#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 148 of 1
or the matrix representation of one
but anyways, the exercise was a good one!
helped me process some of the polynomial stuff you were telling me about
Dragonslayer Sharp
i see what you're doing, im not 100% sure
Which is uhh $\sum^{n-1}_i g^i$
Dragonslayer Sharp
hm im not quick enough to see it but im sure what you're doing is correct haha
Not n+wtv
im excited to see what it brings, but the pages coming after all this are loaded with info
im going to give it one more good hour of reading and then im calling it for the day
Can’t exactly get the usual polynomial derivative out of this I think
Since that t(v) term
So this is definitely a more specialized thing
Btw relate this to the root of unity thing earlier

(Sorry if interrupting)
What is the right answer here (no mark scheme unfortunately)?
First is equivalent to saying there is a solution to $ab-1=-(pq)k$ where $k$ is an integer. This is obviously the same as saying $ab+(pq)k=1$. Since $a$ is coprime with $pq$, there must be a solution to that equation.
Second, you can just do a table of $x$ and $x^3 \pmod 8$. The odd values of $x$ will return odd values of $x^3$, so this will be odd in the integer mod 8. Then $2^3=8\equiv 0$ and likewise for 4, from which it can be determined that the same holds for 6 as well. Hence there is no $x$ for which $(x^3-4)\equiv 0 \pmod 8$ has a solution.
Third, we have $d$ as the least integer of the form $ax+(a+6)y$. This can be re-written as $a(x+y)+6y=d$ or $ax'+6y=d$. So $\gcd(a,a+6)=\gcd(a, 6)$, meaning whatever $d$ is, it is necessary (but not sufficient) for it to be a divisor of 6. Hence the given set is correct.
Fourth, $p\mid a^5$ means $a^5=pk$ where $k$ is an integer. Since $p$ is not composite, we can't "distribute" it five ways, e.g. $a=p^{1/5}$, as this would not be an integer (or rational for that matter). So we actually have $p \mid a$, which of course does imply that $p^5 \mid a^5$.
So I would say that none of them are false.
Douglas
Yeah
Not that it's something I'm struggling with, but the division questions always make me think of prime factorisation, so I can see why NTists are so interested in primes
Like I can see why prime factorisation is useful
You can factorise numbers in various ways assuming there are prime factors with multiplicities greater than 1, but stuff like this makes me think prime factorisation is the "privileged" factorisation or an objectively more helpful one
Wait until you learn that it generalized to a broad class of rings (Unique factorization domains)
Also yeah they're all true
Got another one.
-
$g^d=e$ obviously and $g^{d^2}=g^{(d^2)}=(g^d)^d$, so the latter is $e^d=e$.
-
Prime factorisations of 15 and 21 are $3 \cdot 5$ and $3\cdot 7$. Only common factor is 3 so this must be the order. (I'm not sure on the reasoning here. Does this have something to do with $21\equiv 15 \pmod m$ having its least (non-trivial) solution when $m=3$?)
-
True by definition. Order is least that returns g to e, so all integers less than order must give something other than g.
-
$ord(g^n)=lcm(n,17)/n$. Since 17 is prime, the lcm is $17n$, giving $ord(g^n)=17$.
All appear to be true.
Douglas
also idk how to do \DeclareMathOperator in texit but that wld be good to know
I think so yes
2 I’m not sure your relating to the “least (non-trivial) solution” is right
When m > 3, then can that be true?
this is a good point
thinking abt it
no
bc mod 3 "get rid of" the 3 in the prime factorisation of each
but for mod 6 there is no factor of 6
etc.
and after mod 7 then obvs 21≠15
so actually mod 2 and mod 3 are the only ones
and mod 1 ig but thats a bit weird to use
I was watching a modular forms lecture by don zagier and I was excited to see it's a group action under invariants, I have a special love for group actions b/c it explains all of group theory , which also reminded me of mobius transformations! That's a remarkable combination of topics, it's so rich that I wasn't sure which section I should put this. Also this defined a moduli space of elliptic curves, which again I can somewhat understand. I can't imagine how many group actions are out there to discover, lastly how does one generate the moduli space of all types of smooth algebraic varieties? I suppose this a like classification of finite groups...
A problem I just thought up, are there any non-trivial examples of rings in which every ideal is prime?
(the trivial examples being fields and the 0 ring)
I thought the fact that it has prime ideals already answers the exercise by itself. I thought of something similar what property or invariant does the ring has to have in order to determine the number of primary ideals. I think this is similar to asking how many combination of divisors a number has?
Impossible for eg Noetherian local rings by Nakayama’s lemma since then I^2 = I for every ideal
I'm not sure why that means it's impossible
I feel like via localization this makes it impossible for all Noetherian rings but there’s one thing I’m not sure about
dumb it down for me
Dumb what down
Like, what's localization
Umm
Look it up I guess? I don’t really want to get into explaining localization in general
But you can turn any ring into a local one by inverting stuff
To make a prime a maximal ideal of the ring
And you can test if a module is 0 by seeing if it’s 0 after localizing at every prime (or even every maximal one)
So you can usually reduce a problem from an arbitrary ring to a local one by checking it “at every prime”
interesting
so
Just off of a cursory thing
think
we need such a ring to have no zero disvisors
Yes
or at least the thing your localizing is not a zero divisor.
This is how I see it, suppose every I is prime, but then it would always be forming another non prime ideal, assuming some extended module
@molten viper I don’t think you can understand the proof, but I’ll write it or regardless
I mean, I’m gonna use a fact
Which you probably don’t know
(what are you proving?)
It’s impossible for a Noetherian ring
ooooo
So I handled the Noetherian case, and your observation it’s a domain is important
Exactly, because there's always another ring contained
The set Supp(I) is the set of primes p where I_p ≠ 0
I feel like there's not many rings which are domains and not Noetherian
Supp(I) = V(Ann(I)), the primes containing the annihilator of I
What's I_p refer to here?
Ann(I) must be 0 because there’s no zero divisors
The localization at p
So what you end up seeing is that I_p must be nonzero for every prime
But for any prime containing I, the proof for local rings shows that I_p is 0
So this is a contradiction unless either I = (1) or 0
So the only ideals are (1) and 0 so you’re a field or 0
I think you should look at my intuition first, and then see his proof. sometimes the geometric intuition is what gives you a sense of direction.
So, what happens if R is a PID
So, every ideal is prime, and is generated by one element
(I'mma call it p for obvious reasons)
oh duh
All I'm saying is that if every ideal is prime, it would always be forming another module with a third prime ideal, forming another non prime ideal of the first two prime ideals
What?
so, we need a ring which is a domain, and it has to have some infinitely generated ideal
yknow
My mind turns to the cyclotomic polynomials
those are irreducible in Z[x] right?
it has equivalence classes up to irreducibility
Z[x] is Noetherian
TIL!
Hilbert's basis theorem gives that it's Noetherian iirc
To find non-Noetherian rings you have to construct huge rings
(chapter like 6 or 7 in AM?)
I've heard of hilbert's basis theorem
It says a polynomial ring over a Noeth ring is Noeth
I'm not sure if it was the daughter or the father who came up with that lemma lol
For a ring to not be noetherian, it needs to not only be infinite, but very infinite, you say?
What lemma….
it needs to be finite
In some sense yes
R noetherian implies R[x] noetherian
That’s not a lemma it’s a theorem
And that’s Hilbert
Not Noether
There’s no daughter
what about something weird like Q[\pi]?
construct a ring that doesnt have IBM now
That’s super Noetherian
Makes sense yeah
It’s finitely generated over a Noetherian ring so Noetherian
I was thinking it might be useful because transcendental
that makes sense
But the infiniteness isn’t about cardinality. You have Noetherian rings of arbitrary cardinality eg fields
the trivial example is always something like Q[x1, x2, x3,....]
The “hugeness” is because you usually make them by appending a shit ton of crap to a ring
Like in the above example
Or infinite products I think, but that’s not an integral domain
I really don’t think you’ll construct an example
It would be so hard to construct one
If you want to find an answer you’d probably only have a shot at trying to prove it for non-Noetherian rings
But I have no idea how you’d approach it
so don't tell me artinian rings wasn't proved by artin 
Sadly I know nothing about topology
That’s not a domain
wouldn't that be a point?
maybe trivially noetherian lol
It isn’t Noetherian lol
The maximal ideal is still not fg
I really don’t think you’ll make an example
yeah probably not
It has to have the property that I^2 = I for all ideals
I don’t know a single example of a ring like this that isn’t 0 or a field
hrmmm
Can you get some wacky Boolean ring thing?
It won’t be a domain
well, at least we can cross polynomial anything off the list
Dang right
Can you walk me through how Nakayama's implies this?
I^2 is prime
oh gotcha
Well that's part of the trivial case
And a field
I think it is actually an open problem for I^2=I, if R/I have nilpotent elements
Fuck I've decided my thesis is not getting worked on
Well it’s a prime ideal so
My friend did some topology and said the ideals are totally ordered
So any such ring is a valuation ring
wow literally scooping my problem smh
idk what a valuation ring is 💪
PQ < P and Q so PQ < P\cap Q
Right so
P < P\cap Q or Q < P\cap Q
And then P < Q or Q < P
For any ideals P,Q (using that they’re prime for some prime avoidance type stuff)
(This step)
R has to be both a valuation ring and non-noetherian
Yes and have I^2 = I for everything
This tracks with my personality outside the math world
sounds monumentally cursed
Abyssal ring
Shame I don't really have the breadth of knowledge to even begin to imagine what that might be like
What would the value group need to be?

If we can give any restrictions on that beyond “not Z”
Wait
I think this is impossible now
Let a have non-zero valuation
And we know (a) = (a^2)
Then v(a) = v(ba^2) = 2v(a) + v(b)
And then you’re screwed right?
I'll take your word for it?
I understood from wiki that in simple words if u have (a,b)~(c,d) and you do the regular (ad+bc)/bd either that or its inverse is in the integral domain, because i don't get P < P\cap Q or Q < P\cap Q 
It’s because PQ < P\cap Q and P\cap Q is prime
Well it’s not a field so I think you can say so?
So this forces P or Q to be contained in the intersection
Yeah like
It’s literally defined as
The things of non-negative
I just was wondering if I was smoking pack

I wish I understood any of what was going on here
Well, idk if you can have some negative things but uh
Based
oh so the property actually implies R is a field?
Nah
I mean
Or a was 0
So 0 or a field
Ye
wow
so, for a principal ideal (p), we have (p)^2 = (p^2) yeah?
Yes
that's kinda wild
So
glad we figured that out rather than me trying to work on my thesis lol
I think I've been kinda working hard on math stuff so I can take a break lol
i guess that's worth a thesis
what about IBM tho
constructing a ring that doesnt have IBM is much harder i think
can someone give an example
what's IBM
invariant basis number
I do not think so
well i meant for galstaff since he wa swriting one
This was not his thesis topic
It's completely irrelevant to my situation lol
Considering every ring I'm worrying about is both Noetherian and Local
so non-commutative => ~IBN 
non commutative rings are scary
this is true
I guess very broadly the problem for my thesis is looking at the rank of multiplication maps on graded rings
Make the worst possible ring imaginable
well, one specific map over a lot of graded rings
is a thesis like
a problem thats not been solved or
is it just exploring some subarea
or some "phoneomna " ( cant spell it )
what do u mean by rank of multiplication maps?
In this particular case I mean if we take a graded ring, the rank of a map f : R_a -> R_b is dim(f(R_a))
So like, for a simple example, say we have $R = k[x,y]/(x^3,y^3)$, and look at the map $f : R_1 \rightarrow R_3$, defined by $f(r) = rx^2$, then $rk(f) = 1$ (as the image of f is the subspace span(yx^2))
DAMMIT TEXIT
Galstaff, Sorcerer of Light
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
whateverrrrrrr
The exercise for the reader if define g(r) = rx, find the rank of f: R_2 -> R_3
Undefined because f isn’t 
rk(f)=1 u mean rank(f)=1
Yes
Isn't that obvious because x^2 is fixed?
It's an example to illustrate the definition
So R_1 is monomial with 1 multiple of x or y?
It's the space of all degree 1 polynomials in our ring
Where’s f(x) in span yx^2 
Ah I’m blind
Can’t you compute these via rank nullity?
lol yes
basically, we're assuming that we have some degree for which dimR_i = dimR_{i+1}
blegh
why foesn't that format right
anyways
In your problem?
yeah
You need to put a \ before the _
It broke because you wrote a _{
It actually only needs to happen once, and it might be a good exercise for me to show that that's actually a max of the hilber function for R
Is it automatically going to persist past that point?
Or is it that if t happens once, it happens for all suitably large i
Under the setup we're using it actually is 0 for suitably large i
Possibly larger than when it first stabilized?
so the dimension goes up for a bit and then starts falling
Wait so is your claim that if dim R_i = dim R_{i+1}
Then that number is a max for the Hilbert function?
I wonder if it gets more interesting if one asks when this happens $$rank(H^i)=rank(H_i)$$
Invariants
What on god’s green earth are you saying
Cuz if so, I find that interesting
And want to ask what your assumptions on R are, like if R_0 is a field and R is fg as an algebra by R_1 or something
It's not the main claim
for homology and cohomology ranks
Of what?
Yeah but is this true?
It might be under our setup
It seemed like you were saying it is, so I wanted to ask about a precise statement cuz I want to prove it
I have to think on it for a bit
Prove it for yourself and don't tell me cause this might be a nice property to put in my thesis lel
I don’t know what I’m trying to prove
Because I sort of doubt the proposed claim I made, so if it was true it would be really surprising which is why I want to try and prove it
But unless someone’s telling me it is true, I would guess it isn’t
What exactly is the hilbert function
f(n) = dim R_n
Ah
Commutative algebra stuff basically will say that for all n >> 0, this is an integer polynomial
And the degree of said polynomial is the dimension of the ring
Or something like that, I might be misspeaking. The dimension thing is about the associated graded algebra
But the thing about the integer polynomial thing is true for any graded module I think
I never remember the statements, but when I need to know them I know where to look in Matsumura kekw
Trying to remember my exact setup is fucking killing me rn
it's late
ok so, the simple version is:
let R = k[x1,...,xn]/I, where I is generated by all the squares and N (more on the value of N later) monomials of degree i + 1, then if H(R_i) = H(R_{i+1}), I guess the claim is that's the max of the hilbert function for R
I think
Like it feels obvious but I have to think about it
Probably applies for a much more general R too
Is that supposed to be the same i?
For the degree of monomials and the i in the index
I believe so yes
Ah okay
because I'm worrying about the map given by xL, where L is linear
It's kind of a tangential thing but I'll note it for later
Well
basically there is a specific value of N where that property holds
because we've got such a carefully chosen ring
but basically the only thing R_k can do for k > i is shrink
and the socle degree of R is conjecturally less than n^3/4
Conjectured based on some rough computation up to n = 1000
well, sorry, that's specifically if i = 3
I'm getting ahead of myself
@topaz solar you should have seen the gorgeous graph I made
need help
Try pairing elements of the group in a specific way
what's left in the set when you look at G-t(G)?
I might be assuming where zzzzz got stuck was somewhere else than KnightWatch I just realized lol
what have you tried/what are you thinking @chilly ocean
Fun fact you can generalize this to primes bigger than 2 like this:
Let X be the set of tupples (g1, ..., gp) such that g1*...*gp is the identity. And let Cp act on this by permuting cyclically. Show that the number of fixed points is equal to |X| = |G|^p-1 mod p. And that a fixed point is exactly an element of order p (or the identity)
is it always the case that for the factor group G/H. that for a,b in G a-b is an element of the normal subgroup H
Maybe what you're thinking of is that a and b map to the same element in the factor group iff a^-1 b is in H
Its true in R/Z just wondering if it were true generally
if this was true in general take b=0
then a-b = a is in H
hence H = G
it's true if they belong to the same coset however
that is, a+H = b+H

sry but I'm not an engineering major anymore

Key facts:
- $x$ has finite order $n$ and $n = 2k+1$. I am asked to prove that if $|x| = 2k + 1$ then $x^{i} \neq x^{-i}$ for all $i \in [0, n - 1]$.
Can anyone provide a hint?
zzzzz
move x^-i to the other side
zzzzz
yes
can I do this with induction, then?
just use Lagrange
What is the definition of order
so it must divide 2k+1
smallest positive integer n such that x^n = 1
Ye
how do i proceed
no
Then there you go
If the order of x is n, then x^m = 1 means n | m
(May want to show this)
Does this make sense?
What kind of stuff do I need to know to generate an algebra using the Cayley-Dickson construction?
I mean the construction doesn't use anything fancy. Might be useful to know what a ring/algebra is.
But ultimately not necessary
A ring is just a set that has a multiplication and an addition on it, with inverses and an identity for addition and multiplication, right?
And an algebra is just a vector space with a multiplication operator on it, which has a different definition depending on the algebra (ex: Lie algebra vs Witt algebra)
Yeah, exactly.
Basically all you do is you start with some algebra (typically the real numbers). Then you define a multiplication on R^2 (which will give you the complex numbers). Now you have a new algebra, so you define a multiplication on (R^2)^2 in the same way
And iterate
The way to define the multiplication is just a short formula, you can find it on Wikipedia for instance
I kinda want to know what a 32-dimensional algebra looks like. Even if it is totally useless.
Incidentally, the Cayley-Dickson construction is why there are no 3-dimensional algebras, isn't it? Because you can't get a 3-dimensional vector space by doubling.
Well, I'm not sure the fact that you can construct algebras of dimension 2^n explains much about why you can't for dimensions that are not powers of 2
But it's related of course
Typically you would prove that using some algebraic topology
I’m sure Hamilton could explain if you asked really nicely
I guess your real problem will be keeping track of tuples of 32 real numbers
So that means when it says multiplication is defined by $(p, q)(r, s) = (pr - sq, sp - qr)$ then $p$, $q$, $r$, and $s$ are tuples with 4 real numbers each? At least, when defining multiplication on $\mathbb{H}$ or $\mathbb{O}$
Dark Angel
yeah, p,q,r and s are elements in the previous algebra
so in the constrcution of octonions they will be quaternions, which can each be written as a tuple of 4 real numbers (a + bi + cj + dk)
I guess that means I need to know what a sedenion is and what to do with it.
yeah, either that or unwrap the definition back down to something you can understand
will be long complicated expressions either way
I wonder if anyone has actually bothered going past sedenions or if they just worked out they're useless and stopped.
They almost certainly show up in physics somewhere
First google result
Someone said they were useless earlier LOL
zero divisors are sad
I didn't understand a single word of that abstract LOL
Gaining zero divisors is bad right? Because it means that $ab \neq 0$ if $a =0$ or $b=0$
Dark Angel
that's backwards $ab=0$ but $a\neq 0$ and $b\neq 0$
Zybikron
Oh my bad
yeah having zero-divisors means you cant divide by stuff, which I guess is a little sad 😢
I wonder if it would make school students happier though because then they don't have to learn long division
matrices are stoopid
im reading the wiki article on quotient groups and i cant wrap my head around one concept i was hoping somebod could help walk througtht it it says "A quotient group or factor group is a mathematical group obtained by aggregating similar elements of a larger group using an equivalence relation** that preserves some of the group structure (the rest of the structure is "factored" out).**" what do they mean b factored out?
it's just introducing terminology
You usually say you factor out a subgroup or something when you quotient out by it
yeah but what does it mean lol
I know the formal definition of a quotient group
but Im tring to get some intuitive understanding
see this #math-discussion message
Can you draw out the Cayley graph for some simple cases?
But literally speaking, it’s saying that you get an equivalence relation from it and a ~ b and x ~ y means ax ~ by kind of thing
think of it like taking the group and pretending that the subgroup doesn't exist
i.e. you collapse the subgroup to the identity
Ok I think I might be starting to understand now
quick question
is it kind of like "mod-ing'?
Yes, G/H is often said "G mod H"
This is true
yea ik its a problem
now
my proof was this
the point was that
ik k^1 is a pid
so the point for me was that any countable set of points will work
cuz for their union to be algebraic it require that all of these points be the zero set of only 1 polynomial which is not true
or not not true but just impossible
so just let k be a field
and define A_1 = {1} , A_2 = {2}..
and so on
these are all algebraic with their polynomaisl being x-a
given a
btu their union isnt?
is htis correct
or yea 2 may not be in k
take k = R or Q or something
but i have a very bad questino tho
Only polynomial in C[x] with infinitely many zeroes is the zero polynomial
why cant i consider this infinite product (x-a)
Because that isn't a polynomial
What does it mean to "adjoin" something to a field when that thing isn't a number? Like, if I have $\mathbb{R}[i]$ then that means I have all the reals, and $\sqrt{-1}$, which is just $\mathbb{C}$. But what if I want to have $\mathbb{R}[x]$? What even is $x$?
Dark Angel
R[i] would be the set of elements of the form a+bi
where a and b are in R
Q[sqrt(2)] would be elements of the form a+bsqrt(2)
where a and b are in Q
@chilly ocean
Does it matter what the field is, are all elements of some field $\mathbb{F}[x]$ of the form $a + bx$?
Dark Angel
yes
thats by definition
of the form a+bx where a and b are in F
now see how addition and multiplication is defined
and now u have a new field
an extension of the older field
as in F is F[x] where all the b elements are 0
are u done? cuz i have a question 😄
No
,, K[a] = \set{f(a) | f \in K[x]}
For i and root(2) it is because i^2 and root(2)^2 are both in F, if you adjoin a transcendental element it won't be of that form
where K[x] is the ring of polynomials over K
yea mb
My $\mathbb{F}[x]$ here isn't meant to be the ring of polynomials over $\mathbb{F}$, I just needed something to put in the square brackets.
Dark Angel
Yeah in general F[x] means the smallest ring containing F and x, where x is in some field extension of F. So like in the case of going from R to R[i], you're forming the smallest subring of C which contains both R and i. Technically this is all polynomials f(i) for f a real polynomial, but because i^2 = -1 you end up getting a space of dimension 2, or {a + bi | a,b in R}
hey all, just joined so not sure if it's the right place to ask, but:
I know the usual way to construct GF(2^n) is by GF(2^n) ~= GF(2)[X] / (P(X)) where P is an irreducible polynomial of degree n. do other ways work? esp for GF(2^(2^n))... is there a way to construct GF(2^(2^(n+1))) as ordered pairs of (a, b) in GF(2^(2^n))^2, for an inductive construction starting from GF(2)? if it is, obv it would be non-trivial to convert between this in the usual representation, however it doesn't matter for me
the main property i want is for one side of the pair to "keep to itself", i.e. for all a in GF(2^(2^n)), (a^k, 0) = (a, 0)^k
similar to the complex numbers
i keep thinking i've found a way to construct it this way, then it turns out to be wrong in some way... maybe it's just not possible?
i think this is trivial but the point is
L intersec C is algebraic yeah but like
its like obvious geometrically that the intersection ( L intersec C) is F(X,Ax+B)
but idk is this like
like basically i think once i wrap my head around why L intersec C is this then i just use fundamental theorem and thats it
but why is the intersection htis
thi*
this isn't what the hint is telling you to do tho?
it's like
telling you to write
L \cap C = V(F) \cap V(Y-(ax+b))
now on the rhs you have that Y-(ax+b) = 0, i.e. Y = aX+b
so you can write that L \cap C = V(F(X,aX+B))
since you just subbed in that value for Y
you can imagine this as
you're considering all the points where F(X,Y) = 0 and Y-(aX+B) = 0
now from the linear equation you can get that all the Y points that satisfy this are of the form aX+b
so your problem reduces to finding all the points where F(X, aX+b) = 0
and this basically solves ur problem
Fun fact this is a special case of a more general theorem called Bezout's theorem
says u
would the set {(x,y)|y = sin(x)} be not algebraic as it intersects the line y=1 infinitely many times?
over A^2(k)
For that and many other reasons
That sure doesn’t look like a polynomial to me
yeah got it
nuclear lunch codes
apparently that would be whether {(x,y) | y = sin(x)} is algebraic
the time it took me
to solve this
was a time of spirit stagnation
lmfao
(im copying your letter to ihes )
No shot this is an open question
eli5 what algebraic means here anyone? 
Really? I would have thought there was some obvious reason why this was not algebraic
That's crazy
yeah I know, crazy how even the strongest methods cannot solve it yet
collatz could help
If u put this problem into warm water and eait for 10 years
With the right amount of force it will rip open
and become solved
-inventor of ag
So something like this should be possible I think.
If you start with GF(2), then you can adjoin a root of x^2 + x + 1, so you get something where (0, 1)^2 = (1, 1).
I think you can generalize this by having (0, 1)^2 be (a, 1) where a is the last element you just adjoined.
The recursive nature will make it a little complicated, but it will satisfy the property that (a, 0)(b, 0) = (ab, 0)
This basically comes down to the root of x^2 + x + a being primitive whenever a is primitive.
This is actually much easier to do in characteristic different from 2. I.e. you can construct GF(p^2^n) very easily by just adjoining square roots of the primitive root
(when p is not 2)
Sweet, thanks, I’ll see if it works out
The case I’m using this in relies on the representation being binary with the xor operation as addition 😦
Stuck with the pain of characteristic 2
Of course the polynomial representation also has the same property but I wanted to see if this other way works
There are actually top of the line algorithms for this that are better than what I can cook up on the spot here
Yeah haha, it’s just for a toy little implementation so I wanted to try something new
Programming challenge where finite field dft is the best solution
Fast Multiplication in Finite Fields GF(2N ) - Springer Link https://link.springer.com/content/pdf/10.1007/3-540-48059-5_12.pdf
Here's the first that showed up in my googling
Neat, thanks!
If a^n is a unit, there is b such that a^nb=1
Rewrite this as a(a^n-1b)
Is there a neat way to determine the maximum possible order for an element of $S_n$?
tirib00
Look into landaus function; we know upper bounds but that's it
Interesting
so just thinking about it, the longest "path" in a cycle is to visit every position in that cycle, which makes sense. For sufficiently small n (less than 5) the longest paths are those which use up every position in the permutation, i.e. for S4, the maximum order is 4. However, once you get to 5, you can start splitting up the elements into sub-cycles that have coprime cycle orders, so the minimal order of such compound permutations is the product of the orders of the sub-cycles (notice for S5, the permutation (1 2)(3 4 5) has order 6, the product of 2 and 3). Given this, a guess for the lower bound of any "maximal" order would be the maximum of the set of LCM of the orders of partitions, i.e. being able to split up the elements into as many "collectively co-prime" sub-cycles as possible.
oh, wait, just looked up Landau's function, whelp. Good to know my reasoning process is on point ig.
I've read a few proofs that $t$ can have no $p$th root in $F_p(t)$. But I have thought of a simple one: the degree function is additive over domains, $deg(fg)=deg(f)+deg(g)$. If $f^p=t$, then $deg(f^p)=p\cdot deg(f)=1$ so $deg(f)=\frac{1}{p}$ (contradiction).
username0000
Does this check out?
Yes it checks out! Though the proof of the degree function being additive is also a proof of this fact
Oh Fp
Why does it matter if it’s F_p
Yeah over something which is not an integral domain the degree function would have to be defined differently
You would have to define it as the degree of the smallest unit coefficient of a Laurent polynomial
Suppose σ= (1 2 3 4), τ=(1 2 3) ∈ S4 and act on some object p. Shouldn't it be the case (because of the definition of group actions) that τ·(σ·p) = (τ o σ)·p ?
Yes, by definition
Well, groups generally act on sets, but I assume you mean as an element of the set S_4 is acting on
huh, the question must be asking me to calculate it first via action-on-element then by composition of permutations first.
it's asking me to calculate both
If you don't know a priori that something is a group action, then that makes sense to check, since you are basically checking that is is a group action
idk why that would be the case, since it seems obvious it's a group action. $p=p(x_1,x_2,x_3,x_4)$ is any polynomial in four variables such that each term contains non-negative powers of the variables, and an integer coefficient, and the action of any σ ϵ S_4 $σ·p = p(x_{σ(1)},x_{σ(2)},x_{σ(3)},x_{σ(4)})$
GoldenPhoenix
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eh, gets the point across. too lazy to fix
well yeah I agree it should be one lol. But unless you're told you can assume it's a group action I think that's the point
Kinda like how you rigorously check the first few examples of groups you see
fair.
(idk the full context, so this is just my guess)
guess I'll know if I got something wrong if my answers disagree
By ideal do you mean one or two-sided? Because if it's the latter, that's patently false.
what do you mean
to be clear, the statement is in two parts: "a commutative, unital ring is a field iff it has no proper, non-trivial two-sided ideals" (not that two-sided needs to be specified if it's already assumed to be commutative)
and then: "a (not necessarily commutative) unital ring is a skew field iff it has no proper, non-trivial one-sided ideals"
is there something that's false here or is your issue with the unital part of it (which i guess i didnt mention)?
I thought you said "skewfield iff no two-sided ideals", which is false (there are plenty of rings like this that aren't skewfields).
For instance matrices!
Are the elements of principal ideal ❬a❭⊆A polynomials expressions in a with zero constant coefficient? In other words, does ❬a❭ equal {f(a) | f∈A[x],f(0)=0}?
Yes, but they’re also just the linear ones
With no constant term
Oh lol i was confused by that description for a while
Byyyyyyye potato’s comments
@dim widget that seems strange if we take A=𝐙[x] and a=x, since ❬x❭⊆𝐙[x] is not comprised of linear polynomials. What am I missing?
Is it the same question?
Ah, never mind - I'd have to look at 𝐙[x][y]. My bad.
I think you’re getting confused because now you took A to be a ring of polynomials
Yeah
One more question: suppose an ideal is generated by idempotent. How would you interpret this geometrically?
My mental image of an idempotent is an indicator function of a subset.
For commutative rings having nontrivial idempotents is the same as decomposing into s product of rings. So geometrically of your ring has idempotents then your spectrum is a disjoint union of spectra
If a commutative ring R has an idempotent e then R = Re x R(1-e), so that gives a bit of intuition in terms ofh ow it fits in the ring
lol
yes, so geometrically, an idempotent is like the indicator function of a clopen subset
Exactly
Jolly good. Now what about an element whose power is an idempotent? How to think of it geometrically?
e.g fⁿ=e
I guess that would be a bit like an indicator function times a root of unity
I hoped you'd say something sexier haha
I mean you'll have f = fe + f(1-e), so f will be nilpotent on one component and root of unity on another
yo 1.15 is trivial right
cuz just consider the polynomial where the first n tuples are the polynomial for V and the rest m-n tuples are defined as the polynomial for W
correct?
Sounds good, though not sure what you mean by tuples here
But yeah just collect the polynomials together lol
thank you
yo stupid question
to show that an element is in V(I) for some ideal I
its not enough to show that this element is the zero of some polynomial of I right
(given it may not be a pid)
i have to show that its a zero for all polynomials
is that correct
V(I) is the set of points that vanish on I ( I being an ideal in k[x1,x2,...]
meaning...
why do you always react like this to any of myq uestions
a lot of your questions are answered by thinking for 30 seconds
usually just unravelling what a definition means
Sometimes thinking "aloud" or I guess in this case typing it out, does help with processing the problem and figuring out your own questions though
you could always ask a duck 🦆
quack

Dummit and Foote is simply omitting the "up to associates" bit in (2) right?
kinda weird how they bother to entail in (1) that the rep is unique up to order and sign but not the extra bit in (2) but w/e
for instance 3i is irreducible but not listed unless you assume it means to say up to associates
correct, those are all up to association
And there are only 4 gaussian integers in each associate class (other than 0, which has 1 ofc)
kool
,rotate
isnt part b just like. 3rd grade set theory
Hey guys is there someone who likes representations online?
I am doing a set of problems regarding representations of dihedral groups. Most of them were concerning complex representations. Last one asks me to show that QD8 is isomorphic to Q×Q×Q×M2(Q) as Q-algebras
I get why this holds when you look at CD8 as a complex algebra. But idk how to do it for rationals
Let x∈A[X]/❬f❭ where f=x²+bx+c is a separable quadratic monic, i.e b²-4c∈A*. Suppose we go to the initial splitting algebra of f so that f=(x-ɑ₁)(x-ɑ₂). Then the characteristic polynomial of multiplication by 2x (as a linear operator on the quotient) equals (x-2ɑ₁)(x-2ɑ₂). Over A=𝐙/4𝐙, this characteristic polynomial is x²+2bx+4c, which has discriminant zero. How can I use this to deduce that 2x∈𝐙/4𝐙[X]/❬f❭ is not the root of any separable monic in 𝐙/4𝐙[X]?
This just comes down to computing the irreducible representations, and the irreps of D8 are the same over Q and C.
Z/4Z is not a field, I am not sure this case you can still define those concepts, separate or whatever, on a ring. On a ring a polynomial can have more than the degree of it many roots, Z/15Z has 4 roots of x^2-x=0
@terse crystal everything is well defined. The trouble is that there are no minimal polynomials.
Mathematically, how would one determine how many degrees you rotate when multiplying by $e^{(2k\pi i)/n}$?
Sapphire
If you mean multiplying complex numbers, then it suffices to calculate the angle of the vector given by $e^{(2k\pi i)/n}$.
username0000
There's also the rotation matrices from linear algebra.
Or I guess take a general complex number $a+bi$, and calculate the angle between a+bi and $(a+bi)\cdot e^{(2k\pi i)/n}$, using the angle formula from linear algebra.
username0000
Thanks!
This a decent proof for my precalc problem?
minimal polynomials?
Im trying to prove that: given a commutative ring R with $a, d\in R$ prove that $R$ is an integral domain if and only if with a not equal to the additive identity $0_R$ there exists at most one $b \in R$ such that $ab = d$
jayz
What happens if you have ac =d and ab = d?
So the outline of my proof is as follows for the forward direction is as follows: I break it up into two cases, the first case is all the elements of R that are units (i.e all elements that have a multiplicative inverse) and the second case is those that don't.
Case 1: is easy to prove that there exists precisely one solution
Im having trouble proving the second case, where the elements are not units in other words there does not exist an x such that ax = 1
There is a simpler proof that does not require two cases.
Ok really what is it?
If you consider this
What can you deduce if ac = ab?
correct
but how does that prove the forward direction?
That shows the uniqueness of b
Now you have to show if you have the uniqueness condition, then R is a domain.
yeah but I need to show there exists atleast one b such that its true for each element of the commutative ring
For the other direction, there's a useful choice of d.
Nah it just says at most 1
0 <= 1, so
yeah but still I need to show that there exists at most one b such that for any two elements in R ab = d
we cant take ab= d for granted
To show that there exists at most one, it suffices to show that if there is one, then there is at most one.
but we didn't even demonstarte there exists a b such that ab = d
" if there is one, then there is at most one "
So for the proof of that if-then statement, we assume that there is one, then show there is at most one
If there is 1, there is 1. If there is 0, there is less than 1
if we cuppose that a is a unit then there exists an $x \in R$ such that $ax = 1$ then we know that $a(xd) = d$
jayz
that was my existence proof and then I showed it was unique
then the second case would be all elements that are not units
That's fine, but it will not help you prove the entire statement
You have shown that integral domain => there is at most one solution
Because ab - ac = a(b-c) = 0
yeah.
If there is at most one solution, how do you show that ab = 0 implies b = 0 when a is nonzero?
because in an integral domain if ab = o then a = 0 or b = 0 since a is not zero b must be 0
I'll be more explicit about the proof method to hopefully clear up any confusion.
To prove that there is at most one thing (<=1) satisfying some condition, you can do so in two cases: the case where there isn't anything satisfying the condition, and the case where there is something satisfying the condition. These two cases exhaust all possibilities.
The first case is trivial (if none exist, then that's less than 1). For the second case, you want to show that the one that exists is unique (less than 1).
So case 1: we would say "Suppose there does not exist a b such that ab = d for any a,d"?
It's more like "Fix a,d. Consider the case where there does not exist a b, and then the case where there does exist a b".
The cases are made after you fix a and d.
I don't get it how are assuming the very thing we are trying to prove? The forward direction of the statement is "If R is an integral domain then for al $a,d \in R$ with a not $0_R$ there exists at most one $b \in R$ such that $ab = d$
jayz
I understand the confusion. It's an artifact of the way the cases are broken up, but to be precise we are not assuming what we are trying to prove. We are trying to prove that there exists zero elements or one element with the property. If you think about it in terms of sets, we are proving a set has at most one element and we consider two case: the set is empty and the set is not empty.
But assuming the set is not empty is not the same as assuming it has one element in it.
at most one solution = either there are zero solutions or there is exactly one solution
if there are no solutions, then there is at most one solution and you are done
otherwise assume there are not no solutions, i.e. there is a solution
then you can show that if there is a second solution it must be the same as your original
so we are not proving the existence of such a b, just that if there existed one it would have this property?
yes
you will often hear people talk about “existence and uniqueness of solutions”
the existence part is showing that (number of solutions) >= 1
the uniqueness part is showing that (number of solutions) <= 1
these are often proved separately
yeah I get that part I just assumed that we had actually show that such a b exists with this property
you can have existence without uniqueness, and you can have uniqueness without existence
of course yeah makes sense thanks @open sluice and username
weird thought: if uniqueness is strictly saying "for all x,y with property Z, x=y" (only one form of uniqueness statement among a couple), and it is then proven that there is no such x with property Z, then wouldn't it be the case, vacuously, that uniqueness would also fail? i.e. because the range of objects discussed is empty, we can arbitrarily assign properties to them (as that won't change the emptiness of the range)
No it’s vacuously true, since clearly it holds 
yes, but its negation is also vacuously true, since there is no fact of the matter to be discussed
But that’s different from it being false
P -> Q and P -> -Q, because P was already false
But both implications are true
yes
Your P in this case being x\in Z and y\in Z
I'm saying that the statements "all X with Z are unique" and "there are X and Y with Z that are not identical" would both be true.
Which is why uniqueness is framed as a for all statement and not a "there does not exist" statement
I didn't say false, I said "fail" which was admittedly a poor choice of words, but it only implies falsehood in non-vacuous cases
Vacuous truths with sets are really kinda a variation of (x \in \emptyset) -> P(x)
It doesn’t fail, because it’s still true
It just fails to give you usable information
I guess the real question would be this, then: shouldn't uniqueness come after existence, generally, as it is meaningless without it? At the very least, existence would have to be assumed.
Well, nah?
Consider the aforementioned integral domain iff ab=d has a unique b for any d, nonzero a
Doesn’t have to exist, just be unique
when you prove uniqueness you do assume existence 
uniqueness is often easier to prove than existence tho
so in some proofs uniqueness comes first
Injective functions are things where you have uniqueness but not necessarily existence
Surjective is the opposite 
left and right inverses 
These are very ubiquitous things
Or, if you’re working categorically, ig you have full and faithful kinda conditions 
I want to prove the backward direction of this statement. namely "if $a,b,d \in R$ with a $\neq 0_R$ then $R$ is an integral domain" since $R$ is already a commutative ring with the multiplicative identity $1_R$ not the additive identity $0_R$ all we now need to show is that if $ab = 0$ then $a = 0$ or $b = 0$.
jayz
We know that $a \cdot 0_R$ is always going to be $0_R$ (By Ring properties) so if we have $a, 0 \in R$ then we know that there is at most one solution b such that $ab = 0$ . my confusion is we have already assumed $a \neq 0$ is that an issue?
jayz
we can say $b = 0$ is a solution clearly but can we say it could also be a = 0?
jayz
I know but I want to be able to say that in the end either $a = 0 or b = 0$ in my proof not that $b = 0$ is the solution
jayz
Why not
you know the choice is unique, so ab=0 implies b=0 when a is not zero
If a = 0, then it still holds?
It’s commutative chief just swap a and b??
if a = 0 then b could be any element of R
Still fine for being an integral domain
You can still say that.
Let $a,b\in R$ such that $ab=0$. Consider two cases: $a=0$ and $a\neq 0$.
If $a=0$, then we're done. If $a\neq 0$, then we know that $b$ is the unique element such that $ab=0$, but $a0=0$ so $b=0$.
Thus, if $ab=0$ then either $a=0$ or $b=0$.
username0000
Ok right makes perfect sense thanks once again
@indigo ridge what's your working
so $x - (\sqrt{3}i + \sqrt{2}) = 0$
jayz
then we have $ (x - \sqrt{2})^2 =(\sqrt{3}i)^2$ $\Rightarrow$ $x^2 - 2x\sqrt{2} + 2 = 3(-1)$ $\Rightarrow$ $x^2 +5 = 2x\sqrt{2}$ \Rightarrow $(x^2 + 5)^2 = (2x\sqrt{2})^2$ \Rightarrow $x^4 + 18x^2 + 25$ my only question is how do i show minimality im a little uncertain because it is a complex number and there might be some subtlley im not aware of @formal ermine
jayz
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you swallowed a minus at the end
where?
right its mean to be 10x^2 - 8x^2
ye
so it should be $x^4 + 2x^2 +25$ then?
jayz
yeah
you can show irreducibility with eisenstein
gotta substitute u = x + 1 first though
f(x) is irreducible iff f(x - 1) is irreducible
exercise: prove it
wait
I keep forgetting that 4 isn't a prime number
oops
yeah nvm I don't think eisenstein will work here
wdym it doesnt have to be a prime power to show its irreducible
you could try reduction mod p
yeah but the p we choose in eisenstein has to be a prime number
oh right oops
Ok let me have a go at it.
So once I reduce the polynomial therefore our poly is irreducible?
and we are reducing f(x-1) right?
Ok gotcha
but what happens if we reduce it mod 3?
we show it's irreducible in mod 3 hence irreducible
yes
Ok I see thanks seschsundersechgizmilli
fuck I'm way too tired for this
I didn't check whether it's actually irreducible mod 3 lol
it has no roots mod 3
but it can still split into deg 2 * deg 2 polys
if it has no roots then its irreducible though so we good tho?
(x^2+1)(x^2+1) in Q
Oh right
division algo?
its tedious tho
and I don't wanna type it down in latex lol
yeah pretty sure it's irreducible
,wolf solve {au=1,av+bu=0,aw+bv+cu=-1,bw+cv=0,cw=1} over the integers
yeah theres an online irreducible polynomial calc that tells you if a given poly is irreducible believe it or not lol
theres a calculator for everything it seems
for mod 3 or the original one?
the originial one
yeah wolframalpha can do that too
you can even ask wolfram to compute minimal polynomials
oh lol
I'm more concerned about the mod 3 one
wait so but if its not irreducible in mod 3 that doesn';t neccesarily imply it isnt irreducible thoug right?
I only went through this in passing so my memory is off
yeah
rational root test?
the possible roots are +/- 1,5, 25 since the leading term is 1
It is, no?
= (x^2+1)^2 + 24 = 1 mod 3
oh, nvm, I better go to sleep
I'm too tired for this 😄
Stupid question but zeta_2 isn’t a primitive root of unity right?
zeta_n is also like notation for the "first" primitive nth root
Ah alright, thanks guys 🙂
\begin{align}
\phi_{1} &= n_{20} + n_{02}\
\phi_{2} &= (n_{20} - n_{02})^2 + 4n_{11}^2\
\phi_{3} &= n_{30} - n_{12}^2 + 3n_{21} - n_{03}^2\
\phi_{4} &= n_{30} + n_{12}^2 + 3n_{21} + n_{03}^2\
\phi_{5} &= (n_{30} - 3n_{12})(n_{30} + n_{12})[(n_{30} + n_{12}^2) -3(n_{30} + n_{12})^2] \notag\
&\quad+ (3n_{12} - n_{03})(n_{21} + n_{03})[3(n_{30} + n_ {12})^2 - (n_{21} + n_{03})^2]\
\phi_{6} &= (n_{20} - n_{02})[(n_{30} + n_{12}^2) - (n_{21} + n_{03})^2] \notag\
&\quad+ 4n_{11}(n_{30} + n_{12})(n_{21} + n_{03})\
\phi_{7} &= (3n_{21} - n_{03})(n_{30} + n_{12})[(n_{30} + n_{12})^2 - 3(n_{21} + n_{03})^2] \notag\
&\quad+ (3n_{12} - n_{30})(n_{21} + n_{03})[3(n_{30} + n_{12})^2 - (n_{21} + n_{03}^2)]
\end{align}
jayz
okay?
Surely some context will be given.. right?
Im being asked a true or false questio on if let R be a ring and a and b is in R then a divides ba in R. this feels like a trick question because it depends on how we define divisibility right?
i know what divisbility is in the context of the integers or eveb F[x] but Ive never seen it generalized before
no 😎
it was meant for #latex-help my bad lol
There is only like one way to define it right lol
Well okay non-commutativity
But in commutative rings at least it's exactly what you expect i.e. x|y iff there's z such that y = xz
but also who cares about divisibility in a non-commutative ring anyways 
I do
This is a definition in the notes for a topic I'm taking... By this map g, are they meaning a group action of G on E?
G is a subgroup of Aut(E) so its elements are certain kinds of functions on E
i.e. if g is in G, then g is also an automorphism of E
that's how the g you see in this definition is a mapping
no they mean g is automorphism on E meaning g is a bijection and a homomorphism on E.
Usually automorphisms have the property that they move elements around sorta like a permutation while preserving algebraic structure like the field structure.
Fixed field of a subgroup of automorphisms are the elements of the field that dont get permuted after applying automorphisms
Oh, so it's the set of all elements of E for which the automorphisms in G restrict to the identity?
Yes
The largest such set
What would be a good way to show $t\in K(t)$ Is transcendental over $K$?
username0000
If it were algebraic, K(t) would be finite-dimensional over K, but it isn't, because K[t] isn't.
Ahhh that's satisfying and slick, thank you.
You could probably also do it by hand, but it'd be cumbersome imo.
What do you mean?
Assume that t is algebraic and derive some contradiction from its minimal equation. I don't have a pen and paper atm, so idk.
Actually what I was saying was dumb, lol
t is transcendental kind of by definition of K[t] and K(t).
A (formal) polynomial that is equal to 0 is tautologically the zero polynomial.
I'm taking K(t) to be defined as the field of fractions of K[t], but yea that's the proof one usually sees
When I said K[t] isn't finite-dimensional, that's basically a masked version of this.
For a moment I confused what I was trying to say with the fact that a polynomial that vanishes everywhere isn't necessarily 0, hence my making it more complicated. It's literally just the definition of K[t].
Anyway, sorry for the confusion.
question for the intutition, cause I don't remember anymore:
If I have a polynomial ring $R[X]$ and I take $f \in R[X]$, what is contained in $R[X]/(f)$
damn_guuurl
Is this the new abstract algebra channel?
The channel was split in two for elementary and advanced topics.
where is the line between them? Just so that I know where to ask haha
Idk what you mean by "what is contained in", by definition R[X]/(f) is the set of equivalence classes of a relation on R[X], it's literally a set of subsets.
It's kind of murky, but I'd keep most of the questions here unless it's advanced fields/groups or commalg. You can read the descriptions of either channel to get an idea.
I know this, since this is the definition of a factor ring, but my question is, intuitively, which classes of polynomials are contained there?
My point is that the question is moot, since every polynomial is trivially "contained" there as g+(f), you have a map R[X]->R[X]/(f).
The intuition is that you're collapsing (f) in R[X] to 0.
So if g and h are polynomials such that e.g. g=h+f^2, in the factor ring they are equal.
my intuition about it is either you remove all deg >= f polynomials (assuming f is monic or its leading coefficient is a unit) or it's just like you set x = a root of f
In other words, it's the polynomials in R[x] modulo a multiple of f.



