#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 138 of 1
you have got it enough
I think I'm just not understanding the definition of Krull dimension
it's the longest dude you can make
It's the length of the longest chain of prime ideals
think of the longest dude imaginable. There can be no longer
so A sub B sub C etc. where A, B, C, etc. are prime
it's ascending or descending chains iirc
yeah
it's the number of subs not the number of doodads
bit annoying but w/e it has some geometric justification I'm sure of it
oh look it does
So for an Artinian ring, we're claiming that every prime ideal is maximal, which means that these chains are all length 0
yes
Ahhhhh got it
your rings are commutative right
I should keep working through Atiyah Macdonald
Long way to go before I get to chapter 8 😅
The only rings I'm worried about right now are k[x_1,...,x_n]/I, hence my asking about them earlier
yur ok
I am going to be in study hell this year
It's gonna be very fun
math GRE, actual uni courses, thesis work (feat. going through Atiyah Macdonald), all my other courses, grad svhool apps
Academic. Weapon.
Not to mention all the time partying and attending football games 😉
I'm at a party rn
It's gonna be really fun relearning all of the calculus I've forgotten in the last 2 years
anyways
All I'm worried aobut it my meeting in 15 minutes
Does $L_1 = F(\alpha_1)$?
okeyokay
also why is the polynomial invariant under action by any \sigma in G(L_1/F)? is it because sigma(alpha_2)^n_2 = sigma(alpha_2^n_2) and since alpha_2^n_2 is in L1 sigma(alpha_2^n_2) is in L1, and because the sigma_i in G(L_1, F) are a group the coefficients are the same except for order under action by all elements of G(L_1, F)?
Not necessarily. Depends whether F contains roots of unity.
Seems the action of G(L1/F) just permuts the factors in the product
I have a couple of questions; in the case that the primitive roots of unity are not contained in F, would L1 = F(\alpha_1, \xi) where \xi is a primitive n_1 root of unity?
Is L1 a normal extension of F since it is obviously the splitting field of f_1(x) in F[x], but how do we know that it's separable over F? Is it because x^n_1 - \alpha_1^n_1 is irreducible over F and has all zeros of multiplicity one?
sorry you don't have to answer any of these if you want just wanted to put it out there just in case somebody knew
why? i get that \sigma(\alpha_2)^n_2 \in L1, but why can't it send it to another element of L1 that wasn't a coefficient in the original polynomial
Hence not fixing f_2(x)
I don't follow what you're saying. The polynomial is the product of (x^n - sigma(a^n)). Applying sigma' to this gives (x^n - sigma'sigma(a^n)) which is just another factor in the product
yeah, my question is why it's another factor in the product sorry got my wording mixed up
Because that's what we're taking the product over
Seems like just a convoluted way to say that a group permutes it's elements by left multiplication
yeah I guess so
can someone help me understand the language used in defining the universal property on free groups
i kind of don't understand what "extends to a unique homomorphism" means
side note: i think it means that a unique hom. can be constructed
and then when i read the proof i don't really understand it
can you please explain how we are overcounting by p-1 a little more ? i take it that we are counting, up to isomorphism, the kernels of the p^2-1 homomorphisms
There is a homomorphism extending the given map, and any two such homomorphisms are equal
Extending the given map means that its restriction to the generating set is the given map
to probe at this; does this mean that for a given map f: S -> F(S), f(S) = S by the inclusion?
So you have a map Z^2 -> Z/p. If you compose this with an isomorphism then it has the same kernel. Conversely if two maps f and g both have kernel K, then f induces isomorphism f' : Z^2/K -> Z/p and g induces g' : Z^2 -> Z/p, so f and g are related by the isomorphism g'f'^(-1)
well f(S) = S is obvious, but im asking if this is the so-called "restriction"
So the number of kernels is the number of surjective homomorphisms divided by the number of isomorphisms from Z/p to itself
Yeah the map S → F(S) in the universal property is fixed, and I am abusing notation here by treating it as an inclusion to use the word "restrict". It is a consequence of this universal property that this map must be injective.
The universal property says that given a map g: S → G where G is a group, there is a unique way to "extend" this to a map h: F(S) → G. Again, by "extend", I mean that g = hf, where f is the map S → F(S).
Drawing out the triangle might help
the arrows are the same
it's a good example, maybe if i see it work on this on too then the abstract definition will pop out
No we have f g and h
wow I see how it is
Well, intuitively
F(S) is just words on S with the appropriate reduction of like a a^-1 right?
yeah
So clearly sending each element in S to one in G
Tells you how to send words there
And it’s important that there are no relations on F(S) so it always works
All triangles are triangomorphic to one another
thank you 🙂
You might also have already seen the vector space version of this universal property. Given a set S, the "free vector space generated by S" is the vector space of formal finite linear combinations of elements of S. This has a basis given by the set S itself. The result I am referring to is that a describing a map from F(S) to another vector space V is equivalent to describing just the images of the elements of S, i.e. the restricted map S → V
@hidden haven so which arrows correspond? im guessing (f is to phi), (h is to pi), and (g is to phi_bar)
im sorry, i just don't understand
Also S is G, F(S) is G/ker(phi), G is H
Would be better to draw the entire diagram separately
wew
hgahahaha nice
🤓
dumb question, but does the dotted line represent the "extension" or what
For every g, there is a unique extension h
or the one that is "dependent" on the others, similar to the one for 1st iso
The solid arrows are the hypotheses of the result, the dotted arrow is the one that the result asserts exists
It’s the extension and is dependent
This diagram as it is now does not assert the uniqueness of h
think about a "flag" in a vector space: a point (dim 0 subspace) in a line (dim 1 subspace) in a plane in a ... and then like in the krull dimension definition, the supremum of lengths of a flag is the dimension of the vector space
And the assertion of the result is that the dotted arrow exists such that the triangle commutes, i.e. both ways of going from S to G are the same.
Which is what we mean when we say "h is an extension of g along f"
ahhh I hate phrases like that just draw the triangle you lazy bones
is this what is meant exactly by the term "universal property" ?
Well, you know how every vector space map can be determined by where you map basis elements?
I am captioning the triangle you drew pewpyhead
This is literally the same thing
https://cdn.discordapp.com/attachments/335352580777443338/1130637327979511898/doyfoj858tza1.jpg
you talkin to me with that tone of voice?
actually no, sorry im fairly new to all of this advanced stuff
It’s a property and holds universally
that's not advanced, it's just linear algebra
Did you not do linear algebra?
not yet
ok that explains it
i mean i can multiply two matrices and i know about linear maps a fair bit
why are you doing this before linear algebra
linear algebra is pretty interesting if you approach it from the abstract angle
google "representation theory" nerd
it's just very solved so you don't spend so much time on it
A universal property is something more precise and specific. Giving the exact definition of that would be difficult without going into cat theory, but a universal property is a statement that describes an object (up to isomorphism) by only describing what the maps out of that object look like
Well I doubt the fair bit since basis determining the map is unknown
well that's funny im actually trying to study that eventually
Then study linalg
representation theory is studying maps into vector spaces (usually!) and you didn't think it prudent to learn about vector spaces
we did universal properties kinda in the abstract linear algebra i took
dang im sorry guys😂
like for tensor and wedge products
Anyway, shook, how is F(S) defined
ik what a vector space is but i was under the impression that i needed much more group theory
In this case, the universal property of F(S) describes F(S) based solely on what the maps from F(S) to any group G are like - they are in 1-1 correspondence with set maps S → G, and the correspondence is given by composing with the map f: S → F(S). This characterizes F(S) up to isomorphism
i have no guidance in this stuff
oh yeah I suppose the wedge product does have a universal property
it's just a really lame one
no it has a straightforward one that is just a bit annoying to put in purely categorical language
Which wedge are you talking about?
exterior product
well actually just the exterior algebra of a vector space in general too
Oh the upside down wedge lmao
Damn algebrains
That has a pretty good universal property
Maps out of it correspond to alternating linear maps out of the product
anyway the "linear map determined by where it sends a basis" is very fundamental to linear algebra
so you definitely need a bit more time on that
anticommutative throwback
i have axler's and lang's text (taking linalg in the fall), which treatment do y'all think is more clear for this sort of thing? im an idiot so i know nothing
yeah this is lame
"when u quotient out the thing with the universal property u get the universal property of the quotient + the other one whoohohoho"
true, but that quotient has a particuarly nice doodad with multilinear maps
tf is a doodad
i didn't use a particular book so i'm deferring to others, but i am a bit inclined towards axler
okay thanks for the advice everyone, i will study some linalg
whatever u want bby
But uhh, F(S) is just words in S (and inverses) with concatenation
So if you map S then clearly you map the inverses and words
By f(ab) = f(a)f(b)
so that defines a map to G that’s a group homomorphism right?
burrrppp
And it’s gonna be the only one that agrees with your original mapping of S
Since it’s just extending the original map by the group homomorphism property that f(ab)=f(a)f(b)
one more thing; does anyone mind giving me a very brief outline on the topics in lin alg i would need for rep thry, idk where to start honestly
Start with linear algebra
i know vectors spaces and some very basic things about linear maps
yeah but like what next
just go through an entire lin alg course
lin alg, group theory, comm alg, rep theory
you'll need all of it
algebra as in groups rings modules
Worry about the rest later, might even be covered partially in a lin alg course what to do next
depends on what type of rep theory you want to do btw
sorry for the typos I'm intoxicated
your lin alg should be solid
They should make representation theory 2 with less group actions
they're types?
no matter what you end up doing
*fewer
finite group and infinite group rep theory are very different
britchip
not to mention shit like quiver reps
there are only finite groups
Ok Wittgenstein
did wittgenstein talk about infinity
okay finite rep it is
ayo what about the best group U(1)
or.... [checks the room for cameras].... the uhhh.... [no feds outside the window]..... modular reps....
seems like too much metaphysics for him
1x1 unitary matrices?😅
Yes 
Conjectural category of mixed motives
i.e. the unit complex numbers
S^1 has lots of torsion tf you mean Z
aren't they the same
I remember teasing him saying something dumb but I do not care about philosophy
An infinite group
Z is dog water
i thought the fundamental group of S^1 is the integers
Maybe shook means that they are the same in that they don't exist
well, yeah
but S^1 is a group?
S^1 is the group
oh my golly gosh le wholesome K(Z, 1) oh my goodness gracious
yeah im too dumb for this, i will come back when im smarter
Must be the same if they exist (principle of explosion
)
Falso truther


R is commutative ring with 1
I and J are ideals of R
image phi R - > R/I x R/J is defined as phi(r) = (r+I, r+J)
Is phi surjective?
I do remember a rather simple type theoretic presentation for \omega-categories (in the sense of contractible globular operad algebras)
often no, take R = Z and I = J = (2), then (0,1) isn't in the image
Ok you
me, but I mean it’s way simpler to see that than “contractible globular operad algebra”
phi is an isomorphism if I \cap J = (0) and I + J = (1) by the chinese remainder theorem
How tf did you reach globular operad algebras from what we were discussing 
Idk 
so its isomorphism when I+J=R ?
Imagine an operad globular set
AND I and J have trivial (i.e. the zero ideal) intersection
idk about "only if"
I forget the exact definition setup though unfortunately
Is there is a simplicial or cubical version 
Oh it is an operad over gSet?
What do you mean apply the definition of an operad to a category 
Its got some wacky composition stuff
Only interpretation I can think of is that it would be an operad that acts on objects of that cat
I mean, take an operad in set, but make it globular sets in there instead
Yeah I think that's an operad over gSet lol
Yeah, I forget the exact setup unfortunately
You can define an operad over any closed symmetric monoidal cat
That’s probably equivalent to the way it was described in terms of like the explicit set way
Probably
And contractible meant if we had some pasting diagram in there with parallel top arrows or smth (since globular setup) then you can fill it in
I see
f, g: •=>• thing
Ye
Then we can get a f->g lying over it
Got it
In like P(•=>•) or smth
Where P is the operad
So when we take an algebra over the operad that leads to composition iirc

There’s some boundary condition on like
The top boundary & bottom boundary have to be compatible
But •->•->• has two “parallel” 0-cells
Something like that
Look homie it’s been a while since I read it 
Lol
But the algebra needn’t be nonempty on all of them and that’s why it’s not a groupoid necessarily
I stopped following around 10 messages ago 
But uhh concretely
If there’s a pasting diagram
You can paste em
gg
(As in you get a pasted one in the operad)
So the algebra will get it and behave nicely because algebra definition
Ok 
This is just the monad for an operad construction
It’s probably “just” something categorical ofc
Ofc 
It’s an algebra for a monad based on P
And if P is contractible then it’s an \omega category because everything that should be coherent is guaranteed to be because of the contractibility condition on how things lift to pasting diagram coherators
Which ends up giving you identity and such terms too
Here it was
And T1 being all the pasting diagrams, so any pasting diagram that can exist in P will exist
Don't know omega-cats 
It’s just one of the infinity category variations
But these are globular-y, as opposed to, say, quasicategories as simplical sets with the horn filler condition things
hm interested what the advantages of other "shapes" are
(Though that’s (\infty, 1) iirc, I don’t believe these \omega categories have that all higher cells are trivial?)
Uhhh opetopes have some “unbiased” composition kinds of benefits and simultaneously describe more uhh complex composition types at once
Like think how you can glue two homotopies together in different ways based on like, f=>f’ and g=>g’ to get gf => g’f’ versus f=>g=>h to get f=>h
Sure
And in composing as binary vs ternary vs quarternary etc operations and being compatible with the relevant associativity coherences
So not just the two ways to get (fg)h and f(gh) but also immediately composing fgh
(All homotopic yada yada what have you)
Probably also useful in the differences of how the maps and such in the shape category work out combinatorially? Combinatorics has some black magic
Globular are particularly simple
Since they’re like
“Yep, you have two maps, source and target, and the source of source = source of target, and t o s = t o t”
think uhh f, g: A -> B and h: f -> g
(These are maps of the globular set not the globes themselves, since those are reversed)
Important to note though is we can take like globular nerves of topological spaces and do realizations but gSet doesn’t have the right structure for that adjunction to be good for homotopy theory (not a test category so no Quillin equivalence @south patrol, I do not know about cubes or opetopes in this area though)
sick, thank you checkin it out
Ye quasicats are also infty,1
I am unsure if these \omega cats are infty, 1, but they’re at least that powerful, probably described somewhere in that text I can dig up
Ye when I looked at nlab the globe cat was described as one of the shapes for higher structures
and another page described shapes for higher structures as cats on which the presheaves model infty,1 cats
Might be misremembering though
Probably pretty similar anyhow
I don't know why these two equalities hold. What happened here?
this circle dot-thing is an operation
Consider how it is defined
Yes
ah okay then! for the rank-n free group G, if S is a generating set of cardinality n, how do we know it's a free basis too?
it generates the free group?
that it does, i feel like we need to show the univ property holds
well, if G satisfies the universal property, then like
S->a free basis for G
which I assume you know exists?
otherwise I question how you know it's rank n 
@median pawn
rank n just means that there's a generating set with n elements, not a free generating set necessarily
"rank-n free"
I think you are misinterpreting the problem. S is given to be a generating set, not a free generating set. The problem asks to prove that a generating set that has the cardinality of a free generating set must be free.
right, I'm saying if you know a free generating set of that cardinality exists
S -> that set
So?
then we get generating->S -> G
lemme draw it rq
ok
you most likely need an automorphism that sends S to the given free basis
To say that S → G satisfies the universal property of the free group
The map S → G is fixed
So if I understand great sharp, we have S' < F(S). So we can define a map F(S) -> F(S) by mapping S to S'. Since S' is a generating set, this is surjective, hence it splits. Now the problem is that the splitting doesn't a priori have to map S' to S...
it splits?
Well if we have that the free group has no nontrivial relations that kills kernels
Right, but that's just the statement we're trying to prove
Yeah, just map S to it's preimage
right right makes sense
this makes a right split exact sequence 0 -> ker -> F(S) -> F(S') -> 0 which doesn't mean it splits, no?
The map splits. Which gives you a semidirect product
The kernel will probably not split no
oh i see
it's fixed but is it the inclusion necessarily?
I mean obviously injective but I mean
Yes, a generating subset means that it is in particular a subset
bijective inverse seems to satisfy a fixed map there
i don't know how to do anything with free groups except via bouquets of circles
I found a comment on MSE that said this was a well known theorem without giving any reference
I'm a bit lost how did we prove the thing 
ah okay i'm not so lost then
It might just be some annoying symbolic work with induction
Found MSE
tbh I'd honestly just like
That's a fucked up proof
not care about this theorem
How is this an exercise
Unless you are doing some combinatorial group theory
I am sure that makes this easier
I'd just say S <-> free basis -> G is a fixed injection and satisfies the universal property
This is essentially the statement that finitely generated free groups are Hopfian.
do i need to have studied finite group theory???
Then you are just proving that a free bases is a free basis 
By that logic any subset of cardinality n is a free basis 
Doesn't even need to generate G 
true L
where's the falso person

i didn't read it
Can I just say
Oh yeah chief, F(basis) ~= G, and words satisfy no nontrivial relations because they are systematically reduced to get rid of a a^-1 looking pairs, then each s_i of S is represented by a word and since they generate G every word can be made from them: in particular, each e_i of the basis. So if some s_j = T for some word in (s_i) nontrivially, but since the e_i can be generated in terms of the s_i we must have s_j appear in at least one e_i (as it is clearly impossible to get n free generator terms from n-1 generators) then that means there will be a nontrivial relation among the e_i basis, which cannot happen?
the "clearly impossible" meaning we can't just throw out s_j and still cover the e_i since if <S-s_j> is the whole group still, that poses an issue when doing e_i |-> s_i, but e_j |-> anything else in <S-s_j>-S, since that's never iso because nontrivial kernel involving e_j
definitely surjective because it hits all generators
Can you conclude that s_j = T, just from a nontrivial relation existing?
Moving away from free groups you could have a^2 = b^2 without either a or b being multiples of each other.
Could someone explain what the shift action means here? I know wreath products in a slightly more particular context, i.e., when the first group is the direct product of G taken n times, and H is a subgroup of the symmetric group S_n on n letters
Then the action of H on the direct product is obvious, it shuffles the coordinates in the same way that it shuffles {1,2,...,n}
Ah do we just send the h^th coordinate under the action of x in H to the xh^th coordinate?
That's the obvious choice for me, it's a bijection too
what do you mean?
Well this is just an incorrect definition
Let me describe the correct one.
Let $G$ be a group, let $X$ be a $G$-set, and let $H$ be a group.
The wreath product $H \wr G$, where the $G$-set $X$ is implicit, is the semidirect product $H^X \rtimes_\phi G$ where given $g \in G$ and $f \in H^X$ we define $\phi(g)(f)(x) = f(g \cdot x)$.
Borty
So in particular note that we can do this for any group action of G.
shift as in shifting indices, so the action you described seems alright
It's typical to see wreath products such as $C_2 \wr S_n$, which is the group of so-called `signed permutations'. These are permutations paired with $n$-tuples of entries in $C_2$, where $S_n$ acts on these $n$-tuples by the permutation action!
Borty
the definition of Borty seems more general but idk how the other is "incorrect" lol
Guess one could distinguish between a wreath product and the wreath product.
It's incorrect because it only describes one particular wreath product.
That's like saying "A group is something that looks like Z/nZ"
This definition is incorrect despite Z/nZ being a group.
Maybe so
Wikipedia seems to call it the regular wreath product
Yes, hence it being incorrect
Because regular representation I guess
it's not incorrect, it's a special case
I know how to read thank you
It is incorrect to say that it is the definition of a wreath product.
Sometimes people use slightly different definitions, and that's okay
yeah
also you can't compare definitions that don't involve the same objects to begin with
if you're not specifying the data of a specific G-set, it makes sense that the definition he sent would be a natural one
it's saying "if you don't specify the action, here's the one we're using"
nothing inherently incorrect imo
same thought
This conversation is very silly in my opinion, but I will repeat that when people refer to e.g. the Coxeter group C_2 \wr S_n, they are not referring to the definition that your book gives.
ahh, i see it now, thanks
:)
more eye-opening than silly really
wouldnt the permutation action be exactly the action described in his definition
No. The group described there would have $2^{n!}\cdot n!$ elements, whereas in reality $C_2 \wr S_n$ has $2^n \cdot n!$.
Borty
you said "S_n acts on these n-tuples by the permutation action" how is that different than the "shifting" action
The shift action of S_n on C_2^{S_n} is very different from that of S_n on C_2^n
I don't know how else to explain that
oh right. so my point is even more true
there's a G-set here being acted on that isn't specified in his definition
lol
Why are we still talking about this as if this hasn't been solved?
because I can and you're free to leave the conversation
calm down y'all
yeah it's all fine
If you have any questions about clarifying the definition hausdorff, feel free to ask here
the definition is clear to me! thank you
Well yeah, you’d have at least one thing in the word, so T = s_i T’ = eor s_i^-1 T’ = e, either flip it or flip T and boom s_i = expression in s_i’s, and in this case we could have a = b^2 a^-1 yes, but not for the e_i since we can map them to groups where this doesn’t occur
Right, but s_j can apear in T, so then I'm not sure I follow your argument
It can indeed
So then we can't conclude anything about <S - sj>
It clearly can’t be written in terms of just the s_i otherwise you’d have n-1 generating n things, but it’s sufficient to know that S has a relation involving s_j, so S-s_j does not and will critically require s_j in order to remain generating for all G
*n free things
T must include s_j or s_j ^-1 in it somewhere
But by assumption we can’t pair things off and reduce them
So by carrying this along and that you cannot maintain independence, we can arrive at <S-s_j> is not allowed to be iso to G under swapping e_i to s_i and e_j to anything else
Because it would satisfy a nontrivial relation by virtue of being in the span of the other n-1 elements
I still don't quite get this.
Like I agree <S - s_j> cannot be the whole group, but how does that tell us that S is a basis?
So, it needs s_j, and <S> covers the e_i basis
Since well it covers everything ofc
We can get e_i = word in S
What do you mean by covers?
As in basis \subset <S>
Generated by oop
We cannot generate it with S-s_j since earlier argument about lack of n independent points, so at least one e_j has s_j in the word
Sure sure
e_j = nontrivial expression involving other e_i is the next goal
Yeah, if we can get there that would do it
We can take the s_j term in the e_j expression and it expand it out
Expand in e_is you mean?
No, particularly in e_j because it’s the one depending most definitely on s_j
e_j = word in s_i looking like t s_j t’
Now = t T t’
Sure sure
These can all be expanded out in terms of the e_i
Indeed
Since obviously those generate it 
But then we're just back to square one right
This implies T is trivial in terms of e_i and would amount to e_j
But it’s nontrivial in terms of S
Yeah tTt' simplifies to just e_j
And every e_i can be rewritten in terms of them
This however implies if we take e_j and expand out s_j -> T however many times, rewrite in terms of e_i, then rewrite in terms of s_i
We can reduce it
Well taking the [e_j in terms of S] ofc we can or else we have an issue
And any word in G can be written as a word in s
So we just kinda take G -> <S> -> G -> <S> sort of back and forth
And even if we expanded out s_j into T arbitrarily many times, it’s been reduced to a word in terms of S (pre-expansion) by reducing only the a a^-1 = e type pairs
Which I think should be an issue if T is not reducible by pairing
I don't really see the issue, but maybe it could work
Maybe you sort of end up recreating the part of the MSE proof where you map to a finite group
It’s pretty much just using these rewrite rules and thereby reducing the T that shouldn’t be reducible
By virtue of being a nontrivial relation
Or uhh, maybe we could argue no such relation exists among the e_i then the f: G -> <S> from e_i = s_i would satisfy f(e_j) = T a nontrivial relation, but e_i don’t have this, so f (f^-1(T) e_j) = e and nontrivial kernel so not iso
Ye
Or more precisely what splitting, the one where we take some appropriate writing of T in terms of s_i
And then saying it’s that same corresponding indices order for the e_i in a s_i ~> e_i rewrite
Which is fine to consider if it’s an isomorphism
But that’s problematic since kernel
And this is probably a way more effective form of my argument (and might actually work if you don’t think my rewriting reduction one does Dr 2808
)
That implies 1 of two things
It’s reducible by pairing (it’s not) or f is not an isomorphism
But we want to prove that f is an isomorphism
And if no such relation exists, then we do have an isomorphism
Sure, but are we any closer to showing that such a relation can't exist?
Idk I feel like the rewriting works but im also recently waking up
Pea brained as usual
Idk, there's lots of complicated rewriting we're doing here. It's hard to keep it all in mind at the same time
It at the very least will get our s_j -> T expanded thing back into another thing without it by just using e_i = [chosen word in s_i] and s_i = the word in e_i and the pairings
So it won’t be any nontrivial relations
But it’s reducible to a trivial one?
Might be instead better to look at f: <S> -> G by s_i to e_i and showing this has trivial kernel idk
The fact that it’s a trivial relation in terms of e_i isn’t anything because lmao free basis, but we can then rewrite e_i = word in terms of S, so that gets it trivialized in terms of S
How do you know such a map exists?
Well, obviously S -> G defined by s_i to e_i is a function
If you had such a map we would be done
does anyone have an idea to make p-sylow groups from s_{p^k}?
and we know we can write e_i e_k = f(s_i s_k)
i know how to do this with s_4, but s_8 is just wrong
Why do we know that, isn't that what we want to prove?
Well pairing things off isn’t an issue unless like s_i = s_k^-1
Sure, but for more complicated expressions
I’m thinking like kinda just m a k i n g the thing, but this is obviously way inconvenient
Wikipedia lists a construction
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Symmetric_group#:~:text=In general%2C the Sylow p,base p expansion of n).
i'll check it thanks
Idea: taking S -> X a map into a group, if it makes sense maybe we could do something like e_i as words in S and hoping that works
@rocky cloak https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nielsen_transformation
There’s these things which are pretty related 
In mathematics, especially in the area of abstract algebra known as combinatorial group theory, Nielsen transformations, named after Jakob Nielsen, are certain automorphisms of a free group which are a non-commutative analogue of row reduction and one of the main tools used in studying free groups, (Fine, Rosenberger & Stille 1995). They were in...
And using this to get S -> basis
Seems maybe you consider S4xS4 inside S8, then take the sylow subgroups inside S4 and a permutation that swaps the two (like (15)(26)(37)(48))
sorry i am just mega confused right now
Yeah, seems you can probably do it like this somehow then. But I don't know if I'll be able to wrap my head around it
Why is that?
Alright I'll try to explain why I am so confused 😅
Suppose G is a group with o(G) = p^k * m, then we can create a subgroup of order p^k, right?
it is called a p-subgroup ?
It's called a sylow p-subgroup yes
Alright, so if I want to create a 2-Subgroup from say S_4, it would have 2^3 = 8 elements, since o(s-4) = 1.2.3.4 = 2^3 . 3
Yes
Yes
And in my book we have a subgroup of order 4 since the elements are 4
I am refering to this:
So they claim that the 2-Sylow subgroup is generated by (13)(24), but how is it that T can be the p-sylow subgroup?
They are saying the group generated by (13)(24) and T, so this should have 2*4 elements
The way that’s written I say isn’t the best
but where is the identity element then?
Where it is? What do you mean?
(13)(24) * {(12),(34), (12)(34),e} = {(
I am trying to figure out
How it is generated by (13)(24) and T
I just figured you have to multiply them
Well for one e is literally in T
But I am wrong hahah
You just consider the smallesr subgroup that contain both
And yes you are wrong
That empty product is exactly the identity, just in case
I have never seen something being generated by two sets
It's exactly the same as being generated by some elements
It just mean generated by the elements in the set
Ye
Oh okay
If it’s generated by S, T then it’s generated by S u T
So for example if something is generated by (12) and (23) it should be {e, (12),(23),(12)(23),(23)(12)} ?
Is that S union T?
if S = (12), T = (23)?
Alright haha
It’s arbitrary finite products, so that’s not just pairs
yes yes
But for a more complicated case:
T= {e, (12), (23)}, S = (45)
Then T u S would be:
{e, (45)e, (45)(12),(45)(12), (23)((45)), (45)(23), [ALL COMBINATIONS OF 45 AND T), (12), (23)}?
bad question
why does R being noetherina imply Mat_n(R) noetherian?
i know how ideals in Mat_n(R) look like
wait
let I_1 < I_2 ... be a chain in Mat_n(R) , each is of the form Mat_n(J_i) where J is an ideal of R , these J_is form a chain , so there exist a k such that J_k = J_n for al n>=k
so the Mat_n(of those) are equal and then the chain in Mat stablizies?
is this right?
I seem to remember that n | |G| need not imply we can construct a subgroup of order n, is the sylow n-subgroup one of the cases where we can?
Sylow theorems time let’s goooo
n a prime number?
any1
Maybe prove that claim ABT the ideals of M_n
yea i can do that
But yeah Ur reasoning works
Solomon Friedberg
The first Sylow theorem shows you can (note that n has to be a prime)
Wack
THANK YOU
Noetherianess is usually framed in terms of left or right ideals, but you're looking at two-sided ideals.
One way to see that it's Noetherian is that it's finitely generated as an R-module, and ideals are in particular R-submodules.
wait this doesnt work if R is noncommutative right
all rings are commutative
and yea that classification of ideals in Mat_n is not true for like left ideals as u pointed out
last time
how many there are
oh
every p-sylow subgroup is isomorphic to each other?
so then the numbers of p-sylow groups would be 5 or 5*5?
in this case ?
Refer to third Sylow theorem
Well that's not the only option?
What if the subgroup is normal?
The number of 5-subgroups is more simple
yo quick q
I'm confused in what sense a subset S can generate a normal subgroup N of G
like I understand how it can generate A subgroup by generating up to closure, but why normal
- wth does this mean
well yeah
but how is that subgroup 'generated' by the subset
So, you can also define <S> as the smallest subgroup containing S
Consider a similar definition by “smallest normal subgroup N containing S”
ohhh and then you can define a subgroup N by including all conjugates
thereby generating a normal subgroup
Or, intersecting normal subgroups containing it
So R script is the smallest normal subgroup containing R
worst formulation of the 3rd sylow theorem
yeah that's a bit wank
just say like,
for |G| = p^e * m, then the number of Sylow p-subgroups divides m and is congruent to 1 mod p
surely
ohhh nvm i get it now
thiz
This is essentially just saying the largest group possible on the generators where the relations all hold
yeah it's saying that largest group possible is that quotient group
yh got it
Curious question: if n = p^k m, is it true that for any t that divides m for which t = 1 mod p there exists a group of order n with t sylow p groups?
@wraith cargo You're right, and k = 0 can also be true
But how do you know if a P-Sylow subgroup is normal?
What is the action here, and are there more restrictions on m other than congruent to 1 mod p?
p-sylow subgroups are conjugate with one another
if it is unique, naturally conjugation will just map to itself
i.e. it is normal
ouu ur right
I'm picturing C_{p^k} as Z/p^kZ and C_m as some subgroup of (Z/p^kZ)^{\times}
but is this only true if the p-sylow group is unique? meaning there is only one p-sylow group?
true, perhaps we would have to take some m' such that m' has m divisors and then just direct product them?
yes
wait
hang on
but at that point we're well outside the scope of what you're asking
i think so?
If you had multiple and it’s abelian then uh I am idiot as per usual
They’d all be normal
A sylow subgroup is normal if and only if it's unique
ok yeah
alright then
cuz they're conjugate with one another
yeah
so if you have 2 p-Sylow subgroups H_1 and H_2, then there will be a g s.t. gH_1g^-1=H_2
hence not normal
sylow B-subgroup
I found a paper stating that there are no finite groups with 22 sylow 3 subgroups (among some other examples)
that's such a disgusting result I hate it
but in like
a good way
ew
And none with 1+3p sylow p groups when p>7
why does group theory have so many vile results like that like bro
ok that's a bit nicer
I imagine very little is known about the p = 2 case?
What in the world kind of vile methodology can accomplish such unholy results
the most ugliest mathematic
using the tensor product for direct product of groups
so based
This is one of the most cursed results I’ve ever seen
Seems like a lot of reductions through normal subgroups etc until you reduce down to simple groups
Then some black magic
Apparently any odd number of subgroups works though
lets think about that
ok I've thought of examples for 1,3, and 5 so I believe it (C_2, S_3, SL(2,5))
And numbers which work play nicely with multiplication 
yeah that's the first thing the paper says and is kinda obvious
Still it’s a lot of things packed into this introduction
And many are cursed, like 1+3p, p >= 7
I mean there’s more cursed looking results, but this is a very cursed result in how it all was
this result comes to mind
what the fuck is going on here
it's like how every graph is planar unless it contains either K_5, B_3,3 but with some literally who group
it's probably very similar to this result
"oh this doesn't always work? but what's the simplest case?"
Forget proving it, who designed this theorem statement
"oh look, everything that doesn't work contains this case!"
I assume all the things there make sense and are well known (I don’t but I’m dumb), but like
It looks awful
Generally finding the number of Sylow p-subgroups is definitely not a trivial problem
My algebra prof gave us some really vile Sylow problems to do
Tho usually you can do some stuff with group actions to find out the number as well
Like we had a problem to show that an arbitrary group of order 36 isn't simple and the way to do it was to show that the action of the group on Syl_3(G) had non trivial kernel which then gives you enough info to show that the number of subgroups isn't 1
Oh no
Ok so yeah this is spaghetti 
I LOVE GROUP THEORY
yeah J(P) is the group generated by all maximal abelian groups of P
so it's a little bit of a mess
But what is P 
haven't done anything with group actions yet
and it doesn't work for p = 2
holy shit this is such jank
some p-group
but i am excited when i will be exploring that chapter!!!
Sylow p-subgroup of some G specifically
I hate it thanks
that result is immediately followed by this one
now this result is actually cool
What is F_P
Ok that’s still French
do not call me french
What paper is this???
Idk how to interpret F, but this it looks useful?
Wew you always know how to make a drool OwO
it's the only known (and is probably the only) family of "exotic" fusion systems over a 2-group
Interesting
called the solomon fusion systems after Dr. Fusion Systems
yeah it's all vile
But finite ones have all these wacky factorization things
wdym
Like prime numbers and counting subgroups and all
Probably have some related infinite cardinality cursed results in infinite groups but that’s gonna have nasty consequences
oh right yeah
I don't really know what's going on in the infiniosphere but there's probably some awful nonsense up there too
oh my
being able to kinda comprehend these papers makes me feel so smort holy shit
😭
Well it’s hard to have subgroups such that |subgroup| < |group| lmao
But in the vein of these sylow results uhh you’d possibly have some cursed cofinality adjacent results
Not so simple consequences of the finite simple group revolution
wow they actually wrote proofs for this stuff back in the day?
I stg the finite simple groups are like, the law of small numbers or something
but for groups
there's a pervasive weirdness "around" 0 that permeates through all of mathematics
I feel like that’s less “things near 0 weird”
More “big things made from small things” type of a lot of math
and I guess kinda there's a lot of possible values of big
not a lotta values of small
yeah that's true
True the monster is pretty big
fuckin 1 kajillion dimensional group representation
Giant products of the monster group and wacky things
I can give you a 1 dimensional group rep of the monster
0 
1
i want to take a break from commutative algebra and start a bit of algebraic geometry, can i do that without being 100% comfortable in commutative algebra? in terms of algebra progress i'm up to the proof of the nullstellensatz using noether normalization
Have you done dimension theory for fg integral k-algebras?
not yet, would you suggest I do that first?
If yes, then go learn (or just learn the statement of) Krull’s Hauptidealsatz
Yes
Do those then start AG
noted, thanks for the recommendation!
I’m too small brain to understand this joke, 0 can’t be in the image of a representation so that’s clearly not the joke right
If you have Noether Normalization and the Cohen Seidenberg theorems (going up / going down) this follows easily
yeah i've done integral extensions too
I guess also learn going up and going down if you don’t know them
This is needed to justify a lot of dimension theory in classical AG
The Hauptidealsatz is literally the statement “a hypersurface is cutout by one equation” but algebraic
Once you have this you can do a good bit of AG, and then you’ll probably appreciate commutative algebra more once you see t being used
And if you hit a point where you algebraic knowledge is lacking, you’ll be much more motivated to learn commutative algebra
fantastic, thanks a lot for the recommendations!
Are you using AM for comm alg?
yep, a mix of atiyah-macdonald and steps in commutative algebra by sharp
Got it. I don’t know AM as well, but look for a section which says dim A = tr. deg Frac(A)
And learn that stuff, it should also prove stuff like dim A/p + dim A_p = dim A
For integral domains fg over a field
And then I believe the last section of the book does the Hauptidealsatz via the Samuel function / Hilbert function
noted, i've done transcendence degrees too, nice to see dimension stuff seems to use a lot of previous material
Idk if other books do this but I know hartshorne cites results that are more obscure than what's in atiyah macdonald
You can just blackbox them for the most part
And they show up either deep in the book, or in chapter 1
You can learn almost all of chapter II with less than all of AM
Ig true
I know hartshorne used some obscure result thats in Matsumura in ch II
Tho he lists all the CA results he uses
Okay true
I mean they aren’t too obscure, but they will be for your first pass I guess
II.8 has stuff about differentials, but those proofs are actually easy
The differential appendix in Eisenbud nearly ended me lol
And then he uses Japaneseness of fields when he uses that the integral closure of a fg k-algebra is finite
But just black box that
And Chapter I has the Cohen Structure Theorem you should also blackbox lol
I mean, you should learn it, it’s awesome
That's a good one
I know Eisenbud covers it relatively early on
But not on your first pass
Huh
It’s at the end of Matsumura CA
But i guess it doesn’t have to be
He does it like ch. 7
There’s a lot of ways to get the theorem
And his book has 21 chapters
I like a very general way, so I think it’s very very advanced
I mean Eisenbud proves it in the context of completions
How does he establish the existence of a coefficient field?
And does he handle the mixed characteristic case then?
I haven't read the whole chapter yet I'm still in the weeds of it
He just mentions the theorem at the start of the chapter and talks Abt how the theorem also gives rise to Witt vectors in certain cases but I think he mentions that he'll just assume existence of the coefficient field in the proof? (I don't have the book on me I'd need to read that passage again to see exactly what he says)
Oh lmfao
Establishing the coefficient field is the hard part
Once you have that the argument is simple, I can sketch it rn
When you have a coefficient field, which is a k < A such that the projection map A -> A/m = k is an isomorphism, you get that A = m + k as a module
Let m have generators x1,…,xn, and take a in A
Oh no he proves it lol
Write A = a_11x_1 + … + a_1nx_n + b_0 where b_i in k, a_ij in A
Oh okay
Well, the proof is almost done, iteratively keep writing each a_ij in this way
Then you get a power series in the x_i with coefficients in k
Completeness says it converges, giving your surjection k[[X1,…,Xn]] -> A
I like how short Eisenbuds proof is lol
It’s an iso when A is regular because if it had a kernel then the x_i have a dependence contradicting regularity
How does he establish the coefficient field?
I didn't know you're a racist
Bruh
Don’t even get me started on this dude
Calling that name racist fucking pisses me off, as a half-Japanese person
I have trauma from a twitter thread about this shit
He proves this
Lmfao, so he deals with differential bases oog
NGL this ch of Eisenbud is actually one of the hardest things I've ever read
Completions are so fucked
Yeah
He sorta assume you know what you're doing with them?
Which was like whaaaa for me
Yeah it’s tough field theory
Matsumura combines that with generalities on formal smoothness
Every CA book falls into two categories
(1) Nice reads, covers enough to be useful
(2) They will make you feel like worthless scum and you'll know so much after you've read them that youll be a walking encyclopedia of CA knowledge
Me after reading Matsumura
I took a break from Eisenbud to read some homological algebra
To understand his last few chapters that assume knowhow of that
I have yet to see (1)
is it really enough to have that gs = tg condition at the end? doesn't that only get you gS is contained in Sg?
you're correct that it isn't enough, there's an example here which shows that the weaker condition can get you a bigger subgroup.
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/401592/normal-subgroup-if-conjugate-subgroup-is-subset
for $G=\mathrm{GL}_2(\mathbb Q)$, you have a subgroup
$$H=\left{\begin{bmatrix}1 & n\ 0 & 1\end{bmatrix} \mid n\in \mathbb Z \right}$$
which when conjugated by
$$g=\begin{bmatrix}2 & 0 \ 0 & 1\end{bmatrix}$$
you get the strict subgroup
$$gHg^{-1} = \left{\begin{bmatrix}1 & 2n\ 0 & 1\end{bmatrix} \mid n\in \mathbb Z \right},$$
so you have $gHg^{-1} \subseteq H$, but not $gHg^{-1} = H$. We should then say that $g\not\in N_G(H)$, we need there to be actual equality to say that $g$ normalizes $H$.
thejoesully
oh lol is this on nlab?
ah yep, that's a good counterexample
yeah
was pulling my hair out trying to check it lol. i found some other resources online that have similarly flawed defs
yeah I was trying to prove it for a bit too
it seems like one of those true things
then I gave up and stack exchanged it
i have a vague memory of something similar being actually true for checking normality too, which made me think it might betrue here
like can't you say H is normal in G if gHg' is a subset of H or something?
yep that's right
if you know for all g, then you can plug in g^{-1} to get the reverse inclusion
ah right
man i've forgotten a bunchof algebra lol. for some reason it's one of those topics that never sticks for me
there's just too much math to remember
What makes his notes so good?
I like Gathmann’s notes too, I like that they have good geometric motivation and are very gentle.
I think they're maybe a bit lacking on exercises?
for example the "going-up" and "going-down" theorems are motivated geometrically by what they say about finite maps between varieties/schemes
that being said it looks like atiyah-macdonald still has this, it's just reserved for exercises. If you are well-motivated or have a course to help give structure then Atiyah Macdonald might be slightly more enriching? I found it a little too tough to start out with
how do you draw the conclusion that if at least 1 5-Sylow subgroup or 3-Sylow subgroup must be normal, then every 3-Sylow and 5-Sylow Subgroup must be normal?
Refering to b:
Is it since o(G) = 30 = 5.2.3, then there must be 3 Sylow subgroups, hence the product must be closed in G. But if not every 3-Sylow or 5-Sylow group is then it is not closed, hence closed => every 3 and 5 Sylow subgroup must be normal in G?
Note that if a sylow p-subgroup is normal, it is unique
Since all sylow p-subgroups are conjugate
Just to clear up the « there must be 3 » misconception
yes, but in the case where the 3-Sylow group isn't unique, then it can have at most 2 subgroups. then the elements in that group would be at least 2.3 + 5.1 < 30, so it works?
Do a counting argument for a)
That’s the idea yeah, if it’s not unique G will have too many elements
Show that there isn't enough space for them to not be normal
Not sure I got this though
Oh wait sorry you’re doing b)
Mb
Ur number of possible 3 Sylow subgroups is wrong
i calculated that if it is not normal, then the 3-Sylow subgroups would have to be 2. Then I calculated that 5 had to be normal, and the elements is less than 30, which is not a contradiction
I was thinking like irony incarnate
Yeah you either have 1 or 10 sylow 3 subgroups and 1 or 6 5 subgroups
2 is not = 1 mod 3
you are right
m ybad
oh okay then it works
since the elements would be less than 30 if they are normal, and if not we would get a contradiction
well thanks
do you guys have a good paper on group actions? my book doesn't really cover that
Could you elaborate your argument ?
Haven’t done sylow stuff in a bit
Sure
I just look at the cases when they are not normal:
If 3-Sylow subgroup is not normal, and 5-Sylow subgroup is normal:
3 . 10 + 1 . 5 > 30, hence contradiction
If 3-Sylow subgroup isnormal, and 5-Sylow subgroup is not normal:
3 . 1 + 5 . 5 > 30, hence contradiction
If 3-Sylow subgroup is not normal, and 5-Sylow subgroup is not normal:
3 . 10 + 5 . 5 > 30, hence contradiction
where o(G) = 30
You don’t have 3*10
That would be counting the identity multiple times
You can only guarantee 25 elements in the first scenario
Or ig 26 including order 2
Second scenario also doesn’t work
1 + 3*k divides 30, then k = 0 or k = 3, so there must be 1 or 10 3-Sylow subgroups
or am i thinking wrong?
oh right
No I don’t think part b will just be a counting argument
damn
Okay I’ve got one case
Let P be a sylow 3 subgroup and Q a sylow 5 subgroup and suppose Q is normal
Then PQ is iso to Z/15Z so that P is normal in PQ and thus Q < N_G(P). Thus |G:N_G(P)|<=2 => n_3 = 1
As a matter of fact this also covers the other case
All groups of order 15 are cyclic
It’s of the form pq with p not dividiving q-1 (p<q)
ie reapply sylow
alright alright
i'll try to remember that haha
but speaking of subgroups of order 15
look at (c)
hahah
Aight I originally came to ask a question so here it is: I’m asked to prove that any integral domain for which every ideal is a finite product of prime ideals must be dedekind but it always feels im missing something in my attempts
Just want to make sure that the statement is correct and that uniqueness was not forgotten
A Dedekind domain is an integral domain in which every nonzero proper ideal factors into a product of prime ideals. It can be shown that such a factorization is then necessarily unique
-Wikipedia
Aight okay I’ll keep giving it a go then
It’s the whole primes possibly being contained in one another I can’t get rid of
So I guess you're trying to prove the uniqueness part?
No not necessarily
Trying to get something of dimension 1 and then localizing should do the trick
So what's your definition of Dedekind domain?
This is an exercise with a bunch of equivalent defs I gotta prove. The only things I’ve proven so far are
1.Noetherian domain which is locally a DVR
2.Noetherian domain which is integrally closer and of dimension 1
3.Domain in which all prime ideals are invertible
It feels like proving the last one would be easiest
Okay, so you're trying to prove that factorization of ideals implies one of these?
Yeah
I think I’ve got something for this
Nvm something goes wrong
I managed to find a proof online, but it's actually pretty tricky.
It goes by showing that every invertible prime is maximal, and that any principal ideal can be factored into invertible primes.
Then you can prove that any prime is maximal, and from there it's pretty straight forward.
Aight I’ll try to follow that sketch thanks a bunch
How would I go about proving coz(z) = cos(x) cosh(y) - i sin(x) sinh(y)?
guys if a subgroup is normal, is it in the center?
I am dummy but how does gamma generate Gamma here??
Gamma is the image of the group of units of an ultrametric, locally compact non discrete field under mod_k
No, most strikingly note the whole group is a normal subgroup of itself
But if you want smth less trivial, S_3 has trivial centre whilst A_3 is normal
the converse is true though, centric => normal
fine
⚔️
Lol it's like
Say $E$ is a complex vector space, $\Sigma_k$ acts on $E^{\otimes k}$ in the obvious fashion. Then $E^{\otimes k} \simeq \bigoplus_{\pi} \Big(V_\pi \otimes \mathrm{Hom}{\Sigma_k}(V\pi, E^{\otimes k})\Big)$ as $\Sigma_k$-representations
potato
