#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 145 of 1
The elements that x commutes with are the ones fixed by conjugation
so you can think of these things as stablisers of a group aciton
As a group action/automorphism
you can extend this to normalisers as well
N_G(H) is the set-wise stabiliser and C_G(H) is the point-wise stabiliser
if i have a o(G) = 3*2^2, will my 2-Sylow group have 4 elements?
Is the answer false, true, false?
For (a), the inverse of a matrix might not have an integer in the entry concerned.
For (c), 40 does not divide 100.
seems about right.
yeah it's false true false
Epic
only in ohio
multiply them
all finite fields have order p^n!
what
ignore him
dunno how you concluded the exact opposite thing to what TTerra was showing you lol
by crt yours would be p_1p_2...p_n
multiply these two elements jonathan
because i didn't actually say what to do with the example...
what do you get?
(0,0)
takes a massive hit
the zero element of this ring
right
can you multiply two non-zero elements of a field to get zero?
there you go
nice
seems pretty fieldy to me...
thanks brother
np
bc you have to map 1 to 1, and that automatically fixes Q
1 times 1/infinity = 0
Ok GT
i feel bad that gt has become a bit of a joke, but they didn't exactly do anything to stop it
who's GT?
You're gatekeeping me!
GT did it better
id like to hear this story
there's a person named gtbot who keeps sending messages about a new number system they're developing in #math-discussion. but they keep presenting it and responding to legitimate criticism in the most annoying way possible. being extremely vague about definitions mostly, which makes for an extremely unproductive discussion.
I don't think he'll ever stop lmfao
guess i need to read up in that channel
The 1/0 guy?
Why Z[x]/(5, x^2+4) is isomorphic to Z5[x]/(x^2+4)
Maybe f+I to f+J
(a, b) = (a) + (b)
R/(I+J) === R/I/J
😮
In any case, you should be able to write down the explicit bijection for yourself and verify it
@quiet cave = (R/I)/(J/I) = R/J
3rd iso
guys why is the answer 20?
i'm thinking
(5 pick 3) = 10, and to make a group two of these have to be together
for example
(123) and (132) needs to be paired
so we get a subgroup {e, (123), (132)}, therefore there will be 5 subgroups
but answer is 20??
so u hopefully identified it must be C3
and because its S5, the only way to do this is with single 3-cycles as elements
(if S6 you could have double cycles)
but hmm
maybe this line of reasoning is missing something
yeah...
No clue
where is 20 from
solution from teacher
i find it sus
an old test
It’s not 5 it’s just 5 choose 3
oh i didnt read what u did with 5 choose 3...
5 choose 3 does not differentiate between (123) and (132)
then i think that you can make this argument instead:
5.4.3 = 60 elements
divide by 3 since (abc) = (cab) = (bca)
so we have 20 elements now
...but to make a subgroup we need to pair two, for example (abc) and (acb), thus 10 subgroups
still wrong
found this paper and it says 10 subgroups
i guess the teacher is wrong
There are 20 elements of order 3 though, maybe that's what your teacher was thinking.
Also from the Sylow theorems the number of subgroups must be 1 modulo 3. So that's another way to see that the answer isn't 20
1 mod 3?
The number of p sylow subgroups must be 1 modulo p, and divide the order of the group.
This is the third sylow theorem
ig 1 mod 3 and dividing 40 narrows it down quite nicely lol
Oh thanks
In fact of course you can also reduce to A_5 to remove a factor of 2 but doesn't change much
potato
Helo!
Would someone check my answers please?
- (a) $\sigma=(14)(23), \tau=(142) \implies \tau^{-1}=(241), \sigma\tau^{-1} (14)(23)(241)=(23)$.
(b) $\sigma$ is composed of two 2-cycles, and $lcm(2,2)=2$. Therefore $ord(\sigma)=2$. Then $ord(\tau^{-1})=3$ and $ord(\sigma\tau^{-1})=2$.
Douglas
Everything looks fine except your computation of \sigma\tau^-1
how did you manage to parse it...
With my eyes
I wrote out the matrices
Oh wait I think I found tau^-1 sigma
2 -> 3
3 -> 2 -> 4
4 -> 1 -> 2
Cos I wrote sigma above tau^-1
so it's (234)
For this, would it be sufficient to show that $m/\gcd(m,n)=\lambda/n$ where $\lambda$ is the lcm of m and n. Then since $\lambda$ and $n$ are fixed, there is no smaller multiple of $m$, and therefore $m/\gcd(m,n)$ is the least power of $g^n$ that equals $e$, hence it is the order.
Douglas
the quickest proof of this i think would be to suppose (g^n)^k=e and then use the fact that gcd(m/d,n/d)=1 (where d=gcd(m,n)). you want to show that (g^n)^k=e iff m/d divides k.
Let a be a root of p(x) = x^3+9x+6. How would one go about finding the inverse of a+1 in Q(a) ?
I have tried deducing equalities from a^3+9a+6=0, but I am wondering if I am not making some observation about p(x) that will point me in the right direction.
try manipulating x^3+9x+6 to take out an a+1, using say euclidean algorithm
im trying to look for some readings that go into depth on the topic of the The Circle Group, more specifically showing that R/Z is isomorphic to S^1, explaining the intuition and all
I already have 1 but im looking for some more things to read on
why not write one yourself?
you should be able to write one out yourself
or try to and ask here for hints as needed
I use the remainder theorem, plug in -1, then subtract that off and divide by a+1 to see what's left
Ahhh OK, thanks. So this is an algorithm for finding any inverse in a Euclidean domain?
I don't quite follow. What are you plugging -1 into and why?
that step is the remainder theorem, are you familiar with that
you can use that other method too, maybe best to focus on one method at a time, I don't wanna distract you too much
I'm trying to figure out how this theorem lets us identify quotient groups. What I'm understanding is that in general we can take the map $\pi:G\rightarrow G/N$ given by $\pi(a)=aN$, restrict its codomain to its image to get a surjection $\pi'$, and conclude that $G/N\simeq \operatorname{im}\pi'$. How does that sound?
person2709505
this is probably a faster solution considering that you're looking for the inverse of a linear polynomial; the remainder theorem also follows pretty easily from euclidean algorithm
yeah exactly what I was thinking, this is a distraction since it's for the linear case
What you said is a bit backwards to the statement. One way it's commonly used is if you want to show G/N is isomorphic to H, you construct a surjective map G -> H such that the kernel of the map is N. Then first iso tells you the desired isomorphism
plus when I say divide by (a+1) i'm thinking of not doing literal synthetic division or w/e i'm thinking of just like playing with the polynomial which is a little tricky but easy and quick enough to do, but still more tricks
if they don't know remainder theorem, they could reasonably try to do a quick proof of it, then use it; though doing it the "default" way is probably better for figuring out what's going on
Ok so you might have to be a bit creative to actually construct the homomorphism?
i also forgot about synthetic division 
Sometimes but a lot of times it's "obvious"
I see, thanks
Yes, I am familiar with it. I will assume you mean that you mean to plug in -1 for the constant in the linear factor (x-r) in the theorem. This gives you p(x)=q(x)(x+1) - 4, pass to the quotient which gives that 0 = q(x)(x+1)+4, and so -4=q(x)(x+1). Then the inverse is (-1/4)q(x) ?
yeah exactly
the polynomial q(x) you get is x^3+9x+10 so I'd then step through by trying to make factors of x+1, like x^3-x+10(x+1), then x^3+x^2-x^2-x+10(x+1) = ... etc
well basically just did the whole thing whoops but w/e
i was trying to find methods to find square/cube/nth roots in the field Q(sqrt2) and this gave me an idea. if alpha has minimal polynomial p(x), then the solution to p(x^n)=0 will be an nth root, right? curious if anyone else has any other methods for finding cube roots. for example, how could i find that 45+29sqrt2=(3+sqrt2)^3
solving a 6th degree polynomial isn't exactly ideal
one observation i made is that N(45+29sqrt2)=45-2(29^2)=343=7^3. so we can conclude that the cube root has N(x+ysqrt2)=7. but idk how i can leverage that very usefully
We have this theorem
But it might not be that useful as determining whether or not a in k^p is going to be hard
well the polynomials will always be of the form x^(2n)+px^n+q=0, so there is that
i guess we just need to divide a quadratic out of that
What is the 4 doing here?
Also this theorem will only tell you if the n'th root is not it Q(sqrt2)
2 is a little bitch, requires more work in these types of theorems
ah this screenshot doesn't give enough context
Consider the case when n = 4, and a = -4b^4
CF Lang Ch6 section 9
I think this theorem will say whether or not the root will be in k(sqrt(2)), so we consider polynomials with coeff's in Q(sqrt(2))
Maybe you could leverage whether the norm is in Q^3
I mean N(45 + 29sqrt2) in Q^3
we can always bring it into Z(sqrt2)
sorry brb
wdym bring it into Z(sqrt2)?
If a in Q(sqrt2), then N(a) in Q, then N(a^3) = N(a)^3 in Q^3. So if you have a b such that N(b) is not in Q^3, then the cube root of b is not in Q(sqrt2). I feel like I'm misinterpreting you cause that statement is obvious.
I think I've got something for cube roots
You could solve the 2 equations (substituting 2b^2 = s - a^2 to get what a and b are
But this doesn't scale too well
Ah sorry, N(a + sqrt2 b) should be a^2 - 2b^2
just multiply by the common denominator (or factor it out) shouldn't affect the cube root right?
Consider sqrt2, it's cube root is not of the form a + sqrt2 b
sqrt2 has a cube root?
Do you mean if a has a cube root in Q(sqrt2), there exists a k in Z such that ka has a cube root in Z(sqrt2)
Well in a bigger field
yeah that's what i mean
i just want to make sure that WLOG i can consider cube roots in Z(sqrt2)
Sure, but why?
easier to work with i think. since then can we say that a is a cube in Z(sqrt2) iff N(a) is a cube in Z?
actually that isn't trivial is it...
Well if a is in Z(sqrt2) then N(a) is in Z
well i guess tbh i was only really considering Z(sqrt2) originally so idk maybe we can just ignore Q for now and stick with Z
can something in Z(sqrt2) have a cube root in Q(sqrt2) but not Z(sqrt2)?
Maybe, I think if a = b^3 in Z(sqrt2), and if b is in Z(sqrt2), then N(b)^3 = N(a) in Z, thus N(b) is an integer
I think that's as strong as you can get
A counterexample to that is 4 + 2sqrt2
I think an approach you can do is to consider the norm and compare coefficients to get a polynomial of degree 3 in a or b, solve that to get a or b, get the other term, and cube your result
but that's only if a cube root exists
in Q(sqrt2)
And to solve the polynomial rational root theorem is enough since you only care about rational solutions
i see, that's disappointing. i wonder if it's true after dividing out any common factor, but imma guess not.
i still think that taking the minimal polynomial and dividing out a quadratic from p(x^3) should work. i think you can probably argue that you can split off a quadratic iff it has a cube root.
If you quotient F_2[x] by an irreducible polynomial of degree 3, the powers of the root form a cyclic group of order 8. What's the general explanation behind this?
I understand in the quotient, any polynomial equivalence class can be represented by a polynomial of degree less than or equal to 2 by division with remainder, and that there are 2^3 = 8 of them.
...
I think I just answered my own question, but if you have any extra input, feel free to give it!
My last question was, how does one see that one always gets every possible polynomial of degree less than 2 over F_2 as a power of the root. But this can also be seen by division with remainder.
I guess my approach only requires you to find rational roots of a degree 3 polynomial
which is a bit easier on the computation
I'm looking for a homomorphism $\phi: G={\textrm{ invertible upper triangular real 2x2 matrices}}\rightarrow H$ whose kernel is the subset of $G$ which has all diagonal entries equal, but I'm not sure where to look
person2709505
well isn't the kernel of that function too large? I don't want ker phi to just contain this set; I would like set equality
What is H
Anything
I'm looking for G/{ equal diagonals }
Which would be isomorphic to im phi
(If I understand correctly)
there's an obvious map from G to (R \ {0})^2 for which the pre-image of the diagonal ∆ is the subgroup you'd like to write as a kernel. compose the map at the start with the quotient map by the diagonal and you'll have what you wanted
What is the quotient map? Google returns definitions from topology
map to the quotient group
Nevermind yep
person2709505
more explicitly, you have one map from G to (R \ {0})^2 given by [[a, b], [0, c]] -> (a, c). you also have the diagonal subgroup ∆ of (R \ {0})^2 consisting of all pairs of the form (r, r), and you can form the quotient group (R \ {0})^2 / ∆. you have a natural map to this quotient group. compose for a map from G to (R \ {0})^2 / ∆.
it is given by [[a, b], [0, c]] -> (a, c)∆. the kernel is the set of such matrices with (a, c)∆ = ∆, i.e. (a, c) in ∆, and this is the same thing as saying that a = c
this definitely isn't the only way to come up with such an H and phi, but it's one
I'll think about that a minute lol
writing the subset where two things are equal as the pre-image of the diagonal under a certain map is a natural thing to do (and quite useful). since you wanted specifically a kernel and not just any pre&image, it was a just a matter of taking the quotient
of course, you can get much simpler than (R\0)^2/∆. this thing is isomorphic to R\0 anyways. i just wanted to outline a general way you could tackle this
[[a, b], [0, c]] -> ac^{-1} does the job just fine
Ok I get it now thanks!! Now I know at least one application of quotient groups too
yo
if R is a ring ( not necessairly having identity )
and I is a modular left ideal
then R(R/I) !=0
now is the proof of this is to assume this is zero , choose the element r(e+I) --> re is in I --> r is in I and since r was arbitrary I = R and a contradiction? (implying R is just zero ring )
im confused
anyone help?
Yeah, that's right, specifically if r=e you would get that e is in I
any idea how to do b?
any element in our field can be written as {a + bx + f(x) }
that is how far i've come lol
have also proven f(x) is irreducible in F[x]
yeah b) seems a bit annoying to do
what does it mean to be an inverse of an element
i have no idea hahah
concerning
/r/elihafcui5m (explain like I have a final coming up in 5 minutes)
what sets a field apart from an integral domain
how are you defining a field without inverses
It's the same way you find inverses in Z/(n), you find the Bezout coefficients (polynomials f,g so that (3+4x)f+(3x^2+3x+1)g=1). You can do this backtracking through the Euclidean calculation of the gcd of 3+4x and 3x^2+3x+1 or using the extended Euclidean algorithm (which is the same thing, just optimised a little).
E.g. in Z/(7), to find the inverse of 5mod7
7=1*5+2
5=2*2+1,
therefore
1=5-2*2=5-2*(7-5)=3*5-2*7,
so 3mod7 is the inverse of 5mod7.
Do the same thing for polynomials.
By Bezout coefficients I mean Bezout's theorem: if R is a PID and d is the gcd of a and b, then there exist elements x and y such that ax+by=d. If d=1 (x and y are coprime), then y+(a) is the inverse of b+(a) in R/(a).
Both Z and F[x] are PIDs, so it works word for word the same way in both settings.
thought process involving Q8 and centralizers in it: for all elements a,b of Q8 that aren't 1 or -1, ab = -ba, which directly implies that for all members of Q8, the centralizer of that element in Q8 is either Q8 (for 1 and -1) or just {1,-1}.
does this track correctly or am I missing something here?
Q8 being the basis elements of the quaternions {±1, ±i, ±j, ±k}
What you have said here is a nice way of 'looking at things', but you should keep in mind that the symbol '-' doesn't have meaning on its own in the context of the group Q_8 without any additional structure.
this is why I prefer writing M for -1 or something when thinking about Q_8
and no, clearly "-i" is in the centraliser of i as is i itself so the centaliser cannot just be {1, -1}
oof, yeah, all elements self-commute, obvious things are obvious.
Yes
*Commute with themselves as well as their inverses
or more generally, <x> is always a subgroup of C_G(x)
at least I've saved time by not having to check every element by hand.
Let ρ: G → GL(V) be a representation of a group G on a complex vector space V. How do we prove that the matrix ρ(g) is diagonalizable for all g in G?
Have you perhaps seen the lemma that says that the irreps of Abelian groups are 1d?
Is G finite?
more over is G abelian
Yes. I forgot to add this
G doesn't have to be Abelian
you ever heard of Weyl's unitary trick?
Nope. New to representation theory
No, then?
Yeah I haven't seen it yet
OK.
If G is finite then each matrix \rho(g) has finite order. Thus the minimal polynomial of \rho(g) divides X^m - 1 for some m. The minimal polynomial of \rho(g) therefore has no repeated roots, so \rho(g) is diagonalizable
Ah
Thanks!
that's a very nice argument
I gotta learn rep theory one day
same
What sort of stuff are you interested in?
algebraic combinatorics and computational group theory.
Nice! Algebraic combinatorics is something I would really like to explore
it's so useful for computational group theory it's unreal
would you struggle with trying to impliment a bunch of weirdo functions to model a group or just do a matrix multiplication
Makes sense
Ye
I've been meaning to dive into a book about it but again, time
And then algebraic combo seems fun but like the stuff I'm trying to read about RN is so over my head
I recommend representations and characters of groups by James & Liebeck when you have the time
Is research on finite groups mostly computational nowadays?
it's mostly not on finite groups at all
it's using other structures to probe finite groups
great book
it's the one I read to learn rep theory 
They actually look at real Schur indices in that book, although ofc they don't call it that
and then I attempted to read Fulton-Harris 
And they even prove the formula for the Frobenius–Schur indicator
That book is extremely intimidating
it is
I opened it like once before switching to Serre
it's how I learnt about the funny tetris squares albeit
lol what
if you want an approach more focused on character theory (the based approach) then Isaac's book is good imo
GoldenPhoneix typing out a novel atm
sometimes I need to type up a proof and not hit send because the process of typing up the proof makes it clear if anything went wrong. Anyone else get that?
this is why whenever I think I've proven a result I wait a few hours then rewrite it
That's called thinking lmao
no I refuse to do that
the thinking goes into coming up with a viable proof in the first place
like, I have it sitting in my clipboard here, but tbh I don't really need it rubberstamped when I already know what's going on with it, especially when I'm being stubborn and using facts that might not be the most efficient lol
showing that for G=s3, A={1, (1 2 3), (1 3 2)}, the centralizer of A in G is A, and the normalizer of A in G is G
-
S3 ≅ D6, therefore showing the equivalent statement in D6 satisfies the same structure.
-
A ≅ {1, r, r²} (mutatis mutandis)
-
the centralizer of a set is equal to the intersection of the centralizers of its elements (not strictly necessary, but is the path I chose because I can)
-
The centralizer of identity is the total group
-
C(r)=C(r²)={rⁿ | n ϵ ℤ}
C1. C(A) ≅ {1, r, r²} ≅ A -
C(A) ≤ N(A)
-
srs = r² ϵ A which means s is a member of (the set isomorphic to) N(A)
-
by Lagrange's theorem, |N(A)| divides |G|, and |N(A)| ≥ 4, which implies that |N(A)| = |G|
C2. Since N(A) ≤ G and |N(A)| = |G| < ∞, N(A)=G
I'm not being dumb again with forgetting something obvious, right? Some notation here is adjusted or omitted because it is unambiguous.
(final question being rhetorical, as I have since answered it by writing)
yeah this is right but my god is this overcooked
just conjugate by (12), (13) and (23)
you'll see that none of them fix (123) or (132)
but they fix A
and what the FUCK does mutatis mutandis mean
bros got the grimore out summoning egregores

latin for something to the effect of "making the appropriate changes in scope"
or just do it in S_3?
no :chad:
based albeit
if you must pass to D_3
then D_3 = C_3 \rtimes C_2
and then the result trivially follows
It literally – almost word for word – means "having changed what should be changed"
yeh. I'm not fluent in latin, I pick up phrases but don't keep their english counterparts because I already have the meaning, so why double up the memory space?
My REU was on classifying some finite groups and basically the process was
Step 0: Find a set of parameters that describe the groups we care about (this was already done for us)
Step 1: so a bunch of math to figure out some finite bounds on these parameters
Step 2: computer go brr on finite bounds
or read too much phil
yeah the hard part is step 0 lol
step 1 can be tricky too albeit
Thankfully some dude in the 60s figured out step 0
I got a classification problem for ya 
They just didn't have GAP 
but yeh, I can do things in S3, but I prefer the notation of D6 better. my brain wraps around it better for some reason.
it's because you have the presentation
I've mainly been looking at Issacs. I'll check this out
Hmmm
D_6 ( 🤢 ) = <r, t | r^2 = t^3 = 1, rtr = t^2>
so you can just load these relators into your head and work in D_....6
My REU mentor also did a similar thing, just the whole step 0 for his thing was 2 papers and then the other steps were each a paper lol
veni vidi vici
yeah that sounds about right 
learning from D&F, they choose the D_2n notation. I know it's also common to call it D3
yeah I'm still gonna cry about it though
I'm a french horn player, I'm used to transposition in my head. Call it what you want, I can read.
mfs really be working in SD_4 with a straight face
except when suffering from can't-read disease
See the thing about D_n vs D_2n is that it's like plugging in a USB. You're going to flip the notation depending on who you're talking to and still get it wrong anyways
I do this to myself
I call the dihedral group of order 8,16,32 D_n in my head and then everything else is D_2n
best way I've found with notational variations like this is that when bringing up a subject, use notation you prefer, but when joining a subject, use the notation established by the previous comments. Makes life easier when everyone picks a notation and sticks with it.
so if you ever mention dihedral groups, I'll use the notation you bring up XD
yur, I only ever work with dihedral groups that are 2-groups hence why my mindset switches
speaking of, I need to redemonstrate this question for dihedral groups of order 8 and 10 now. Probably not gonna write them up since I got a basic idea of what I'm doing.
gl
ooh, A in the order 8 question is gonna exploit the half-turn symmetry. This should be fun
They probably mean x^125-x: if L/K is an extension of degree n and K is finite of size q, then L is automatically the splitting field of x^{q^n}-x (if you don't know this, I can give you a derivation of this fact). If you're given just some random extension of finite fields and you need a candidate for whose splitting field this extension is, that's the most natural example.
Just p=f works, or any irreducible cubic. Or like ocean man says, the standard construction of the finite fields are as the splitting field of x^p^n - x
I think mine's easiest, because to know that any irreducible cubic works you need to know there's just 1 extension of degree n and it is normal.
thanks brothers
Yeah, depends what has already been shown about finite fields I guess
can i get the derivation of this fact?
Hint: Lagrange's theorem
You're fine with K having size q (a prime power) or do you need it to be F_p?
i don't understand both so..
yes
OK, so if K is an extension of degree n of Z/(p), then it has p^n elements -- is that clear?
yes sir
The subset of nonzero elements of K is a group of size p^n-1, because every element has a multiplicative inverse by the definition of a field.
In a group G of size m g^m=1 for any g (by Lagrange's theorem the order k of g divides m, so g^m=g^{bk}=(g^k)^b=1^b=1).
Therefore a^{p^m-1}=1 for any nonzero a in K.
Therefore a^p^m=a for any a in K (obvious if a=0, if a\neq0 apply previous step).
Therefore every element of K is a root of the polynomial f(x)=x^{p^m}-x\in Z/(p)[x].
This makes K a splitting field of f over Z/(p): by definition, this means f must split into linear factors over K (which it does) and K must be the smallest field over which it splits (if K' is a subfield, then it necessarily misses some roots, since ALL the elements of K are roots).
IDK if you know what "separable/only has simple roots" means, but it can be shown that f satisfies this condition too.
The above works word for word if you replace p by an arbitrary (prime power) q.
ur a genius man
i'll have to read this a few times to understand it
but it is really appreciated
thanks
Lol no I'm not, this appears word for word in pretty much every algebra textbook.
But I understand what you mean, I feel exactly the same way when someone more knowledgeable than me answers my questions on this server.
don't memorize, divide into processes, and with a little practice you can usually rebuild textbook definitions out of the process you understand.
The subset of nonzero elements of K is a
sorry for the ping but i found a really interesting way to do it as a sort of generalization of de moivre's theorem. i don't have a proof for why it works but it just does when N(x)>0 lol. not sure how to adjust it so that it works for when N(x)<0 yet.
an example showing 20+14sqrt2=(1+2sqrt2)^3
https://www.desmos.com/calculator/zpepb2rron
The minimal polynomial of √2+√3 over Q is x^4-10x^2+1. How would one go about proving that it's irreducible? Eisenstein's theorem does not apply, and it's degree 4 so the only strategy I see is to suppose it factors, set up a system of equations, and derive a contradiction.
Alternatively, I've solved for the roots over C by a change of variables and thus have factored it over C, but does that imply it's irreducible over Q and if so, why?
Yes because none of the roots satisfy a quadratic polynomial over Q
4 = 3 + 1 or 2 + 2 or 4 + 0 so if no rational roots and you write down roots which are not contained in a quadratic extension of Q then it's irreducible
Anyway an easier way to see this is that when you reduce mod 5 you get the polynomial x^4 + 1 which splits into two quadratic factors, but modulo 3 you get x^4 + 2x + 1 which has only one linear factor
So it can't possibly be reducible over Q
I don't know if you know this but this is a cool polynomial because it's one of the ones that factors modulo every prime p
if you know any galois theory you can prove that $$\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2}+\sqrt{3})=\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2},\sqrt{3}) $$ then just show that the second one has degree 4
rayane
over$\mathbb{Q}$
rayane
ho thats cool
Ah it would be if it were true! But actually the user posted the wrong polynomial
the minimal polynomial of sqrt(2) + sqrt(3) is x^4 - 10x^2 + 1
x^4 - 10x + 1 is irreducible but it's reducible mod 17, so it must correspond to a C_4, A_4 or S_4 extension
when deriving the duplication formula for elliptic curves, does it matter which field we take the elliptic curve to be on
my guess is yes, something different happens for different characteristic
i don't know anything by the way
you can learn about « division polynomials » which gives a formula for nP for any n and any p. In char 2 weird things happen for multiplication by 2
in any other char everything works fine with the usual duplication formula
well damn that sucks
i'm tasked to derive the duplication formula of y^2 + y = x^3 + x^2 + x + 1 over F_{2^3}
I'm having trouble understanding this. I see that none of the roots will satisfy a quadratic polynomial over Q because they are square roots of square roots. I don't understand why you're writing partitions of 4 and how this implies that the polynomial is irreducible (fixed the polynomial).
Because if it was reducible it would either have a linear or quadratic factor
so what goes wrong with the chord and tangent method
is it rlly possible to have an irred pol that splits for every prime ??
Yes, not only that every poly with galois group the Klein four group has this property
yeppp
For odd degree any A_n polynomial has this property.
So you can just check if the discriminant is a square
Yeah these are very cool things
ohhh riight I didnt know about that
wait did I get it
the only poly like this I know is x^4 + 1
now you know two!
hm its a bit deeper, lets just say basically in char p if p doesnt divide n then the n torsion E[n] is isomorphic to Z/nZxZ/nZ (in an algebraic closurz) while E[p^k]=Z/p^kZ or O, now E[p]=ker([p]) where [p] denotes mult by p so you see it depends
I actually disnt answer : the chord tangent works, you just need to rewrite it from 0 it won’t be the usual formula I believe
can you explain to me I think I didnt get it 😭
or like i don't think i get the point of this
What is the square root of the discriminant?
There's not much point, but it gives a vague justification for why something should go wrong at 2
or at least be different
a generator of the 2 extension or smth ?
no ahem
you can still use the tangent method, just don't divide by 2 anywhere, which would be a problem if your curve was in the usual weierstrass form
yes thank you
oh okay from the root definition but still im not getting it
Not with unity
can you give an example plz
You could just take the rng {0, x} with x^2 = 2x = 0
So how does the symmetric group act on the square root of the discriminant?
When it acts by permuting the roots
does An change its sign ?
OK, the rational roots theorem will imply it has no linear factors, so it if it factors, it has to do so into quadratics. If it factored into two quadratics then ... I'm not understanding the part about roots in a quadratic extension.
okay so now with this is it correct to say that any simple ring is primitive?
or no
with identity
any simple ring with identity is primitive? is this correct
No exactly the opposite
sht
since A_n exchanges an even number of roots
okay yes right
i.e. the galois group is contained in A_n if and only if it acts trivially on the square root of the discriminant
iff the square root of the discriminant is rational
for other transitive subgroups of S_n you can make lagrange resolvents which do a similar thing, but they're not as nice.
thats clearer now, thats rlly cool !
yes this is pretty pretty it evenfeels weird
thank you !
yes if a ring is simple as a module over itself and has identity it is primitive
unfortunately simple means that it has no nonzero proper left ideals
so it's not a very interesting statement
wait what
do you mean no two-sided ideals?
wouldnt the proof be to consider R/I where I is a maximal left ideal
and show that this has trivial annihilator?
Stupid question: if a polynomial p(x) factors as g(x)h(x) over F, how do you show that this factorization is the same in a field extension? I think it's by uniqueness of factorization. Since p(x)=g(x)f(x) in F, then that equation will also hold in field extension and so that's the factorization in the extension as well by uniqueness.
yea
If $gf = p$ then $gf = p$ no matter what
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
I think the key theorem I'm missing here is that if a polynomial (over Q?) factors into quadratics then it's roots have to live in a degree 2 extension. Why is this true (if it is)?
because the roots will be roots of its factors, which will live in a quadratic extension because the factors are quadratic
if f(x) = (x^2 + x + 1)*(x^2 + 2x + 2) then the roots of f lie in one of those two quadratic extensions
im stuck
ssuppose S has infinite dimension over D , {s1,s2,...} is an infinite basis
define I_i to be the annihilator of {s1,s2,...,s_i}
then this gives rise to a descending chain I_1 > I_2 > I_3...
this chain stablizies
now what
probably something something annihilator of I_n = annhilator of I_n+something
so then i get some relation between the s_is like say rs_i-k_sk = 0 or something which is contradicts linear independance?
thats all i can think of
Hey folks, is there software out there that helps you design algebraic objects, or at least makes it easier if you're a beginner?
I guess you can just mod out by the annihilator of S and then apply Artin-Wedderburn. Maybe a boring solution...
Hi I have a question about eliptic curves. Say I have 2 polynomials P(x) and Q(x) which have different orders, and for a specific value of x, P(x) = Q(x). Is there any relation between the two elliptic curves at that specific value of x? Thank you
what's the order of a polynomial
are these elliptic curves when written as y^2=P(x) and y^2=Q(x) or something?
idk artin-wedderburn yet
is there another solution
There might be, but I don't have one of the top of my head. Alternatively, you can try to prove Artin-Wedderburn.
Or I guess the thing to prove is that R modulo the annihilator of a simple module is a semisimple ring, when R is artinian.
From there you get that S = Hom(R, S) = Hom(R/I, S) = End(S)^n where n is the number of summands of S in R/I.
Okay, so this is basically still using Artin-Wedderburn, but I think you can condense it to a pretty simple road map:
- wlog replace R by R/I where I is the annihilator of S.
- Show that every minimal ideal of R is given by Re for an idempotent e (only tricky part)
- Show that R = Re \oplus R(1-e) and that by induction+Artinianness that R = Re1 + Re2 +... + Ren
- Show that Rei is isomorphic to S and conclude S = Hom(R, S) = End(S)^n , i.e. S is n-dimensional ove D
No these are called hyperelleptic curves
you cannot write it as r^k for some k
so x != r^k for every k
in D_2n it turns out there are only two kinds of elements, those of the form r^k and those of the form sr^k
so it just means “take the latter”
Since it's not a power of r, we know that it must be s times a power of r.
Every element on D_2n can be written as either r^k or sr^k. In this case, we know it's the latter
the result as stated would not hold for powers of r
unless you’re in D_2 or something
guys do you know how to find roots in 4c?
for g(x)
i thought f(alpha) = alpha^3+alpha+1 = 0
hence we want to find a
g([Element of the field]) = 0
where f(alpha) = 0
or is it wrong?
what's 4d?
c*
@solemn dew they just want you to brute force it
Plug everything in and use the relation f(alpha) = 0 to reduce the resulting expressions to degree <= 2
If you get 0 it’s a root
thanks ❤️
and alpha^3 = 1 right?
No alpha^3 + 1 = -alpha
Alpha^4 = -alpha^2 -alpha
Just start plugging expressions a + b alpha + c alpha^2 into g and see what happens
yes i found one root so far
sagemath, not very easy to use though, you need some programming skill
Okay, you can extend this to a proof.
Let m1, m2, ... be annihilators of elements of S. Then because R is artinian there is a finite set such that the intersection is the annihilator of S.
Then by Chinese remainder theorem R/Ann(S) = R/m1 x R/m2 ... x R/mn = S^n
im sorry i couldnt reply i was in a league game
apologies sir
Then because R is artinian there is a finite set such that the intersection is the annihilator of S.
sorry im new to like the artinian mechanics
the chain stablizies
then what?
So m1 > m1\cap m2 > m1\cap m2\cap m3 > ... This chain stabilizes so there is a finite number of maximal ideals whose intersection is the annihilator
m1 is the annihlator of {u1} and so on?
Yes
oh yeah i see it
this number of maximal ideals is the "n" where it stablizies
like the ideals m1,m2,...,m_n
as in m_n+1=...
right?
Exactly
okay so the interesction has to be ann of the whole deal okay
R/m1 x R/m2 ... x R/mn = S^n
how is that 😦
wait
wait how ;D
R/m equals S
yea lmao
You have a map R to S sending 1 to s
The kernel is the annihilator of s
So R/m1 = Ru1 = S, etc
yea so u quotient by the annihlator and use CRT
Indeed
wait where did u use artin wedden here?
I didn't, but it's pretty similar to the proof of AW
does anyone know how to find Galois group?
(c) and (d)
or where i can read about this?
@solemn dew it’s more an art than a science. When the degree is small you can use the fact that there aren’t that many groups of small order
The galois group acts transitively on the roots of a polynomial which generates it
So you’re looking for a transitive subgroup of S_3 in your case
Fortunately there are not so many…
The galois group is Z/3 if the conjugates of one roots are polynomials in that root
Otherwise it’s S_3
in this case it is a little boring in that it ain't bad to compute the degree directly
and combine that with the embedding in S_3
If you know what E is it’s not that bad
But some people don’t know what E is a priori
So they have to do b.)
I am not seeking a solution I just want to know if I am doing something wrong in here
The element 1 here should have the orbit of size 2 right, since the orbits of 1 should have {1,4}, and the stabilizers of 1 should also be 2 of them since I can have either an identity map or a map (2,6)(3,5)?
I have no idea how to interpret this graph into a group action
is this a subgroup of S_6?
the group actions will be permutations
yes
Sorry, I should have mentioned it
I want to find the size of Automorphism over this graph
all hail the almighty groups
ah ok you want Aut(gamma)
yeah, that's why I wanted to find size of orbit and the stabilizers
I am bit unsure about stabilizers
why can't we also have (2,6) and (3,5) as seperate maps in Stab(1)?
ah right no edges between 3 and 5/2 and 6
yes
I think I agree with you then
Ah alright, thanks!
Do you guys too generally go like "yeah just try it all"? I am self studying through some lectures and lecturers didn't specify anything like that
I just started swapping stuff around in my head - there will probably be some clever way of finding the automorphisms using some theorem
I see I see
nevermind it's NP-hard 
yeah there will be classes of graphs where you can say a lot
but then there is burden of remembering those cases
like, I'm sure you could come up with a theorem about the automorphisms of say
paths, perfect groups, etc.
*graphs
force of habit
da cube
I asked someone to confirm and he just threw n! * 2^n where n is dimension lol
here it's 3
so
idk what that guy used
but then I found it has 6 stabilizers and 8 orbits
so same thing
so as a cube this is all rotations + a reflection and then some weirdo maps on top
yeah
like (24)(68), (13)(57)
interesting
well the n!*2 part comes from thinking about reflection groups of type B_n acting on R^n that bit is clear
I think orbits being 2^n is easily visualizable for me, the n! stabilizer part is bit ugh
I assume the other maps are exactly like this, order 2 swappings of opposing edges
nifty
@eternal pine if you view the 8 vertices of the cube as being at (a, b, c) where a, b, c are either +/-1 you can verify that the group is the group of 3x3 signed permutation matrices
I knew it
also let me change my name this is really obnoxious lmfao
Yeah wew basically already explained where the signs come from
I see I see, that's a cool way to look at it too
I didn't really, I just kind of stated it
Actually wew already explained everything but you may not know what a B_n coxeter group looks like lol
yes I don't know about B_n
I think I will just note that down and think more on that later
I do remember talking about hypercubes in computer network where instead of +/-1 it's just 0/1
and I was thinking along those lines
but I could not reach permutation matrices
lol
Yes +/-1 makes the maps linear, otherwise they are only affine transformations which are annoying to write down
0/1 is better for transistors though 🙂
Another cool way to think about this. If m1 is the annihilator of both s1 and s, then Rs1 -> R/m1 -> Rs is an isomorphism mapping s1 to s. So Hom(R/m1, S) is the span of s1. Similarly Hom(R/m1 x R/m2, S) is the span of s1 and s2, etc. So s is in the span of s1, ..., sn if the annihilator of s contains the intersection of the annihilators of s1, ..., sn
do you know about S_n being generated by cycles of the form (k, k+1)?
I do think you can decompose them to multiple cycles of possibly different lengths and not just 2
otherwise nope
and I don't know proof or something to this fact
it's second week into this
lol
ah no worries
you can think of it as "you can rearrange anything however you want by just repeatedly swapping things with their neighbours"
ah right
like bubblesort, since you're a cs dude 
Yeah makes sense
yeah so if you have S_n act on your basis vectors of R^n, these (k, k+1)s fix e_k+e_{k+1} where e_k is the kth basis vector, this action I believe is what gives you the n! stabilisers?
could be wrong on that
They negate that difference, they fix the sum!
But yeah wolog the vertices of the cube are three letter binary words. Then permuting the digits is the stabilizer of the word 000, so it has 3! stabilizer.
Any vertex has the same stabilizer because the automorphisms act transitively
oh my golly gosh this immediately leads into the interpritation of B_n as a wreath product how wholesome chungus
@delicate orchid it is actually much better to work over F_2 unironically lmao
Then the flippy guys are just adding a word of the form 010 or 100 or 001 to our string without carrying
Oh yeah right, and that permutation needs to be applied on all of them for it to make sense
oh I see what you mean by "working over F_2"
That's very nice
yes it is much nicer
Damn,
I'm too group pilled I didn't make the connection between C_2^n and F_2^n 
that's quite a good pattern to spot
Adding without carrying is I guess bitwise XOR while we are at it :p
yeah
I am studying ECC too apparently and I don't really understand GF 2^n construction yet, but nice to see everything devolve into XOR
you know mod?
yeah ofc
No I don't mean that
I mean how the irreducible polynomials are used to construct the whole field and thing
my textbook went into quite some depth about it, to construct those polynomials
oh right like LITERALLY GF(2)
yeah you can get finite fields of order p^n for any prime p and any n
Yeah
Actually it asked the reader to prove themselves why finite fields should always have order p^n but I guess I will tackle that later
I moved on to study block codes
there is a very elegant proof of that fact
if you don't care about the specifics you can just pick any irreducible polynomial f of degree n, and then do F_{p^n} = F[x]/(f)
let's see, I will have to look more into it
Maybe not best placed to ask, but if you have $3x \equiv 6 \mod 12$, does the solution have to be given $\mod 12$?
I.e. my initial approach was to guess $x=2$, so $x\equiv 2 \pmod 12$ are the solutions, but apparently $x\equiv 2 \pmod 4$ are the solutions
Douglas
how do you know if it is Z_4 or Z_2xZ_2?
in b?
only thing i can think of is that Z_4 is not a field and Z_2xZ_2 is.
and since it is a field extension it has to be a field? i am not sure?
Z_2xZ_2 is not a field
it's a group, and if you mean F_2xF_2 then that isn't even an integral domain let alone a field
the key difference between Z_4 and Z_2xZ_2 is that Z_4 has elements of order 4
so are there any automorphisms of order 4
there are a lot of things wrong with that
one, no - the product of two (unital) rings is never an integral domain, let alone a field
secondly those are groups
Z_m x Z_n is cyclic if gcd(m,n) = 1
@solemn dew you have to look at subextensions and use the fundamental theorem of Galois theory
A C4 extension has a unique quadratic subextension (do you see why?)
I see!! miss!! miss I see!!! can I have a gold star!!!??!?!?!?!
.
wait how is F_5 x F_5 not a field
x = 2 mod 4 is just short hand for x = 4k+2, which are indeed the solutions to 3x = 6 mod 12
but I agree with you, that's a stupid way to phrase it
x = 2, 6, 10 mod 12 is far clearer
or hell, x = 4k+2 mod 12
What's the inverse of (1,0)
or even more to the point, (1,0)*(0,1) = (0,0)
so there's zero divisors
this holds for any two rings
hence
I contest that that's more to the point
so $x\equiv 2 \pmod {12}$ would only give some solutions, but not all?
Douglas
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
She wasn’t a kind stranger
Would the Chinese Remainder Theorem would here? I tried it but something weird is happening.
The method I've been taught for computing these is to write a table with (left to right) a remainder colum $r_i$, a column for $N_i = N/n_i$ where $N=n_1 n_2 \cdots n_k$ (each $n_i$ is the modulus), for $x_i$ which is the inversion of $N_i$, and then a column for $r_i N_i x_i$, i.e. the product of the row.
Here I have $N_1=44, N_2=33, N_3=12$. Then $x_1=2$ because $44x_1 \equiv 1 \pmod 3$ is solved by $x_1\equiv 2 \pmod 3$; $x_2=1\pmod 4$ because of $33x_2\equiv 1\pmod 4$; and $x_3 \equiv 1 \pmod{11}$ because of $12x_3\equiv 1\pmod{11}$.
So this gives the last column as 352, 33 and 84.
Since $N=3\cdot 4 \cdot 11=132$, the solution is $x\equiv (352+33+84) \pmod{132} \equiv 73 \pmod{132}$. The problem is that while this appears to work for the second and third congruences, it does not work for the first, which is $x \equiv 2 \pmod 3$.
Where have I gone wrong?
Douglas
Wolfram says 29 (so not 73)
agh it's been a while since I did this by hand
Wait I found it
No clue how I got 352
That's completely wrong
It should be 176
Ok for some reason I doubled iot
Idk why tho
Yeah I get 29 now
Top tip: be careful with arithmetic
@distant summit
d is gcd(a,m) here
Your initial question was about linear congruences mod 12, right? Thought you could use this info.
Hey folks, I wanted to do some review. What are some examples of posets and monoids in the wild?
There are tons of examples for each, but here are a few "classical" ones
Posets: any power set (ordered by inclusion); Z, Q, R with their usual orders; positive integers ordered by divisibility (n ≤ m if n divides m)
Monoids: any group, of course, or the multiplicative structure of a ring with identity; the naturals with addition (including 0); the integers or naturals with multiplication
could someone explain this paragraph in dummit and foote to me? i dont really understand the reasoning in the underlined red sentences
What do you mean transpose it
nothing
$\varphi : G/N \to H$
$\varphi(gN)$ needs to be well defined
There are multiple g's that make gN the same set.
to be precise gn for any n in N will work
gnN = gN
So if we define our output of the function in g
well, it needs to be always the same
That's the point being raised about independence
$\varphi(gN) \coloneqq f(g) = f(gn) = f(ng)$
I suppose
and you can probably show this f needs to be a homomorphism
hence f(gn) = f(g)f(n) hence f(n) = e
you can partially order the elements of a finite group by g<h when ord(g) divides ord(h) right, is that anything?
That doesn't make sense as written. You would conclude that equal elements are unequal there
g = g has ord(g) = ord(g) so this would mean g < g, but g = g so this cannot be.
whats a superorder called
Do you mean preorder
I mean an order that contains another
the relations are a superset
A refined order
ah ic
ig this has problem in that elements with same order are equal as well oops
Idk it just seems like an order that you could impose but I don't see why
With things fixed as need to be, ofc
It doesn't play very nicely with the group structure afaict
What could make sense for a chosen generating set which is independent
Is if one element divides another maybe?
but not quite with inverses hmm
oh if any generators are finite order it dont make sense 
It does make sense, it just doesn't respect the group operations
Oh wait you were talking about a different order
as you were lmao
meant less or equal
as in g≤h when ord g | ord h
Then typically you will have a <= b and b <= a when a =/= b, so this is still not a partial order
right ic
idk anything at all abt preorders so that's no fun either
thx for sorting this out!
Yes as you say this would be only a preorder
The thing you can do with a preorder is observe that the condition a <= b and b <= a is an equivalence relation, so you can take equivalence classes. Then the preorder forms a true-blue partial order on the equivalence classes. Btw, this construction is a functor, adjoint to the forgetful functor from partial orders to preorders.
Anyway, the thing I've always seen people do with preorders is look at this induced partial order. But in this case, this partial order will just be (isomorphic to a) suborder of the divisibility order on naturals, so it's not terribly interesting.
Ay Im taking a course in abstract algebra this year and I would like some book recomendations if thats ok. I need them to be able to take me from zero knowledge to quite a high level
artin's algebra
usually your prof will recommend a couple of books
Yes but this course mostly only covers the group theory part and the recommendations seem a little basic. I would like to go to a more advanced level as I believe I am capable of it and also it will allow me to learn other areas of maths like alg top etc ...
You don't need that much beyond group theory to learn basic alg top. On the other hand Dummit and Foote or Lang's algebra are good references. Lang's algebra is quite difficult but has every basic topic you could possibly want in it.
Want my maths knowledge to be spread evenly across analysis and algebra
What would be an easy/nice way to show that Z[X]/(X^5+2X-6) is not a field? The polynomial is irreducible so we know the quotient is a integral domain.
Now for example (X^5+2X-6) is truly contained in (X^5+2x-6,2) which is a proper ideal, thus not maximal thus quotient not a field.
If I now want to show that (X^5+2X-6,2) is proper, we want to prove that there are no polynomials such that 1=2b+g(X^5+2X-6).
I think if you reduce mod 2, you have 1=g(X^5) and you can argue by degree that its not possible.
What I dont fully understand is: Why does it mean that its not possible in Z[X] aswell?
if two things aren't equal mod 2 then they can't possibly be equal in Z
an odd number can never be equal to an even number - in essence
0 is even and odd...
jk 
2 is a pretty odd prime
0 is even, odd, negative, positive, what else...
0 is real, 0 is imaginary
good.
i don't think 0 is positive nor negative
if x > 0 then it is positive, if x<0 then it is negativ
e
i think that is how positivity and negativity is defined
then 0 should be neither
i think every number is positive because all numbers are good
isn't the answer wrong since any orbit is a subset of X, so then it is impossible for the orbit to be 72?
That seems right to me
so my reasoning is wrong then?
No, what you said seems right to me
I think that's inversion
cursed notation
wdym
its not cursed in plaintext
sotrue
whos gonna type out g^-1 = h^-1 blah blah in plaintext

in latex pretty cringe tho
it's cursed irregardless
g''
no. 
It’s a well known fact that a binary operation on a group is commutative iff the inversion map is a homomorphism
This gives you a sleek way of showing that rings are commutative groups as negation is a form of multiplication, which by the definition of a ring is a homomorphism
what is the addition in a ring if not defined to be abelian
g -> g^{-1}
a group is commutative iff the inversion map is a homomorphism
what.
thanks illuminator
no problem. however I think we need to mention that a group is commutative iff the inversion map is a homomorphism
now I have to look up yet another word
i dont know how negation is defined to be homomorphic
in the ring axioms 
multiplication by -1
or whichever ring axioms u wanna go by
Yeah
But the axioms I know are rings are abelian groups blah blah
abelian

maybe we need to mention that a group is commutative iff the inversion map is a homomorphism one more time
One way might be to consider that a normal subgroup is a union of conjugacy classes
So then a normal subgroup of A^5 has to be some sum of the sizes of the conjugacy, and you rule out all sums except 1 and 60 by divisibility considerations?
That's right
does there exist an origin symmetric polytope in R3 that has an even amount of reflectional symmetries?
in even dimensions this is easy to find even amount of reflectional symmetries... take the hypercube, but I think in odd dimensions this is false.
What is an antihomomorphism
f(gh) = f(h)f(g)
Doesn't the tetrahedron have 6 reflectional symmetries?
I would think all the platonic solids work, but I haven't checked.
wait they changed the algebra channels
I see split up #abstract-algebra into undergrad/grad channels?
is there a way to view the free product of two groups, say, G and H as a quotient of the free generated by the elements of both G and H
yeah, you quotient out by the relators of G and the relators of H
but as daybroken said, since there's nice maps into the free product and the free group generated by the elements of G and H from G U H, there is a unique map induced by the universal property from the free group into the free product
equivalently, take free products of counits F(G) --> G and F(H) --> H to get F(G u H) = F(G) * F(H) --> G * H
actual nerd ^
that's not a ring axiom though
like
-x = -1x is such a weird axiom compared to x+y = y+x
-1x + x = (-1 + 1)x = 0x = 0
hm
0x + x = (0+1)x = x
0x = 0
hm i suppose you don't need a commutativity axiom
you do for semirings though
what're the relators of G/H?
I highly suggest you learn about presentations if you're at all interested in free groups
I do know a bit about presentations
but I'm only interested in free groups as far as van kampen is concerned lol
van kampen is all about presentations
interesting
<@&268886789983436800> we got some spam
does an amazon delivery team count as a group
mods are asleep
Good morning
sniped

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I'm in the middle of learning about crossed products, have you got a preferred source?
le semidirect product has arrived
I don't, sorry
I've used them in pretty specific circumstances so I don't have a good general resource
.<

Didn't u go through that whole pdf or whatever introducing presentations. Dont say a bit, sully.
word salad
You don't need to describe the elements to solve the exercise
any hints then?
F(alpha^2) is a subextension of F(alpha)
What do you know about the degrees of subextension
is it degree 2?
No
Could you maybe express [F(alpha):F] in therms of the other
if it is a subextension
(i don't know how you concluded that)
then [F(alpha):F] = [F(alpha):F(alpha^2)][F(alpha^2):F]
Yass
right, because alpha * alpha is in F(alpha)
And can you bound the first term on the RHS?
i don't know how to find [F(alpha):F(alpha^2)]
is it the degree of a polynominal with root alpha^2?
It’s the degree of the smallest polynomial with coefficients in F(alpha^2) and root alpha
A hint is that there is a priori two possible things it could be
x^2-alpha^2, one solution is alpha other is -alpha? two possibilities?
so then the degree is 2
hence [F(alpha):F(alpha^2)]=2
oh okay i think i get it
the degree is stated to be odd, but now it is even so we get a contradiction
so they must be equal to each other
u guys are good thanks 😄
Yeah, so the point is that the degree is at most 2. It could be less, if that polynomial isn't irreducible




