#groups-rings-fields
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gS=Sg does not imply that any s in S is in the center
Oh
Oh?
Nvm i thought i got it but i didn't lol
Wdym by Hom_S_k btw
(internal) hom of S_k-representations
Hm the summands on the RHS needn't be irreducible i fink but yeah i assumed is related
But it does seem a lil sus how RHS like can be rewritten as End(V_pi) tensor E^otimes k right
So you’re taking each irreducible and looking at the different ways of embedding it into E
Can we not tensor-Hom adjunct our way out of this one
Perhaps
Yeah maybe something like this
But they are kth powers so idk
it comes from End(V_pi) \isomorphic V_pi \tensor Hom_G(V_pi, V) where V is a representation of G
I think thata's missing smth right
End(V_pi) tensor V i guess which would match w what i argued? hm
Okay so is like
$\bigoplus_\pi \mathrm{End}{\Sigma_k}(V\pi) \simeq \mathbb C[\Sigma_k]$ or smth
potato
I’m still confused by this notation
Sorry
*partition
So it's meant to be that {V_pi} is just any like enumeration of the reps
but yes pi is a partition
But this is, I assume, jujst a general thing for all G and V rather than S_k and E^otimes k
So yeah I assume this is Artin-Wedderburn uhhh
it's true in general for finite groups, the group algebra decomposes into the sum of End_G(V_pi) for pi irreducible, for the symmetric group irreducibles correspond to congugacy classes => correspond to partitions of n
Yeah Oh yeah it is true lol
Well since V_pi is simple any endomorphism is 0 or an automorphism so I buy it being artin wedderburn
yeah
I feel bad about being rusty with reps already 😭
Seeing as I took an exam on them like a couple months ago lol
Thank you guys
It’s my area of study and I still cannot cope with actual modules
Anything other than a character and I start crying
I feel like for this problem there's some group action nonsense going on
If M is a completely reducible kG-module and S is simple, then the dimension of Hom(S, M) is the number of times S appears as a summand in the decomposition of M.
So you're just summing up all the irreducible summands of E^k
Yup yeah
@wraith cargo My book doesn't cover that 🥲
I should've gone with my gut lol
need more confidence in my bullshit
I think it will be difficult to do this without breaking things into semidirect products. What tools have you been given thus far?
this is a group of order pqr surely that can help
It tells you one of them is normal lol
Alright, so I see automorphism, so then you probably know about inner automorphism?
yessir
Let x generate the sylow 11 group and let y be an element of order 3
oh this is smart
since 11-sylow subgroup is normal it suggests that yxy^-1 is contained in X
Indeed, so y induces an automorphism of the group
now think about the order of such an automorphism
and this
o(yxy^-1) = o(x)
Oh this paper I'm reading is cool wew lol
Well like identifying the rep ring of S_n in a different way to what I'm used to
send
CW-complexes
I'm meant to be a break from triangle nonsense
i don't know the order of the automorphism
the uhh action of a dude on the kth tensor power reminds me a lot of how you compute representations of wreath products
it's conjugation by an element of order 3
Uhhh
so have a guess
Oh okay idk about wreath products lol
that's fine it was just a quip for the fans in the back
It means how many time so you have to compose the automorphism to get the identity
oh
I mean, what else would order mean
11 since (yxy^-1)^11 = yx^11y^-1 = yey^-1=e
wew
then $\phi^3(x) = y^3xy^{-3} = x$
wew
One thing i findi ntersting wew is this like
S_k-trace thing
Idk if that is a common thing lol
pg 168
and x is the identity?
alright alright i got you
and then we know this has to be the order cause 3 is prime but w/e
ok, piece number dos
ngl I absolutely hate this notation
Yeah i find it a bit hard to read the notation at times lol
Is that trace thing a common construction?
well if it's taking the trace of a rep it's a character
but I literally cannot decipher what they're doing here
I personally have never seen this before
I figured out what they were doing lol
the \pi(E) notation is so, so stupid
oh wait no no no
it's just this but in characters, I think... just spotted a tensor product which doesn't make much sense
I do think it is a lil hard to think about
I just wonder where the motivation for all this comes from
P cool tho
Gives another way construct adams operations on rep ring I think
I sat down and explicitly worked out why \pi(Trivial) was Sym^k(n) and \pi(sign) was Alt^k(n) and then it made sense to me 
so i had this short exact sequence of groups, and we had to find the groups upto iso which satisfied in place of G here:
$0 \to Z\2Z \to G \to Z\2Z \to 0$
and i managed to prove that the order of G has to be 4, but now i have to find which kind of group it is, and im not sure how to proceed there
Shyshu of the Golden Integers✓
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i know that groups of order 4 are of 2 types, Z_4 and Z_2 cross Z_2, but im not sure how to prove that either
Use lagrange's theorem to prove that

ohhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhh
holy shit ofc
so by lagrange order has to divide 4 so either there exist order 4 or not
split the case
$0 \rightarrow \bZ/2\bZ \rightarrow G \rightarrow \bZ/2\bZ \rightarrow 0$
wew
why tf are you looking at group extenstions already
it was in the pset lol, we did a bit on SESs back when we were doing lin alg, so this isnt exactly the first time i have seen it
wait group extensions?

oh it is mentioned here huh
anyway if I'm remembering my homology correctly :trollface:
homology 
there's two extenstions here, the split one and the non-split one
Z/2Z x Z/2Z is the split one and Z/4Z is the non-split one
or you be sensible and use lagrange
i have no clue what this means 
exactly. So why are you thinking about group extenstions at all
it was an optional problem in the pset 😭
society if all extenstions split
what does it even mean by a sequence in this case?
a SES most likely
oh i seee
Whenever you have a SES
0 → A → G → B → 0
G is called an extension of B by A.
wut
bro i was here when i was in 11th 😭
ic 
or if you want to go the other way, if G has a normal subgroup N, then G is an extension of G/N by N
i havent been 3' 11 in literally a decade

Rebellious phase 🥹 so cute
Yeah usually you would remember the world being bigger 😊
someday™️
this is so wholesome 🥺
Wholesome algechill 
something wholesome for my sad life 🥹
cheer up buddy ur doing group theory ahahah
thats whats keeping me sane
funny groups
so that's where my sanity is going
you were ever sane?
no
as expected
Bloody hell why is everyone so gloom today
i have been gloom for a while 
Oppenheimer release weekend 
it's not gloom it's just a medical fact
Maybe they got attacked by phantom Ganon
jagr gamer reference... a powerful combo...
How about barbie
lmao
i got stabbed by them gloom swords
It wasn't Kenough 
poetry in action 😂
Hi I wonder if the follow is ok for a proof that the mapping of a group is onto
G->G L(x)=ax a,x in G
If L(x)=L(y) then ax=ay so x=y 1-1
NOW ONTO
I would say a in G and x in G so ax in G so for each x there is a L(x) in G is this ok?
i don't understand your proof
when G is finite yh i guess but when G=Z lets say u cant say injectivity implies surjectivity
A function is surjective if for every y in G there is an x such that L(x) = y
Can you find such an x?
oh right we're showing group multiplication is bijective?
This is from Fraleigh proof of cayley theorem so you need to show every group is isomorphic to a group of permutations so need to first give a candidate mapping and a perm is defined as a bijective function.
@rocky cloak I think is just L(a^{-1} y) = y so x=a^{-1} y
Indeed
need to say as a in G then a^{-1} has to exist right to be in a group
Yes, a group contains inverses
you need to say that in a proof as the a inverse may not exist
since we're in groups we're ok added benefit of Groups 🙂
Yeah you need G to be a group
I only bring it up as other parts of maths that gets messed up I'm thinking matrices det=0
Thanks 🙂
Is it clear why in characteristic p a group has the same representation type as its sylow subgroup? For example is there some way relationship between the representation theory of P, N(P)/P and G or something like that?
Alternatively does someone have a reference for a proof of this theorem?
Not really a group theorist, but some group theory have appeared in my work (hence my question)
yes what work are you doing?
Representation theory of algebras / homological algebra
ok cool
You studying some finite group theory now?
Yes not quite on to sylow theory yet just studying the books Fraleigh and Dummit looking to get into the computational side as well
Like computer algebra stuff? Or what does computational mean?
yes it is a whole field computational group theory the book by holt is a good reference " handbook of computational group theory " there is also a free software called GAP
I've used GAP a bit (though not for group theory)
It's not an amazing programming language, it's a bit painful to debug. But it's the only one that can really do representation theory of quivers
iirc spamakin was working with gap but idk if he's around
hmmm, only intuition I have is that the Sylow p-subgroups of G completely encodes the p-local data of G and the p'-parts of elements behave as expected over fields of characteristic p
Actually, modular characters are completely determined by their values on p'-elements of G so perhaps that's something? I will look for the proof now 
As far as I'm aware anyway
Yeah it seems GAP is a bit of a pain. there;s no need to have a separate software for it is should be just in c++ or matlab or something with functions you can call. But I think it is the way it is coz it's so old
Hmm, but modular characters only describe irreducible representations right? Or do they work for general representations?
yeah, they only characterise simple modules up to isomorphism
and I cannot find this proof anywhere
it could be in here? https://link.springer.com/chapter/10.1007/978-3-7091-2814-5_37
Yeah, but there are only a finite number of simple modules, so not sure if it will help
yeah, I thought it was for indecomposables but no such luck
I'm gonna give up looking now lol
Im outside my springer access network atm, but I can check this one out tomorrow
it's probably not in there, but that's the only thing I could find
Also, I don't know what p-local data means. If it's not too much groups trouble could you explain in an example like G=S3, p=2.
If I'm not mistaken S3 should have 3 indecomposable representations, while C2 has 2. And S3 had 2 irreducibles while C2 has 1.
it's a nebulous idea, it's more productive to think about the modular character bit
I don't really have it straight enough in my own head to properly describe what I mean, sorry
I see, and p' elements mean elements of order coprime to p?
yus
\chi_M(x) = \chi_M(x_p') for all modular characters and all x in G
so for your example, the 2 irreducibles of S_3 should only really care about (123), (132)
and this nicely shows that for a p-group P, there's only one irreducible over a field of characteristic p
Makes sense, but is also strangely opposite of what I'm after. Since it's sort of relating everything that isn't in the sylow group
yes it is odd isn't it
Maybe something like a representation either "comes from" the sylow group somehow or is irreducible
That would make sense
thinkin bout these algebras now
there's a way to move from the K[G] to the k[G] that I'm forgetting
Hmm, understanding OG sounds hard
yeah you tend to start with OG 
I mean you can just compose (co)induction and restriction of scalars I guess
Not sure if that's what you're thinking of
would work but determining what splits and how would be annoying
perhaps we should think about Brauer characters? They're defined for all k[G]-modules right
Thought that was the same as modular characters. What's the difference?
you take your roots of unity in this O rather than k iirc
yeah that's it, you lift the eigenvalues of the action of a p'-element on a k[G]-module to those of an action on an O[G]-module
which you can do by some theorem somewhere
@coral spindle you like modular reps u got any thoughts on this mess?
Yeah the definition of brauer character I know is that you take the group of roots of unity in (the algebraic closure of) your field, and pick an injective group homomorphism to the roots of unity in C. Then pretend all your eigenvalues are complex numbers
yeah I think that's equivalent to doing what I did then mapping O[G] into K[G], K is required to be a splitting field of the group in question
That would make sense then yeah
I can do the cyclic case inductively I think
uhh how does it go
jordan block decomposition shows C_{p^k} has finite type over F_p
C_p \times C_p has a non-finite type over F_p
That C_p^k has finite type I can do pretty easily, but if G has C_p^k as its sylow p group...
Why is G still of finite type
I'm just trying to get a handle on why the conditions on the sylow subgroup are the way they are before thinking about how it corresponds to G
intuitively it's because being char p "kills" the p-data
but what does that actually mean

Idk Brauer stuff I'm afraid, sorry
Well ostensibly because I only do characteristic-zero rep theory,
but in reality it's because I suck and everyone's gonna find out and my supervisor is gonna think I'm a failure and I'm hyperventilating rn and ahhhhufdshafdsa
I mean
oh wait really?
In reality it's because I've been focusing on some other parts of rep theory, and modular reps hasn't really come up so much. Plus I'm a bit weak in algebraic number theory
Well 'ostensibly' is the operative word...
ostensibly means something along the lines of "evidentially"
as it turns out the ell-adic Schur indices are strongly related to modular reps
so it's more like
I haven't got there yet
This was the wrong comparison. It's more like "apparently" lol although that could just be seen as a synonym of the last example I gave...
Aw no I'm sorry hug
I was of course joking, but I'd be lying if I said I was happy in my ignorance
Someone have some ideas how to solve this? Given some amalgamated free product $G = A *_{C} B$ and a map $\phi: G \rightarrow H$ s.t. the restrictions of phi to A (as a subset of G) and B are injective, then the kernel of phi is free? Trying to refresh on some material but I feel like I forgot something obvious for solving that problem
kerrmode
Well, the kernel obviously has no elements from A or B
So it’ll only be things that’ve been added in because it’s A*B
Well yeah, the non-zero elements of ker phi all have length at least 2 but I dont see how that brings me closer to the existence of a basis?
Well, if you have a subgroup contained entirely in those free product objects, can you have any sorts of relations
Free product objects?
The ones that aren’t just included from A or B
clearly (a*b)(a’*b’) would have an issue with falling outside the free product objects
Whats wrong elements of the form ba and a'b with a and a' from A and b from B? They arent contained in either A or B but their product isnt reduced?
Okay?
So you won’t have both in your kernel unless the whole thing is an inverse
Suppose you had a subgroup contained in A*B - (A u B)
And you had two words s, t such that st=e, then t is just s in reversed order and each element inverted right?
Can you write that inverse in any other form?
(Excluding introducing trivial things like (a a^-1) into it)
As in, can you have any extra relations, which means your thing wouldn’t be free
An obvious example of such a subgroup would be <ab> for some non-identity a, b in A, B resp.
Or, what any subset of those pair words (a_i b_i) for all not the identity, can add in ones like (b_j a_j) too so long as you don’t get b_i = b_j^-1 or similar for a
And these are all explicit free groups since there’s only one (nontrivial) way to write inverses
F is a field, any clue why beta is algebraic over F(B')?
Definition of transcendence basis
oh, since B' is a maximal algebraically independent set
What? Is that your definition?
I mean, that’s true yeah
But the definition I have is algebraically independent and K/F(B) is algebraic
I mean they’re very easily seen to be equivalent but
I guess isn’t “by definition” if that’s your definition
Oops
heheh ty!
I am not quite seeing the relationship here. Right now I want to do something like this: Take random words from ker phi w_1 to w_n, their product wont be ensured to not be 1 since just letting w_n be a product of the inverse words w_n-1 to w_1 would work. To fix this I might declare my basis elements to be "minimial subwords", so for example starting with w_n I start from the left and cutoff the word when I find a substring which is also an element of the kernel, splitting the word in two. Since A u B doesnt meet the kernel I know that this process leaves me with words of length at least 2. Once I've done this the aforementioned situation can't occur, since if w_1 ... w_n = 1, then I couldve split up w_n into subwords so that the product would contain neighbouring inverses. I suppose this might work?
Well, I mean
Free groups aren’t always over a finite basis
Do you have that a subgroup of free groups is free?
Yes
So, let’s say I took (A-e) x (B-e)
And defined a map into A*B by (a, b) |-> ab
Group generated by the image is disjoint from A u B, right?
I claim these pairs also form a free basis
No wait I’m wrong in allowing all pairs
But you get the idea that if we don’t have ab and ab^-1 or a^-1 b we won’t get any A u B elements and it’ll be free if you do
Just to make sure, but the initial situation was about looking at a map going out of an amalgamated free product not into
Ye, I was suggesting finding a free basis for a subgroup of A*B
And it’ll be disjoint from A u B but contain your kernel
Wait, what would the image of (a,b)(a^-1,b^-1) look like?
If it sends (a,b) and (a^-1,b^-1) to ab and a^-1b^-1 respectively the result would be aba^-1b^-1 no?
well it’s not a group mapping lol it was just something to generate it with
So like uhh, say you had a generating set of some fashion
You could look at the first symbol in the words
I believe you should be able to find a free group containing your kernel in that way
And subgroup of free are free 
It seems that what I am looking at is apparently related to the kurosh subgroup theorem, at least for a related problem it 1. shows that the kernel is a free product and 2. since the restrictions are injective it is actually a proper free group
I can't wait for combinatorial/geometric group theory to be over 💀
Can someone explain to me how the highlighted bit follows?
idk if I'm just missing something or what, but one of the comments says x^3-c for any non-cube is irreducible and has discriminant -3(3c)^2, which would be a square in the finite field if the field has a primitive 3rd root of unity, right?
but how does that then generalize to every irreducible oubic over a finite field?
All irreducible cubics generate the same (well, isomorphic) splitting field, right, Since irreducible implies separable in characteristic p? So the Galois groups should all be isomorphic, and as long as there's one isomorphic to C_3, they'd all be isomorphic to C_3, which would imply that the discriminant is square?
idk if that's the right direction or not, and if it is I have no clue how to find an irreducible cubic whose Galois group is isomorphic to C_3 for any characteristic p
What would be a good place to ask about proofs of basic maths?
Ik a somewhat good amount of math but i hate "following blindly"
I can do subtractions of negative numbers and multiplication but i really do want to see a "why" of this, so far i only ever followed along.
Especially a proof thats simple in nature yet makes sense
ty
nrs
solved, ignore above!
sanity check: if t is an element in k[x_1,...,x_n], then obviously we can't have k[t] = k[x_1,...,x_n], but what's the correct formal reason for this?
in the sense of having a different upper bound for the lengths of chains of prime ideals, right?
i.e. the dimension of k[x_1, ..., x_n] is exactly n, while that of k[t] is at most 1, right?
Yes
nice, thank you
wait guys won't the dihedral group (of say 4 sided regular polygon) have 2 identities? rotating it 4 times and flipping it twice would give you the same element on which you're doing this operation. but how is this possible? identity must be unique
group elements don't track their past state
like for instance 1*1 and (-1)(-1) are both 1, we didn't distinguish between them back in middle school algebra class
meaning?
So irreducible doesn't imply seperable in general, but over finite fields it does. And you're right that they all have the same Galois group, namely the Galois group of a finite field is always cyclic.
And the Galois group of a cubic is cyclic iff the discriminant is a square.
Rotating 4 times or flipping twice are both equivalent to doing nothing. Doing nothing is the identity operation.
Just like how for numbers under multiplication, both 1 and (-1)*(-1) is the identity.
so basically no rotation and no flipping is the identity?
Yes, leaving the square in it's original state
oh I understand now
what are the is and what are the js
this proof looks easy but its confusing me
can anayone help
thought this was prime avoidance for a sec lol
they're indices?
isn't it basically the same thing
yea but i dont get how K is not in U P_j where j !=i
isn tthis the assumption
isnt*
no
the assumption is that
K \subseteq U_i P_i
but now choose some P_i in this union
now the assumption they make is that if you remove any of these P_i's, then K is no longer in the union of what's left
ok
so they removed P_i
from the union
so that K is not contained in the rest of them
as in U P_j , i not equal to j
right
yes
you can imagine this as like
there's an element of K in every P_i
so K is contained in the union
but if you remove any of the P_i's then an element of K is missing
so K can't be contained in the union of what's left
hausdorff
the star is the free product
Yes
Free groups are determined up to isomorphism by their rank
how should i think of this? i'm trying to produce an isomorphism using universal properties
Use the inclusions of S into F(S) and your star product
they kinda explained their meaning right after that message
ok but like you're late now and the doubt is already resolved

It was refferenced in there https://projecteuclid.org/journals/duke-mathematical-journal/volume-21/issue-2/Indecomposable-representations-at-characteristic-p/10.1215/S0012-7094-54-02138-9.full
Turns out that when P is a sylow subgroup of G, then every module of G appears as a summand of a module induced from P. So they are representation finite/infinite at the same time. Still not quite sure how that translates to wildness, but it's probably pretty simple.
nice find
hmm that'd do it
although consider the following; let's say we define the free product of two groups as the categorical pushout (and not in terms of words, etc.)
and we only want to show that the free group on two generators is isomorphic to Z * Z
(i.e., we just know that the pushout exists, and nothing about that the underlying set of the free product is the disjoint union)
how'd u go about the arrow stuff?
the general pushout is free product with amalgamation, and here the amalgamation is trivial so that collapses a lot of stuff already
yup it's the trivial one
so the "left corner" in your pushout diagram is the trivial group which is initial, so the maps into Z are uniquely determined immediately - what's left over should be reminisent of a coproduct
take the "tip" of your pushout diagram to then be F(S), you can construct an equivalent diagram coming out of it
I'll draw it, one second
ooo i can imagine it already
wew
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compile error yet it looks correct, most interesting
where S = {s_1, s_2}
I think this works
oh right it doesn't like the 2nd level lines, oh well
Guess the really short proof is that the free functor is left adjoint to the forgetful, hence preserves colimits. Pushout is a colimit, and 1=F(Ø), Z=F({*})
Can the product of two non-invertible elements in a ring be invertible?
Let a, b be non-units and suppose x is the inverse of ab. Then xa is the inverse of b, which is contradictory.
So then how would I go about proving the galois group of an irreducible cubic is cyclic if I wanted to conclude its discriminant is a square (still over a finite field)?
Over a finite field, every Galois group is cyclic, generated by the Frobenius automorphism
Ah. Okay that’s a proof I gotta attempt then. Don’t think I’ve seen that result quite yet.
If you're really only interested in cubic equations, then I guess just proving that special case is a little easier.
Let F be a field with q = p^n elements, and let y be the root of an irreducible cubic. In any finite field of characteristic p, The map f: x |-> x^q is an automorphism (check this). And f fixes F. Thus y^q is again a root. Since every element of F is a root of x^q - x, and a polynomial of degree q has at most q roots we must have that y^q is different from y.
Thus F(y) is the splitting field of the cubic. F(y) has degree 3, so the Galois group has order 3, hence equals C3
Proceed by induction using the fact that sylow subgroups are normal and that PQ is iso to P x Q for distinct sylow subgroups (since they’re both normal and have trivial intersection)
Haven’t really been able to figure this out but I did manage to show this: the factorisation for invertible ideals is unique since factors of an invertible ideal are invertible. I’m thinking maybe I could go for another strategy: if I can show every prime ideal contributes to the factorisation of some invertible ideal (trying with principal), by the above I’ll get every prime ideal is invertible and I can conclude from there and the work I did before
Might be a viable strategy
Here, if $F$ contained the primitive roots of unity, would $L_1 = F(\alpha_1)$? And if it didn't, would $L_1 = F(\alpha_1, \xi)$ where $\xi$ is a primitive nth root of unity?
okeyokay
Would that also explain why $\alpha_2^{n_2} \in L_1$? because either $L_1 = F(\alpha_1)$ or $F(\alpha_1, \xi)$ and the condition that $\alpha_2^{n_2} \in F(\alpha_1)$ implies that?
okeyokay
<@&286206848099549185>
insanity
Yes, everything you said here is correct
I'm curious, what do they go on to use this f2 polynomial for. I don't really see what they need it for.
oh this is the rest of the proof
it references a previous proof so lemma post that real quick
I don't see why they don't just take the splitting field of x^n - a2^n over L1. Are they afraid to say that the extension of solvable groups is solvable or something
So weird
yeah i was confused about that too, tbh i have no clue
let $t_1, \dots, t_n \in k[x_1, \dots, x_n]$ and $\mathfrak a = \langle t_1 \rangle$ be an ideal of $k[x_1,\dots, x_n]$. then, $x \in \mathfrak a \cap k[t_1,\dots,t_n]$ implies $x = t_1x'$ with $x' \in k[x_1,\dots,x_n] \cap \text{Frac}(k[t_1, \dots, t_n])$. why is the field of fractions suddenly appearing here?
nrs
I guess x' = x/t1. But I would think that intersection just ends up being k[t1, ..., tn]...
ohhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhh yeah that makes a lot of sense
yeah the author specifies that this ends up just being k[t1,...,tn]
but i was very confused at why that field of fractions appeared
Please enlighten us
He is being a shameless
farmer
Who can blame them
Me 
It’s just a lil dude
If K is a non-archimedean field, is it the quotient field of the valuation ring {|x|<=1}? This has got me stumped.
hi
I need an opinion
and also some resources
what is the best resource that can be recommended to learn group theory?
in A.A
Also can it be learnt over the span of a few weeks?
Depends on your knowledge, but the chapter on groups of pretty much any "intro to algebra" books would do. Personally, I'm partial to Herstein's "Topics in Algebra".
i personally like to recommend Gallian's Contemporary Abstract Algebra because there's a solution manual
thanks 🙏
Yes
(I think)
Your reasoning?
note that K-A (here A is the valutation ring) consists of the inverses (in K) of the non-unit elements of A
so taking Frac(A) we just get back the entire field since all the stuff in A gets inverses
I feel like this isn't the most rigorous treatment of the problem but it sounds reasonable
Hm, you're right
what were you scared of
I was trying to show K={ab^{-1}:a,b\in A}, but was hung up on writing elements with |x|>1 as "proper" fractions, i.e. was trying to find non-identity elements with ab^{-1}=x when the entire time i could've just taken a=1
That i was wrong in saying it was standard
what is stupid?
Given groups G, G' and a homomorphism \phi: G -> G', if an element of G is the only element in its conjugacy class, is
... \phi automatically an injection?
Since there can't be anything in the kernel, all the left cosets are trivial
Or have I completely misunderstood the meaning of these words lol
if G is abelian then every element is the only element in its conjugacy class, yet there are certainly homomorphisms on abelian groups with nontrivial kernel
Wait but if $a$ is our element in a singleton fibre of $\varphi$, and there is an $n\in \operatorname{ker}\varphi,;n\neq 1$, then we have $\varphi(an)=\varphi(a)1=\varphi(a)$. This means $a\equiv an$, but since $n\neq 1$ we have $a\neq an$, a contradiction
person2709505
i'm confused what this has to do with conjugacy classes, and i'm also confused why $\varphi(an)=\varphi(n)\implies a=an$. isn't that condition violated precisely when $\varphi$ is not injective?
suremark
My book defines the conjugacy class of a as the inverse image of $\varphi(a)$. Maybe that's nonstandard?
person2709505

oh.
Uh oh
i'm trying to see why anyone would ever write that
I don’t even see there being any map at all which could possibly have this be the conjugacy class of a
I mean maybe this is the conjugacy class of a under ker phi?
?
a conjugacy class is an orbit under the action of G on itself by conjugation
Is this talking about quotient groups?
Or is N specifically the kernel here?
Nope not yet
Congruence classes not conjugacy 
and im assuming N is the kernel of that map?
Yeah I confused "congruence" and "conjugacy"...
Yes
Ok, so if a is the only element in its congruence class then is phi an injection?
well, just to be extra precise, I don't think there is one choice of congruence classes for a group, like clearly in this case the congruence classes are determined by phi
but yeah
not saying u implied that but i wanted to be precise about that
Well assuming phi is already chosen yes
conjugacy class on the other hand is independent of any particular mapping
Guys Can we construct every finite extension as some finite number of towers of simple extensions.
Sure, pick a basis and adjoin one element after another.
Is there any way I can do this without having to raise a trinomial to the 4th power?
If you can find the Galois group of your extension. Then the minimal polynomial has the Galois conjugates as roots. Then you could just expand the polynomial
(of course expanding a 4th degree polynomial is also a bit of work)
Thanks. Is there any way I can find the minimal polynomial from my last few steps without having to redo everything?
I mean you are pretty much done I guess. you have
$\alpha^2 + \alpha -1 = -(2\alpha + 1)i$
So just square both sides. It does involve squaring a trinomial though, but I'm not sure you can avoid that.
jagr2808
Also, you seem to have dropped a 1 at some point, so that -1 should actually cancel
So I guess you dont have to square a trinomial after all 
Sweet, thanks man
brooo 
are you still finding minimal polynomials
,w minimal polynomial exp(2pi*i/3)-i
just w
Its been 2 years sapphire still doing min polys
ong
Thx, just wanted to test that
he started doing min polys before I even got into math
Sapphire at this point you should just write a computer program to compute min polys for you
Automate the process, you don't need to do it by hand
Don't even need to write the program since WA exists
Yep. Just trying to learn anything and everything I can about them. Quite a fascinating subject.
Yea but it’s fun to compute them manually.
x - pi over R
x^2 + x - pi^2 - pi over Q(pi^2 + pi)
Where K would fit in {|x|<=1} ?
So if I'm grasping this stuff correctly
Q[a,b,c,...] is isomorphic to Q[x]/h(x) where h(x) is an irreducible polynomial with roots equal to a,b,c,...
Theres a subtlety here that I'm not sure about - h(x) obviously can't have an unrelated root, like h(x) for Q[sqrt2] can't have a sqrt3 as a root or it would'nt be isomorphic to Q[sqrt2], but h(x) = x^2 - 2 has -sqrt2 as a root but we dont say Q[sqrt2, -sqrt2]
Not quite sure how that line is drawn
-sqrt 2 is contained in Q[sqrt 2]
so why add an object that's already in the field?
Right. I know that. But I'm focused on the isomorphisms between Q[a,b,c,...] and Q[c]/h(x) where roots of h(x) are a,b,c,...
Anyone willing to help me?
It seems like it would get real crazy with cube roots
I don't understand your question
Generally the rule is, if like b is contained in Q[a] then you don't need to write b as being adjoint
so if all the roots of h(x) are contained in let's say Q[a] you don't need to write Q[a,b,c,...] you can just write Q[a]
in your example
sqrt 3 isn't contained in Q[sqrt 2]
so you need to write out that you're adjoining that as well
Anyway the thing I'm ultimately trying to understand is a white paper on elliptic curves over finite fields Fp
It uses weierstrass form so y^2 = x^3 + ax + b
He said that, I was disturbed by how. Where K would fit in {|x|<=1} ?
.
K isn't in the valuation ring
Why ?
K is the field containing the valuation ring
Got it, thanks
And the paper goes into Fp[x,y] / (x^3 - y^2 + ax + b)
But wouldn't all the points on the curve be in the same congruence class (0) then?
all the rational points sure
Wdym
Okay so F2[x] / x^2 + 1: x^2 + 1 = x^3 + x = 0
We say that 0, x^2+1, and all multiples of x^2+1 are in the same congruence class
They are all congruent to 0
Got a question about local fields on MSE https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4742230/number-of-extensions-of-a-local-field-of-fixed-degree, please upvote if you can so it gets some exposure.
So Fp[x, y] are not points on a curve, but functions. Fp[x, y]/(x^3 - y^2 + ax + b) is the ring of polynomials on the curve. The equivalence class of (0) are the polynomials that vanish on the curve.
(this is a truth with modification as you really need to consider the curve in the algebraic closure, but whatever)
Hrm, ok.
The goal of this white paper is to explain a certain algorithm for counting points on an elliptic curve over a finite field. So there's a bridge somewhere there. Guess I gotta keep reading
Probably goes through the spectrum of the ring
!! One of the steps along the way involves considering the frobenius transform over the algebraic closure
I haven't grasped what exactly that does though, cuz frob(x) = x for prime fields
Spectrum was mostly B&W
(No idea what a spectrum is in this ctx)
the set of prime ideals
Dont really grasp ideals either yet
The order of this book is so weird to me (stillwell elements of algebra)
Section 6.4 is automorphisms and groups. Words make sense but it seems to focus on the "identity automorphism" which, I get it, that obviously exists but how is that knowledge useful to me?
The existence of an identity transform is useful if you're trying to solve a puzzle where you have to use exactly n steps but the real solution only requires e.g. n-1. Add on as many identity steps as needed and bam! Solved
But where in mathematics is the identity automorphism useful?
it makes the automorphisms of a finite group a group
and groups are nice
and is also kind of completely required for you to define inverses
If I have a finite field F with size q(p^k)
Then x'=x^(number coprime to q-1) is an automorphism, right?
x' = x^q is frobenius which is the identity transform here
Sorry that was bad typing blame mobile
When I said q(p^k) that was supposed to be a clarification that q is a prime power p^k
Not a multiplication operation
oh ok
Ironically I figured you would know what I meant because as you said, the multiplication interpretation fixes q=1 in which case why have a q
then it's characteristic p and any map like x = x^{np} is an automorphism
Hm
what are we actually trying to do here
Trying to construct scenarios to verify my understanding against reality
down here there is no reality
The problem with self study with no answers is that I can't easily check my understanding. Which is difficult with a learning disability.
I refer you to my earlier comment: I'm not even 100% sure R actually exists
that's fair enough but you were asking about the coordinate ring of an elliptic curve? My apologies but I don't see how this is relevant?
irrelevantgardless it is a useful construction
wdym by exist
Okay so
I am a software engineer. My job frequently touches on cryptography cuz I have a knack for it, so I'm the go-to guy
Historically we have used RSA
Z/nZ for prime n - a field - is REAL easy. Just use high school algebra/arithmetic, divide by n and take remainder, and everything Just Works
For composite n, it's now a ring. The only change is you cant always divide so canceling isn't always valid. But if you're always only multiplying, then lots of stuff still work.
Then there are galois fields. GF(p^k) is not isomorphic to Z/(p^k)Z so it's not as straightforward, but those drive CRCs, Reed Solomon error correction, LFSRs, and a zillion other things. Because they are fields, the addition and multiplication operations are messy but I can work it out with high school algebra and then implement it with those operations
E.g. AES-GCM computes a secure verification code of a message that can be done very efficiently because of addition and multiplication in a field are both commutative, associative, and invertible
right
my question was asking why you're asking about automorphisms of finite fields in relation to coordinate rings of elliptic curves
I am well aware of the applications to cryptography
I have worked with all of these things and I understand them fairly well (except Reed Solomon)
For example, I can see that one of the constants in AES-GCM was obviously chosen because it is it's own multiplicative inverse, meaning that using Montgomery multiplication requires one less cpu register
clever speed up
But now I need to expand my knowledge to cover ECC - Elliptic curves
I can do that math itself easily because its just Z/pZ - you could have a prime power field and the math still works but nobody does that
But meta-analysis gets more complex
And right now the thing I'm trying to understand is Schoof's algorithm for computing the number of points on a certain curve in a certain field
And that gets into advanced concepts like frobenius transforms and algebraic closures and multivariate polynomial rings
Except I'm completely self taught. Last actual class I took was calc 2. And since I only studied the stuff I needed to understand for my day job, I have large gaps in what I know, because i didnt take classes with prerequisites. I read pages on the internet. Lots of wikipedia
wikipedia is a dreadful resource
So when I come here everyone loses patience with me cuz e.g I never had a linear algebra course. I don't really know what a vector space is. (The writeup on the wikipedia page looks a lot like how ECC point arithmetic works though.)
So I'm trying to build up the base knowledge I need to deal with these more advanced concepts
stop reading wikipedia and pick up an algebra book like Artin
I picked up stillwell
Elements of algebra
But just cuz I read it doesnt mean I understand it
do the exercises
Of course there are exercises but there dont seem to be any answers.
So how do I know if I got it right?
Anyway I gotta get back to work
Never mind it is suddenly pouring out
right, my philosophy is if a book claims to be an introduction to a topic but does not provide answers it is a dog shit introduction
hence my recommendation of Artin
which I think has answers?
But yeah im asking weird questions because this is how im verifying that my understanding is correct
You said that that x^(np) = x is an automorphism
I was wrong, it's x^(p^n) = x
you just compose the frobenius automorphism with itself
So hold on I'm processing this
This book says an automorphism of a ring maps elements of R -> R such that f(a)+f(b) = f(a+b) and f(a)f(b) = f(ab)
yup
So x^p=x in any finite field
since when
Or no
it is in Z/pZ
X^p=1
if you're thinking about fermat's little theorem its x^{p-1} = 1
and only applies for Z/pZ
Which one is fermat's lil theorem
for a general finite field we have x^q = x
Ahhh okay
as the group of units is cyclic of order q-1
Okay so I was communicating poorly and we were talking past each other
but since F_q is still characteristic p, (x+y)^p = x^p+p(...)+y^p = x^p+y^p
so it's still an automorphism
Wait so x^(p^n) is an automorphism in F_(p^k)?
yes
Even if n!=k
well if n = k then it would be the identity
so why would I bring it up
the frobenius automorphism is not dependant on the order of the field, only the characteristic
x -> x^p is always an automorphism in a characteristic p field
you can prove this by expanding out the brackets in (x+y)^p, like I did up here (and (xy)^p = x^py^p obviously)
This is obvious for prime fields but lemme check something
Hrm. I gotta spend more time processing that. Is there a proof for it somewhere?
I can write it up now if you recall the formula for binomial expansion
Recall $(a+b)^n = \sum_{k=1}^n (n \text{ choose } k)x^ky^{n-k}$
Now note that if n = p, p choose k = p!/k!(p-k)!
Which has a factor of p if k isn’t equal to 0 or p
This sum should go from k = 0, sorry
Anyway
So, in a field of characteristic $p$, [p \text{ choose} k= \begin{cases} 1 & k = 0, k = p\ 0 & \text{ otherwise}\end{cases}]
What now
Right fuck off then
P choose k is 0 if k isn’t 0 or p
So all of the terms are 0 except for the x^p and y^p one
So (x+y)^p = x^p+y^p
wew
Good enough I’m tired of texing on mobile
Too much theoriposting, we should build an atomic bomb and test this out
bitch I am the bomb
The bomb... exploded?

Could anybody give me a hint for this 🥺
Idk how to set up the SES
could somebody help me understand why hbar is a element of the set curly S? I can see that it lives in B, but i guess i'm confused about seeing how Im g \subset H + Rb
A very neat intuitive proof of Hilbert 90 via H^1 https://math.uchicago.edu/~may/REU2013/REUPapers/Lingle.pdf, to anyone who's interested.
I'm sure you can just brute force calculate this, but a clever solution is to notice that such a complex is just a chain map and the total complex is the cone. Then you can use the long exact sequence in homology
okay wow that's very clever
thanks!
By assumption the image of g is a subset of H, so then it's also a subset of H + Rb.
ahh right thanks!!
Why is it that $[\mathbb{Q}(\omega)_{\langle \phi^3 \rangle} : \mathbb{Q}] = 3$?
okeyokay
Sorry should've specified, here $\omega$ is a primitive 7th root of unity and $\phi$ is determined by sending $\omega \mapsto \omega^3$
okeyokay
Is it because deg$(\omega + \omega^{-1}, \mathbb{Q}) = 3$?
okeyokay
Oh wait it's just because of this lattice right
and the fundamental theorem of galois theory
what background knowledge in A.A is required to fully understand group theory?
im trying to speedrun it
like in a few weeks
a lot of abstract algebra courses start with group theory
whether that’s pedagogically preferable or not is debatable but it’s definitely doable
(learning group theory first, that is)
what would you start with
no idea
when I opened my first algebra book I’d just needed to learn group theory for a project I was doing
but I felt it was too hard when I tried it so I decided to do rings first
maybe it depends on how much group phenomena you happen to already be familiar with
we start with rings because people usually understand +*- pretty well but maybe groups first would be more tolerable for a Rubik’s cube nerd
thats what i was aiming for
rubiks cube
but im not a very big rubiks cube nerd
so ill try to start with ring
s
thanks though!!!
I mean you can try
lol
Hello, I am looking to self-study abstract algebra, I’ve done some research what book to use, I’ve heard of Herstein, Fraleigh's, and Dummit and Foote's. I was wondering what your guy’s thoughts on which one to use, or other recommendations. Thank you.
oh my bad, Thank you
i find it so interesting that some people find rings more intuitive
I mean yea I guess it makes more sense but you would think less operations is easier to comprehend or smt
I recommend artin
fields are the most intuitive ones imo
yea that's also true
Like Bladewood said many (most?) abstract algebra courses start with group theory. I think the reason for this is that groups are very simple (I don't mean easy, I mean has few moving parts). So if you want to deal with abstraction this view is more focused. The downside is that groups can feel more abstract.
Conversely, you already have a lot of experience working with rings, like the integers, the real numbers, polynomials, matrices. So it's often easier to reach for a specific example.
tangentially, i think where you start learning intro aa is kind of dependent on where you want to end up; it would be pretty awkward to start with rings/fields (stuff people are generally more familiar with) and want to cover galois theory, since you have a bit of a group theory knowledge gap in the middle
Wouldn't you just go rings -> groups -> Galois theory as opposed to groups -> rings -> Galois theory? Or what would be the awkward gap?
i guess rings -> groups -> fields -> galois theory also works
but i was thinking that rings -> fields -> groups -> galois theory would be rather awkward
groups not being first is odd to me
Right, you're saying that fields is a nice segway into Galois theory. That's fair enough, though things don't have to be completely compartmentalized either
How so?
Why every lie algebra homomorphism from the Heisenberg lie algebra to Mn(C) sends the center into nilpotent element?
An element of the center is a cumottator so its image has trace zero. How can i proceed from here?
Hello, I would like to receive help with a group theory exercise.
The question is to find an example of group G such that its 2nd derived subgroup is different from its 3rd derived subgroup. I know the answer but I can't understand why it's the correct answer (I can give it to you if you wish)
(I already posted a message in the channel "help-9")
My first guess would probably be to try to find a solvable group whose 3rd derived group is trivial (but 2nd derived is not).
I think that's the right idea
But I have difficulty in finding the number n derived subgroup
So something like a nested semidirect product of C7, C3 and C2 maybe
I thought to C2
Instead of thinking about the derived series you can think about maps to abelian groups.
Because, if I'm right, C2xC2 give a group of order 4 that's abelian and so its derived subgroup is trivial
That's right
(I hope I let me understand because English is not my mother tongue ^^)
So what's the example you have?
I think if we take G = S_(4), it would work
I know the derived subgroup of S_4 is Alt(4)
Alright, if you know that A_5 is the smallest non-abelian simple group, you know that S_4 is solvable. Then it's enough to show that the 2nd derived subgroup is nontrivial
and since A_4 isnt abelian youre done
I understand what you said but what are the 2nd and third derived subgroup of S_4 ?
But how do you conclude that they are different then ?
becuase A4 is solvable
so the derived series gets smaller and smaller until it reaches the trivial group
Ok, so A4 is the derived subgroup of S4 and when we calculate its derived subgroup, we get the trivial group because it is abelian
No, A4 is not abelian, so the derived subgroup is not the trivial group
So the 2nd derived subgroup is nontrivial, and hence the third must be even smaller
(and in fact the 3rd is trivial)
Sorry but how do you know the third one is trivial
I checked
[A_4, A_4] = C_2 x C_2
The derived series is {e} < C2xC2 < A4 < S4
That's the 2nd derived subgroup of S_4 ?
The third one is given by : [C_2 x C_2, C_2 x C_2], is it true ?
yes
wew
because C_2 x C_2 is of order 4 so it's abelian and then its derived subgroup is trivial ?
yus
Okeeee, thanks a lot !
I think I understood
I'm back with a new question
Is it correct to say that x^2-t, the minimal polynomial of \sqrt(t) on F_2(t) is not separable?
I need to show that the extension F_2(\sqrt(t))/F_2(t) is not a Galois extension.
And I know a polynomial is separable is its roots are simple
It is, the polynomial x^p-t over F_p(t) is the prototypical example of an irreducible inseparable polynomial. Once you adjoin a single root z of it, it splits into (x-z)^p.
Ok and it's inseparable followinf the definition ?
It has just one root repeated p times, so it's inseparable.
ok ok, I was right
Thank you 😉
Would it have changed if we had taken F_2(sqrt(t))/F_2 ?
Is it possible to take it ? It has the same minimal polynomial ?
sqrt(t) is transcendental over F_2, because t is, so it no longer makes sense to speak of minimal polynomials, because there aren't any.
yep
Hello I have a quick question: If G is a finite group of order n, f is an endomorphism of G and I={x in G with f(x)=x^-1}. Show that if |I|>3/4 × n then G is abelian
It is ok if I say: f(x)=x^-1 then f(f(x))=f(x^-1)=x. But f(f(x))=f(f(x)f(e))=f(x)f(e)=f(x) so f(x)=x but f(x)=x^-1 so x=x^-1 so x^2=e and from here the problem is simple?
wew
wew
Yes
I do think it could have something to do with the number of order 2 elements though
So if x, y and xy are in I, then they commute.
For x in I, the intersection of I and x^-I is more than half the group, so x commutes with at least half the group.
Yes I did it
Then the centraliser is the group
We get that I is subgroup
And by lagrange I=G
Hm if we have an exterior algebra (in a graded context) what does the notation $\langle x_1,\dots,x_n \rangle$ mean? Is it just notation for $x_1 \wedge \dots \wedge x_n$ lol - i'm seeing this in the context of divided algebras and these
potato
But i've yeah only seen this notation in specific contexts hm
No, they refer to elements
$\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2}, \sqrt{3}, \sqrt{5})$ is a finite Galois extension over $\mathbb{Q}$ since it's the splitting field of $f_1(x) = x^2 - 2, f_2(x) = x^2 - 3$, and $f_3(x) = x^2 - 5$ right
okeyokay
And they all have zeros of multiplicity one?
Ye
I mean the multiplicity one bit is generally sort of irrelevant over Q since every poly over Q is separable
Now compute Galois group
Also why is $[\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2}, \sqrt{3}, \sqrt{5}): \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2}\sqrt{3})]$ = 4? Isn't $x^2 - 5$ a minimal polynomial of degree 2 with coefficients in $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{6})$?
ye
okeyokay
imma try to draw a lattice in a sec
o i didnt know that
o it prolly has to do something with the tower law or something right
Is it because $[\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2}, \sqrt{3}, \sqrt{5}) : \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2}, \sqrt{3})][\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2}, \sqrt{3}) : \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{6})] = 2 \cdot 2 = 4$
okeyokay
Yeah, that's right
True for any field of char 0
oh right they're perfect
oops
a basis for Q(\sqrt{2}, \sqrt{3}, \sqrt{5}) over Q would be these guys right
nah boss that was Q(\sqrt(2), \sqrt(3), \sqrt(5)) over Q(\sqrt(6)) and not over Q
oh then yeah double it
now I buy it
kind of interesting how this demonstrates that adding up binomial coefficients gives you a power of 2
yeah it's like prime decomp but better and swagger
yea
thats the point
its like number theory
is now in like polynomial theory xD
like you can have fundamental theorem of arithmetic but for polynomial rings for example
coola f
I presume you mean a general polynomial ring
just a general one u know
cause there are definitely many polynomial rings that have prime factorisation
R[x]
Would someone mind providing a hint for this:
I wish to prove that the jacobson radical is equal to the nilradical in A[x] (A some commutative ring).
So far I have: suppose a \in jacobson, then we know 1-ay is a unit for all y \in A. Specifically, f = 1 - a is a unit. I know from a previous problem that f_0 = 1 - a_0 is a unit and f_n = -a_n are nilpotent for n \ge 1. How could I show that a_0 is nilpotent?
the coefficients of f and a respectively
Ah ok
I know that if x is nilpotent then 1 + x is a unit, but I have no guarantee that works in reverse (in fact I'd assume it doesn't)
-2 in Z
I mean for a=a_0+a_1x+...+a_nx^n to be nilpotent of course a_0 needs to be nilpotent
For a^2=0 to be true
Okay so do you already know that Nil(A[x]) = Nil(A)[x]?
Compare coefficients
Well I'm trying to prove that a_0 is nilpotent in order to show a is nilpotent
But the Jacobson radical is contained in the nilradical
I don't know that
Oh
wait do you not know what shi said or what I said lol
it follows immediately from the definition tho?
yes it does
Least not the definitions I've been presented
what shi said is easy to show
Just write the definitions of the jacobson radical and the nilradical
how do you define the jacobson and nilradical radical
nilradical radical
I'm too tired
What Amerika does to someone
nil: set of all nilpotent elements or the intersection of each prime ideal
jacobson: intersection of every maximal ideal (and I know that a is in jacobson iff 1-ay is a unit for every y in the ring)
use proposition 1.8 of Atiyah

wait
I'm waiting :)
so it follows that Nil inside Jacobson
which is not what i'm trying to prove right now :)
Maybe consider y=x
well you'd have to prove it at some point anyways :P
Aren’t you trying to prove that they’re equal
Yeah
Then write out the coefficients of f in f(1-ax)=1
Well
I definitely didn't consider x because I got mixed up by notation
x is pretty important, since the statement isn't true in arbitrary commutative rings
That makes sense
I guess when it comes to textbook problems you often have to use facts about every part of the setup
if that makes sense
Yes
If you’re not using all given assumptions you’re usually wrong
I remember when I took our rings course, we proved some fact about rings and my professor said "it's not true about vector spaces, so you should try multiplying ring elements" or something like that
Which causes problems when they give too many assumptions xd
Yeah this is good to think about
I also once got advice that when you finish a problem, you should try playing with the assumptions and seeing if removing assumptions breaks things
This is a good approach for finding counterexamples
or alternatively if you can't figure one out, try using stricter assumptions and see if you actually need that set of assumptions
Remove one assumption, see where it’s used in the proof, think about which kind of object it could fail for
(obviously if it's a textbook problem, you don't need stricter assumptions)
it was actually even simpler than that
Oh yeah?
Yeah so
because 1 - ax is a unit, if we look at the coefficients we get 1 - a0x - a1x^2 etc
so every a_n is nilpotent
Does that follow from something you've proven already?
It follows from the previous problems
Then it's pretty simple yeah
I have suffered before with skipping textbook problems and then those proofs being used in the following problems
the worst time being when a professor assigned some problems and like the first one assigned used something proved in a problem he didn't assign but it's whateverrrrrrrr
or simply a = 0 because x has no inverse
Guess a=0 would be very nilpotent
Prove it!
Waiting for my gf to finish reading a paper and explaining the math occurring in there
What she reading about?
Social science
bro got the study rizz
Is this proof that a normal subgroup H of a finite group G satisfies aH=Ha for a fixed element a in G valid?
Let $ah\in aH$ be arbitrary. We want to find $h' \in H$ so that $ah=h' a$, or $h=a^{-1}h' a$. Since $H$ is normal, conjugating by $a$ is an injection from $H$ to itself. Because $H$ is finite, this injection must be surjective, and $h'$ exists. The other inclusion follows by symmetry.
person2709505
You don't need finiteness, it's always a surjection because you have an inverse
Try and think what that is
Is $h'$ just $aha^{-1}$?
person2709505
I think it is; not a very big brain moment for me
aha!
Here's a rather specific question, if I have ideals I and J, with I \subset J, what can I say about R/I and R/J?
Is there some sort of nice homomorphism between the two?
Yes
correspondence theorem for one
Third isomorphism theorem
Let me give those a quick lookup
Ok so, I'm seeing that if I subset J, then J/I is an ideal of R/I
and
If I subset J, (R/I)/(J/I) iso (R/J)
I have to remind myself how we define J/I
that is a very non trivial definition
yea fuck it then
iirc it's the quotient category of the homotopy category of chains of some abelian category
https://www.math.utah.edu/~milicic/Eprints/dercat.pdf
If you wanna learn more I recommend this PDF
So just to check, J/I is the set {j + I | j \in J}?
Here's the exact definition
Yes