#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 146 of 1
No, that would give a cover contradiction
We're proving F(alpha^2) = F(alpha)
If that's the case, then clearly the roots are contained in F(alpha^2)
(Since the roots are ±alpha)
So [F(alpha) : F(alpha^2) ] is at most 2, but it can't be 2, so it must be 1.
The mistake that you made here was assuming that x^2 - alpha^2 was irreducible over F(alpha^2).
If it were, then yes certainly the degree of the extension would be that.
But you didn't prove that.
oh okay
thanks brotha
Could you share the name of the paper? It sounds interesting.
when i say paper, more like 3 page snippet of lecture-note-textbook-thingy
oh dq said paper
tryna make himself important 🙄
I'm trying to show that the degree of the splitting field of x^6-4 is 6 using the tower law. I've split the extension as Q( (2)^(1/3) , z ) : Q(z) : Q where z is a primitive cube root of unity.
[ Q(z):Q] = 2 using the degree of the 2nd cyclotomic polynomial.
x^3-2 appears irreducible over Q(z), but I'm having trouble thinking of a proof other than trying a brute force strategy of trying to solve (2)^(1/3) = c_0 + c_1z+c_2z^2.
Oh, never mind. I figured it out.
In a UFD is the gcd still a linear combination or just in a PID?
Lemma 1.2.22 is wrong, right? Along with the statement at the bottom of the page
Shouldn't e.g. $K = F_2(X^2,Y^2), L= F_2(X,Y)$ contradict the lemma
AoiKunie
And for the bottom of the page instead setting L = F_2(X^2,Y) contradicts the conclusion right?
if phi is a map that sends F to A, and F is a commutative ring with 1, then phi is a isomorphism right?
phi : F -> A, F a commutative ring with 1
my argument is that all elements of F can be described as phi(a)+phi(b) = phi(a+b), so then it must be invertable ?
or is it wrong?
it's wrong
damn
What is A?
yeah that's another good question
a commutative ring
You argument does not make sense to me at all. What does it mean to 'describe an element as phi(a)+phi(b)=phi(a+b)'?
Then you’re very very off the mark
Did you mean to assume that phi was a homomorphism?
Anyway, if you meant to say:
Is every homomorphism of unital rings an isomorphism?
Then the answer is no.
phi is a homomorphism between two commutative rings with the identity
sending 1 to 1
oh okay
For one, F and A will need to have the same cardinality to be isomorphismic
Also just think like
F = F_2 and A = Z
How can they possibly be isomorphic
Maybe the other way around for that example wew
What
oh yeah i don't think there are any homomorphisms from F_2 to Z
There's no map F_2 → Z, but there is one Z → F_2
Oh wow yeah that definitely doesn’t support my point even more
It’s a map out of a field for a start
Z is not a field
no the point is there are no maps out
so it's vacuous
So if there’s no maps out… then there can’t be an isomorphism…
So they aren’t isomorphic…
they're saying any hom is an iso
But that wasn't the question. Not that it really matters though, the answer has been given
yeah thankis haha
Another instance where it feels like you lot just decided collectively to fuck with me
here
- here, after my prompting.
he's saying every hom is invertible
Ebebebebepbepebpebep
Bleak
wew I'm afraid we are going to send you to timbuktu
Have to be careful in these channels
Mfs take any opportunity to rip your throat out
Lol harder to find nonexamples
IM A IDIOT. WE GET IT you don’t have to keep banging on
Fucks sake why do I bother
Nooooooooooo
if you are a idiot... what am i
🥺
but i am not a idiot hence contradiction! so you cannot be one
Yeah, the first step in the proof is very dubious. They seem to imply that you have a primitive element, which isn't true in general unless the extension is seperable.
For the bottom conclusion, I guess it depends exactly how you interpret it, but I would say that's also wrong yes
Hmm yeah I am assuming they made a mistake
Seems like it's true over function fields at least, which should be enough for what the book is doing
Lemma 1.2.22 is wrong but the statement at the bottom of the page is correct
As long as L is assumed finite which I assume it is from the way it’s written
Depends how you interpret the statement though. Like it's true that for every element x of L x^p^s is in Lsep. But not every element in Lsep has a p^s root in L right
So it would make more sense to write it as an inclusion than an equality
It depends on how it's defined. The notion (L^{sep})^{1/p^n} doesn't make sense except as an abstract field (in particular it is not "equal" to anything) so I assumed it was defined "inside of L" so to speak
Sure, but then you don't use the lemma, so why mention it
You can just define it as the splitting field of {x^p^n - l}, but that's only defined up to isomorphism of course
I'm not sure, the lemma is so wrong that it's not even clear what it was meant to say to me.
It seems to me that the bottom statement is trying to say that L contains x^p^s - l for every l in Lsep (which would be wrong). If they were just saying that x^p^s is in Lsep, then that's just the same statement as the exercise
Perhaps, if L^{1/p^s} is defined inside of some algebraic closure of K then that is certainly what its saying yes
They use it later to say that x in K implies p^s:th root in L, so they are probably taking it in an algebraic closure of K
Hi! Does anybody know the identity extension principle for rings? Idk what it is jeje
I haven't heard of that before. In what context are you seeing it?
Conmutative rings
Well yes of course
I'm asking you to share where you've seen this term so perhaps we can figure out what it's meant to mean
Oh sorry I just have the concept name, I'm looking for what it means (searching in google did not help)
So where did you hear the name?
In the program of a basic ring course
OK. Then that's that I guess.
Sounds like it could mean taking a non-unital ring and adjoining 1 to it. Lol that's a complete guess though, I've never heard of it
am I missing something here? not being a group automatically disqualifies H from being a subgroup of G, right, so any subset H like {r} in D_2n, right?
I'm guessing they mean that H need not be a subset of it's normalizer maybe.
Kind of a weird thing to consider anyway
like maybe? but it seems like, as written, any subset of G that is not a subgroup of G is certainly not a subgroup of its normalizer
which would satisfy the "not necessarily true"
if they're saying H needn't be a subset of its normalizer, that's a harder thing to show example of
(because I'm mildly dumb)
Yeah, I don't know why you'd want to think about the "normalizer" of H if it's not a subgroup. But that's at least a true statement that you could find an example of
I'm sure I can, I just need to start thinking which is hard for humans
in fairness to the text, the normalizer and centralizer have been defined in terms of subsets of G, not subgroups, so it makes some sense
does something like H = { (1 2), (1 3) } in S_n work as a counterexample? since (1 2)H = { e, (1 3 2) } while H(1 2) = {e, (1 2 3) }?
Hint: ||you can find an example where H has just two elements||
lol unless I made a calculation mistake
no, that one works, yeah.
at least, I think. Shouldn't it be the conjugation of H with (1 2) though? since (1 2) is self inverse, it should be (1 2) H (1 2) which... oh, wait, that gives {e, (2 3)} nvm, I'm silly.
yeh, that works
guys is there an explaination of why
Z_2xZ_3xZ_3 and Z_2xZ_9 are abelian, but not
Z_6xZ_9 for example?
All of the things you have listed are Abelian groups
really?
Yes.
I have no inkling as to why you think Z_6 x Z_9 is not Abelian.
Can you name two elements that do not commute in that group?
not that i can think of
So why do you think it's not Abelian
because of this example:
Any product of abelian groups is abelian
o(G) = 72, hence our possible abelian groups are:
Z8 × Z9, Z2 × Z4 × Z9, Z2 × Z2 × Z2 × Z9
or Z8 × Z3 × Z3, Z2 × Z4 × Z3 × Z3, Z2 × Z2 × Z2 × Z3 × Z3
but I see no Z6 x Z6 x Z2 for example
Did you remember to read the theorem that explains why you can list out the Abelain groups like that?
yea any product of cyclic groups is abelian
No
What you say is true, but that's not the reason
The theorem you're looking for is probably called the classification of finite Abelian groups in your textbook/course
Yes.
iff too, btw
We can write them however we like
In this case though, the theorem writes the primes completely seperately
I just managed to recall a small result I learned years ago without looking it up or referencing the book
. I know it doesn't mean much but after years of not doing math it feels nice to even be getting back into the groove of things
Well it's more like I rederived it rather than recalled it but I guess that's actually better
It's just the fact that if (m, n) =1 then m^phi(n) cong 1 (mod n)
Don't really have anybody to be excited about it with so I came here I guess lmao
It's also just an improvement to past me's attitude cause past me would've just googled the answer due to time constraints related to school (and the school I went to was shit so the exams weren't challenging enough that looking stuff up for homework penalized me tbh)
does it suffice to show that $\overline{a}$ + (\overline{b} + \overline{c})$ = (\overline{a} + \overline{b}) + \overline{c}$ using the property $\overline{a} + \overline{b} = \overline{a + b}$
Teemo
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
So, $\overline{a} + (\overline{b} + \overline{c}) = \overline{a} + \overline{b + c} = \overline{a + b + c}$ and $$(\overline{a} + \overline{b}) + \overline{c} = \overline{a + b} + \overline{c} = \overline{a + b + c}$$?
Teemo
With how addition is defined on congruence classes of Z/nZ
Yeah that works
ah I see
interesting
anyway
can anyone help with this
struggling with doing closure
basically the idea is to prove the fractional part of any real number is in [0,1)
how do i prove that
it's pretty obviouss
contradiction is probably easiest
and right after we see [ . ] used for something else 
But its rare we care about the greatest integer function lol
It is hard to find closure
trying to think of a non-finitely generated subgroup of the free group on 2 elems
Maybe something like the group generated by || a^n b^n ||
just show the RHS is an inverse
which is easy to do - what is $a_1 \dots a_n a_n^{-1} \dots a_1^{-1}$ for example?
You can also do induction on
how do I show it's an inverse
potato
potato
thats e
but that's not rigorous enough is it?
I'd say it's rigorous enough, but if you want more detail you can justify why these terms collapse down to e
Say by induction lol
I'd take n=1 but sure
(a1 a2)^-1 = a2^-1 a1^-1
There is another way to do induction more directly but yes
Sure
that one is straightforward enough as I'm sure you've seen ^
zzzzz
zzzzz
so for n = k we have $(a_1 a_2 \hdots a_k)^{-1} = a_k^{-1} \hdots a_2^{-1} a_1^{-1}$
zzzzz
Well bear in mind we need two-sided inverses
do i multiply on the left by a_k+1^-1
But you can just take this as your inductive hypothesis
Well try grouping the terms cleverly
So what's another way to write a_1 ... a_{k+1} only involving k terms
that's just e
What I had in mind was just letting like b_k = a_k a_{k+1}
Now see what happens
Yup
Np
Another way to do it would be like
to show that $a_1 \dots a_n a_{n}^{-1} \dots a_1^{-1} = e$ more rigorously i.e. by induction, you can just induct on n and say that $a_1 \dots a_n a_{n}^{-1} \dots a_1^{-1} = a_1 \dots a_{n-1} a_{n-1}^{-1} \dots a_1^{-1} = e$
potato
Like just cancel the middle two terms and then you use inductive hypothesis
ah
I think this is the sort of thing where it's clear enough how it goes btu yeah
that's also a good way of doing it
Depends on course ig lol i guess some first courses in groups would be more picky xd
Thank
thank you again, i'll write this proof down
Np
also for this problem what i had in mind was
|x| = 1 implies x = e
so e^2 = 1
|x| = 2 implies x^2 = 1 so that's correct by assumption
that's done right
Well you have the other direction too
yep
x^2 = 1 \implies |x| = 1 or |x| = 2
so
e^2 = 1 and x^2 = 1 implies |x| = 2 by the definition of order.
"x^2 = 1 => |x| = 2" isn't necessarly true since you've allowed |x| = 1
But I would just go back to the actual definition of order
tt
What is it
An element has an order $n$ if $n$ is the smallest positive integer such that $x^n = id$
zzzzz
the order is 2
No, since can have x = e
umm
From the definition I'm saying
x = x^{-1}
Okay let's generalise a bit, what I mean is liek
Say x^m = e for some m >= 1
What can you say about the order of x?
But yes
In this problem it's enough to say that the order is <= m
But yeah
Well more that 1 and 2 are the only (non-negative) divisors of 2 but ye
yessir
or ma'am
thank you very much
again for the help
i got it
and these two are just basic cancellation law questions
18 is a bit harder because its iff
Did you end up getting it?
You can do it via equivalent statements
what book is this
From the font, I'd guess d&f? But maybe fraleigh possibly
Definitely looks like D&F
D&F has too many questions
the above ones feel redundant
all of the questions in D&F are
I like the D&F questions though
what is d n f
Dummit and Foote
thats like chapter 1 section 1 tho
Idk I just find they're not really interesting, at least the group theory ones. A lot of them are just calculations
deez nuts (are on) fire
It's a bit wordy though which may be good if you are a bit confused with some details, or bad if you're already familiar with the topics
yatsude
Are you familiar with Lagrange's theorem?
hey uh can anyone help me with this problem:
f:M->N, g:N->M are homomorphisms of R-modules such that g(f(m))=m for all m in M, i need to prove N= f(m) x ker(g)
Here's a hint: are you able to say anything about the composition fg?
ill be real no fkin clue
What does fgfg equal?
Indeed, and do you know anything about idempotent homomorphisms?
Okay, maybe we try a more direct root:
Are you able to show that the image of f and the kernel of g don't intersect?
You don't really need Lagrange for this. This kind of stuff follows from ||division with remainder and definition of order||
Potato tomato
if they intersect at say r, g(r) = 0 = g(f(m)) for any m but also g(f(m)) = m so they cant intersect unless M=0
Good, so then we just need to show that every n is of the form n= f(m) + k
yeah
So, how would you think to construct an m given n?
wait lol if the intersection is empty then MxN has the form M+N ?
yeah i was going to do that and then like apply g so g(n) = g(f(m)) + g(k) = m bu- oh
Alright so you have your candidate m
Then you just have to verify that k = n-f(m) actually is in the kernel
Hmm, okay, this is going to be a very vague question because 1) I haven't done group theory in a while (kinda abandoned the project midway), and 2) I just got reminded that this question exists, and 3) it's fundamentally an open-ended question.
Consider conjugacy classes. Elements in the same conjugacy classes are considered to be somewhat "similar" in that they share many of the same properties. b is a conjugate of a if b = gag^{-1} for some g, i.e. b can be viewed as a under "change of basis" g.
An abelian group has ab = ba for all a,b, and each conjugacy class is necessarily a singleton. In one sense, elements of the group are somewhat "all the same" as they can be composed with each other in any order (i.e. they're commutative). But, in another sense, all elements of the group are fundamentally "different." They don't belong in the same conjugacy class.
In what sense are different conjugacy classes "different" from each other? In what sense are all members of an abelian group "different"?
idk sorry for the somewhat open-ended philosophical question it just has been nagging at me for a long time and i still couldn't figure out exactly what it is that i'm trying to get at
In one sense, elements of the group are somewhat "all the same" as they can be composed with each other in any order (i.e. they're commutative).
i would disagree with this
ok tbh that was kinda a red herring lmao but i guess the real issue here is this: it's much easier to say why some things belong in the same class than to say why things don't belong in the same class. and that's kinda what i'm trying to figure out
like, you could imagine a notion of conjugacy class that's more restrictive or less restrictive
Not sure if this is the right channel but here it goes. I have proved the forward implication (algebras being isomorphic implies they have the same structure constants with respect to some bases), but the converse is throwing me off
I'm not entirely sure what it means to have "equal" structure constants here, really. If they mean "have the same set of structure constants with respect to some basis" then I find the claim to be morally wrong (I wouldn't even be convinced the Lie algebras should have the same dimension in that case)
Or is it implicit that the bases have the same cardinality, and then they're "equal" by a bijective correspondence between the pairs of basis elements and the structure constants?
Yeah, Id say the structure constants aren't just an unstructured set, but a matrix / indexed set.
So them being equal will necessarily mean there is a bijection between the bases.
its more of that the elemts are 'unique'
congruency class is "same element under different perspective", and what the congruency class being a singleton means is that no matter how you look at it, you have the same element
i think what youre getting at is sort of "because each element is a unique action, it doesnt matter in what order you apply it" since theres no worry that by "looking at a different perspective" i.e. applying other elements beforehand will change the action
i.e. commutative
???
it's an expository paper
it's a thing hurb
yea, sry, I don't use this account on weekends, lemme fetch it
guys i am a little confused here
F_5 x F_5 is isomorphic to F_25 right?
Thus F_5 x F_5 is a field?
no
F_5×F_5 isn't even an integral domain
multiplication is defined differently
oh okay thanks
np
that moment when fundamental theorem of finitely generated abelian groups
might also be nice to keep in mind a finite field with q elements has its multiplicative group a cyclic group with q-1 elements
(in fact every finite subgroup of the multiplicative group of a field is cyclic)
Quick thing cos of a question my friend asked me.
Is the characteristic of a finite ring equal to its cardinality ?
My answer is "yes as you can form equivalence classes based on the number of repeated additions applied to the multiplicative identity.
Then you get that the set of classes has the same size as the ring as one finds duplicate classes if you try to create more classes than the characteristic of the ring.
I came here to get a second opinion to make sure this isn't complete bullshit.
No, it could be smaller
For example the finite field of order p^k has characteristic p
Or even simpler Z/2 x Z/2 has characteristic 2, but has 4 elements
How do we prove this?
if the subgroup has order n say
Classification of finite abelian groups
Plus degree n polynomial has at most n roots
ye
Could you elaborate a bit? I still don't get how it works
You can try proving that any finite subgroup of thr multiplicative group of any field is cyclic by considering the highest-order element and seeing it as a root of unity. Try it!
Hmmm
Thanks!
So if a finite abelian group is not cyclic, it contains Z/n x Z/n for some n. Then just verify that this is not a subgroup of the multiplicative group of a field
This boils down to the same proof, btw. Hint: consider the polynomial that nth roots of unity satisfy
the polynominal in (a) has 3 roots in F_3 since f(0) = 0, f(1) = 0, f(2) = 0 so is the splitting field itself then?
or is it this:
So this is a bit impressise. In F3 we have 2=-1, so i and sqrt(2) I guess refer to the same element
But it is true that the splitting field is a degree 2 extension
Given by adjoining for example the square root of -1
I haven't fully understood the usefulness of proving a homomorphism (I understand isomorphisms pretty well) is it fair to say that if we suppose for ring R and S we have a homomorphism f f:R --> S then the image of f is a subring of S, which basically means that f is isomorphic from R to a subring of S which is the image of f
isn't F_2(sqrt(2)i) a degree 4 extension?
so my solution is wrong then?
Depends exactly what you mean by that. Like I said, the language isn't very precise
sorry i am quite new to this
So a homomorphism need not be injective. In general if I is the kernel of f, then you can factorize f as
R -> R/I -> f(R) -> S
Where the map R/I -> f(R) is an isomorphism. And f(R) is then a subring of S, and R/I is a quotient ring of R
So in F3 we have 2=-1. So what exactly do you mean by sqrt(2)?
Is it the root of x^2 = 2? Because that would be exactly the same as a root of x^2 = -1
Also this 6th degree polynomial should have 6 solutions, but you only list 4
i'm just thinking that because the solutions of x^6+x^4+x^2+1 = 0 are -i, i, (i+1)/sqrt(2), -(i+1)/sqrt(2), then we need to extend the field further
you are right
(x^6+x^4+x^2+1) = (x^2+1)(x^4+1)
x^2=-1 has solutions -i, i, so our solution will be in the splitting field F_2(i)
But your talking about solutions in complex numbers?
Remember this is not a polynomial with rational coefficients. It has coefficients in F3
Complex numbers live in a completely different universe
So you have the polynomial factored as (x^2 + 1)(x^4 + 1), and x^2 + 1 is irreducible. Then you can adjoin a root of x^2 + 1 and try to factor it further from there
Or you can try to factor x^4 + 1 first (it's not irreducible)
Also you're writing F2 everywhere, but it's supposed to be F3
i think x^4+1 is irreducible
Are you sure about that one
wait a minute
the elements of F_3(i) are:
0, 1, 2, 1+i, 2+i, 1-i, 2-i,i, -i
going to investigate if the polynominal has solutions there
alright jagr i found the solutions
thank you very much
answer is F_3(i)
Also, a^2-b^2 = (a+b)(a-b) right?
yes
Polynomials do be the bread and butter frfr
based
based
based
polynomials are cool
unbased
I would like everyone to know that I accidentally super-reacted
Lol
I feel you
shit be embarrassing
Lmao
is x^2+x+1 irreducible in F_3?
Yeah probs
Yeah probs
x^2+x+1 = (x-1)(x+2) = x^2 + x -2 = x^2 + x + 1
Try to factor it
Ok then how can it possibly be irreducible
it is
-2 = 1
-2 = 1
hahah
in F_3
did a oopsie
Damn it, sniped
REKT
sorcerer vs wizard
induction?
don't think too hard
Write out a+b x’s and then rebracket
$(x \cdot x \cdot \hdots \cdot x)$ a times multiplied by $(x \cdot x \cdot \hdots \cdot x)$ b times
zzzzz
using the generalized associative law?
Yeah so put both of those mofos next to each other and what you got
$(x \cdot x \cdot \hdots \cdot x) \cdot (x \cdot x \cdot \hdots \cdot x)$
zzzzz
$= (x \cdot x \cdot \hdots \cdot x \cdot x \cdot x \cdot \hdots \cdot x)$
zzzzz
Just count them
… so??
so you use induction
They’re two positive numbers and this works for all positive numbers
You’ve got two degrees of freedom here, I wish you luck with that
But why the hell do we need induction?? We’ve literally just shown it
actually no
not formally
ok cool
These two expressions do not depend on bracketing by associativity
can I say x^a x^b consists of a factors of x multiplied by b factors of x for a total of a + b factors of x, thus x^(a+b) = x^a x^b
the point being is that naturals exist for the purpose of induction
Yeah, just mention associativity somewhere
This is N^2 boss
ok?
It's really not a great idea to spend your time trying to prove that associativity generalises like this. A complete proof, of the sort that a proof assistant would accept, is a pretty big pain.
You can reduce it down using some symmetry argument but again this is way too complicated
Also yeah as wew alludes to, doing induction in two variables is a massive pain too
well if you're doing intro proofs level stuff
I'd like to prove it rigorously
I don't think this is as careful as you could be
My rebracketing thing is rigorous
by the generalized associativity law?
The only subalgbera of N^2 is not N^2 so induction doesn’t work a priori
Yup
I must strongly suggest you do not, again. If you really want to then that's up to you but it will not reveal any insight into how these things work.
I take issue with the fact that you’re insinuating that rebracketing is not rigorous
I can’t even believe this is a conversation
subalgebra of 1+X^2?
What
I'm not, but if you want to prove that rebracketing works then this is just an immense pain in the arse
you're not being clear at all
I really don’t care
then don't be so abrasive
I’ll be as abrasive as I wish
Anyway, yeah give this a go!
lol ok
Remember that you haven’t proven that x^ax^b = x^(a+b) for negative a, b though so you can’t use that fact here
So my thinking for (b) was, since $(x^a)^{-1}$ is the inverse of $x^a$ by definition, we have $x^a (x^a)^{-1} = id$, multiplying by $x^{-a}$ on the left, we obtain that $(x^a)^{-1} = x^{-a}$
zzzzz
Ah but how do we know that x^-ax^a = Id
I suggest expanding out x^a and x^-a like we did for the first question
And here you actually can use induction if you want
ohhhh
to do induction on N^2, you just do it one variable at a time
you don't bring out F-algebras for whatever reason
WAIT @delicate orchid THAT MAKES SENSE ACTUALLY
I’m sure that’s very enlightening
Yurrrrrrr
because we know $(x \cdot x \cdot \hdots \cdot x)^{-1} = x^{-1} \cdot x^{-1} \cdot \hdots \cdot x^{-1}$
zzzzz
this looks like homework, not a monastery
Each copy of x^-1 in x^-a cancels with exactly one x in x^a
exactly
from that we conclude that x^-a is the inverse of x^a which is represented as (x^a)^{-1}
Oh and look you didn’t need any induction clogging up your brain to realise this fundamental aspect of the proof
Almost as if that’s not the focus of this exercise
I already made this clear
maybe we simply treat induction with differing weights
I think it is best to get very familiar with it rather quickly
In all the texts I’ve read in the past year they’ve completely hand waved any inductive argument
I agree doing it for x^-a would be an ok exercise
well I guess you're not doing intro to proofs, or what immediately follows
But doing it for N^2 is just such a pain
there's something nice about being able to formalize an argument
so at least understanding the presence of induction is important
it depends on the class for the level of rigor you actually put into writing
I don't think there's any good reason to react the way you did
if you had the "just associate" idea but didn't know how it came about via induction, you would be at risk of not doing math rigorously enough
I still stand by saying that the result holds for all a and b a priori is completely rigorous though
that sort of thinking can easily get off the rails in the future
You assumed nothing about them and showed the result holds
@delicate orchid is this okay?
Hold on I’m going through a tunnel
the classic challenge of formality at the cost of understanding
I don't care about your particular definition of "rigorous," since I think the way I used it was pretty clear
Sorry about that lol
are you in a car?
Yur
Train
well I'm describing a way they're not opposed to each other here
In between the carriages in my little hole
Bogging down an elegant idea with a 2 dimensional induction absolutely opposes understanding lmfao
when I look at the original problem, it’s like
yeah if you really want to be formal induction is the way to go, more power to you
but I really don’t think it’s something worth getting all worked over
the elegant idea is "just count and use coherence of associativity"
I only mentioned it because it looks really early on in abstract math
congrats if you understand induction
I didn't advocate for "bogging down"
it's just a supplement
you seem to have assumed I said your idea was not worth using
Yeah that’s how I interpreted it
I missed that somebody could possibly look at this and wonder if it was true
is this okay for this problem?
do I need to consider x having infinite order
wait no i just proved that x^-1 has order at most n
Yeah you will need to consider that case too
guys i can't factor x^5-x in F_3 please help me
p(x) = x^5-x,
p(0) = 0
p(1) = 0
p(2) = 0
Yeah
so what should i do
so we have roots 0,1,2
thus we can write x^5-x = x(x-1)(x-2)(x^2+ax+b), but i see no solutions for a and b. what do you do from there?
Show it can’t have a lower order - maybe by contradiction?
oh okay
If you want another hint: || assume a has order n and a^-1 has order m < n, then we can write Id = a^n(a^-1)^m||
polynomial long division?
does it work in F_3?
i will just get some coefficients that are not in F_3 then
i think
yes...
it works over any field
Euclidean algorithm go brrrr
I've got an answer
please share it
yep
tbh i did long division
XD
yes ofc
i was too blind due to that p(2) is a solution, but as @rocky cloak stated, p(-1)=p(2) in F_3, so the factorization works since (x-2)=(x+1)
thank you!
it's better to think about F3 as 0,1,-1
i will remember this^
Thanks, my response didn't go through before for some reason
So, for this problem, I did the following:
Let $n = 2r+1$. Then $|x| = 2r + 1 \implies x^{2r+1} = 1$.
zzzzz
Multiplying by $x$, we have $xx^{2r+1} = x1 \implies x^{2r+2} = x$. This can be re-written as $(x^2)^{r+1} = x$. Let $r + 1 = k$. Then $(x^2)^k = x$, as desired.
zzzzz
Is that correct?
yeah
ah
too many problems but overall a great book
for this problem
My solution is
Suppose $|x| = n \implies x^n = 1$. Then multiply by $g^{-n}$ on the left and $g^n$ on the right to obtain
$$g^{-n} x^n g^n = g^{-n} g^n = g^{n-n} = \text{id}_G$$. So $(g^{-1} x g)^n = 1$.
zzzzz
And $|g^{-1} x g| = 1$.
zzzzz
Is this correct?
(abc)^n does not equal a^n b^n c^n
I think you're assuming that the operation is commutative.
oh
right
I forgot that g may not be commutative
no but wait
g^{-1} x g g^{-1} x g n times becomes g^-1 x^n g
and x^n = 1
and g^{-1} g = 1
right?
Yeah, that's right
so does that complete the proof
Pretty much yeah
no wait
i multiplied by g^-n and g^n on the left and right respectively
im confused now
I think you want to instead just do (g^(-1)xg)^n.
Suppose $x^n = 1$, then multiply by $g^{-n}$ on the left and $g^n$ on the right to obtain $g^{-n} x^n g^n = 1$
zzzzz
This doesn't get us anywhere
does it?
unless G is abelian
When you multiply it out, g and g^(-1) will cancel, leaving x^n in the middle.
ok then...?
sorry am I misunderstanding what the exercise was
It follows shortly that the order of g^(-1)xg is n.
oh right we've only shown x^g has an order that divides n
but yeah, showing that it can't be smaller than n is easy
when i multiply it out i have g^-1 g^-1 g^-1 ... g^-1 x x x .. x g g ... g
what does g^-nx^ng^n have to do with anything?
or am i missing something
This is the expression you should be working with
oh
sorry guys
np boss
(g^-1 x g)^n = g^-1 x^n g
which simplifies to id_G
and that shows that |x| = |g^-1 x g|
right?
Not exactly, it just shows that the |g^-1 x g| divides n
But as previously mentioned, showing that it can't be less than n shouldn't be too bad
how do I show it is equal to n
I think the simplest way I can think of is by contradiction.
assumed.
now
wait but doesn't m have to divide n
Sure, this proof would prove a more general statement.
(for any m<n)
how should I proceed from here (sorry, this is the part of the proof I always have trouble with)
Work with the left side of the equation as before
okay
so
g^-1 x^m g = id
then x^m = 1
and g^-1 g = 1
See an issue?
well, yes - which is the contradiction 
why is that a contradiction
because the order of x is n
What's the order of x?
isn't that kind of obvious though
sorry username I'm kinda spoiling your stuff here
Ok I will write a formal proof
It shouldn't be too hard of a proof.
Let $|x| = n \implies x^n = 1$. Consider $(g^{-1} x g)^n$. This reduces to $g^{-1} x^n g = g^{-1} 1 g = \text{id}_G$. So the order of $g^{-1} x g$ divides $n$. Now suppose $m < n$ and $(g^{-1} x g)^m$. Then $g^{-1} x^m g$ implies this is equal to $1$. Contradiction, since $|x| = n$.
zzzzz
Guess you should justify why g^- x^m g = 1 implies x^m = 1
hopefully you shouldn't have too much trouble with the next part of the exercise
yeah I got it
you just conjugate it
and it simplifies to |ab| = |ba|
thanks @chilly ocean and @delicate orchid, much appreciated
isn't the intermediate field Q(i)?
x^8-1=(x-1)(x+1)(x^2+1)(x^4+1)
so every solution will be in Q(sqrt(2)*i)
but x^2+1 has a solution in Q(i)
so we get:
Q<Q(i)<Q(sqrt(2)*i), thus Q(i) must be the intermediate field?
answer says Q(sqrt(2))
Both look like intermediate fields to me
It asks to determine all of them.
There ought to be one more.
really?
i am on it now
can i get a hint?
x^2+1 has roots +-i
x^4+1 has roots cos(pi/4*n)+i sin(pi/4 .n)
These are called roots in English.
right haha
I don't really have one atm, need to think about it, but since E/Q is Galois, there is a correspondence between intermediate fields and subgroups of Gal(E/Q), which has 3 proper subgroups, so there are 3 intermediate fields, one of them being Q(i).
o(Gal(E/Q)) = [E:Q] = [E:Q(i)][Q(i):Q] = 4
and I think Gal(E/Q) is isomorphic to Z_2 x Z_2
For that you'd have to show E:Q(i)=2, idk if it's immediately obvious.
That is so, by theory of cyclotomic fields.
Whatever book you're reading will likely have a chapter on it.
The splitting field of x^n-1 over Q is Galois with group (Z/nZ)*
I think a simple argument is that the roots of x^4+1 are expressions in sqrt(2) and i, Q(i) does not have a square root of 2, so quotienting out by x^2-2 which is irreducible over Q(i) gets you Q(sqrt(2),i) (something like that).
does the start "*" mean something?
The units of Z/nZ
Right, so the 3rd subfield is Q(i*sqrt(2)), idk how i missed that.
and that's indeed all of them because you know there are 3 of them.
Q[x]/(x^n-1) is isomorphic to (Z/nZ)* then
and in our example
Q[x]/(x^8-1) is isomorphic to (Z/nZ)* = {1,3,5,7} ?
although idk how you would prove that w/o Galois theory.
No, it is not, you're confusing different things together.
oh
a) Q(a)\cong Q[x]/(f), where f is the minimal polynomial of a, indeed, but that has nothing to do with the group Gal(Q(a)/Q).
b) The minimal polynomial of a primitive 8th root of unity is not x^8-1.
That does seem difficult. Let's see, so it has to be degree 2 by the tower law which means that it has be generated by a degree 2 root and be a root of x^8-1, then maybe do some case work. Would something like that work?
alright thanks @glossy crag
I don't see how it has to be a root of x^8-1, sqrt2 is not.
i'll try to find the subject in the book!!
oh yea, you're right
You can use Steinitz's/Artin's (don't remember whose name it was) theorem to show that E/Q has finitely many intermediate fields, but I don't remember if it gives a precise bound.
K[a]/K has only finitely many subfields, that is known.
nvm i thought of something else
those are solutions for x^4+1=0
so intermediate field is Q(sqrt(2))
So? We know already Q(sqrt2) is an intermediate field, that's easy
Don't you need i?
yea you do
If z is a primitive 8th root, then (z+z^-1)^2=2, so Q(sqrt2)\subset E=Q(z)
Fellas, done with part 1 showing they commute - not sure how to deduce that o(a, b) = lcm(|a|, |b|)
Anything less would not make a or b equal to e, by the group law for the product
how do I make it rigorous
Maybe that's something for you to try
true
Well, suppose a^n = 1 and b^k = 1
oh
Use the fact that if an element g has order n, then g^m=1 if and only if n divides m.
then (a, b)^{lcm(n, k)} = (id_A, id_B) in a group A x B
And use the definition of an lcm: m,n divide lcm(m,n) and if m,n divide t, then lcm(m,n) divides t.
it's kind of obvious no?
This only shows the order of (a,b) divides lcm, you need the reverse too
isn't this a corollary of Lagrange's thm
Not exactly, although I suppose it may be proved like that.
this will help
so suppose a^n = 1 and b^m = 1
then the order of (a, b) is lcm(n, m), that's what I have to prove
The lcm of two numbers is the smallest number divisible by both numbers. The order of an element is the smallest positive integer such that g^r = 1. Since lcm(m, n) is the smallest multiple of m and n, this is the smallest possible positive integer such that (a, b)^r = 1
will that do
Too wordy and vague for my tastes, I'd say no.
let |a|=m, |b|=n, |(a,b)|=t, lcm(|m|,|n|)=k
m and n divide k => a^k=b^k=1 => (a,b)^k=(a^k,b^k)=1 => t divides k.
1=(a,b)^t=(a^t,b^t) => a^t=b^t=1 => m and n divide t => k divides t.
=> t=k.
does this proof work too?
it's a bit different style than yours
but it uses more familiar techniques to me
It's pretty much what I said.
Just instead of showing k divides t and t divides k => k=t, it shows t divides k => t less equal to k, show t<k not possible.
I find that stilted and unnatural.
i see
also
another question
would it be incorrect to use lagrange's theorem to show that the order of an element divides the order of the group
given that the book hasnt taught it yet
(implying that |a|, |b|, |c| has order 2)
and thus using a previous result that I proved (Let G be a group such that g^2 = 1 for all g \in G. Then G is abelian)
to prove that it's abelian
It would not be incorrect, but the exercise clearly wants you to prove it w/o Lagrange.
yeah likel
would it be bad-natured
or
I would try and see if you can just rule out that 3 is a possible order. The group is small enough that this seems simple.
That's what it wants you to do, exactly.
how would I do that
contradiction?
gotcha
Suppose a^3 = 1
uhh
lemme think
then a^2 = a^{-1}?
this question's basically asking me to classify all groups of order 4
quite weird that they introduce that in the first subsection of the first chapter
Often the motivation for such problems is to show how difficult some problems are without more theory.
I see
can I get a hint
for showing that a, b, c cannot have order 3
Might I ask what book this is from?
This isn't so much a hint, but a suggestion in how to proceed in problem-solving this question: try and write down some multiplication tables for this group of order 4. The cancellation rule implies that the rows and colums can't have repeats. (Most textbooks have an example showing this property early on, so I'm assuming you've seen it before).
Dummit and Foote
Chapter 1 Section 1.1
Ah, I see
thank you
Thank you very much
sure, but you can see its abelian directly from the fact that the cayley table is symmetric
oh ya, i proved that before
If anyone's interested in joining an online reading group of D&F (dummit and foote), please let me know in DMs. I will provide more detail soon or in DMs.
doesnt the group order (together with sylows theorem) force the number of 9-groups to 1 and therefore it cant be simple? the solution was very different so i wonder if i have misunderstood something about sylow's theorem
no?
you need
number of groups = 1 (mod 3)
so we have that either n_3 = 1 mod 3 and n_3 divides 8
so the only possible value is n_3 = 1
oh right, i took it mod 9 so that explains why
why would n_3 have to divide 8?
ah
also, yeah you're right I got them backwards, it's immediate from sylow's theorem
okay I forgor that one lol
has to be 1
couldn't it be 4?
hmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmm
8 mod 3 = 2?
||only two primes divide 72 so we're done by Burnside QED||
burnside has a million theorems which one is the good one 💀
yeah and if I could remember the proof of burnside's I wouldn't be having this problem
well, I know the character theory one I think
or is that the p^aq^b one
ye i mean p^a q^b
yurrrrrrrr
ahh that one
ok so lets proceed by assuming n_3 = 4
there's some number of order 8 Sylow 2-groups in this thang as well
n_2 = 1, 3, 9
n_2 = 1 we've found a normal subgroup
n_2 = 9 implies the whole got dang group is full of 2-elements which is a contradiction as we know there are 3-subgroups
n_2 = 9 implies that there are 9 elements of order 2 no?
wdym
what
9 subgroups of order 2 means 9 elements of order 2
I didn't make a single claim about elements of order 2
oh
wait doesn't burnside just say that such a group is solvable?
involutions be damned
what is a 2-element
the proof constructs a non-trivial proper normal subgroup
man the only time you need to remember the proof you forget :(
anyway solvable + simple would just mean like
prime cyclic right
well
like isn't it impossible
no?
prime cyclics are definitely simple
I presume you mean solvable + simple?
yeah
okay you changed it lol
yeah i meant to negate and did a dumb dumb
lol
because we were already showing not simple
but yes as written is what i mean
do we have that order pq implies solvable here
gonna assume not and keep thinking
i like how i literally do not know how to solve it besides the sledgehammer rip
do you mean without burnside?
Yeah
Idk how you're meant to do sylow questions other than basic counting
Occasional tricks ig
lol nice
the solution:
nice
ah that's sneaky
i would 100% not come up with that lol
yeah same
sort of shows how reps are useful for finding subgroup tho
get magma to generate the character tables
that’s not how i did it wait
yeah hahahahaha
i didnt learn anything about group actions
do you know about group actions now
nope but i hope to learn about them in my grad algebra course in the fall
why the fuck are they in a grad course
i stg group actions have given me severe hair-loss
wacko ass university
i dont know if they are typically, i just didnt learn them in undergrad
and im not sure if they will be in my course also
they most definitely are not typically a post grad thing
how did you prove the sylow theorems without group actions?
im not sure if he proved them id have to look through the notes
it was revealed to him in a dream
i dont have them on hand though but when i get them ill look
some people are american it's ok
i dont remember him proving them though but i had a whole assignment on showing groups werent simple and 72 gave me a headache
this is clever though
ah yes considering normalisers is a nice trick i remember seeing
thank you for reminding me lol
48 and 36 i did also
multiples of 12 seemed to be the pattern for that but im not sure why
maybe just bc its got so many divisors
Here is a quite cute proof
What are the sylow theorems lol
(I have also done undergrad algebra, group actions where done briefly but not really)
the full statements easily googlable but it boils down to:
every group of order p^km with m coprime to p has subgroups of order p^k
these subgroups are all conjugate
existence and uniqueness of sylow p-subgroups, the fact that they are all conjugate(?, ehh, can't remember if it's conjugate or isomorphic)
and the number of them is 1 mod p and divides m
and the statement about the number of such subgroups
Suppose there are 4 3-sylow subgroups, then the action on the 3-sylow subgroups induces a homomorphism from the group to S_4, which must have a kernel because 72 is larger than 24. This contradicts the group being simple
conjugate implies isomorphic
group actions are like, the main part of a course in group theory. Always wierd when people say their classes didnt cover it oof
||it is cute, but that was the answer given by the book
||
yes, but I didn't remember if it's only isomorphic or smth stronger
and I will be keeping it in mind! It's so cool
Oh no
this was the solution on the exam, its quite neat
stronger than iso? woahhh
what was the first 5 weeks oof
yeah this sounds like a first year course maybe?
I did something similar in first year anyway
Senior year
dunno what that means I'm not american
I'm not either lol


