#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 149 of 1
any reducible algebraic sets must have finite components right?
over a field or any noetherian ring correct?
cuz u go like V = V1 U V2 and if thats not it then u can decompose V2 or V1 into further pieces ( with each being proper subsets of V )
but each V1 is algebraic so its the zero set of some ideal
so each V_i gives an ideal?
and this gives us a chain?
which must terminate?
It must have finitely many components, but not typically finite components.
as you said it does.
(cuz hbt)
Hilbert's basis theorem
yeah yeah
op and has relatively easy proof ( to follow not to come up with ofc haha )
Can someone give an example of a short exact sequence of $\mathbb{Q}[x]$-modules that does not split? Would $0\rightarrow \mathbb{Z}\rightarrow\mathbb{Z}\rightarrow \mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z}\rightarrow 0$ be one such sequence?
ceramic.sky
Not really sure how you're turning Z into a Q[x]-module
That is an example for Z-modules, sure
I don’t know either, tbh.
Virtually all quotients of Q[x]
If it split then Q[x] would contain some torsion
You can say the following:
For any ring A, the module A/I is projective iff I is a principal ideal generated by an idempotent element
Note that A/I projective would be equivalent to asking that the natural map A -> A/I splits
If I take any Subgroup $H < D_4$, why do I know that $D_4/H$ is a simple subgroup?
damn_guuurl
I mean, I know that it is of order 2(prime order), which means that it is normal and I also know that it is cyclic, but to say that it is simple I need the subgroup to be abelian right? Why is it abelian?
I show you gimme a sec
Potato understands German btw
There is only one group of order 2
I do not see why H is simple
It isn't
then why is there written "einfach", is it meant for D_4/H? If yes, then why is it wnough that it has primeorder? shouldn't it also be cyclic?
It is cyclic
okay any group of prime order is cyclic
It has order 2
Yes, there is only one group of order p
My German skills are not great, but I think the point is that there are no simple groups of order 4 or 8, so the first step in the composition series is finding a subgroup of index 2.
Then they find all those subgroups, and after that all composition series
hey, does this multiplication table mean that i have an abelian group?
*| a|b|c|d|e
a| a|b|c|d|e
b| b|e|d|a|c
c| c|d|b|e|a
d| d|a|e|c|b
e| e|c|a|b|d
Well you just gotta check if its symmetric about the (anti)diagonal to see if it is abelian
So yes
(Also every group of order 5 is abelian as it happens)
Tho I've not checked if you actually get a group lol
how do i do that?
You do that in the natural way, e.g. you check if ac = ca, by reading off the cayley table
How do i know if it is assosiative
Yes you need to also check you indeed have a group, but you can also do this by looking at the cayley table
Yes, to go further, you can try proving something more interesting that every group of order 5 or less is abelian
Anyone wanna read my answer to a precalc problem using Galois Theory?
no
If you wanna share something just share
Let $M$ be an $R$-module and let $K$ and $L$ be submodules of $M$ then $L/(K\cap L) \cong (K+L)/L$. This is the statement of the second isomorphism theorem for modules, but since $(K+L)/K = L/K$ we can simplify it to $L/(K\cap L) \cong L/K$. I didn't see anyone write it in this simpler form, why?
ZornHadNoChoice
(K+L)/K ≠ L/K in general
How?
$(K+L)/K = {(l + k) + K: l \in L, k \in K} \ = {l + K: l \in L} \ = L/K$
ZornHadNoChoice
If K is not contained in L, it does not make sense to talk about L/K anyways
Oh that's right!
There's a 1-1 correspondence of submodules in M/K and submodules of M that contain K. The " + K" part essentially forces K to be contained in it
Thanks, this makes sense now.
But you know what, we can define $L/K := {l+K: l \in L}$ and this is an $R$-module (it's the image of L under the natural projection $M \to M/K$), further $L/(K\cap L) \cong L/K$.
ZornHadNoChoice
the automorphisms of that field are not rotations
And the size of the automorphism group of Q(zeta_n)/Q is not n
It’s phi(n), where phi is the euler totient function
Ok, thanks I think I got it now.
take G/1 for a noncyclic G
You can choose G and H so that G/H is any group you like. example A = A x B / B
If all of them are normal, yes.
Hmmm I don't see why this must be Abelian.
I also don't see why you say that follows; it doesn't.
alrighty
So abelian groups need not be cyclic, modding out a sylow subgroup doesn't need to give you something abelian, and sylow subgroups arent usually normal
I think there is another mistake happening here
intuition gone wrong 
Jonathan seems to be confusing the fact that f.g. Abelian groups are products of cyclic groups with the incorrect idea that if an Abelian group is expressed as a product, all parts must be cyclic, which is simply false.
bruh
i meant that if G/H_1, and H_1 is a normal p-subgroup of, then G/H_1 must be cyclic
That is false, so I hope that clears that up.
yea it clears things up
what tf
yo
doesnt V being in this set literally say its irreducible?
ik if it were to be reducible it would have finitely many components ( over a noetherian ring )
If V is irreducible, then it is the union of irreducibles
Just itself
They are proving that every algebraic set is a finite union of irreducibles
oh
lmfao yeah so if V is irreducible then as you said its true
so we only look the redcuible case
im so stupid or idk the way its written
ugh
tysm
Yeah, it's written a little akwardly maybe. But I'm not sure what would be a better way to put it, so...
imo it should have been at the very top
if V is irreducible : then we are done
if not
then ...
but its literally written "since its in the set,then "
even though i dont see how does it follow from being in the set
😦
I think that would just be more confusing. V can't be irreducible, since then it wouldn't be in the set.
for uniqueness
do i get to assume that both decompositions have the same length? ( number of components )?
What are two fields that are isomorphic, but no isomorphic as extensions of some subfield?
you mean isomorphic as vector spaces over the subfield?
any two finite fields having the same number of elements are isomorphic
so think about those
yea as a vector space if you are extending over a polynomial of degree n then you would get a field with p^n where p is the number of elements in your finite field
choose another polynomial with degree m with m!=n and there u have it ig
C and the algebraic closure of C(x) are isomorphic as fields, but not as extensions over C
another related fun fact
The isomorphism is kinda cursed though
Do the colors mean something?
Ah, cool
advanced channels count more than e.g. #chill or #discussion
Or, Im not sure that's a good thing hehe
if you go inactive again you get the emeritus role
and immediately get very active upon being active again
skipping the active role
you also get access to #feet
Les cursed example is maybe
Q(x2, x4, x6, x8, ...) is isomorphic to Q(x1, x2, x3, x4, ...)
Or just Q(x2, x3, x4, ...) Isomorphic to Q(x1, x2, x3, ...)
how do you show that for any polynomial f in R[x,y] we have f = u(x,y)*(y^2-x^2)+r(x)
like euclidean algorithms arent really there in multivariate poly rings right?
How would you write say f=y on this form?
Maybe you meant for it to say (y - x^2)?
omg yeah
im trying to show that any element of I({(t,t^2)| t in R}) is a multiple of the polynomial
as in show that V(y-x^2) = I(y-x^2)
which is prime so showing that this algebraic set is irreducible
i can show its prime easily by just quotining it out and it giving us R[x] which is a domain
i just dont know how to prove the other inclusion
So the map R[y, x] -> R[x] sending x to x and y to x^2 has kernel (y-x^2) and a section given by the inclusion.
So f(y, x) - f(x^2, x) is in the kernel and thus is of the form u(y,x)(y - x^2)
So just pick r(x) = f(x^2, x)
yea got this
so f(x,y) would be u(x,y)(y-x^2) + r(x) in x
so for this to vanish on the set r(x) must be 0
for all t
or all x
which is the zero polynomial ig
in R[x] ofc
right?
Yes, assuming R is an infinite field
tysm
np
Is there an example with finite fields?
No, you can find isomorphisms that are not isomorphisms of extensions, but the extensions will also be isomorphic.
It basically comes down to there being very few finite fields
In general if the field is algebraic over it's prime field I think you won't be able to do this.
Simplest example is perhaps Q(x) isomorphic to Q(x^2), but not as extensions over Q(x^2)
In fact as long as the algebraically closed field field of char 0 is uncountable, it is unique up to isomorphism (i.e., acf(0) is uncountably categorical). I don't know if the same fact holds for positive characteristic, but I wouldn't be too surprised.
I just found an article that claims acf(p) is uncountably categorical for all primes p, so there
Yeah, should be something like an algebraically closed field is determined by characteristic and transcendence degree over prime field.
Exactly!
I should have underlined the point here in just saying that this happens due to the fields being mahoosively big and infinite, and with finite fields you get finite obstructions.
If F is finite then F(x) can't be isomorphic to F because one is finite and the other is not™️
Do people actually solve like all the problems from D&F? Every time I flip 2 pages and there are like 40 problems 💀
most people don't do every single one
I tried to do so, gave up after the first section of groups
, although not very hard, its really time taking to do everything
there are like hundreds lmao. Diminishing return after a while
I now do like 10 per subsection, at random, since many questions were more or less similar
do the ones where you don't immediately know the solution sketch
I will, thanks
I'm working on it rn.
working on 2.2.12.e
why not? what's your deadline?
I sometimes have a good week between solving single problems
spaced repetition will give a better understanding anyway
I have no deadline, I just only get very few hours after uni
Yeah I plan to do so, I marked the ones I have solved, would just return to unsolved ones once I have time to do them
I get a couple hours between projects at work. I usually read the section, then read the first problem and chew on it for a while while working, then use my whiteboard when I have a free moment.
rn I'm showing that a particular stabilizer in S4 is isomorphic to D8, which is interesting. I just need to figure out which of these elements is the flipper and I'll have it. I already got the spinner.
wait a second, shouldn't it be possible to take some dihedral group with generators s,r and form a distinct generating set x,r where x=sr^n, since the choice of what axis of symmetry to reflect over is technically an arbitrary choice? (i.e. in a square we can either generate all elements via a L-R reflection and rotations, or we can likewise generate them with a U-D reflection)
in other words, the only very important assignment in mapping between a dihedral group and an isomorphic group is finding which "orbit" the identity element is on and labeling that orbit the rotation subgroup.
guys what is a nice way on how to interprete semidirect product
It's a very literal interpretation, but just the fact that when you have a normal subgroup N < G, then G acts on N by conjugation, and then
ng * n'g' = n (gn'g^-1) g g'
So the action of G on N apears when simplifying multiplications of elements.
A good example to have in mind is the dihedral group. Every element is either a rotation or a reflection, and the reflection acts on the rotations by inverting them. I.e. when you turn a shape over rotations now go on the opposite direction.
is this because Z is initial in Ring?
All semidirect products are like this you have some operations that are like "reflections" (not necessarily of order 2 or anything like that), and some that are like rotations. Doing a reflection then a rotation is the same as doing a rotation then a reflection except the rotation is twisted somehow
Yes
sick
so I just showed that for the polynomial x_1x_2+x_3x_4, there is a way to have S4 act on it in such a way that the stabilizer is isomorphic to D8. It's now asking me to show that the same is true for (x_1+x_2)(x_3+x_4) which I can already see will behave the same way. Is there a way to show directly that this structure of a pair of two pairs (of commuting operations) can be thought of as the same, or am I simply recognizing that internal D8 structure it's already telling me to find?
(the multiplication and addition in both cases are commutative)
how do one argue the number of left cosets are the same as the number of right cosets? if the group is finite, i can use lagrange's
oh okay, kinda see it now, thank
you have to work with group actions
Hint: what is an operation on groups that swaps the order of multiplication?
Why is $(\mathbb{Z}/8\mathbb{Z})^{\times}$ isomorphic to $C_2 {\times} C_2$
\times
Have you tried writing up the cayley table?
Even when the group is not abelian?
yeah saw it, was looking on the internet haha
damn_guuurl
we don't do it in my algebra course, my prof is fully against it
So I assume you're just permuting the variables. In which case I guess you can create an isomorphism of S4 sets between the sums of degree 2 monomials and product degree 1 binomials.
What is a necessary and sufficient condition for an element of Z/8 to be (multiplicatively) invertible?
yeah, but even more basic, I just associated both of them to the diagonals of a square labeled 1,3,2,4, which satisfies that "pair of pairs" notion
there has to exist an element n not equal to 0 mod 8, s.t. n*m = 1 mod 8
which is the case for 1 3 5 7
That'll probably work yeah
Once you have this, you can count the number of element (there are 4 ofc) that are invertible, and for this you can just check whether there's an element that has order 4
I also noticed that they all are of order 2
Since if so, then it's iso to Z/4, if not, then it's iso to Z/2 \times Z/2 (these are the only groups of order 4)
OOHHH
see it now
the top left vertex is the first member of the first pair, the top right being the first of the second pair. All rotations and reflections then become very clear.
I get it, thank you!!
If the group is abelian there's no distinction between left and right cosets, so then there is nothing to show
is somebody in the mood to help me working through an exercise? It's about finding the isomorphism classes of each group of order 16 s.t. it is a semidirect product of a cyclic group of order 8 with a group of order 2
So something like Ha -> a^{-1}H?
Exactly. Do you see why this is well defined?
obviously we want to analyze $\mathbb{Z}/8\mathbb{Z} \rtimes \mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z}$
damn_guuurl
Im trying to use the rational root test to write this polynomial $2x^4 - 5x^3 + 3x^2 +4x - 6 \in \mathbb{Q}$ as a product of irreducible polynomials. so since the numerator $r$ is meant to divide the constant term we have that $r|6 \implies r = +/- 1,2,3,6$ and since the denominator s is meant to divide the leading terms coefficient we have that $s|2 \implies s = +/- 1,2$ so all the possible roots $ r/s = +/-1,2,3,6, 3/2, 1/2$ the only problem is I plugged all of these values in the induced function but none of these were roots and I did this twice over just to be sure. anyone know what to do?
jayz
check your work
,w 2x^4 - 5x^3 + 3x^2 + 4x - 6
-1 and 3/2 are roots
hmm weird ok 🙂 thanks

How do we know such a,b exist?
For reference R is the ring of p-integral elements of Q (i.e. no factor of p in the denominator)
since p doesn't divide v, gcd(v, p^n) = 1, so take u * (bezout identity av + bp^n = 1)
wow okay lol
I love it when the solution is something trivial
(i think this works at least) 
i've gotten into group theory over the past few months and i think i've discovered a somewhat interesting tidbit that i'd love to share but i feel like that requires TeX and TeX is completely alien to me
i'm not asking for TeX help or anything
i'm just curious if TeX is required for explanations
How do I even begin learning group rings and field?
really useful for writing stuff up not necessary by any means for understanding
i'm kind of in the same boat as you and i feel like this every time i try to read up on stuff
Yh one of my modules are o n cryptography and group fields and rings is just in the way
reading and practice problems. there's a pinned post in #book-recommendations (all the way at the bottom of pins) talking abuot some of the textbooks
the only real symbol i can think of needing is the double-stricken/blackboard Z and φ if greek letters are considered symbols
Anything you write is a symbol
if i did the math right
there are no isomorphisms with $(\mathbb{Z}_{2})^{8}$ as the domain or codomain
nonpost
i think i should've clarified; i meant groups of order 256 that are not that group
What do you mean?
(also yay latex
)
i don't know how to put it in the aptest of words
but i found the group i'm talking about bc it's isomorphic to the set of values you can store in a byte, under the operation of XOR
yeah, bitwise xor
and i wondered if there were any isomorphisms (bijective homomorphisms iirc) from different groups of the same order
Well
We usually consider two groups to be the "same" if they're isomorphic (even if not equal)
but other than the group itself (so automorphisms) i don't think isomorphisms are possible given how the group elements relate with each other (i think people call that "group structure")
Sure there are if you don't consider up to isomorphism. Just relabel the elements! I can call (10100100) = j, for all i want!
But if we consider groups to be unique up to isomorphism, then there certainly aren't any isomorphisms between unique groups
i always thought equality up to isomorphism was a sort of abuse of notation
turns out it is exactly what it says it is
Nah. Once we start working with algebraic (and other) structures, working up to isomorphism really is the best way. For example, up to isomorphism, there are only 2 groups of order 4
yeah Z3 and K4
*Z4
Because it doesn't really matter what I call each element. What might be x to you is y to me. That doesn't affect the group structure though
i find group theory to be extremely interesting but i find difficulty actually understanding a decent bit of it solely due to how jargon heavy and explanation-light things can be at times
Yeah that's fair, it can take some time to get used to compared to HS and earlier maths. Once you do though, it's very fun indeed!
Anyone have exam paper questions and solutions on groups rings fields soo I can have a better understanding of it ,i would really appreciate it🫶
can someone help explain how this is a proof? i don't understand how this shows that cofactor expansion is the only function that satisfies these properties. this is from Artin
for context: 3.4-3.7
I understood it the following way (which I hope is right): any function d satisfying 3.5-3.7 is the map sending $A$ to whatever you calculate using 3.13. Since det satisfies 3.5-3.7, $\text{d}=\text{det}$
person2709505
that's a very "unusual" uniqueness statement
so after doing some multiplication of matrices together, I have found that there appears to be a restriction on the center of the heisenberg group of an arbitrary field F such that a matrix with elements a,b,c is in the center only if it has the following relationship with arbitrary matrix (in the group with the elements of) x,y,z: az=cx. Because this is a restriction on the matrix containing a, b, c, we know that z and x can be any members of the arbitrary field F. This therefore implies that it must be the case that a=c=0.
Is this the full form of the center? all triangular matrices with a diagonal of 1 and the only free element being element 13 (the top right corner)? I see no restriction on that particular spot, and multiplying it out seems to work.
yeah, seems so. cool.
that would make sense, given the next part of the question was to prove that Z(H(F)) is isomorphic to the additive group F
Oh lol
I googled your question and then it just gave me dummit & foote
so i mean yeah nice
I think I found an error in D&F not listed in the errata 
It's asking me to prove that sqrt(-n) is not prime in Z[sqrt(-n)] for squarefree n greater than 3...but if n is a prime then Z[sqrt(-n)]/(sqrt(-n)) is isomorphic to Z/nZ which is a field right? So then it would be prime
I used homo phi(a + bsqrt(-n)) = a mod n
And I think the ideal (sqrt(-n)) is equal to the kernel, i. e. all values a + bsqrt(-n) such that a = nk for some integer k
I assume it should be always prime
I don't think Z/nZ is an integral domain for nonprimes either though cus iirc that's iso to Z/p1 x... xZ/pn but for instance a \neq 0,(a, 0,...,0)(0,a,....,0) = 0 so it's not an integral domain & then sqrt(-n) isn't prime.
oh wait I was looking at errata from 2011
. But actually the errata from dummit's website which was last revised on 2021 doesn't have it either 
Oh nvm it is in it now 
there goes my million dollar bounty
What was the exercise supposed to say?
prove 2 is not prime
Wut?
in Z[sqrt(-n)]
Ahh 2 is not prime in Z[sqet(-n)]
For n >3
Makes sense
Why n>3 though? Statement seems true for n=3, 2 and 1 aswell.
Don't think you need square free either.
Oh well it's ultimately part of a part of a larger problem trying to get you to prove among other things that the quadratic ring of integers when -n is congruent to 2, 3 mod 4 is not a UFD.So for n = 1,2, 2 is not irreducible ((1+i)(1-i) and (-sqrt(-2)sqrt(-2)). for n = 3 it is but I guess it also doesn't include that since then -n is congruent to 1?
And when it's congruent to 1 the corresponding quadratic ring of integers is Z[(1 +sqrt(-n)) /2]
So proving there's a nonprime irreducible in Z[sqrt(-n)] doesn't apply
what was in "Section 1?"
depends on what you call Gauss' lemma, but yeah
some algebra stuff
cool tysm
if R is an integral domain and K its FOF, then corpime in R[x] => coprime in K[x]: if p is a common prime divisor of f and g in K[x], then by factoring out its content you get a primitive irreducible R[x] polynomial that divides f and g in K[x] => divides in R[x] => contradiction
yea got it
this exact thing is stated in section one and even explicitly mentions gauss
did you not even bother checking the referenced section before asking
this is why i
and 
you missed timo's point
the text tells you to look at section 1
this has nothing to do with whether or not you actually read section 1 when you started the book
this has to do with you immediately coming here to ask instead of using the book's reference sections for their intended purpose
hmmm
its as if i asked if this is was gauss lemma just for confirmation
a simple yes would suffice :d
the book gives you that "yes"
tbh, i'm reading Fulton atm as well and the way it's stated in Section 1 doesn't immediately imply the desired result (at least so far as i can see it)
R is k[X]
Here's how it's stated. The way I understand the result you need the statement "f,g in R[x], g primitive, g divides f in K[x] => divides in R[x]" and I don't see it exactly as a trivial consequence of "irreducible over K => irreducible over R".
Hm?
What I mean is I had the same question he did at one point.
R is k[X], K is k(X)
I understand that.
What I mean is I was in the same spot he was at one point, wondering how exactly "irreducible over K => irreducible over R" implies "coprime over R => coprime over K". I had to pause and think for a moment and ended up using a result that's not in Section 1 (which although is deducible from it).

What I mean is, yes, this guy has a tendency of clogging up the channel with inane questions.
But in this one case I see his problem (assuming he is having the same problem I did).
This is altogether missing the point of him not just flipping back a page or 10
also are you sure your implication arrows are right there?
Bro, I just explained the situation. Yes, he could've bothered flipping to Section 1 and seeing the quoted result, what I'm saying is, personally, I had to pause and think how the quoted result follows from Gauss' lemma. If that's his problem, then it's understandable, although given his track record I could see how this is all just about him not bothering to check.
the highlighted part is exactly what's written in section 1 and the question "is this gauss" is an immediate yes when you look at the section saying (by Gauss)
I'm not reading the same question into it as you are
w/e, this is all arguing over nothing, fundamentally we're all on the same page
👍
quotient field???
some people call it that, yes
e.g. in German it's Quotientenkoerper
literally "quotient field"
i expect the corresponding English term is a calque of this
quotient groups i can understand but quotient fields? how do you do that
I assume it's field of fractions here?
yes
it's not a quotient in the same sense as with groups etc, but rather the elements of the quotient fields are formal quotients
it's just a taxonomic coincidence
Then not quite like quotient groups
in German they don't have this problem, quotient objects are called "factor" objects
In short: It's like considering fractions of elements in an intergral domain (special type of ring). Kinda like creating Q from Z. You'll learn the details in an abstract algebra course/book 🙃
ohhhhhhhhh
that actually makes a lot of sense
There are also quotient rings (by ideals as opposed to normal subgroups), which under certain cirsumstances (maximal ideals) gives you a field as well
i assume ideals are somewhat like a ring equivalent to a normal subgroup
fun stuff until you make the distinction between left and right ideals, which don't exist because noncommutative rings don't exist
Think uhhh multiples of 2 in the integers, or polynomials which have a factor of x^3
Not all ideals are so nice, but neither are all normal subgroups
"noncommutative rings don't exist" finally some good news
i honestly don't jive with this meme, noncommutative rings are interesting, we wouldn't have CSAs otherwise
idk noncommutative rings not existing sounds nice to me
Me neither. Noncommutative shit is great.
Imagine not having rep theory of groups.
Imagine not having the quaternions.
good
oh yeah matrices aren't commutative
this post makes William Rowan Hamilton very VERY mad
Anyway since I don't like this meme we should get rid of it uwu xP lol
to those who don't know, dude was so psyched about discovering the quaternions that he built his entire latter career around them, forcing them into absolutely everything
only problem with this is a lack of a word for the object itself when referencing it
like you can refer to X/A as "the quotient" in a sentence where said space was mentioned earlier
but the factor terminology kinda lacks that
if you get what i mean
i do
i'm glad
that seems like a perfectly fine workaround
i know what a short exact sequence is but i don't know why or how they are used
tbh I think you've got a while before you need to be worrying abot exact sequences
i suppose i should continue worrying about the semidirect product
Non commutative set theory
you're 15 you should worry about homework instead
honestly i should be worrying about trig (i am horrible at shape-related math)
i fear
are 15 year olds interested in group theory a common occurence
@formal ermine
more common than one might think, which is also not hard though considering the expectation would be none
I mean it’s not uncommon
i've got the perfect reading recc for you, brb
Rubik’s cube -> group theory pipeline
Because every
Single
Book
Uses that example it feels like
that one video about group theory that got a million views -> group theory pipeline
I have never actually seen that used as an example
you became a non commutative set theorist
no the rubiks cube is everywhere
so yeah
noncommutative set theory for noncommutative geometry
This is about the unsolvability of degree >=5 equations.
Put together algebra, cacilus and geometry and we get uh
Derived algebraic geometry
Based on the lectures Arnold delivered to Soviet highschoolers.
so like Galois type stuff?
Some commutative op algs subclass <-> stone spaces thing that implodes when noncommutative (maybe stonean too)
Yes, but not entirely, there's some topology there too.
The entire book is a collection of problems and their solutions that teach you all the necessary math from the ground up.
Starting with basics of group theory, continuing with some complex analysis and topology and so on.
And the intended audience of the original lectures was high-schoolers.
just got jumpscared by a sentence saying that good group theory resources exist
(i hate wikipedia articles so much)
just read nlab then
yes 
you're a demon
what, it's not that bad once you get used to it
clearly we should be viewing addition as a monoidal product, I mean come on
@proud spindle instead of chasing disparate bits of math like the semidirect product or w/e (wtf are you going to do with the semidirect product at this stage, anyway), you should read some "programatic" math, i.e. something with a programme that builds towards something (e.g. like this book). Also try Borcherds' videos https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PL8yHsr3EFj51pjBvvCPipgAT3SYpIiIsJ.
to answer that rhetorical question: i start learning an area of math for shits and giggles and then later i do sensible things
hyperfixate first, reason later
Do what works for you, but I believe the organic Russian approach is better suited for learning and exploration.
They had a great series of booklets about different kind of topics (basically at a high-school level), where they introduce a concept and show what it's useful for. Shame they're probably not translatede into English.
it doesn't work at all but i've mastered doing the absolute wrong approach "correctly"
Then you should try this for a change.
I know the impulse is to flit from topic to topic like a summerfly, but you don't really learn anything that way.
if i can find a copy of that book, i certainly will
Meanwhile if you knuckle down and work at something a little bit, you'll see it pays off enormously.
IIRC I got a digital one, I can DM it to you
sure
At your level you could try Spivak's Calculus for example.
Great book and does interesting things with the math, e.g. actually deriving Kepler's laws of planety motion.
it's always better when they derive a formula rather than just giving it to you
if only I had the patience to do this 
Is there any analog of the fundamental theorem of calculus for a polynomial ring in several variables?
calculus, what?
do you mean fundamental theorem of algebra?
what you mean by fundamental theorem of calculus
what is calculus...
I have something in mind maybe but it depends what they mean
i think fto algebra makes more sense. since that's for like a polynomial in one variable ig?
fta is a alg topological result sotrue
maybe they meant fundamental theorem of algebra but like... automatically said calculus bc i think that's probably mentioned more often at lower levels??
for fta there's Hilbert's Nullstellensatz
Yes sorry!
How about.. suppose I had a homogeneous polynomial in several variables. Can I factor it into a product of degree one homogeneous polynomials?
Thank you!
Im learning about quotient groups, Im trying to undertand this statement **"a set of elements that have been, deemed equivalent to one another based of their relationship to the normal subgroup" ** I've vaguely heard about how quotient groups (say G/H) is a way to form a group from G using equivalent relations, my question is what exactly is the relation my guess is, is that if an elemet a of G is some distance from any element of G we group them together, is this the correct assessment?
Have you heard of cosets? These are the equivalence relation you are looking for
(properly maybe the coset is the equivalence class but w/e)
yeah I know what a coset is, so what is the equivalence relation?
a ~ b if they're in the same coset
Ok I see
Yeah and you need normality of H for the left/right cosets to agree and form a quotient group
on a more intuitive level is it like saying that they're in the same coset if they share the same 'distance' from any given element of H?
gotcha
It’s saying their difference is in H
right right
and this property gives it the effect of 'modding' H right?
I mean
That’s the definition yes
You’ve set things in H to 0
So if things differed by something in H they now must be the same
Ok that makes sense
The analog of fta might be the Nullstellensatz, which in particular implies that every non constant polynomial has a complex root.
Even more it says that if f1, f2, ..., fn are complex polynomials, then they either have a common root or there exists polynomials g1, ..., gn such that
f1*g1 + f2*g2 + ... + fn*gn = 1
damn_guuurl
@somber sleet try writing out what the product of two elements looks like in that case
tell me if I'm wrong, do I have to find homomorphisms, s.t. "the konjugation is the identity"?
this is in relation to what?
wait, I'm gonna write it out
I'm trying to find for which prime numbers p,q, the semidirect product $\mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z} \rtimes \mathbb{Z}/q\mathbb{Z}$ is a direct product
damn_guuurl
for this to work I need the multiplication in the semidirect product to be componentwise multiplication right?
I'm just taking an arbitrary homomorphism from $\mathbb{Z} / p\mathbb{Z}$ to $Aut(\mathbb{Z}/ q\mathbb{Z})$
and what I also know is that $Aut(\mathbb{Z}/ q \mathbb{Z})$ is isomorphic to $(\mathbb{Z}/ q \mathbb{Z})^{\times}$
Right so in the direct product, everything commutes. This is the same as this homomorphism being trivial (by which I mean everything goes to the identity), see?
I don't completely see it, I kind of not see the "konjugation" in Z
conjugation isn't the only automorphism that exists
I need help breaking this theorem down and understanding it.
conjugations form a subgroup of the automorphism group known as the inner automorphisms
I see that it has to be the identity for it to become a multiplication
No, that's not true
In a semidirect product H \rtimes G, the map phi : G \to Aut(H) determines the way that elements of G act by conjugation on H
This map can be anything. It does not have to be the identity. You surely know this already!
Now what I'm saying is that in the direct product, everything commutes, so the conjugation automorphism is the trivial automorphism.
So in fact it H \rtimes G is the direct product, then phi must be trivial.
Is that clear?
maybe break it down one statement at a time
The idea essentially is that there's a bijection between intermediate fields in some galois extension and subgroups of the galois group of that extension
yes I understand that
Dummit and Foote have a nice section explaining everything with nice visuals of how the fields and subgroups work in tandem
The first statement isn't too crazy because they went through the Galois correspondence before... But I'm just seeing how the other statements are related and how it applies to polynomials
But the fact that it is a bijective correspondence is pretty cool
Wrong channel
9 online and 21 members 
No unsolicited ads
why did i even join
So the theorem is already broken down into parts. The first part establishes a bijection and the other parts are properties of that bijection.
Is there any specific point where you're struggling? Are you trying to understand the proof or just the statement?
I remember being really overwhelmed by ftgt too. It helped me a lot to just start using it in exercises and like try per exercise what properties I could use. It really is such an amazing theorem that works exactly as you would expect when you are using it for problems.
if I have a group of order pqr with p<q<r and I want to analyze if G is solvable, I came up with the fact that it can have either one r-Sylowsubgroup or p*q. Now if I have exactly one Sylowsubgroup H, why is this normal?
is it because every r-sylowgruop is conjugated and thus, since we only have one, it holds trivially for H?
all the r-subgroups are conjugate to each other so that means when you conjugate this one it stays fixed so it has to be normal
got it, thank you!!
what's the difference between Matsumura "commutative algebra" and "commutative rings" ?
There is something of an answer here
https://mathoverflow.net/q/25411/157483
I'm analyzing why a group G of order 8 * 5*7 is solvable, i concentrated by analyzing the 7-Sylowgroup. Either we have 1 /-Sylowgroup, and the proof follows easily, or we have 8 7-Sylowgroups. Now I'm looking at the solution and they take Norm_G(P) and say that the index of Norm_G(P) is 8 ([G : Norm_G(P)] = 8), now where does this come from, I have no clues
uses the conjugation as an operation right?
omg this is so nice, thank you!!
Yes 
It's so nice isn't it
Just immediate and so simple
really a beautiful result, that orbit-stabiliser theorem
I mean, simple is a big big word haha, but I don't use the orbit-stabiliser theorem really a lot, cause I never knoe which is the operation I need
but now I got it
The content is largely the same.
The arguments in CRT are often clearer, and CRT has many many more exercises. CA’s content basically subsumes everything in CRT, and the second edition of CA has an appendix which covers Kunz’s theorem, Japaneseness, and Excellence which aren’t covered in CRT. There’s also some stuff about eg pro-constructibility, but eh whatever.
My recommendation if you’re going to read either is to read CRT, and then after you read that to read the appendix of CA if you need that material.
is this just true because an element of $R^{\oplus n} / R^{\oplus (n-1)}$ is of the form $(0, \dots, 0, r_n)$, then you just have the projection $(0, \dots, 0, r_n) \mapsto r_n \in R$?
ana(functor)mono(morphism)
How does one prove that all elements of a root system of a finite reflection group can be written as an integral linear combination of simple roots?
Yup. First isomorphism theorem!
The fact that they can be written as a linear combination with non-negative or non-positive real coefficients is obvious, but I don't know how to prove that the linear combination must be integral.
I am primarily interested in this because of the use of the 'height' of roots, in particular, the fact that certain proofs use induction on the height of positive roots, while not explaining why the height must always be an integer.
The definition of a simple root is exactly that it cannot be written as a sum of two other positive roots. If you have another positive root, you can write it as a sum, then induct. Can you see why this process terminates?
Yes, this makes it much clearer. Thank you
yo i'm feeling absurdly stupid right now. only using the fact that F is a field, i need a hint on how i can show that (-1)(-1) = 1
tryna distribute something out or right 1 as 1 + 0 or some shit
and i also tried showing the identity property on (-1)(-1) and concluding from uniqueness that it's equal to 1 but obviously my brain doesn't have any enough power to proceed
ah yea my bad
consider
no dont spoil it
im doing some shit in my analysis class and we're just like verifying the basic properties of R but like yea it can obv be generalized to any field
spoiler if anyones gonna write it
||(-1)(1-1)||
and i was like oh yea this shit's easy, went back to verify and holy fuck i can't
happens
okay (-1)(1 - 1) = (-1)(1) + (-1)(-1) = 0, but then I have to assume (-1)(1) = -1 to get (-1)(-1) = 1 right
definition of 1
thats not much of an assumption
wait rlly cuz my book has me prove that (-1)(1) = -1 in another exercise
like they only want me to use the axioms of R

?????
and my prof's like
it makes no sense.
sorry
that's definitional tho
field axioms
1x=x1=x
this requires that additive inverses are unique right
-1 + (-1)(-1) = 0 => (-1)(-1) = 1 by the uniqueness of additive inverses
or am i trippin
That's always true
you can just show that (-1) * r = -r for any r. That would imply (-1)(-1) = -(-1) = 1
But you are just adding one to both sides
ah yea i'm stupid
ye that's true
yo how does this argument show that U "satisfies all the axioms of a multiplicative group"? i know it's pretty easy to show that it is a group using standard methods but i'm not seeing how this one does
for instance, how does it show closure
closure holds as it's the multiplication of a ring
Same with other requirements
oh wait, I see. Well it's easily verified that the product of two invertible elements is again invertible
wait wdym
well yea
oh does he just assume
that you can show that
i'm just confused as to how the "therefore" follows from the sentences which precede it
i forgot we were restricting to a subset lol
lol nw
But I think he just implicitly uses that, or has mentioned that earlier maybe. I see what you mean tho
hmm yea i'm confused as to what it shows, luckily it's very easy to see that it's a multiplicative group lol
well now i have an excuse to go to OH
ohio?
office hours
okay fuck it i'm verifying everything in lang as i go
normally i just do a quick read through and then go back and verify but it seems like it's practically dependent on verifications
oh this is lang? yeah he definitely just assumed you could show it lmao
lolll makes sense
If you want to show something invertible the most direct approach is to give an inverse
well yeah i'm just confused as to how it shows all the other axioms of it being a multiplicative group
but never mind like Ryx said it's prolly him assuming that I know how to do it
Well, just directly compute it
Show you have an identity (1), that you have inverses, and that you are closed under multiplication
no yea i know how to do it
I mean it shows it pretty clearly imo, since 1 is a unit, inverses are nice, associativity inherited
they call them "fields" yet i cannot frolic through them
ok now i'm confused as to why the elements of a ring which are left invertible do not necessarily from a group under multiplication, call it U
say a, b in U
then xa = 1 and yb = 1 for some x, y
then (yx)ab = 1 tada
so ab in U
and obviously each one is invertible and there's an identity
2 out of 6 for monoids 
or for invertibility do you have to show that there's a two sided inverse for each u in U
lol
group inverses have to be two sided
oh yea
dude i'm trying to come up with a ring with elements that only have left sided inverses
Consider injective/surjective functions
a few weeks ago I had the revelation that this works on invertible elements 💀
what's the nuance involved (if that's the word lol) for defining injectivity as functions which have left inverses vs. your more traditional definition of f(x1) = f(x2) => x1 = x2?
Weak equivalences, 2 out of 6 
Well, if you don’t have LEM or such not all injective have left inverses
Also, ya know, choice and surjectives having right inverses
Excluded middle
I think there’s some weirdness of the precise change you have to make
strange
here is addition just the usual (f + g)(x) = f(x) + g(x) and obv multiplication is composition
Yeah
yeah
Show the other direction fails because the requirements to be right cancellable 
what does excluded middle mean tho
excluded middle implies you can do stuff like proof by contradiction
some people reject it, so their proofs are strictly constructive
not sure why one would do so, but...
LEM is kinda about realizability of sets?
Doesn’t exactly give the explicit set though
How does one show that no proper subset of a simple system of a finite reflection group can generate the group?
The book I'm following(Humphreys) has given a hint that I am not able to use properly. It tells us to assume that there exists an α in the simple system for which s_α isn't needed as a generator, and then to consider some reflection w for which w(-α) is a simple root
just a sanity check, is this because x^p - 1 = (x - 1)^p by the binomial identity, and so 1 is the only pth root of unity?
yep
when does a polynomial have real roots?
we already know if it's odd degree it has a real root, so even degree is the one that matters. Every polynomial over R factors into ireducible quadratic or linear polynomials, so we'd need it to factor into exactly all quadratics for it to have no roots.
I don't know, for a single quadratic it's simple enough to check if the max/min lies above/below the x-axis, and for irreducible quadratics their roots will be complex conjugates, so I'm not sure if there's any magic trick we can use to leverage any of that
oh, you can solve that with just calculus then
if it only has the form x^{2n} - a
well, that's also factorable ugh lmao
I'm asking because it is not the main focus of my exercise, cause I'm lookin for homomorphisms between Q(a) to C
I'm not sure distinguishing between real and complex roots will help you in the regard
and I do not need to calculate the roots, I only need a motive to say that I have at least one real root, s.t. my field Q(a) goes into R, which does not depend on the root since the fields all are isomorphic to each other
this trick is enough, I guess
the lie group would be the "most general algebraic structure"?
@chilly ocean what leads you to ask this question
a boring but more general algebraic structure is a magma, but really nobody cares about this so I wouldn't advise going down some wikipedia rabbit hole on it. Your time is probably better spent reading an introductory abstract algebra book
Lie groups are quite specific, actually.
The algebraic structure of a lie group isn't any different than the structure of the group. The interesting thing about lie groups is that they also have analytic / topological structure that is compatible with the algebraic.
so when describing containments, would it be sufficient to say that the group generated by x^15 is the intersection of the subgroups generated by x^5 and x^3? or would it be better to say that it is distinctly subgroups of both other groups?
yes, but is that a fair way to describe its containment as a subgroup?
yeah
k, so there should be a total of 4 distinct non-trivial subgroups, generated by the powers of 3, 5, 9, and 15. The trivial subgroups of {1} and Z_45 itself round it out to a total of six subgroups. The containments as follows:
{1} is trivially the universal subgroup
<x^9> < <x^3>
<x^5>
<x^15> = intersect(<x^3>,<x^5>)
all of the above < <x>
These all are using the natural generator for each subgroup, i.e. the smallest generating member of the group. All other elements in Z_45 generate one of the above subgroups, separated into equivalence classes according to their GCD with 45
Yup, that works
A good sanity check for cyclic groups Z/n is that you can add one to each of the prime powers that divide n, and multiply them all together to get the total number of subgroups. I.e., here 45 = 3^2 * 5^1, so there are (2+1)*(1+1) = 6 subgorups
I just took the prime factorization, raised 2 to the sum of the powers to get an upper bound, then took away all repeats due to higher powers of prime factors, but yeh.
teaching math has really changed me from a "find the best solution" person to a "find a reliable solution" person, and idk how I feel about that.
speaking of dumb solutions:
suppose x is in cyclic group G, and |x|=|G|=n < infinity
prove that G=<x>
- because |x|=n for some finite number, |<x>|=n=|G| which implies that <x> is isomorphic to G since all cyclic groups of the same order are isomorphic (theorem proven elsewhere)
- Since x is in G, <x> must be a subgroup of G.
- The only subgroup of G that is isomorphic to G (i.e. that has a bijection with G) is G itself, since G is finite. Therefore it must be the case that <x>=G
yes, there are easier ways to do this, but this one seemed funny to me.
also note that this only holds for finite groups, as (by counterexample) |2| in Z is infinite, but <2> =/= <1> = Z
I'm looking for the splitting field of the polynomials $X^3 + X^2 + 1$ over $\mathbb{F}_2$, I know that it does not have roots in it, how do I find it? I have no clues
damn_guuurl
I was analyzing the field $L := \mathbb{F}_2 [X] /( X^3 + X^2 + 1)$ which is isomorphic to $\mathbb{F}_2(a)$ for an $a \in L$
damn_guuurl
What do you mean 'find' it? Like you have a perfect description of the field L as a quotient. Can you be more specific about what you're looking for?
If you're looking for some value a, it's X. The value is X.
Okay fair, sorry for not being precise, yes but why? I don't understand how to find it?
How did you find the X
maybe try computing the multiplicative inverse of X idk
Are you asking why X in L is a solution to the polynomial?
Finally ok
c'mon don't be mean, I'm already heartbroken thanks to algebra 💔
It's because X, in L, is really the coset X + (X^3 + X^2 + 1). I will write this ideal as P = (X^3 + X^2 + 1). Let's write this polynomial out in a different variable to be clear: f(t) = t^3 + t^2 + 1.
Then f(X + P) = X^3 + X^2 + 1 + P, but X^3 + X^2 + 1 is in P (by definition) so f(X+P) = P.
Oh and ofc P = 0 + P. It's the 0 in the quotient ring.
okay, I forgot that I was taking a class and not x by itself
Convince yourself of this.
Let f(t) be any polynomial in some ring R.
The image of X in the ring R[X]/(f(X)) is a solution of f(t).
Prove this.
the study of abstraction is so beautiful.
wrong
it makes people talk funny tho
yur
who be wrong?
took a break from this hizzouse
abstraction is for nerds
valid
guilty as charged. Still working through every example from D&F
too much work
Bro said W abstraction and then said they’re working through examples. Make it make sense
ain't got no teacher to tell me to do it all in 3 months, so it's not like I'm doing 100 problems a night or something
never said I was good at it, just that it was beautiful
I love turning polynomials into literal squares that spin
Can I sacrifice some chickens to ba'al to get it all to end
guys I did 5 exams in 2 months, I have algebra next week and am literally desperate
Most sane mathematician
still love it though
@crystal turtle when are you turning into god themselves
ur right I was being crazy. It has to be a whole ass COW
dihedral subgroups go brrrrr (because they're just helicopter blades)
Oh hello
damn bro bojjiitjtye has me blocked
I have ascended
Chmonkey
Rightfully so
I hope he blocks you too
dunno, is 0 a natural number?
yes
correct answer, seems clearly unreasonable he blocked you then
oh, wait, hold on: define a trapezoid.
trapezoid 😹 bro got trivial symmetry group 😹 basically just a point 😹
wtf is a trapezoid
define... a functor...
functor? I hardly know her!
oof, you right. nvm, my bad, can't bring potentially irregular shapes in here.
(had somebody tell me the other day a trapezoid -- or trapezium -- had exactly one set of parallel sides)
you never saw it in elementary school?
Bruh
bro thinks we did geometry in elementary school
all we did was 1 + 1
and maybe some 4 * 2
it's just a square, but in projective geometry 
what the fuck
what being a hsct does to a mf
hsct?
What the fuck
He's not a hsct tho
true... bro don't even know what a Z_p-good space is 😹
high school category theorist
I don't even know that 
I can give you the definition but it's abstract nonsense that tbh I don't really understand either 
gimme the definition
do you know what a simplicial space is
when you try to cause math drama but unintentionally cause entirely distinct math drama
I just looked it up
wew u ok?
Simplicial space being simplicial object in a (convenient) category of spaces?
in top
yus
One thing that wasn't mentioned earlier is that, in general, to get the splitting field it is not enough to adjoin a single root, you have to adjoin all the roots.
With some Galois theory, you can prove that over a finite field adjoining a single root (of an irreducible polynomial) is the same as adjoining all the roots. Or in this example you can just manually check that there are two other roots in L.
A convenient category of spaces is what I meant
Might be top
Might be ktop or cgwh
I prefer to think of them as functors tbh
or zgygz
Δ^op --> Top
anyway a simplical space is R-good if it's equivalent in some sense to it's R-completion
where Delta is the full subcategory of Delta_a consisting of the free categories on finite and inhabited linear directed graphcs where Delta_a is the full subcategory of Cat on the free categories of finite linear directed graphs
Lil bro learned about copy and paste from Wikipedia
it's just finite sets with maps between them lol
It’s mf triangle
because that's the nlab definition 
Bro
nLab is never right
Nlab is always right
nlab is correct technically but not morally
No Ryx actually knows things
But we use a skeletal version of that
really?
Yeah
whaaaaaaaaaat
working in a non-skeletal category is asking for trouble tbh
Believe it or not, in some things I do
ok anyway
The actual normal definition is the finite linear orders [n] = {0 < … < n}
But yes, we restrict to a category that's just finite linear orders with monotone functions as maps
in the second equation
shouldn't the as be hs
Compare 0 -> 1 -> 2 to a triangle
|[n]| = n+1 
what
"compare 92 to a triangle"
yeah sure bro
let me just
calculate the triangleness
the whole point of a simplitical set is to transform arbitary categories into simplices
that's the name
If you can’t see it as a triangle you need to forget about categories for now
0 -> 1 -> 2, but also 0 -> 2
herlp
Because composition
I know
oh my gosh it's the wholesome face map
Fail
I always fail
I don't know what a closed subgroup means here. C_p has no non-trivial subgroups
are we taking the discrete topology?
What
Z_p not C_p
oh!! if only we didn't overload the fuck out of \mathbb{Z}
????????
maybe then I would understand what the hell is going on
which is a commonly used notation for cyclic groups

Bro 💀
the completion should be Z_{(p)} anyway
it’s ilum he doesn’t know anything except p adics
you cannot get mad at me for making that mistake
Anyways they're obviously ideals
Idk what this fancy argument is about tbh
what's your argument
But they are obviously ideals
Just calculate using the norm. Easy argument
If you ever say obviously again I will have you thrown in the dungeon
Yes please 
that's kinda what they're doing in the proof given
the words trivial, obviously and just are officially banned from this server!!!!!
(I didn't read it)
me upon referring to the group with one element
can someone explain the proof pls
What characterizes the norm of elements in Z_p? Their norm is less than....?
loool
i have no idea who you are but hi I guess
guilty as charged
oh I know proffessor! pick me proffesor! I know Iknow!!
1
I want the child to answer
I really dislike Z_n for cyclic groups, like just use Z/n. Then there can be no confusion
p ackshully 
you and me both
What
😭 ok I do know who you are why tf do you keep changing your name
they said less than, not less than or equal to
it's just
on this server
the |1|_p in question:
broo
Right, so also in p^n Z_p, it's less than 1/p^n
So just make an argument that its an ideal by considering what happens when you multiply by an element in Z_p
wgat?
nvm that is a much cleaner argument than the one they gave
how do we use closedness
wait are we going the wrong way
why |x| <= 1/p^n
because it's in p^nZ_p
but we don't know that yet
Wew, never change
I love u 🥺
we want to show that p^n Z_p are precisely the closed subgroups
right so we are going the wrong way
we're going ideals => closed subgroups rather than closed subgroups => ideals
Me thinks this is closed subgroup ==> ideal
it is
it is tho?
but you are assuming that all closed subgroups are p^n Z_p
but we don't know that!
Oh I'm being dumb again
I misread this 
let a doodad be a closed subgroup, then every sequence in this mofo converges to something in the subgroup
say it converges to x', then |x_n-x'| goes to 0 as n goes to infinity, only element with p-adic norm 0 is 0 so x_n-x' -> 0 as n -> \infty
additionally we have for all a in Z_p that a(x_n-x') -> 0 as n -> \infty as |a(x_n-x')| \leq |x_n-x'|, so the sequence ax_n converges to something inside of our closed subgroup as well
consider the constant sequence?
does that work


