#groups-rings-fields
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An easier example, rather than a monomorphism that isn't injective, is to find an epimorphism (right cancellable morphism) that isn't surjective. For example, the inclusion of Z into Q is right cancellable in the category of commutative rings with identity, but clearly isn't surjective
this is the only example of a non-surjective epimorphism that I know as well
oh I got my very active back
nice
no longer will I be bullied by whitenames

Consider the poset category of subspaces of any space. Every morphism is an epimorphism but only the identity is surjective
That's not concrete
that's fine
It has a faithful functor to Set. Or what do you mean by concrete?
Really? Is this just some set-theoretical nonsense and hence all rings of some cardinality are isomorphic or something?
bimorphism not necessarily isomorphism jumpscare
wtf does that mean 
chunky category
All algebraically closed fields with the same transcendence degree over it's prime field at least
Okay actually you may be right. We can map every object to the singleton lol
Huh, not typically what I think of as concrete
epimorphism & monomorphism not necessarily isomorphism
non-topos moment
oh
You can just map every object to itself...
or that
Aka its underlying set
Huh, I need to learn the basics of transcendence degrees, all I know is Luroth's theorem.
How is that not what a forgetful functor should be
no you're right
i avoid them at all costs
I just never think of poset categories as concrete lmao
It does feel kind of nebulous, e.g. like cardinalities, but it leads to some interesting statements.
For uncountable field, its the same as cardinality, so you don't need to think about it
(over it's prime field)
G*d, I hate cardinalities, maybe that's just my mathematical immaturity speaking
I love that you census god
Tetragrammaton, baby
... But not cardinality
Although in this case it's more of a triagrammaton
SAME
why?
Model theory nonsense
Model theory š„°
And what exactly is the transcendence degree of C over Q?
It is the cardinality of C
Just like any other uncountable excursions of Q
(the cardinality equals the transcendence degree)
hm my book defined monomorphisms as a homomorphism which is injective as a map fo sets
Your book = bad
I'd say in probably even most categories of (common) algebraic structures that should be true, but that's not the categorical definition
but hungerford good :(
In any category with a free functor, it's true.
That's a categorical definition at least
I meant mono iff injective
Right, yeah having a free functor only means mono implies injective
Don't know what would be a good characterisation of the converse
Yeah I'm not aware of any characterization like that
that's not the typical definition lel
(what's the typical definition)
this
hmmm
eh i mean
timo!
Is that equivalent to being injective?
in SET yes
intro textbooks on both lin alg and AA still define monos as injective homs
(I really know nothing about category theory yeet)
sure it's not accurate in the more general sense when introducing categorical language
But I guess when talking about groups and rings, it's equivalent to being an injective homomorphism
No
Okay but if they're not going to use it right, then why not just say "injective homomorphism"?
because monomorphism is shorter and equivalent for some stuff
Well
less words :troll:
Checkmate textbook writers
I guess in the context of rings and groups it's equivalent to saying fg = fh => g = h cause that's the definition lel
it is in the category of sets
not in all categories tho, allegedly
what's it equivalent to in the categories of rings and modules and groups and algebras etc
timo, my man
yea
did an oopsie with epis
we were talked about this just a bit ago
Ah, I guess it is equivalent in these categories since they have a free functor
does it have to do with being locally small or smth?
they're also concrete categories over Set
you told me this, no?
i.e non-class āsizedā homies
I don't know what a free functor is but like idk if I want that explained to me rn
dw about it lel
https://math.stackexchange.com/a/1644040, having a free -| forgetful adjunction is sufficient apparently
monomorphisms are stupid tbh
the definition is cute
it's cool that it's equivalent to injective most of the time
itās adjoint to free, essentially like how the forgetful āforgets stuffā, the free functor constructs the most general way to add structure to it
hello
but actively classifiying monomoprhisms in different categories is just blegh
it is like the āsimplestā way to add structure to something
thatās how I view it
so like, if I give it a set a free functor will give me some more complex structure
yes, sorta
I'll worry about this in grad school lel
as in it is almost the āmost generalā way to do so
you've seen the construction of tensor products right
I have not
thatās ajoint to hom i thought?
?
Right, but it's a useful nothing sometimes. Like what's an "injective" homotopy class of maps in hTop otherwise?
this is not where i was going with it
what does adjoint mean 
tensor algebra I know is an adjoint to a free
i was thinking of an example of a free construction
Don't worry about that yet lmao
free group over a set?
...
the construction of the tensor product
you take the free module on the cart product
and mod out stuff
silly question, does this relate to "free groups"
Yes
i thought they might've seen that in lin alg
It directly does actually!
oooo
I dunno what that is yet lel
do you know what a free group is
We kind of mentioned them in my intro to proofs class
I seem to recall it being a way to make a group out of a set
Topological spaces as objects with homotopy classes of maps as morphisms
like say for a set {a,b,c}, the free group, the group of all āsentencesā or algebraic combinations of a b c and their inverses, like a^-1ba or cb, or any product of them
Is the āsimplestā way to make a group out of that set
I see 
ignoring the formality
I dunno about simplest
Adjoints my beloved(s)
I think most general fits best
yeah
so uh, is the free group what happens if I feed a set into a free functor
Yes
like it's the "most general" way to make a group from that set
yea
it's the "most general" group "on" the elements of that set
yes
lots of "quotes" can be made concrete
usually the free monoid is more simpler to explain, but the word monoid is scarier
lmfao
free monoids are encountered in computer science pretty early on
Itās a pain in the ass but yes
even free products
"most general" as in it's easy to map out of. You may have learned that for free groups, you only have to define what it does to the generators to get a homomorphism out of it
the naturals are a monoid right?
I don't actually think it's productive to learn about free groups from free functors tho lel
Yes
yep
under addition AND multiplication (without 0 for the latter)
yeah my intro to proofs class did a sort of survey of some group theory concepts
naturals are actually the free monoid on a singleton set
I thought monoid only required one operation
if my singleton set is {S} then the naturals can be written as 0, S0, SS0, ...
after we learned how to do induction we just kinda dove into the definition of a group basically
No just two different ways to āforgetā it into a monoid
itās cancellative remove 0 under multiplication
@molten viper serious suggestion
Hm?
Once I learned adjoints itās like constant mathematical deja vu
if you actually want to learn the basics of cat theory you should read the couple sections in aluffi chapter 0
we didnāt get to groups in my proofs class 
it's a very good read
Leinster's basic category theory is also a good read imo
Riehl's CTC if you're up to it
That prof is a character
I tihnk he leans to CS side of things
you should prolly skip the monomorphism/epimorphisms section tho, I don't actually think it's that important 
my introduction to adjoints was actually the image functor from Top to Set (or Sigma algs to Set)
At some point, rn I'm focusing on algebra stuffs
Which functor?
OH
Open sets with inverse image?
May have misworded it
aluffi is an algebra book
forgetful functor?
Well I have recs to cover
almost, something more complicated about it
i had it written down
that's fair lmfao
then I realized it was the same with Hom and the tensor product
and i looked it up
called adjoints
category theory is an appendix in one of the books I've been recommended @warm wyvern, maybe I'll give it a peak
but if you wanna learn about basic cat theory and maybe free groups and that stuff I really like aluffi
Also I sorta like how the tensor product construction uses both adjoint functors for Ring
you take the forgetful functor from F-Vec to Set, then immediately apply the free functor back to get the vector space you quotient out by
I learned category theory while learning groups and shit
and whatever the heck a cohen-macaulay ring is
same
You don't strictly need much background, but it helps with motivation
same
my motivation was understanding cat theory memes
best decision ever
Lol
that's valid too ig
How it feels to be a monoid in the category of Endo functors š„“
š
i was gonna ask if you where is a proof that, for a finite group of order N of automorphisms of a field F, that F forms a degree N extension over the fixed field
imagine not doing EE
?
yea I don't understand that either lel
and therefore your study not being remotely benefited by abstract alg
Galois/Field theory isn't exactly my strongest trait
thereās a proof via Artinās Lemma but I kinda donāt like it
there's better people to ask
timo AG arc when
is galois theory technically a part of ag?
no
was supposed to start but now it's AT again
It's field theory
after i finish my exams and focus on my thesis
Turns out to be a-finitely generated algebra (as a field) over a field is the same as being a finitely generated module (as a field)
which Iām pretty sure is due to the poly ring being a PID and just, making an explicit integral extension out of it
Noether normalization proofs i have seen are always either
- Cardinality black magic
- Weird substitution black magic
šµāš«
I remember coming across an article on like
Free lattice ordered groups
noob
Hm the Nagata proof of Noether normalisation is a sub but I'd not say its black magic like
It's easy for a certain class of polys and its not bad to put stuff in that form by perturbing stuff
Gotta love free things
the one that does X_N |-> X_N + Y^P^N
that one is fucking WILD
i canāt imagine how they came up with it
Irony Incarnate
this is eisenbud proposition 7.16
I assume we get a commutative diagram like so from which we can see this but I can't seem to get this map exactly
I don't see why S needs to be complete
This is the setup of a more general theorem that needs the completion of S
But it's just this step I don't understand
Tho I thought it would be usable to show that the map is epic
What lol how is it a pain
free commutative rings are even better
You can just map the xs to the generators of n. And then you actually need S to be complete if you want to extend this to a map from the power series ring.
wtf is this nerd stuff
nerd stuff? THIS! IS! ALGBRAAAAAA!
The clip is from "300".
itās a feedback loop designed to get more grant funding from the nsf
i see R algebra a lot and I swear different resources say itās either a ring rhat contains R (in itās center) or is just a general algebra on the module agony
For fields, this is equivalent. If you're only working with fields then there's no difference.
For non-fields, I've only ever seen the second definition used.
N.b. I mean whether or not R is a field
A ring with a ring homomorphism from R to it's center is also a common definition I guess
i.e an associative (unital?) algebra over R
honestly i donāt like the word āalgebraā, which in mant cases is general as fuck and is USED TO DESCRIBE THE FIELD used to define such a specific structure
Yeah, an associative unital R algebra is the same as a ring A with a ring homomorphism R -> A whose image is in the center
The ring homomorphism is just given by r |-> r*1
like a magma on an already existing abelian group , which is on ANOTHER abelian group with a semigroup on it
jesus fuck
which abelian groups already are specific ig
I believe I've seen an R algebra defined as ring plus a homomorphism from R to the whatever ring
An associative unital R algebra is a monoid in the category of R modules, if you're looking for more equivalent definitions.
Hmm interesting
Eisenbud makes it feel like it's not important where it's mapped to for this part only that it's an epi
An update from yesterday's exercise
What is it you're building up to?
hey I have no guarantee the intersection of ideals is an ideal
It is
I'll make today's exercise proving that
because I can't be bothered to figure out the notation for the next one in the book
We wanna show that R[[x1,...,xn]]-> S is an epi lol just like you said
Lemme send you the proposition and the part that's confusing me
Right, so the power series ring is a sort of "free" complete ring
Not quite in any formal sense I guess
Even for an infinite intersection?
It should always be an ideal, yeah
For infinite intersections I feel like it's more nuanced
Tho most of the time that'll be 0 anyways
So you won't have to worry Abt it
Not always tho
oh well AM just states that the intersection of ideals is an ideal
but I'm still gonna prove it
Huh okay it is an ideal even for infinite indexing sets that's cool
But it shouldn't be too nuanced when you work it out
Yeah AM just states it lol
I feel like it's a pretty general pattern in algebra, that substructures are closed under intersection
So like, an intersection of subgroups is a subgroup?
Indeed it is
oh ok this is kinda trivial
Seems they have a typo where g_1 turns into f_1. Don't know if that's your confusion
I guess I'm thinking of like, closed sets where an infinite intersection isn't necessarily closed
My confusion is where does that map at the start of b. come from
The one from (x1,...,xn)/(x1,...,xn)^2
Or better yet why it's an epi
I mean open
I mean for open/closed sets it's by definition. This case it's basically just "if x and y are in the intersection, then they are in every (subobject), hence their sum/product is every (subobject) as well, hence their sum/product is in the intersection"
The homomorphism maps xi to fi, and fi generates n. Hence it's epi
Huh okay
That's easier than I thought lol
I thought that he was saying it was more general than that
Also that it would be an epi even if the fi didn't generate n
i mean both A and B are ideals, then they āconsumeā multiplication by any element. If you multiply some element x in both by any element r, then their has to be in BOTH ideals
never knew how to like formally state that
i have been trying to view ideals as modules lately
hhh
rA \subset A?
AM writes it as Aα \subseteq α
Its an alpha
oh 
Fake math fan
is alpha the ideal?
chmonkeynumber1enemy
They denote ideals with gothic letters, for whatever reason
So it should be uh
$\gothic{a}$
Galstaff, Sorcerer of Light
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Or something
mathfrak
$\mathfrak{a}$
chmonkeynumber1enemy
Yep
Who's am
Atiyah Macdonald
Which is an old and terse algebra book
They also use $\mathfrak{b}$
Galstaff, Sorcerer of Light
If they need 2 ideals
Sometimes even a c
AM moment
128
how far are you?
bruh
Chapter 1 lol
oh lol
About 30%
I'm working through chapter 5 rn, but I've got a lot of exercises left in the earlier chapters
And it seems chapter 9 is approximately chapter 1 of Eisenbud
associative algebras < abelian pancake stack
Very descriptive
tf is one chapter of eisenbud lol
What length is that
use currying to make some ungodly description of it
a chapter of eisenbud is like waht 40-50 pages ig
Maybe
tho the appendix on homological algebra is like 100pages
anyway! A lot of what Iāve read about noncommutative ring theory, noncommutative ring generalizations depends on the existence of modules over that ring that satisfy some property
be it being annihilated or you have it
but like, why.
It feels weird because ideals are technically modules, but the set of all ideals is a set cuz youāre essentially āchosingā them out of subsets of the ring
but to say a module exists that gets annihilated by an ideal or something
youāre saying it exists in a class of R-modules
and classes scare me :troll:
i mean what's the difference tho
an ideal is a module that is ācontainedā in the ring that itās over
yeah
I assume thereās modules not iso to an ideal
which exist by free modules over sets with arbitrarily large cardinality
Can many of these module definitions, like primitive ideals for instance, be in the context of purely ideals in a noncommutative setting
Totally not because I want to avoid formal classes
but like what would you need proper classes for?
to say there exists a module
via there exists M such that M in (module class) implies M is ā¦
I don't see how classes can show existence 
or do you mean that you assume like axiomatically that such a module exists by some set theory stuff
yes
just use Grothendieck universes if you don't like proper classes
What's the problem with proper classes tho
Paradoxes.
They don't work very nicely/are hard to work with for formal purposes
When trying to form homsets n stuff
homsets are sets tho
needing locally small categories n stuff
hm interesting
I've never really explored how they work I've only heard they're used to formally axiomatize category theory
Yeah you can either work with proper classes or Grothendieck universes for that. Usually (at least for basic stuff) it's just informally treated
I guess all sets are classes, and you can say that a class is a set iff it is contained in a class
I will need to look into this more it sounds interesting
which sounds weird until you just, apply the axioms for saying what classes are sets via construction mayhaps
relation-pilled
still not sure what you need classes for with this? Can't you just say, instead, "module M satisfies property \phi"?
i think i just donāt know how to formalize a āpropertyā
Why does everything need to be formalised
I assume classes have a similar axiom schema for properties
yeah I mean I don't think that needs to be super formalized
or grothendieck universes
constructivism honestly
to say how you can construct it
Oh okay thank you for being up front about your problems
Saying they exist is the first step to recovery
Then you do not need formal classes to define a module?
choice :3
LMAO
Itās not socially acceptable to talk people out of their religion
constructivist moment
since when do mathematicians care about social acceptance
iāve actually never seen anything counter intuitive about choice.
next we'll become ultra-finitists
people mention shit like well-ordering theorem and Iām like, yeah, as sets why not, doesnāt mean that well orderingās gonna work with whatever structure you use to define it
People tend to mention banarch-tarski more than the well ordering theorem
That one is weird
banach tarski isnāt counter intuitively even remotely
Now youāre being disingenuous
real
but what is the discussion at hand
bet
Well to say shit has volume you need to add some kind of structure to the set, banach tarski is basically on the fucking group structure of the sphere, not the fuckin volume
assuming choice, this result is true
What
The elements involved in b-t are line segements which union to give the sphere
Thatās like saying because [0,1] has the same cardinality as the whole real line that a 1 inch metal rod has the same volume as an infinitely long one.
SO(3) acts on this set
Okay but choice is also equivalent to being able to choose an element from an infinite product of (nonempty) sets
Which is obviously true
throwing shade is it
and yet when I asked you to imagine a set with cardinality between N_0 and N_1 you told me it's "impossible" and that I was "spreading a disease from which mathematics would one day recover"
banach tarski doesn't talk about the group structure of the sphere at all lel
I meant group structure of the SO(3) action
It uses that
isn't choice necessary to defined the whachama call it set that isn't measurable with lebesgue measure
To produce two spheres of identical volume from one
Pretty sure b-t uses a free subgroup of SO(3) and uses that algebraic freeness to define the sets
also, without choice unmeasurable sets don't even exist
vitali set?
ye
WHAT
this result is interesting but not counter intuitive
is it not?
no
it is for me 
i mean at first glance iād assume nonmeasurable sets exist without choice because, wtf should every set be measurable
not abstract alg anymore š¦
well besides vitali sets
direct product of all the cosets of R/Q bruhaps
yeah vitali assumes choice
if you don't assume choice you're never encountering a set you can't measure
Bruhaps indeed
in practice, even when assuming choice, you're very likely to not encounter a non-measurable set but still
lmao
I think people consider banach tarski nonintuitive because they're indoctrinated from a young age to think area/volume etc are self evident things
do nonmeasurable sets imply choice for sets of continuum cardinality
The real problem with this conversation is if you think about anything non-intuitive enough it becomes intuitive
also, god I'm so glad no set theorist is here to flame me for this

the outer measure of a disjoint union is not the same as the sum of their outer measures
thatās a bit unpleasant to me
To describe a proposition as self referential is self referential
agonizing
I reject all of em Iām just gonna do my own thing
Aoc itself is intuitive it just leads to weirdo stuff
it leads to interesting stuff
fair
still stuck on Noetherian condition on prime ideals implies noetherian condition on all ideals WITHOUT Zornās Lemma
driving me mad
let the choice flow through you
itās for hilbert basis theorem, from which I can see only needs finite choice
but the prime ideal route needs full choice
My route of trying to prove Hilbert basis through morphisms is basically showing that for a strictly increasing chain of prime ideals, that the sequence of intersections with R must be strictly increasing
so therefore the prime ideal chains must stabilize in all of R[X] given they do in R
I buy it
The only āadditionalā prime ideal in R[x] is (x)
So intersecting with R is like removing the contribution of (x) to the chain of ideals
R need not be integral
Gulp
We only need zornās to say every ideal is in a prime ideal (because every one has a maximal)
Yeah itās easy with zorn
wonder if we can find a weaker form using finite choice
I thought we were trying to ignore choice
I.e just every ideal in a prime
well youāre working with sequences of ideals
so you need a weak form of choice otherwise spooky scaries
oh, are you assuming that every ascending chain of prime ideals terminates?
I think Iāve misunderstood the set up here
Assume R is noetherian
thus every ascending chain of prime ideals stabilizes because all chains of ideals must
Well, for prime ideals of R[X], if A is strictly contained in B, then their intersections with R preserve that
so every ascending chain of prime ideals in R[X] stabilizes
Using the leading coefficient form of hilbert basis proof doesnāt need the full power of choice
while this one does to extend it to all chains of ideals in R[X]
if you can prove any ideal has a prime ideal containing it without using that full power of choice then Iām happy
Ok I think I just don't understand what you're asking lol
āāProve the thing without using choice or I will CRYāā
THEREāS A WEAKER PROOF WITHOUT CHOICE, WHY DOES THIS BITCH NEED IT
I want to avoid the leading coefficient map because itās not a morphism
i just want to kind of get insight into the structure of ideals in R[X]
Lol it's a morphism in a different category
Because like noetherian-ness, being jacobson is also inherited
in semigroups, yes
If that was the case this would mean the hahn-banach implies choice , which is not true
you can prove lebesgue non measurable sets exist using just the hahn banach , and the hahn banach is weaker than choice
iām just seeing if there is some structure of ideals in R[X] inherited from R that causes it
Look at the spectrum then
But isn't that exactly what the leading coefficient proof shows?
the spectrum i thought is about primes
mainly I want to try to prove it via the universal property
š§āāļøprime ideals
i did so for the proof that if every prime ideal in R is an intersection of maximals, then the same holds for R[X] using evalution morphisms from the universal property
no use of degrees or anything of polynomials
Just the evaluation
you need to reject weaker assumptions too for that to happen iirc
you can construct non measurable lebesgue sets with weaker assumptions than choice
the illusion of choice
shush, james, I know
And their kernels n stuff
and I thought no set theorist could figure me out. Yet I got called out by a fellow analyst
shame
this is what folland says for a more accurate description
How do you propose passing from an ideal in R[x] to an ideal in R using just evaluation?
evaluations from R[X] to R are always epi, obv cuz they fix R
Evaluate x to 1 :letrollface:
Evaluate x to literally anything in R
evaluating to 0 gives the maximal R-disjoint ideal (X)
Sure, but to extract meaningful information about the polynomials themselves, it seems like evaluation forgets too much in general
Yeah 0 is a better shout
i forget specifically but I did show via rhe universal property that R[X] is the monoid alg of R[N] and essentially every element is a polynomial
Evaluating to something in R is just quotienting by some (x-a) doodad
So I do agree with walter if I must have a serious opinion
it was kinda nutty but used powers of (X) and some ideals quotiented by higher powers of (X) via lattice iso
and that R[X]/(X) is iso to R
Yeah maybe we can think of these mofos as lattices that could be funny
yeah lol
it was simultaneously the most annoying and enjoyable/enlightening universal prop exercise Iāve done

i think it was taking (X)^n to (X)^n/(X)^n+1 and using the (forgetfulād) map from that ideal to R
which gives the coefficients in the module sense
absolute insanity but whatever :troll:
Ok so like, if you restrict to polynomials of degree less than or equal to d, then the leading coefficient map is a morphism of R-modules, right?
yes?
it also shows R[X] is iso to itās associated graded ring I think
anyway gtg for a bit
Ok lol
I was just gonna say that this gives you an ascending chain of ideals in R so I don't see what you were saying about the leading coefficient map not being a morphism
I'm thinking let I_n be the image of the leading coefficient map on polynomials of degree less than or equal to n, where if the degree is strictly less than n then you send it to 0
I could try some weird diagonalization technique
And then I_n should be contained in I_{n+1} as n ranges over natural numbers
the full proof of the universal property of the polynomial ring in the reverse was showing that the kernel of the evaluation map of 0, call it J, is principal, constructing powers of that kernel, and constructing J^n/J^n+1 via quotients and isomorphism theorems, then using the principality of J^n to construct the nth coefficient map, and then doing the full isomorphism
it was my first universal property exercise i did
after learning the def and applying it to R[X] lol
yes
So then you get the ascending chain of ideals in R and you can just follow through with the rest of the proof in leading coefficients
I just don't see what bothers you regarding that proof
the proof that the image of an ideal under that map is an ideal and all the other stuff making sure it preserves strict inclusion n stuff
You can explicitly verify those by hand though
itās fairly annoying
itās āalmostā linear
i.e there exist a b such that f(ax + by) = f(x) + f(y)
and f(xy) is not necessarily f(x)f(y) afaik if R is not integral
like for example f((ax + b)(cx + d)) = f(acx^2 + (ad + bc)x + c)) = ad + bc if ac = 0
which you have to do some ideal properties at that point to prove the image is still idelic
itās a pain
Wait it shouldn't be a ring homomorphism though, it's a module homomorphism
If that
the ax + by is used to prove the image is an ideal
I don't get it. As we've set it up, you just add the leading coefficients if you add two polynomials together
And similarly if you multiply a polynomial by an element of r, the leading coefficient gets multiplied by r
So it's a module homomorphism
Fuck i was thinking about the general leading coefficient one
not the one that sends polynomials of degree n to itās leading coeff
Yeah I mean I think you need this family of maps to get a reasonable ascending chain of ideals in R
itās just, starting from rhe universal property to get to here is a LOT
i wanted to see if thereās a shorter route
another attempt of mine was kind of considering the ideal (X_1ā¦X_N) in itās multivar poly ring to be the āarchetypicalā finitely generated ideal, as any finitelt generated ideal is that idealās image under some evaluation
it works by appending X being just another finite var poly ring but itās annoying
can someone explain this answer? https://math.stackexchange.com/a/605260/1196218
they say that a function is surjective since Q(sqrt(2)) is the smallest field containing Q and sqrt(2), but i dont see how that proves it surjective
Here is what they say:
$f$ is surjective, because $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2})$ is the smallest field containing $\mathbb{Q}$ and $\sqrt{2}$. Now the set
$$
{a+b\sqrt{2} : a,b\in\mathbb{Q}}
$$
is another field (check this) that contains $\mathbb{Q}$ and $\sqrt{2}$. Hence, $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2}) \subset f(\mathbb{Q}\times \mathbb{Q})$.
MyFavoriteAccount
it's fairly clear, if we have some a+bsqrt(2) then it's the image of (a,b)
hence it's surjective
why do they say "another"? Isnt Q(sqrt(2)) = {a + b*sqrt(2) | a,b in Q}
the only nuance I can see in this is the fact that sqrt(2)^{-1} is still in that set
otherwise I agree with you, it's unneeded fluff
I donāt really get why they bring up fields here tbh
yeah like literally just do this
I really think this is crux of it
yeah
itās so extra to bring up that field line imo
I mean, you would have to show that all the other elements have inverses as well.
Ah fair
It's not very difficult, but you have to check it
But presumably youāve already checked that since a + bsqrt(2) is given as a representation of things
representation of things?
as in theyāre all equal to a + b sqrt(2) for any element in it
Not rep theory type of representation
I'm not sure what you're saying
Well, when they asked the related question in #proofs-and-logic I asked what the elements looked like
And they already said they were all a + b sqrt(2)
So thatās a step thatās already done
I see, I'm missing some context then
Say I have two monic separable irreducibles f and g of degree n (over a field K with alg. closure C) and I know that for every root b of g there is a root a of f with K(b)=K(a). I want to show that I can order the roots {a_1,...,a_n} and {b_1,...,b_n} of f and g in such a way that K(a_i)=K(b_i), how do I do this? I clearly need to use Aut(C/K) and how it permutes the roots, but I can't see a clean way of doing it.
This implies that symmetrically, for every root a of f there is a root b of g s.t. K(a)=K(b) (using Aut(C/K)), but it's not helping me order the roots nicely 1to1.
Don't you just order them? Like pick one b to be b1, then pick a1 to be the a such that K(b) = K(a)?
I mean what if there are repetitions
then either ordering is fine?
Wdym
if K(b_i) = K(a_i) = K(a_j) and K(b_j) = K(a_j) then K(b_j) = K(b_i) so either ordering works?
could I get a hint to show that the requisite series of subgroups has abelian factors? my process was that if I could show that $H_iN \trianglelefteq H_{i + 1}N$ then each quotient group would be isomorphic to $H_{i + 1}N/H_iN$ (by the third isomorphism theorem), then the problem would reduce to showing that $H_{i +1}N/H_iN$ is abelian. but I'm stuck on trying to show that $H_iN \trianglelefteq H_{i + 1}N$ lol
okeyokay
If you want no repeats, for the a_i, youād just need to use like, if K(b_i) = K(b_j) = K(a_i), then you want another a_j with the same extension right?
I don't understand what you mean by this. E.g. n=4, b_1->a_1, b_2->a_2, but then it turns out that K(b_3)=K(a_2), what do I associate to b_3?
Once you have this just exhaust em
I let $a_{i +1}n_1 \in H_{i +1}N$ and $h_in_2 \in H_iN$, and so it reduces down to showing that $a_{i + 1}n_1h_in_2n_1^{-1}a_{i + 1}^{-1} \in H_iN$
okeyokay
upon which I have no clue
there will be some a_3 ~ b_3 (by assumption), so a_2 ~ a_3
so it doesn't matter
equality is transitive
What heās worried about is he wants each b_i to have a distinct a_i
I still don't get it.
well that just isn't always possible
To make it even simpler, what if n=2 and the roots are a,a' and b,b' and it turns out that K(b)=K(a) and K(b')=K(a)
Why?
it really is this simple
Why K(a')=K(b')?
K(aā) does not have assumed equality with K(bā)
what
ok I have no fucking idea what's going on
what is a' if not the associated root to b'
Thereās a term of a_i with K(b) = K(a_i)
nvm I'm slow I just need to show that H_{i + 1}N is abelian ignore all this
He wants a functional assignment where theyāre all given them
we have two sets
with an equivalence relation on their cartesian product
you may pick any two representitves
and label them with the same index
I wonder how you got the symmetric bit, but if you have that just zig zag
Start at b_1
Grab your guaranteed a_1
Then do an a_2 term
Which has at least one b_2.
Might not immediately get uniqueness but (linked reply) might be an idea for that
If a is any root take e.g. b_1, then it has to it some a_i, then if x\in Aut(C/K) moves a_i to a (C/K is normal and f is irreducible) you have K(xb_1)=xK(b_1)=xK(a_i)=K(xa_i)=K(a) and xb_1 is a root of g.
now zigzag and remove choices after taking them
Hm, lemme think about it.
K(a') is isomorphic to K(a) so there is an automorphism of C which maps K(a) to K(a'). This will necessarily map K(b) to K(b'') where b'' is some conjugate of b. Thus the relation is symmetric
Ye, just use the symmetric argument you had earlier
This "removing" choices bit is bothering me, it's not clicking.
Seems you already figured that out
This condition is pretty much just saying we can exhaust our roots
If b, bā both have a as a possible choice for them
then weād want an aā which is also possible
then associate b & a, bā & aā
Yeah I see how the case n=2 works, I'm just having trouble formalising it for n arbitrary
Pulling marbles out of hats & not replacing them
Maybe I should do induction lol
I'm feeling particularly thick today, it's just not clicking
Maybe i just need to take a break
Something something root permuting on either side
Yeah I know, it's the something something that is not clicking
why
For larger numbers of roots, what about larger numbers of permutations
Not sure if you might run into a repeated root issue, but that should be fine?
There are no repeated roots, the polynomials are separable.
@topaz solar you can stop now, I'll come back to this later with a clear head.
Thanks
Definitely
Because polynomial rings are Noetherian
And quotients and localizations preserve being Noetherian
the variety
you'd know this if you read the first page of any alg geo book
A shape can be understood by looking at the functions defined on that shape
Circle (radius 1) is roots to x^2 + y^2 -1
Man I just CAN'T let it go
What if it's a situation like this (above roots of g, below roots of f)
The final root of f has to have a root of g associated to it
what if this happens
How do you then order the roots in the desired way
the question is, can that happen
True, but then why shouldn't it?
that's the mystery
Try permitting b_2 -> b_3, then since a_2 is in K(b_2), and K(a_2) = K(b_2), what do we have as the image of a_2 under that permutation
Iād certainly expect a_3 and K(a_3) = K(b_3), but thatās left to be shown
But might be useful to use how b_2 and a_2 both give the whole extension, and b_3 gives the whole extension K(b_3)
ah right now I see where my mistake in my understanding was
Yeah we want a linear ordering of the roots
s-s-s-ss-scary
real
help i'm actually stupid if Hi is normal in Hi+1 and N is any normal subgroup of G why is HiN normal in Hi+1N help
But yeah, consider b_2 and a_2 as polynomials of each other maybe?
Or ya know, a similar variation thereof since itās a field and inverses and all
let x be in Hi+1N
xHiNx^{-1} = xHix^{-1}xNx^{-1} = HiN
think this works
I made up several inclusions of subgroups in my head
Yeah I think that should work
ah right thanks
What these lil permutations applied to the relevant fields should show is that this doesnt happen
b ~ a, and bā ~ a implies we get another aā ~ a, I think?
And then successively yoink them out till you exhaust them, giving a compatible linear order on both
Imma take a break now, try again later I think. Thanks for the continued interested @topaz solar
localization at a multuplicative set has the ideals that are outside of the multiplicative set, right?
i know units lie outside any proper ideal
i know very little about multiplicative sets besides the definition
I think I have a proof:
First consider an equivalence relation on the bs with b ~ b' if K(b) = K(b'). Let B be the set of equivalence classes and do the same for the as creating A.
Since each b has a corresponding a, we get a map from B to A, and by how we constructed the equivalence this must be injective. Symmetrically we also get an injection from A to B so they have the same size hence this is a bijection.
Applying automorphisms shows that the equivalence classes in B have the same size n/|B|. Similarly for A, so you can just map the bs arbitrarily within each equivalence class.
Hopefully there is a shorter argument, but this works at least.
@glossy crag
Yeah, that's right. The ideals of S^-1 R correspond to the ideals of R that don't intersect S.
I mean, yeah that should work, the part he was hung up on was the size of each class so I was trying to point (poorly) at being able to do that by the automorphisms
Formally how would one go about showing 1+x+x^2+x^3+x^4 is irreducible over Q[x]
The only way I can think of is to verify that each strict subproduct of distinct linear factors (over C[x]) isn't an element in Q[x]
But that would require 4C2+4C3=12 checks
multiply it by x-1
(x^4+x^3+x^2+x+1)(x-1)=x^5-1
Which we know the roots of š
(in C)
thereās a few different ways
I'm not sure how that implies it's irreducible
(1+x^2)^2 is not irreducible despite having no real roots
One method is eisensteinās criterion but i havenāt thought about where the terms are ALL one
thereās a really⦠weird way
I'm not sure Eisenstein's criterion works here
ah you're right
There's no prime which divides one...
show that (1 + x + x^2 + x^3 + x^4)(x - 1)= x^n - 1
NOOOOO WAIT
Still reduces the number of checks to (4 choose 2), no?
And this allows you to work with roots of unity in C
right?
What and how?
There's something with this, I just can't remember the exact argument lol
I can think of a galoisy method
It's an exercise in a pre problem sheet on a course on galois theory so I think that terminology is out of the scope haha..
Certainly it doesn't have a linear term. You just need to check different combinations of multiplying (x-\zeta_i)(x-\zeta_j) for 5-th roots of unity \zeta_i and \zeta_j
Oh right, yes I mentioned that, and I think it's 4C2+4C3
so 12
still seems unreasonably tedious for a simple exercise
You know the roots to x^5 - 1 right
Just argue on how no product is rational or wtv
gg
That's 12 products...
so clearly galois theory itself is out
lol
Yes
Well, think in terms of the angles
WEll when you multiply out any pair like that, you will get x^2 -(\zeta_i + \zeta_j)x + \zeta{i+j}
At least one of them will be complex
This is not a mathematical argument
I can't even begin to decipher how that would work
it is, because any product of the linear factors has to multiply to a thing with coefficients in Q right
Yes
and the roots are gonna be like
e^wtv
so just add those things together, and you wonāt get a rational
Unless you do em all
^^
And thatās exactly the constant term
So it has to be rational in order to get a reducible thing

Oh right
Ye
yeah with symmetry of the roots in C
Donāt have to check everything, literally just say itās 5th roots of unity and you canāt get a rational polynomial
But you do have to check something
Namely that (x-zeta)(x-zeta*) isnt int Q[x]?
Okay but x^3+x^2+x+1=0 has roots of unity despite being reducible
But thatās 4th roots
Not 5th
5th roots you canāt add and get a rational like that
If theyāre not opposing roots, the product isnāt even real
And if they are, theyāre neither 1/2 nor -1/2 real part
I don't know what you mean by opposing roots
Done
Symmetric across the real line
Do you have the concept of minimal polynomial, and how Q(a) = Q[x]/f(x) when f is the minimal polynomial of a?
If so there is a very short solution
Yes that's allowed
This is after a course on rings and modules
Right well you have a map Q[x] -> C, mapping x to a fifth root of unity. Show that the image is the same for all choices of primitive roots. Thus they all have the same minimal polynomial.
(this also uses that Q[x]/f = Q[x]/g implies f=g)
So the minimal polynomial has degree 4
I feel like just a quick argument on adding roots of x^5-1 is easier imo but oh well
yeah sure
Right that's quite neat
((t + 1)^5 - 1))/t okay
well, for binomial coefficients
Remember, for 1 < n < N
N divides nCr(N,n)
Yeah, this also extends to arbitrary cyclotomic polynomials, so pretty neat yeah
so for that poly in t, 5 divides all the terms except for the leading one
Eisenstein baby
and 5^2 does not divide the constant term, which is 5 ofc
So to recap
your x^4 + x^3 + x^2 + x + 1
set x -> x + 1
That's a very clever way of introducing Eisenstein into the problem
Sounds like a reusable trick
(It is)
you get x^4 + 5x^3 + 10x^2 + 10x + 5
use le eisenstein
thank you dummit & foote
it was for the case of 7 lol
just generalized
ah, that's the general argument, I remember seeing that in class lol, I just forget it
Yes indeed this works for the *p^n) th cyclotomic polynomials (p prime, n arbitrary)
Oh that's been said, though it was said "all" cyclotomics when really it's just for these ones
I got reminded because of the Febronious for the other prime fields
idk
Some names are hard to remember
Like the uhhh, Semen Kusakatdze-something guy
Hang on lemme just look up the book
Semƫn Samsonovich Kutateladze
Aināt no way I will remember that nameās spelling
this is technically a number theory question but I'm guessing there's a relatively simple abstract algebra proof for it (that I'm struggling with bc my algebra is not strong).
let q<p be odd primes such that p=q^2k+1. prove that if x^q=1 mod p then x=y^q mod p for some y.
should I try to do this with a primitive root/generator?
x^q implies that x has order q in the group (Z/pZ)^x
I think that's a good hint
$(g^\ell)^q=1\implies q^2k\mid q\ell\implies qk\mid \ell$
$\implies g^\ell=g^{cqk}=(g^{ck})^q$
nixxy nilpotent
I'm being lazy with notation but does that do it?
uhhh if you can assume that (Z/pZ)^x is cyclic then yeah that works
yeah we can. alright thanks š
yeah sorry if my hint was a bit weird I didn't know if you could assume this so I was going for some subgroup nonsense
could I get a hint to show that if f: $V \to V'$ is a linear transformation of vector spaces over a division ring $D$, then ${f(x) \mid f(x) \neq 0, x \in X}$ is linearly independent in $V'$? already showed that it spans $Im \text{ f }$
okeyokay
So I wrote $r_1f(x_1) + \dots + r_nf(x_n) = 0 = f(r_1x_1 + \dots + r_nx_n)$
okeyokay
trying to see something from this and I'm blanking F
yeah but showing cyclicity isn't very trivial and it took like until gauss for that to be shown
and I know that sometimes like intro NT classes take a while to prove that
What is X
my bad the basis of V
tho yea this is true it's cyclic when n=1,2,4, p^k or 2p^k
Couldnāt I map like (0, 1) to (1, 0) and (1, 0) to (1, 0)?
Lol that statements seems false to me
With X = {(0, 1), (1, 0)}
Oh I was xonfused too cause I use V' as notation for dual space kek
Basis for 2 dim
Oh I guess this is basically first iso theorem
But only after certain modifications
yeah as is itās uh
tryna verify the first half of this theorem
I mean just take projection onto an axis and V = R^3, V' = R
you did not have the correct statement originally
For example
Yeah lol
"There exists a basis" rather than given arbitrary X as you seemed to imply
Yeah homie
o
Amd so yes this is basically first iso
wdym by this
Do you have that any vector spaces have a basis
Iām particular, so you have that any linearly independent set can be extended to a basis?
well i have every linearly independent subset of V is contained in a basis, that's basically equivalent right
left module?
yea
how do we know this basis exists, could we just take the identity or something which is a linearly independent subset and then presumably extend that to a basis of Ker f
Well, do you have that every vector space over division ring has a basis?
@white oxide
oh right
is this like cardinal arithmetic for the basises
or are you assuming itās a finitely generated module
No?
Well here itās probably assumed finitely generated since otherwise ya know
Cardinal arithmetic
i donāt know SHIT about cardinal arithmetic
Basic of ker f -> extend it -> done
Accept choice and just take the bigger one
thanks you a g
gg
why is not ${x \in X \mid f(x) \neq 0}$ since a basis of $Im \text{ f }$ should be $x \in X - Y$ where $Y$ is a basis of Ker$f$ right
okeyokay
well I guess it has to be of the form f(xi)
by the definition of image
but I'm still confused shouldn't it also be in V
and not V'
i wonder if notions of galois theory work for division rings
oh wait you just use the isomorphism $V/Ker$f$ \simeq Im\text{ f }$ right
some automorphism bs basically
okeyokay
I'm confuzzled
I assumed this problem was a lemma for proving that lol
nah I didn't know how to show that the given set was a basis of Im f so I'm using the actual theorem to show it is š¹
specifically if
Is the fixed point subring of division R under the automorphisms of R a division ring, and finitely generated as a module (or an algebra)?
honestly a massive amount of galois theory can be deduced from [F : F^G] = |G|
Good god, he's done it!
This was driving me insane, thanks so much @rocky cloak
jagr as always the goat
actually
itās well known that for a field F, F is finitely generated as a module over F^G by |G| elements, where F^G the fixed point field under the automorpgism subgroup G if G is finite
and therefore itās finitely generated as an algebra
by Noether normalization shows that if F is a field is finitely generated as an algebra over a field H, then F is finitely generated as a module (because you can make it into an integral extension)
is there a general class of rings such that the same fixed point theorem holds, but instead itās a finitely generated algebra of degree |G|
how does this follow?
every element is equal to the image of a linear polynomial where the evaluation sends the variables to the basis of the module extension
so if x = x_1b_1 + x_2b_2ā¦
Then L(X_1ā¦X_N) = x_1X_1 + x_2X_2⦠is sent to x when X_n is evaluated to b_n
does that follow?
ah I found the result showing this
?
being a finitely generated algebra over a field is weaker than being a finitely generated module
sorry I was looking throught Eisenbud
I wasn't sure if finitely generated as an R-module implies finitely generated as an R-algebra but that implication is true
WHEN R Is a field
generally
If R is jacobson then all finitely generated algebras that are a field are finitely generated modules tho
zariskiās lemma
but Iām wondering if that [F^G : F] = |G| holds for more general classes where the degree instead denotes degree of an algebraic extension
yeah
more generally you have the iff statement that S is finitely generated as an R-module iff S is generated as an R-algebra by finitely many integral elements

