#groups-rings-fields
1 messages ¡ Page 151 of 1
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they'd all be set to 0 because 0x = 0
with no I meant yes but that's not all it does
hm
what else does it do lol............
oh right yeah the actual operations are now all mod 2 as well
fair point
penguin what other rings do you know where 2 = 0
It's equal to (Z/2)[x]
So what im left with is $\mathbb{Z}_2[X]$
NotAPenguin
Not sure what would be a satusfying description
also if you want a ring that's isomorphic to it : Z[X]/(2) is isomorphic to itself
trolled once more
lol
with the operations being mod 2 this starts making sense
since now all coefficients are 0 or 1
If I wanted to prove this, I could simply use the first isomorphism theorem with a morphism $\phi(P) = P\mod 2$ right?
ok the latex formatting is a bit messed up but oh well
Use \mod
aha
NotAPenguin
But yes, you could use first iso
$P \pmod 2$
NotAPenguin
oh thats nice
jagr2808
So then if I get this correctly, $\mathbb{Z}[X]/(2, X) \cong \mathbb{Z}_2$. To prove this a morphism $\phi(P) = P(1) \mod 2$ can be used. Then $ker(\phi) = (2, X)$ and $\phi(\mathbb{Z}[X]) = \mathbb{Z}_2$
NotAPenguin
yeah this is correct
Thanks
NotAPenguin
My thought process was as follows
This makes it so $X = Y$ and $X^3 = Z$, so if we apply a morphism $\phi(P) = P(2, 2, 8)$, then $\phi(P) = 0$ if $X = Y$ and $X^3 = Z$.
NotAPenguin
But now im stuck actually
it should be clear that Z[X,Y]/(X-Y) \cong Z[X]
so we can reduce this down to Z[X,Z]/(X^3-Z)
it doesn't really help that you don't have a definitive answer in mind
what's Z[X, X^3] = ?
Yeah
besides Z[X, X^3]
isnt that just Z[X]
yeah
yup
ah, so then if we replace Z with X^3 then the result is Z[X, X^3], which is just Z[X]
now prove it rigorously
it always helps to think about these kind of things intuitively at first
yeah knowing the answer helps a lot đ
if you want to think about it like this then instead of just \phi(P) = P(2,2,8) you can do ||\phi : Z[X,Y,Z] -> Z[X] by \phi(P(x,y,z)) = P(x,x,x^3)||
ah thats smart
up to you to show that this actually has the kernel you want though
Right
the cosets of H form a partition of G
so if you union all of the ones that aren't H you get G-H
what good can come out of looking at annihlator sequences
that is if A-->B-->C-->0 is some SES
How does Ann look like
I don't think Ann interacts nicely with SESes
my brain reading these messages
if it's split you get that Ann(B) = Ann(A) \cap Ann(C) iirc
but you don't really need a SES to view that fact it's just kinda obvious from being a direct sum lol
yeah ig
well in general
this is due to Ann(-) not being a functor really
the dual of C can be thought of as annihilating A
specifically if you consider it as a submodule of B* then it's the kernel of the transpose B*->A*

For a short exact sequence 0 -> A -> B -> C -> 0
If r is in the annihilator of B, then it also annihilates A and C. If r annihilates C and s annihilates A, then sr annihilates B.
So the annihilator of B is somewhere between the intersection and the product of the annihilators at least.
wonder if there's some connection there, probably not
we know that if the sequence splits then it's exactly the intersection
something something cohomology something something
An ideal P ofa ring R is left primitive ifand only if P is the left annihilator of a simple left R-module.
i can prove this but is this true if we assume R is commutative
so primitive <--> ann of some simple module?
can somebody help verify if this solution for the other inclusion $A \cap B \subset AB$ is correct? it feels too easy/idk if I'm missing something. Let $w \in A \cap B$. Then $w \in A, w \in B$. Since $w \in R$ and $R = A + B$, we can write $w = x + y$ for some $x \in A, y \in B$. But then $w \in AB$ by the definition of $AB$.
okeyokay
rings are assumed to be unital btw
because here I didn't even use the fact that A or B are ideals, so I'm pretty sure I'm missing something right? or is this fine
sorry it's at the bottom, I replaced A with R and ab with A and B respectively
are these ideals?
ah
my b
no it's fine I'm just too lazy to read the image you snet
huh
oh ok cool lol
yeah this seems fine
oh sorry like one of the inclusions was obvious
yea
so i just did what lang told me to do
oh wait nah i ignored the part where he said "then trivially", i was trying to show A \cap B in AB
where did u use that w is in the intersection
What do you mean it's in AB "by definition"?
like i didn't use the fact that w was in the intersection nor A and B are ideals
cuz it's the set of all sums x1y1 + ... + xnyn with xi in A and yi in B
AB is generated by (ab)
Okay, but you haven't shown that w is a sum of products...
What, why?
i think what okeyokay is doing
wait but A + B = R so if w is in R then w = a + b right
yea
Yes, that's true
but this does not imply it being
iin the product of the two ideals
it would imply if you were to show that w = x_1_y1+x_2y_2+...
wait i'm so confused though can't we just take x1 = x2 = 1 (since R is unital) and then x1a + x2b is in AB
No
then ur ideal is the whole ring
One way to show it:
||Let a+b = 1||
Then ||w = w*1||
try to forget about the problem and be more comfy with products of ideals
okay i'll look at this after like an hour if i'm stuck
forget about bezouts theorem and try to think of product of ideals over Z
or Z_n
how do elements look like
etc
you can try to think of the product
then finally ||w = wa + wb||
as the smallest ideal containing all the possible products
also as a general hint whenever u have "access" to the whole ring ( as in with R= A+B) always try to include the identity element
like try to think of it as your key
lol
yea i like to think about it as like being closed under scalar multiplication
oki
or something something submodule
yea but for like 2 days lmfao so i didn't even digest the information or learn it well
bc school started
thx
Don't know if it helps, but in R=Z, ideals are positive integers, A+B=R means they are relatively prime, intersection is lcm and product is product.
ohhh right i keep on forgetting that an ideal is an additive subgroup and not necessarily subring
So you can think about why the lcm of relatively prime integers is their product
hmm okay i'll think about that
can someone stop me when im wrong?
okay here goes
let I be a regular left ideal ( R is a ring )
then I is contained in a maximal regular left ideal
now the intersection of all left regular maximal ideals is a left quasi-regular left ideal
and if we have a quasi regular left-ideal , call it P , then we have P must be in the intersection of Ann(M) where the M runs over all simple left R-modules
so we have the intersection of all left regular left maximal ideals ( which is quasi-regular ) is contained inside the intersection of all annihilators of simple left R-modules
is this correct?
i can give proofs
of any implication if someone asks for it
( actualy i prefer it haha )
I'm pretty sure this is right: Let any $w \in A \cap B$. Since $w \in R$, $w = a + b$ for some $a \in A, b \in B$. Since $R$ is unital and $R = A + B$, write $1 = a_1 + b_1$ for $a_1 \in A$ and $b_1 \in B$. Now [w \cdot 1 = (a + b) \cdot (a_1 + b_1) = aa_1 + ab_1 + ba_1 + bb_1 = b_1(a + b) + a_1(a + b) = a_1w + b_1w] Since $R$ is commutative. But since $w \in A \cap B$, it follows that $w = a_1w + b_1w \in AB$.
okeyokay
yea gj
wait what
latex error
oh ok
that's good to know, lol w \cdot 1 is not equal to a_1 lmfao
yea
thanks lol, didn't mean to interrupt ur question my fault
np
Can I get a hint for this problem? Obviously $(a, p) \subseteq R$. So my strategy is to let any $r \in R$ and show that $(r - xa)a$ is in $(p)$ for some suitably chosen $x \in R$. this will show that (r - xa) is in $(p)$ (since $a \notin (p)$ and $(p)$ is prime), upon which $r - xa = yp \rightarrow r = xa + yp$ for $x, y \in R$ and the proof will be complete. idk if this is the right direction or not, but here's what I got so far - if I choose $x = p$, then $(r - pa)a = ra - paa$ and obviously $paa \in (p)$. the problem is showing that $ra \in (p)$, lol. also I haven't used the fact that $R$ is a PID and I have no clue where to use that
okeyokay
oh could I consider the ideal $R + (p)$ and since that's principal maybe I can do something with $a$, idk maybe that's dumb
okeyokay
how does the proof of PID => bezout domain go again chat
tf is a bezout domain
UFD + bezout identity for finding GCDs
a bezout domain is a ring such that you can always find x,y for any two a,b such that xa+yb = gcd(a,b)
yur
and if a isn't in (p) but (p) is maximal, then (a, p) is...
oh yeah lol that's way easier
this time I beat your wife
forgot about this
real
fogoar tabout htis
MODS! CYBERBULLYING
Fog goat tablet itis
I remember having to prove this for a homework sheet once
took me like 1 hour to figure out lmao
I thought the proof was kinda just follow your nose
yeah
So you know that (a, p) is a principal ideal. Say it's generated by b, then p is in (b)
What can you conclude?
oh wait so R + (p) is an ideal and since R is a PID R + (p) = (s) for some s in R, but (p) is maximal so therefore R + (p) = (p) or R + (p) = R, if R + (p) = (p) then we can write r + ap = yp for some y in R and then r = -ap + yp so r is in (a, p). if R + (p) = R then r + yp = a for some y in R and hence r = a + -yp and r is in (a, p), idk if that works
What
R + I = R, for any ring R and any ideal I
what is the definition of a maximal ideal again?
wait i didn't even use the fact that R is a PID lol
its exactly what you think it is?
ohhh yea let me think about this
no proper ideals contain it except self
I was asking okeyokay...
oh im an idiot
but great to know that you know the definition!
bro this lacks a reply and 'again' sounds like u asking for uself 
are you guys related
I hope not
ry(s or i)
u can be ryo
nah
Then you should prove that first though
ryj
This one is actually a first aa course statement
wait what prime ideal doesn't imply maximal
oh right for pids
actually what am i saying i never learned that in my first aa course

Yeah, it's essentially the thing you're proving now
we didn't even get to most of field theory lol

so i should first prove prime iff maximal in a PID?
actually i'll just assume it for the sake of this argument and then prove that later lol
Thatâs basically what weâre proving anyway
oh ok
This problem follows immediately if you know prime iff maximal and vice versa
Bruh autocorrect
The shadow government making my phone autocorrect in order to make me look quite the fool

Ayo wew what categorical properties do fusion systems have
Particularly for 2-subgroups 
you're FUCKED
uhhh everything is a monomorphism, they're connected uhhh
Solomon 
wait you actually were asking
THERE'S SOMEONE ELSE?!?!?!
joyous day! oh joyous day!
yeah the solomon fusion systems are sick
Nah it was mentioned in regards to some model theory thing
...
Iâm not diving into the deep end yet
gonna need a moment chat
It came up in uhhh
basically, take ur subgroup lattice
Showing all groups of finite Morley rank are algebraic groups
pretend every line is an inclusion map going upwards
then add in Hom_G(P, Q) P, Q \leq S \in Syl_p(G) if it's not exotic
This doesnât sound so bad 
otherwise just add in loads of isomorphisms you noob
no the definition is very easy
it's the erm saturation conditions which are slightly more involved
the book mentioned how some system found by Solomon shows not all are realized
Saturation related to model saturation?
yes, the solomon fusion systems are "exotic" and are the only known exotic fusion systems on 2-groups
they weren't the first found historically though - I believe that was on 7_+{1+2}
So theyâre fusion systems but donât have a finite group that realizes em?
Or a group at all?
ngl I haven't thought about that question because all groups are finite
Fair
not even sure how it would work in the infinite case - is the sylow subgroup of a profinite group pro-p?
what does that even mean
who know!
The thing mentioned fusion systems since uh we know itâs either algebraic or has a maximal elementary 2-subgroup which is of finite dimension
We have Sylow and Sylow^\circ stuff so 
there's probably an analogue I don't know
But theyâre very similar
if there's a notion of a sylow subgroup then you can define a fusion system on it for sure I just have no idea if it's saturated or anything nice
If G is finite RM, P a Sylow* 2-subgroup w/ maximal 2-torus T, then N_G(T) controls fusion in P
oh right so it is similar to the finite case
the case I'm thinking of is I think a theorem of burnside(?) that states if S is abelian and sylow in G then F_S(G) = F_S(N_G(S))
inch resting
We have uh
G finite rank and two involutions i, j, then either theyâre conjugate or thereâs an involution commuting with both
lemme consult the grimoire
In uhh d(<i, j>) in the former, d(<(ij)>) in the latter
The smallest definable subgroup
Called âbasic fusion lemmaâ
oh
yeah this is directly linked to the solomon systems
Ye
the exotic systems is exactly when you have the conjugation for uhh
Spin(q)? or something?
who knows
yeah but the solomon systems are specifically over some spin group which I really should know
bobby fusions
I see
it's always 7 bro what is it with 7
Real
smallest known exotic systems? over a group of order 7^3 of course
I wonder how saturated relates here but uh
saturated just means "nice" morally
Gimme a sec to find the Sylow definition here
e.g. the fusion system where you only have inclusion maps and Aut_F(P) is trivial for all P < S is not saturated
Ok so it only really works nicely for 2 
This is a horrifying statement
Considering how uh
2 ruins everything 
Sylow is maximal p-subgroup, Sylow^\circ is connected component of a Sylow p, which isnât assumed definable
Itâs physical 
well since p is in (b), (p) is in (b) right
that makes sense
or does it
maybe if C_S(G) is infinite yeah
nah it makes sense anyway
cool
It doesnât say finite 
That's true, but I was thinking more that it implied a certain way to write p
If itâs finite, itâs definable
right
This isnât necessarily
Not so much choice as in like
you can have an unbounded chain of p-groups
ye, b = pr for some r in R, i went along with that but i'm a little stuck, will continue working on it
You canât get a polynomial carving out an arbitrary subset of C^n 
I have no idea why that is related
To guarantee one exists yeah, but not to say itâs maximal if it exists
It probably uses choice though ofc
hell I don't even know what RM means I've just been replacing it with "finite rank" in my head
like i think what i'm struggling with here is where to introduce an arbitrary element of r
It basically is lol
That would be for b in (p), so you mixed that up a bit
oh write p = br my b
what source are you reading sharp
And p is prime...
How do you define rank?
âSimple groups of finite Morley rankâ

what do you mean the element is prime? ig intuitively what i'm picturing now is that either b or r is equal to p (in my head i'm seeing a prime number)
Also, if itâs of finite rank
It satisfies descending chain condition of definable subgroups at least
Maybe not general subgroups but still
By assumption (p) was a prime ideal, aka p is prime
And indeed it is true that one of b or r will be a unit
You should prove it
Chap 1 sections 2, 3, and 6 are of particular interest here ofc
i didn't know this so i'll prove this too
yeah I'll take a look
I haven't seen fusion systems much outside of the study of them if ykwim
other than block theory
Fair
Chap 7 section 2 is about âFusion analysisâ in relation to âStandard components of type SL_2â
But most of the fusion seems to appear in âcontrolling fusionâ and âfusion of involutionsâ
yeah so controlling fusion is basically just like
Fusion systems & Solomon are mentioned in the appendix notes as a possible future route
finding a subgroup H < G such that F_S(H) is isomorphic to F_S(G)
maybe equivalent? I forget the details
me when Iâm on r/legobuilderspro
it's an isomorphism according to bobby which is bullshit
who gives a fuck about the size of the stablisers you fraud
The definition here is H, K < G, subgroups then K controls fusion if for any X, Y < H conjugate (in G) subsets of H we have k in K with X^k = Y
yeah that's equivalent
Might be nicer here since not finite idk
They donât really say stuff about fusion systems
since when has not being finite made anything nicer
But they mention them
As in a nicer definition, since size of stabilizers is uhhh
well you wouldn't give one about the stailizers directly you'd just show that the fusion systems are iso
ig you can't really do that for infinite groups? maybe you can
They mention definable cohomology and cite something about p-local groups, saying it can be rephrased model theoretically
yeah p-local groups are fusion systems with an extra topological structure
And since sporadic simple groups are âsporadicâ saturated fusion systems, they suggest fusions might be the way to go for the sorta nasty possibly existent simple finite rank groups
what the fuck are these words
yes! exactly
one of the main motivations behind studying fusion systems is a vast simplification of the classification of finite simple groups
so quotient groups is a set of equivalence classes, is the relation R defined to be a R b if a is in the coset of H in G containing b?
yur
huh?
Any saturated fusion system over S can be realized in a group G which contains S, and every p-subgroup in G is conjugate to a subgroup of S
Replace S with p-unipotent
is this for S sporadic
For any S
well the first part is false, exotics absolutely exist
Ah, S in Syl_p(G) here
right, never mind wrong
im guessing that means yes then
But it mentions possibly infinite groups
yurr
7_+^{1+2} \in Syl_7(PSL_3(7)) but there are exotics over it
aka fusion systems that are not realised by an- oh
G can be infinite
Finite RM is finite-looking
BARMY even
Thereâs a descending chain condition of definable subgroups
Theorem by Leary and Stancu
hey I know one of those guys
If S is a p-unipotent subgroup of G (which is finite RM), âor possibly a 0-unipotent in the sense of Burdges,â and demand all the subgroups are definable and Hom(P, Q) are uniformly definable families of def. homs
We have a good theory of 2-Sylow theory
yeah cause there's fuck all exotics over 2-groups
the solomons are almost certainly the only ones
G of finite RM and even type with a 2-Sylow subgroup gives a saturated fusion system akin to Alperin Fusion Theorem it claims
And realizability is gluing them
making me remember the group theoretic definition of Alperin's theorem...
cruel and unusual punishment
Just take whatever formulation
right so it's generated by automorphisms of "nice" subgroups
The claim they make here is replacing subgroup and homomorphisms with definable ones is essentially âfinitizingâ it
cool
So it should look like a fusion system of finite groups
yus
At the very least, thereâs no infinite descending chains
the ermm... lattice is ermm... bounded from erm... below
And when we intersect families of definable subgroups, we can just look at a finite sub family
In particular, thereâs a minimal definable subgroup of finite index
That is, G^\circ, the connected component
you're kinda losing me here
(This taking ^\circ is idempotent)
dw about it
So thereâs no infinite descending chain, so take your arbitrary family and just start intersecting then to make a chain 
Think of it like a compactness thing
I think the problem is that the idea of a "non-definiable" subgroup just doesn't make sense to me
I'm guessing it's a model theory term
Yeah, definable means you can write out a formula for it
here's a formula nerds: H \leq G
Finite Morley rank is that we have finitely many times we can split it into countably many disjoint pieces by formulas
here's what I got; if b is a unit, then (a, p) = (b) = R and we are done. if r is a unit, then since p = br, either b in (p) or r in (p). if r is in (p) then r is in (a, p), and consequently (a, p) = R. is this the right direction or
Doesnât mean we have finitely many subgroups but they kinda are of bounded depth?
but i feel like assuming b is in (p) is gonna be a pain in the ass
lets see
This isnât too interesting for plain groups but like
Consider uhh groups inside another structure
Like multiplicative groups of fields
So by assumption (a, p) = (b) was bigger than (p), so we cannot have b in (p)
If your field has finite rank, then itâs algebraically closed
Well, the rank as in Morley rank
It should agree with group rank for groups
But in general itâs something like splitting a definable subset into countably many definable pieces of smaller rank
âEvery totally transcendental field is algebraically closedâ so it just needs to be bounded above by some ordinal
According to Hodgesâ book
Dw Iâm lost too thatâs why I came asking about fusion
that's ok!! I'm going to go watch slop on youtube now
I have multiple 600 page books open in front of me trying to decode this first bit

Cherlin-Zilber conjecture moment
right, got it, thank you!
is it bad that i have to get hints for all of these problems and they all take me around a couple of hours
nope
Nah, as long as you're learning
If you got it immediately youâd already know it, kinda thing
Did you manage to prove that one of b and r is a unit when br is prime btw?
okay, I'm just concerned that they're be a problem like this on the exam which is like 3 hours and then i wouldn't be able to solve one of them đ
nope, bouta work on that now
I have had quite a few "stare at a problem until I feel stupid" moments. Everyone has
that's good to know :)
Joker (2019) scene: all I have are "stare at a problem until I feel stupid" moments
leave a like if you get it
You'll have to use that you're in a domain btw
If you have (E/F) as an extension where (\alpha, \beta \in E) are algebraic over (F), then is (\alpha) algebraic over (F(\beta))? I'm pretty sure it follows but I am not at all confident in this area
I just tested you, come on man
If you have (E/F) as an extension where (\alpha, \beta \in E) are algebraic over (F), then is (\alpha) algebraic over (F(\beta))?
StarvinPig
There we go
Yes
This should hopefully be clear just immediately from the definition of what it means to be algebraic
Are there fission systems too?
Yea but this is my first time doing any actual work with algebraic stuff and we covered this at the beginning of August so getting used to it
I get why, it was just said in a textbook example with root3 being algebraic over Q(root2) without any explanation
Well okay what does it mean for sqrt 3 to be algebraic over Q(sqrt(2))
And why is sqrt 3 algebraic over Q
because (x^2 - 3 \in Q[x]) but since (Q[x] \subseteq Q(\sqrt{2})), ( (x^2 - 3 \in Q(\sqrt{2})[x]) so (\sqrt{3}) is also algebraic over (Q(\sqrt{2}))
StarvinPig
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Same difference
I gotta figure out how to build galois groups but that's a future me problem
If R is simple and semisimple, then R is primitive.
just a pretty bad question sorry im stupid
why does every R-module must be simple?
wtf am i saying
nvm
let A be a simple R-module ( and now this exists cuz if it werent it would contradict that J(R) = 0 )
then just Ann(A) = 0 or R but it cant be R cuz it contradicts that the intersection of all annihlators of simple modules is 0
is that correct?
sorry I'm confused as to how you would define the other ys, for example for y2 would you just keep a2 constant and cycle over the bis for i \neq 2
can somebody help me understand how surjectivity follows from CRT?
lol the corollary is what i'd call teh CRT
Uh unwind definitions and you'll see it's exactly the CRT
like okay
What does it mean for that to be in the image of f
Most Likely To Ponyo
I_i+I_j=A for any i,j gives you
I_i+(intersection of I_j: j doesnât equal i)=A for any i, so a_i+b_i=1 for some a_i from I_i, b_i from the intersection. So the image of a_i is (0,âŚ,0,1,0,âŚ,0)
I'm pretty sure I got it, correct me if I'm wrong; so we know that there exists $x \in A$ with $x \equiv a_i (\text{ mod } \alpha_i)$ for each $i$. that is, $x = b_i + a_i$ for $b_i \in \alpha_i$. therefore x maps to $(a_1 + \alpha_1, \dots a_n + \alpha_n)$ since the $b_i$s are absorbed
okeyokay
Okay your use of alpha is confusing me lol
sorry
But yeah i mean you can probably write that even simpler lol
i don't know how the fuck to do the squarey a
\mathfrak
$x \equiv x_i \mod \mathfrak{a}_i$ is equivalent to saying $x + \mathfrak a_i = x_i + \mathfrak a_i$
Proved by induction, for that I_i+(intersection) part, but isnât that contained in the proof of CRT in your reference?
Most Likely To Ponyo
so like it follows immediately
oh right yea
is a beautiful theorem
For (\forall x \in \mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z}), it's not true that (x^p = p) correct?
StarvinPig
It's iff x is a unit
can somebody help me see this result? here I'm assuming that phi is the euler phi-function
u can do this!
if G and H are finite groups, then what's the order of G x H?
But for all x besides 0 yes
Oh = x, typo lao
oh
oops lol
fermat's lil theorem
What about like 2 in (\mathbb{Z}/4\mathbb{Z})
StarvinPig
well lol
you said p
which I assumed was a prime
Then the correct statement would replace p with Ď(n) + 1
I feel like I'm gonna email my lecturer about this and he's gonna go "You're right it isn't true all the time, but isn't it true most of the time?"
How do I show that $\sqrt[3]{2} \in \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[3]{2} + i\sqrt{5})$?
sunnyside1
I'm stumbling my way through this and it ain't clickin'
I've done a to an adequate degree for now, mainly looking at b
Though b is super useful for a obviously if I've interepreted F-automorphism of E correctly
I mean see above, p = 4, x = 2
p = 57
wait what
ohh
p is prime here starvin
ik its not written ot
out
but its prime
wait how did u a
do a*
I love my lecturer
oh u took the hint for granted
yeah i see
or no but like
u forgot that a field only has prime characteristic or 0
so u just chose p =4 haha
its ok
Oh characteristic means something I need to think about
do you know what the characteristic of a field is?
If p is prime then b looks way less annoying
I probably learned it a year ago and forgot, it hasn't been mentioned in this course
Yea
koay
the characteristic of a field is just the smallest number of times u would have to add 1 to get 0
if it never reaches 0 , like in R for example then you say this has characteristic 0
what is the characteristic of Z/pZ?
(p is prime :d )
Isn't it just 1, because p - 1 + 1 = 0
the characteristic of a field is just the smallest number of times u would have to add 1 to get 0
so like
no, it's p, because p-1+1 = 0
its the smallest n ssuch that n*1 = 0
Oh add 1 to itself
yea
Yea p
so in a field of char 2
u would have 1+1 = 0
now
let F be a field
why does the characteristic of F must be prime or 0
try to go for a contradiction
like suppose its some composite number that is not 0
and see what u get
remember that fields are integral domains
brb
ik this isnt your problem but like
i just figured u have to know about this stuff u know
idk
:d
one message. put it in one message.
i cant im sorry
I don't think we covered Characteristic at all
it's okay its not that deep
Which is absolutely fantastic for my lecturer to mention it
just try to think of this
If p = uv for u, v < p then uv(1) = 0 where u and v are in Zp so uv = 0 therefore they're zero divisors
Ye
I remember what it does, I'd need a sec to write it out
okay
basically
in a field of characteristic p
show that (a+b)^p = a^p+b^p where a and b are field elements
i dont know if this is do-able on the bus
but just use the binomial theorem
and use that ur in characteristic p
now do b) haha
n word
where
auto deleted
ohh
damn
u there king starvinpig?
u thinking about b?
cuz i wanna go sleep ( open netflix on bed )
Uhh sure. Idk why I'd need characteristic for it
u dont
but the thing is
u choosing p=4 would just be a "red flag" for your lecturer you know
so like
u just had to know these little things so u watch out from these typos or mistakes ( that they did not say p is prime )
I mean I know what he's like with counterexamples, even if they're pretty big ones
Like if we're proving something for all polynomials and it doesn't hold for ax, the answer is just keep going
huh
how are u proving something for all polynomiasl if it doesnt work for a polynomial
Like I get trivial counterexamples, here its "obvious" p should be prime but that one don't feel trivial
no imo it should be obvious that p is prime
cuz Z/nZ is not even a field
for n not prime
Well it wasn't to me lmao. It's been a bit since I've stared at math questions
and thats okay
It is mid-trimester break but be got a test first lecture back and this is on it
it is for you now as you just proved it
can somebody help me understand why this part follows? so lambda is the inclusion map, and lambda(a) = 1 + p^rZ. then i got lost
bro doesnt lambda send elements to Z/p^rZ *
dude idek at this point my brain is fucking fried
take a break then its okay
yea imma take a break and come back to this ugh
It's 2 for 1 meals at the pub so that's my break
i would like to give you advice
But that's for later
for dealing with these lecturers
as i have ENORMOUS experience with them
- do not get into an argument
- do not get into an argument
If lambda(a) = 1 in Z/p^rZ then isnât it just immediate?
it is
Ah no youâre backtracking
but he is tired
đ
Oh this lecturers fine
But he'll go "I claim this isn't a big deal" if he's not bothered doing a finicky proof
i dont think so my friendo
this polynomial problem might be on a test
and if u showed that it doesnt work for ax
then u are right
hah
haha
Oh it was an assignment question to show it holds for all polynomials
yeah but it doesnt soo
It holds for all other polynomials so I went and did that
what
Assuming f =/= ax, it holds
Well that are irreducible because that's what it asked for
Hopefully he'll mark it in time for the test
yeaah hopefully everything goes fine for you
anyways do you have any problems with b?
I think I can show the forward direction
Not quite figuring out the other one
Like I can go x not in F -> x not in U(F) -> x^p-1 =/= 1 -> x^p =/= p, idk if that works though
Yea and the negation of that is the easier one
Just negate every statement, keep the implications the same
x in F -> x in U(F) -> x^p-1 = 1 -> x^p = x
Thatâs the converse not the contrapositive
(A => B) <=> (not B => not A)
You did the latter
Ah
I was being lazy with my terms because it ain't the negation technically
I dont need formal logic, it's algebra
heres a fun problem
Prove that there exists a group monomorphism f : R -> Sym(N).
(you need AC)
Yeah, exactly. Just let a2 take the role of a1, and cycle over i not equal to 2 gives you y2.
I am looking at a proof for the following property:
If R is a ring with $char(R) = n \neq 0$, then the order of each element in the group $R, +$ is a divisor of $n$. The proof uses a property that only applies to finite groups. Am I correct in assuming this proof is incorrect then? For example the ring $\mathbb{Z}_n[X]$ has a finite characteristic but is clearly infinite.
NotAPenguin
I have made a proof for the fact that a morphism of fields is always injective, but I feel like I'm doing something suspicious. Can someone take a look?
Suppose $\phi: F \rightarrow E$ is a morphism of fields. Suppose $x \in ker(\phi)$. Then if we can prove that $x = 0$, then $\phi$ is injective. Suppose $x \neq 0$. Then $x$ has an inverse $x^{-1}$. Then $\phi(x) = 0 \implies \phi(x) * \phi(x^{-1}) = 0 \implies \phi(x * x^{-1}) = 0 \implies \phi(1) = 0$, but for a morphism of fields, $\phi(1) = 1$. So $x = 0$ and $\phi$ is injective.
NotAPenguin
nope, thats right!
Thanks :)
one other way to say this is that the kernel of a map of rings is always an ideal, and fields only have one nontrivial ideal which is 0.
Oh you're right, that's clever
So yesterday I asked a bunch of questions for finding quotient rings in the form of $\mathbb{Z}[X, Y, Z]/(X - Y, X^3 - Z)$, which turned out to be isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}[X]$. Now the topic came up again with a friend and we were wondering how to solve cases where multiplication of variables is involved, for example $\mathbb{Z}[X, Y]/(XY)$. My first instinct said this would be simply $\mathbb{Z}$ but then I realized this was probably wrong. We tried finding a morphish with (XY) as the kernel but failed to come up with anything. Is there a nice way of solving these?
NotAPenguin
I think this one is just "it is what it is"
Hmm I see, I recall the previous exam having a question like this. I'll see if I can find it
you're adjoining two zero divisors to Z, maybe you can force it to be something else but I can't imagine it being a nicer form than this
ah, I found it
$\mathbb{Z}[X, Y]/(5, XY - Y + 6, Y - X^2)$
- Prove that this is a field
- What 'known' field is isomorphic to this field?
- How many roots does T^3 + T + 1 have in this field
These were the questions on the exam
NotAPenguin
I guess it is a bit different here though
ok so cause of the 5 we have that this is iso to $\bZ_5[X,Y]/(XY-Y+1, Y-X^2)$
Wew Lads Tbh
Remember when you quotient by an ideal containing A - B, this should be thought of as setting A = B.
Y = X^2 by the second term
So including Y - X^2 is just the same as setting Y = X^2, hence completely getting rid of Y.
so this is Z_5[X]/(X(X^2)-X^2+1) = Z_5[X]/(X^3-X^2+1)
Naturally :P
The structure of Z[x,y]/(x^2 + y^2 - 1) is not totally easy to describe for example...
circle
circle the part that confuses you sweaty
If (X^3-X^2+1) is irreducible in Z_5[X], that would prove this is a field right?
or this
yus
alright, that would solve the first question already then
This raises my cortisol levels significantly by simply looking at it
and since it's a degree 3 irreducible polynomial you know what size the resulting field will be
I might not have studied that part yet because that doesnt ring a bell
F_125
hmm
because the degree is 3 and we are working in Z_5, so the field is F_5^3 = F_125?
Yeah I meant that, my bad
np
although if you haven't seen the proof of that fact maybe you should try and prove it urself
I think it comes a little further in my course notes
So I'll probably stumble on it soon
If not I'll give the proof a try
i feel like i know the answer to this but having a bit of a bruh moment here. Does anyone have an example of an extension of UFDs for which coprime elements in the base ring are not coprime in the extended ring? If not what's the proof that this can't be done again
In the setting of Dedekind extensions this cant be done but im not sure about other settings
what do you mean by extension?
a morphism R \to S with what properties?
injective
So we need a non-BĂŠzout domain right, otherwise BĂŠzout kills our chances
what's a bezout domain?
One in which BĂŠzout's lemma holds
Yeah if I'm not mistaken every Euclidean domain is BĂŠzout too
so an example of a non-BĂŠzout domain is Q[x,y]
I was gonna suggest Q[x,y][z]/(x^2 + y^2 - z^2) so that BĂŠzout gets us something but this doesn't actually introduce a common divisor
just injective is too weak
you can, for instance, take Q[x, y, z]/(xz - y)
Q[x,y] injects here?
yes
nice example
what other conditions would you impose on your morphism?
I think basically if you have flatness this cannot happen
remind me, flatness is when R is flat as an S module?
yes, whichever way around makes sense
Any tips for b)?
I am confused
consider a=b=0
then $N(x)=x\cdot \bar{x}=0\cdot0=0â Âą1$
Kalgar
a contradiction?
You don't have 0 is a unit
Kalgar
or am I misunderstanding the def?
0 is not a unit in Z[sqrt(2)]
wait didn't we have this question like 4 days ago
I don't remember
I made no progress / forgot / didn't understand lol
fairs
I think you're thinking of something else
Maybe
0 is definitely a unit in Z[sqrt(2)]
I'm sleepy
It's not divisible by any prime
what
stop trollolololoing
yes
lmao got so confused
What is N(ab) for arbitrary a, b
N(a)N(b)
not asking you boss
I've been gaslit more than once in this channel
oh oop i thought it was a joke

i need to go sleep soz
Yeah doesnât matter
but I did some reading ahead on abstract algebra for fun
Whatâs N(ab) for arbitrary a, b
N(a)N(b)
Whatâs N(1)
wat did i do wrong to earn the cat
have some confidence
technically nothing
1 lol
I have none
I mean itâs a lil clown-y to write 1*1 but itâs right
can I be watson
y = 1/x?
N(xy) = N(1)
that isn't even true in Z
-1 * -1 = 1
wat
I don't get why we're considering N(1) then
is this just for my own understanding
or is it supposed to be related to the Q above
go from here
It's a norm function lol
so, a function
cool
anyway use the properties you know about N to manipualte N(xy) = N(1) into something a bit nicer
N(xy)=N(1)=N(1)N(1) = 1*1 = 1 ?
homie

N(xy) = N(1)
N(x)N(y) = 1
Try not looking for 1*1
x and 1/x
I thought you were gonna let him conclude this 
so the only possible values for N(x), N(y) are....?
x = y =1? ...
That it spits out an integer is kinda given?
or
two integers multiply to get 1
It is but not explicitly in the problem
before we go on
Not everything is 1*1
Are you clear on what the word 'integer' means?
am I supposed to use only elementary knowledge]
Yes
If people are telling you it's not just x=y=1 please try other things đ
the fact that (-1)^2 = 1 is pretty elementary and the fact you're being asked to show it can be \pm 1 in the question should tip you off to that
So you're telling me
oh my
oh
I expected many more intermediary steps to the result
that was like a 2 liner
lord knows why we're only doing this in Z[\sqrt(2)] when this immediately generalises to Z[\sqrt(n)] but meh
Wait so do you have any tips for the next Q/
I'm thinking of fixing b and doing induction on a
What question
what's the next question
oh yeah I remember this
Try to find a non trivial unit
I really hate the notation 1/x here I must admit
use x^-1
there's no fractions involved
not directed at you kalgar just a general complaint
anyway yeah, do this
and by doing this we mean find an element x of Z[sqrt(2)] such that there's another element y with xy = 1
and x isn't the obvious choices of -1 and 1
Can I use in an exercise/proof that $\mathbb{Q}(a\sqrt{b}) = \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{b})$ without further comment? This feels obvious but not very rigorous
NotAPenguin
I guess the answer to that is kinda subjective
It depends on what a is
oh, its a nonzero rational number
Yup, it's true. Prove it.
Fair enough
It is very easy to prove via the definition of Q(a)
Q gobble gobbles up the a
nomnom
if a in Q then how a ouside Q in bracket?? how can both... cnanot...
so... any x and its multiplicative inverse?
xâ 0


