Chicago, Illinois.[6] In 2009, the license was estimated to be worth $135 million.[7] In 2014, Le Cordon Bleu North America generated $178.6 million in revenue and $70.6 million of operating losses.[8] However, in light of the gainful employment rules implemented by the US Department of Education in 2015, CEC made the decision to sell the 16 campuses. When CEC failed to find a buyer[6][9][10] it announced on 16 December 2015 that all 16 campuses in the United States would close by September 2017, giving enrolled students time to finish their programs.[9][11][6] The last new students were accepted in January 2016.[9][6] In June 2016, the Securities and Exchange Commission requested documents and information regarding Career Education's fourth quarter 2014 classification of its Le Cordon Bleu campuses.[12]
Le Cordon Bleu has continued to maintain a presence in the United States through its New York office, Le Cordon Bleu Inc., which places students in the locations abroad.[13]
Aha
Interesting
This is kinda like how totally transcendental groups have descending chain condition on definable subgroups
If it ain’t definable it ain’t seen and totally transcendental fields are algebraically closed
70.6 million losses
Whuh
I mean that’s still +100 mil but
yea we got 20K people but about this many math grads
Think mine is like 40k
My real anal 2 course was pretty much the entire honors module group, that was 11 people
Macintyre is a weird theorem btw
But we have like 30 math grads maybe? Still tho a lot of our classes are pretty baby
As baby as “show 0a = a0 = 0” in rings, or 2 days on basics of limsup of sets?
Maybe not that baby I guess
Compared to what I see others posting about though, yeah
That showing 0a was literal, assigned homework
my galois theory class has 6 people
I've had some questionabke hw
I've seen it on both the first and second year algebra exams
i'm pretty sure my proving skills are just a bit less baby than "show a0 = 0a = 0" 
I might have seen it on two separate exams for the second year case
10% of my complex anal 2 course (senior year/split graduate course, btw)
People having trouble with how a basis generates a topology in the grad topology course 
I got docked points on my grad manifolds hw because I used the third isomorphism theorem for vector spaces
And considering that they have their pic on the student list, PhD students
I mean we have no undergrad topology classes here
What
what
And it wasn’t covered in the linear algebra part of ism
Third is the riji one?
Yeah
I can never remember names oop
I had to do dimension count and just used that for ease
docked 
I dropped that class cuz the grader was a cunt
What mentality would lead someone to dock on that
Also, we have one but that’s because they just toss em in w/ the grads
i don't know if proving is hard or if i'm just really bad at proving 
same, it's 4th year here
They can both be true, but you get better with practice

Though, then again, im still clowned by chmonkey so
it's a finicky one that can make you go tf when you first get asked so like, ehh
i'm pretty sure if someone asked me to prove the first iso theorem i would blank for like 30 minutes (hyperbole)
theorems with names aren't meant to be proven, just accept them at face value
me when my group theory class spends like an entire day proving first iso theorem (we had previously seen it in an abs alg course as well)
I think that's how long we spent on it the first time we saw it
I wouldn’t want to prove Macintyre offhand because I am small baby at Galois stuff
But
like bro just give the map and check bing bong oop it's an isomorphism like damn
I don't even know what Macintyre is
i can't even imagine what a proof for it would look like
(it's not that bad)
It's just giving an explicit map that's an iso. Perhaps not the most enlightening or obvious thing when you first see it, but eventually you'll be like "oh yeah, that's the obvious choice for the map"
I'm busy staring at galois theory homework that I left yesterday thinking it'd be easy but now I am facing the consequences of my actions
It kinda boils down to
Totally transcendental
-> additive group has connected component
-> connected component an ideal
-> it’s the whole thing because field
-> 1 generic type over it, and therefore over multiplicative group
-> multiplicative is connected
-> it has all roots of unity
-> either it’s algebraically closed, or an algebraic extension is Kummer (can’t exist here) or order q or smth for char q, adding a root of x^q - x = a
So totally transcendental fields are algebraically closed it seems
We didn't cover algebraically closed

I’ve seen this referenced for finite rank -> alg closed, but Hodges has the theorem statement for any ordinal rank, so idk
Finite rank is particularly interesting since \omega stable or wtv
we finished galois theory at f(x) has solutions by radicals -> Gal(F(f(x))/F) is solvable
And any finitary shenanigans on it are of finite rank, including varieties ofc
the only part i could see being easy to prove is that the image of a homomorphism is a subgroup of its codomain
that's not the iso theorem, but yes that's relatively easy
from what ik of the iso theorem it's part of the explanation of it
(another thing you'll see is common in algebra, for many algebraic objects btw. But not always true!)
ayo Chmonkey what tf is a Kummer extension
So mild galois theory question
Nvm my question was a dumb, still stuck on this question though
a map is like a morphism, right?
map = function = morphism ( = homomorphism = continuous map = ...)
Depending on the contect
Here, I meant homomorphism
makes sense
Any of you have any suggestions on c btw. My brain ain't working today
Got 19/20 on my last assignment though, so we take those

This is the course with my best grade this tri which should not be the case
I don't think c is true because (\varphi) is obviously not identity
StarvinPig
(Lagrange)
I have not seen lagrange pop up at all
\phi is not identity if E is not F_p
but Lagrange should give you \phi^n is for some n, since E is a finite extension
(just need to show that all F-autos are of the form of the form \phi^n then, idk how to do that lol, idk any Galois theory)
yea idk what Lagrange theorem you're citing here
the order of a subgroup H of G divides the order of G
the book about groups i was reading actually only has one chapter dedicated to groups
yea I just don't think we've named that
In particular, a consequence for the multiplicative groups of finite fields F_{p^n} is a^{p^n} = a (classically for n=1, this is Fermat's ittle theorem)
odd, since this is a standard theorem/name
this I don't think we've seen at all
Well fermats theorem ofc but bigger powers no
yeah Lagrange's theorem is one of the few group theoretic theorems i know
well it generalizes (just a simple cardinality argument)
Ryx(Just a dragon by this point)
That also looks new
bro 💀
it's a field
with p^n elements. Of these, all but 0 are multiplicatively invertible
hence p^n-1 invertible elements
ohhhhhh
Fair, we haven't used (F_{p^n}) that way, we just use (\mathbb{Z}/{p^n}\mathbb{Z})
StarvinPig

Please tell me your class is not using Z/p^nZ for field of order p^n
Please tell me that
We've never done anything higher than n = 1
isn't Z/nZ a ring?
okay good because that would be false if that was true
yes, and is a field iff n is prime (exercise for whenever you learn rings/fields!)
oh wait that (p^n) where it's some irreducible of degree n?
StarvinPig
uhh you quotient F_p[x] by some irreducible of degree n (or take an appropriate splitting field)
but yeh that's how you get them
Oh yea found the theorem in my notes that basically finishes this question
Maybe?
So I need to show (E = (\mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z})/(p_n(x))) for some appropriate (p_n)?
StarvinPig
Well if I have E in that form then I get (Gal(E/F) = <\varphi>)
StarvinPig
Which is what I want
:o
I think this is true. Surprised you would not have shown this at some point? (in particular: that all finite fields of the same order are iso?)
This showed up in my abs alg course
It doesn't look familiar
Well proving that's true at least
I mean the finite field thing sure, makes sense and I may have seen it
Well then there's probably a proof without using that then
I mean the theorem gets me everything I want if I can show that
I mean how else do I do this question, I at least have something that's a direct result of a theorem we were shown in class
(idk galois theory enough to answer that part, sorry)
I think I have something that works if you don't read it
I'm not sure how it helps you that E is of that form, but you can prove that the Galois group is cyclic with just a few facts
- the order of the Galois group is the order of the extension
- x |-> x^p is an automorphism
- a polynomial of degree n has at most n roots.
If E is in that form then (E = GF(F_{p^n})) so (Gal(E/F) = <F_{r_p}>) which is (\varphi)
StarvinPig
I'm not sure I follow, you've already proven what the Galois group of a finite field is?
We did that in class I believe
Alright, then I guess the exercise is done
Is the field extension $F(X)$ the same as the field of polynomials $F[X]$?
NotAPenguin
(or isomorphic to)
Wait, F[X] isnt even a field 🤔
I guess that answers my question
I need to compute $[\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{3}, \sqrt[3]{5}) : \mathbb{Q}]$. I figured the minimal polynomial of $\sqrt{3}$ in $\mathbb{Q}$ was $X^2 - 3$ and the minimal polynomial of $\sqrt[3]{5}$ in $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{3})$ is $X^3 - 5$. That led me to concluding $[\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{3}, \sqrt[3]{5}) : \mathbb{Q}] = 2 . 3 = 6$. But in a second question I need to compute a basis for this field as a $\mathbb{Q}$-vectorspace. I came up with ${1, \sqrt{3}, \sqrt[3]{5}, (\sqrt[3]{5})^2}$, but this only has 4 elements, so now I'm confused.
NotAPenguin
I feel like I could have gone wrong with the second minimal polynomial but I don't immediately see how extending Q with sqrt(3) could help me find a lower degree polynomial with root sqrt_3(5)
Wait, I might simply be missing $\sqrt{3}\sqrt[3]{5}$ and $\sqrt{3}(\sqrt[3]{5})^2$ as basis vectors
NotAPenguin
Yep
Good job again!

Happy you are having success with discord qua rubber duck
It helps to organize my thoughts a bit :P
The number of times I've typed smth out only to have to delete it lol
im a rubber duck im a rubber duck, rant your math to me
honestly, discord as a rubber duck is a huge reason I even visit this channel, lol. I type stuff up, solve it halfway through, and finish it out anyway to share the thought process.
penguin -> duck
for finding the galois groups, does it not being separable complicate things
knowing what little I do about separability and the techniques it allows for, probably.
I gotta find the Galois group of (\mathbb{Q}((x^3 - 1)^2)/\mathbb{Q})
StarvinPig
All extensions over Q are separable, but what you wrote doesn’t really make sense, do you mean adjoint a root of that polynomial equation?
This is what I got
That isn't (x^3 - 1)^2
I'm dumb but I'm pretty sure I'm not that dumb
Constant coefficient
Yep
Anyway it not dumb lol just a lol mistake
bing has the same answer so now it's funny
Dw I have done this many times lol
But realising it is quadratic in x^3 is a useful enough observation anyway
Oh same, but also like I don't wanna find the roots
Though I'm pretty sure I need to?
So for the field $\mathbb{Z}_3[X]/(X^2 + X + 2)$ I can see that it's isomorphic to the field with 9 elements, which according to my notes is ${0, 1, 2, \alpha, 1 + \alpha, 2 + \alpha, 2\alpha, 1 + 2\alpha, 2 + 2\alpha}$. Is there a nice way to figure this out? And how would I know what for example $\alpha^2$ is?
A similar thing was done for the field with 4 elements, which was done by elimination
But that seems really tedious for larger fields :P
Right
NotAPenguin
Fixed :)
i've already defined an R-mod hom j : C \to A in the obvious way, but i'm not sure how to define the composition g o j
since j has codomain A but g has domain B
oh okay
yeah i'll reach out to my prof lol
just wanted to make sure i wasn't missing something

felt
Am I right that the gal group is (D_6)?
StarvinPig
a^2 is pretty clearly -a-2 = 1+2a by just looking at the quotient
because we're setting x^2+x+2 = 0
you're in Z_3...
interesting question
I can get that it's semiprimitive cause J(R/J(R)) = J(R)/J(R) = 0
wait tahts it
so if we have that it's artinian then we have it's semisimple right
oh
but
then yeah
how did u do that
if I <= J(R) then J(R/I) = J(R)/I
🤯
probably - I don't remember the proof myself
probably follows from the corrispondence theorem? maybe?
yea it looks like that
Maximal ideals of R/I is exactly maximal ideals of R that contain I. If I is in J(R), then it's contained in all maximal ideals, so R and R/I have the same maximal ideals, thus the intersection is the same.
yea i figured it out 😄
thank you so much
once jagr pings u u know ur problem has been solved
lmfao
also tysm wew
In a perfect world, the Chinese remainder theorem would also hold for an infinite set of ideals, but alas. Better just assume all rings are Artinian
what
there is another section
which is the final one for my exam
called semisimple rings
which iirc defines them as the direct sum of simple ones
so i thought 0 radical <-> this
but i think what ur saying is
0 radical + artinina <--> this
yes, that's correct
yea
hence why I was struggling 
yeah I was like how is J(R) = R 
J = 1 😹
actually
i am liking the problems where like
everything is going to shit
like no commutativity no units
no nothing
idk why
more fun to me
its like working with assembly language type of vibe u know
world's first magma theorist
I can agree with this assessment.
sucks to have no unit then
That feeling when you've found the 1 ❤️
but what about non-two-sided ideals?
like J(R) is the intersection of left regular maximal ideals
do they correspond as well?
regular ideal I meaning there exists e in R such that r-re is in I for all r
wym? it's also the intersection of right maximal ideals
Yeah, left and right ideals also fit in the correspondence. And for regular I think you proved the other day that any ideal containing a regular ideal is regular right?
any left regular ideal is contained in a regular left maximal idea true
by considering the quotient
yeah
I’m having trouble seeing the difference in definition between prime ideals and “regular” (informal) ideals of a commutative ring
Intuitively I think I see why they are different
use the integers to see the difference 
If I think about it as a prime factorization, we’re basically saying that any product has at least one factor in P i.e a “prime” factor, so we get a prime factorization of sorts
But in an ideal J is the same not true? If we have a ring R and ideal J and consider the product rj (for all r in R and j in J), which is by definition in J, then we can clearly see one of the factors belongs to J, so what is the difference?
Sure
I suppose the goal is to construct a prime ideal and a nonprime ideal and compare the two to see how they’re different?
All of the rings I’m considering will be commutative and unital in case that matters
yes
and in the integers, (in which all the ideals are generated by a single element, so they all look like nZ for some integer n) there are maybe some good choices for n to get a prime ideal 
aaaaaaaaaaaaa
If j is in J then rj is also in J, but the point is that when J is not prime it's possible to find a and b such that ab is in J, but neither a nor b is.
for number 7
is there any nice way that the jacobson radical interacts with localizations?
( just a yes or no i want to try it out my self boys and girls )
i just think 7 is just (2Z+1)^-1[Z] or something
or id
idk
or maybe i would use quasi-regularity or something lmfao
I don't think so, maybe depends what qualifies as nice
yurr
how would you define multiplication in k[[x]]? I'm assuming for addition it's just term by term addition of the series
okay
Nice
You can think of it as an idealization (idk if that's a word lol) of the property that prime numbers have, where if p divides ab, then p divides a or p divides b
my b didn't mean to interrupt
i just attempted the worst proof ever, who wants to check it out?
I think I can vaguely see why Nullstellensatz is true now
Maybe specifically for localizations of the form (1 + I)^-1 R, where I is an ideal of R you can say something nice


