#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 137 of 1
prove it
I think all math is good and we should appreciate the variety of fields in this subject 
well thanks to abstract algebra we can actually go to details about fields
so every other mathematical fields should be thankful for this
not like @formal ermine who thinks analysis is harder
they just make a bunch of axioms of what a field is in chapter 1 of rudins book
pfft
I read "I'm hard af" and was like tf chmonkey?
can somebody help me understand how the sentence starting with "if we" implies that the polynomial is solvable by radicals?
are they just saying we can construct the extension by radicals by adding, subtracting, multiplying and dividing to obtain the zeros of f(x) and appending it to the prime field F?
i'm a bit confused
like for example x^2 - 2 over Q
we take sqrt(2)
and obviously that raised to an integer multiple is in Q
and then we construct Q(sqrt(2))?
localization (R-X)^{-1}R is local. Is X a prime ideal?
any heroes?
X is an ideal?
Yeah, you alpha_1 is some nth root, then you take some combination of addition multiplication, division etc of alpha_1 and take an nth root of that to get alpha_2 etc
don't know!
it's not given
ah ok that makes more sense thanks!
It's a particular case of a larger proposition I'm trying to prove. Let U be set of units of R. (R-U)^{-1}R = Frac(R) implies R local?
Is there any assumptions on X a priori? Like X being an ideal or R-X being multiplicatively closed?
Suppose X is the set of units of R
if it's mult closed it should be true right
This is false : take Z no?
If X is the units, it's definitely not an ideal
ah nvm
what i was gonna use depended on it being an ideal
then you can use the correspondence
right on second thought it's absolutely not an ideal heheh
of max ideals that have empty intersection with the localization subset
chmonkey be chmonkin'
¯_(ツ)_/¯
my third favorite correspondence
my favourite correspondence is the one I have with your mother
This is just true for any domain though right?
dunno if anyone mentioned this but how are you localising here? if X isn't prime then R-X isn't multiplicatively closed
yeah, just realized. if we localize using nonunits as multiplicatively closed subset, then we're just inverting all nonunits
Just use universal property™
b-b-b-b-b-b-b-b-but
this is what i'm trying to make sense of
how the heck are they concluding R has only one nonzero prime ideal
if all of the non-units form an ideal then you have a local ring
maybe the wrong channel for this but i always get aired in #book-recommendations , but does anybody know a good text on galois theory for someone who already has had an encounter with the subject
intersection of ideals is another ideal
now, how are they going from \subseteq to \eq is something I must ponder
\subseteq to eq is automatic if nonunits are in a single ideal
oh right, if that intersection is a proper ideal that contains R-U(R) they must be equal by maximality yeah
but i don't get where the \subseteq comes from in the first place
R-U(R) is the biggest a single ideal can possible be blah blah
appending any inverse to any non-invertible element of R turns the entire thing into a field
this must have something to do with it
the stacks project page
an open source textbook and reference work on algebraic geometry
an open source textbook and reference work on algebraic geometry
it's a consice summary of (most of) everything you need to know
the one on infinite galois theory is also nice
epic i'll take a look at it after i finish my expository encounter with galois theory
I'd still go for some textbook over stacks project
btw the infinite one requires you to know about limits and topology
how can you bring yourself to believe this
it's a nice reference sometimes
Yeah exactly
i know a decent amount of real analysis does that count
a reference
granted i'm not good at it but i know the definitions and theorems and such
not real analysis limits
like category theoretical colimits
if you just wanna know "what they are" then I can recommend the definition in https://people.math.harvard.edu/~smarks/mod-forms-tutorial/mf-notes/galois-reps.pdf from personal experience
how much category theory should i know beforehand
otherwise read a category theory book
only what inverse limits are lol
this also covers a bit of infinite galois theory btw
all my category theory comes from a 10 page section in hungerford 
oh ok
no exercises here huh
ig i can just scour for some online
I hope this is the correct thread to post in.
TL;DR Given an ANN topology, represented as quiver , the resulting module of the path algebra could be reduced using homological algebra
i.e. clip off the bad parts of the resulting exact sequence of modules.
Then other optimization techniques could be used such as teleportation, on the least significant quivers by transporting the linear transformations associated with the vertices of the quiver representation.
IMO this sounds like an out-there and possibly not realistic in application especially taking account calculating homology groups
if anyone experienced could tell me im my rubber duck finally got the best of me and this is completely useless let me know. I've found papers using similar approaches not but quite tbis way
Note: the Torij functor would yield the r-modules of the path algebra re-representing the quiver
Someone tell my why I'm a moron
aight bet
what is an ANN topology, what is a Torij functor (I know the Tor functor), can you symbolically express your ideas because so far none of what you said sounds familiar at all to me and I dont know how many experts there are on quiver representations here. You might get a response in #category-theory theory as that is the natural setting for quivers
linear transformations as morphisms and vector spaces (in the context of ANN(artificial neural networks)
for Tor I just mean Tor_ij subscript
i'd like to know if i'm completely dumb before typing something up, y'know? thanks for your reply 🙂 \
how does the sentence that begins with "since a polynomial" imply that the smallest power of sigma_p^r leaving all the elements of K fixed is the nth power?
If $\sigma_{p^r}^i$ fixes $\alpha$, then alpha is a root of $x^{p^{ri}} - x$, but this has at most $p^{ri}$ roots, so if it's supposed to fix all of K we need $i \geq n$.
jagr2808
good morning @frigid lark
oh ok thanks that helps a lot
To learn more about various areas of Group Theory: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Group_theory
Galois Theory article in Encyclopedia of Mathematics: https://encyclopediaofmath.org/wiki/Galois_theory.
[Note: as it has been correctly pointed out by MasterHigure, the dials at 8:10 should have 4 and 6 edges (as opposed to 5 and 7, respectively). ...
yo this video is goated
I'm misunderstanding something. Suppose I have a field k and a field k(x). Why must x be algebraic over k?
Does the following argument work?
Let k be a field and suppose k(x) is a field with x transcendental over k. Consider the embedding i:k -> F into the algebraic closure of k. Find some element in F that is not in the image of i, say y,, and extend i to k(x) by having x map to y. But then, k(x) is embedded in the algebraic closure of k, so it must be algebraic over k, so x can't be transcendental.
it is not true that $x$ must be algebraic over $k$. When you write $k(x)$, do you mean the field of rational functions over $x$ (i.e., $x$ is ``free'', rather than a situation like $\mathbb R(\sqrt 2 )$)? if that is the case, then $x$ is definitely not algebraic over $k$.
the place where your argument would fail is the step where you try to extend $i$ to $k(x)$. Unlike polynomial rings, you can't map your variable independently (i.e., the universal property of polynomial rings). Let me show why this extension business doesn't work, in contrast to polynomial rings.
if you have a ring hom $\phi: R \to S$, you can extend it to $\Phi: R[x] \to S$ by choosing an element $s\in S$ and defining
$$\Phi(\sum a_k x^k) = \sum \phi(a_k) s^k,$$
which maybe I'll abbreviate as $\Phi(p(x)) = \tilde{p}(y)$, where $\tilde{p}$ is $p$ but the coefficients are replaced by their images under $\phi$.
Motivated by this, in your situation you might try to define $i(p(x)/q(x)) = \tilde{p}(y)/\tilde{q}(y)$, right? This might not work because $\tilde{q}(y)$ might be zero for some $q$, which is equivalent to $y$ being algebraic. So, you cannot extend $i$ unless you are mapping $x$ to something transcendental (i.e., $y$ won't work)
thejoesully
I see! that makes a lot of sense, and yeah, I was thinking of defining it in a vaguely similar way, but working out the details turns out to not make a lot of sense
ty for the contrast with polynomial rings, that was particularly helpful
yeah no problem!
in other words, when we're trying to extend the embedding $i:k -> S$ to $i:k(x) -> S$, with $S$ being the algebraic closure of $k$, and supposing we map $x$ to an element $s \in S$, since $s$ is algebraic and satisfies a polynomial with coefficients in $k$, $p(s) = 0$, we're in fact guaranteed an ill-defined function by virtue of $i(1/p(x)) = 1/p(s) = 1/0$, right?
nrs
yup
thanks, very clear explanation and super helpful!
suppose at least one of x_1, ..., x_n is transcendental over the field k. then k[x_1, ..., x_n] is neither a field nor is it finitely generated as a k-module, right?
well, the finitely generated part shouldn't be hard to see since like 1, x, x^2, ...
if it were to be a field, you'd need an inverse for uhh x1 + ... + xn
right you can make a polynomial of arbitrarily big degree
hm, but why can't we find that inverse?
well in the case where it's just k[x] obviously it ain't happening
is k[x, 1/x] a field, and if so what could an inverse be for uhhh idk x+1/x
right i see, thanks!
I mean obviously this isn't a proof but it's hard for any specific one to have an inverse unless you already add it in
then what about adding them, and that'll be troublesome
your transcendental term is gonna be pretty hard to have an inverse for without another transcendental I think
yeah none of it is immediately obvious
probably is the contrapositive of zariski's lemma
but it's good enough for me that looking for inverses immediately seems like a hard task if possible
if you had an inverse to x_1 (which I'm assuming is your guaranteed transcendent) in terms of some expression on like k(x_i, ..., x_n) an algebraic extension then I think that's a problem to being transcendent?
this is definitely the contrapositive to zariski's lemma
oh right
do it for k[x] in fact and you're done
when random lemma escapes memory
Hi I’m new here and not deeply well versed in field theory. To be clear, your proposition is not exactly the contrapositive of zariski’s lemma right? They are just closely related. I am reading the definition for the first time and trying to make sense of it.
I think the fact that k[x_1, …, x_n] is not a field if some x_i is transcendental is not part of the contrapositive of Zariski’s lemma
i think the contrapositive is more something like, if k[x_1,...,x_n] is not algebraic over k, then either it is not finitely generated as a k-algebra or it is not a field
not exclusive or
The Zariski’s lemma I’m reading on Wikipedia says if K is finitely generated as a k-algebra, then K/k is a finite field extension. The contrapositive to my thinking would be if K/k is an infinite degree extension then K is not finitely generated. This includes not only finitely generated transcendental extensions k[x_1, …, x_n] but also infinite degree extensions (algebraic or not). I am not sure if that is that useful of a distinction, though, your formulation seems more interesting.
K needs to be a field otherwise the lemma doesn't do any work
i.e. the finitely generated k-algebra needs to be a field
Ah. That was stated as one of the assumptions on the page I was reading but I didn’t write it down. But that makes sense, you can formulate the contrapositive without assuming K is a field, and you get something more like what you said
call R=k[x_1, ..., x_n]. You're right that "some x_i transcendental implies R is not a field" is essentially the contrapositive of Zariski's lemma because we definitely have R is a finitely generated k-algebra, it has generators x_1, ..., x_n.
now for "some x_i transcendental implies R is not finitely generated as a k-module" is also true. The property "being finitely generated as a k-module" is also referred to as R being a finite extension of k, which in particular implies R is an integral extension of k (this is proved by Cayley Hamilton, see Gathmann comm alg notes, prop 9.5). Then, in particular this implies each x_1,...,x_n is integral/algebraic over k, contradicting some x_i being transcendental
For this question, can we say anything more than G has an element of order either 0 or a multiple of n, where n is the degree of f?
that is a cumbersome way to say "let K be a number field that is galois and B its ring of integers"
what does the notation Irr(alpha, Q, X) mean
min poly of alpha over Q?
yeah
with elements in Mor(<X>, Q), where <X> is a monoid isomorphic to N generated by X
@frigid lark do you know dedekind's criterium?
idk how to actually solve this but I feel like it just screams dedekind
oh, do you think there is more to this than what I said?
That's kinda the reason I asked
also K is not necessarily a number field
As [K : Q] is not finite
like we could probably do a finite Galois subextension that contains alpha
so maybe not much is lost
not to be confused with centric
what's that
or fully centralised

H is centric in G if C_G(H') = Z(H') for all H' conjugate to H
fully centralised is uhhh it has the biggest centraliser lol
C_G(H) >= C_G(H') for all H' conjugate to H
ahh i see
But K = Q(alpha) ...?
Also I don't see where the Dedekind criterium idea is going to
Ahh, yep
I did not see that, I'm going to revisit this question tomorrow
So G is a group of order n, and the Galois group mod p is cyclic of order n. Then you just need a way to compare them.
If B = Z[alpha], then p remains prime in B. So G acts on B/p, thus the two Galois groups are the same. But if B is bigger... I don't know. Maybe over can show that Z[alpha] is invariant under the action of G...
I think we might have an onto him from G to the Galois group of f mod P, given by $\sigma \mapsto \bar{\sigma}$, $\bar{\sigma}(\bar{\alpha}) = \overline{\sigma(\alpha)}$ where $\bar{\alpha}$ is just $\alpha$ reduced mod p
parrottea
By the Galois group of f mod p, I mean $Gal(\mathbb{F}_p(\bar\alpha)/\mathbb{F}_p)$
parrottea
Can't you say G is cyclic of order n? f irreducible mod p => by Dedekind's criterion pB is prime => there exists a unique element \varphi\in Gal(K/Q) such that \varphi(x)=x^p mod pB for x\in B. This element necessarily has order n, therefore it's a generator of Gal(K/Q). But you do need the machinery of Frobenius elements for this (assuming I'm correct), idk how one would come up with it himself.
Nvm, you need to know p does not divide |B:pZ[a]| in order to apply the criterion. Idk if irreducibility in general implies pB is prime.
If L/K is Galois and E/K is any extension, how to show the restriction homomorphism Gal(LE/E)->Gal(L/K) is open (in the Krull topology)?
We have found that for every $u \in \ker \psi$ there exists a $u'' \in \ker \psi$
with $u * a = a * u''$. \
(1) Why, for a fixed chosen $a \in G$, is the mapping
$\psi_a : G \rightarrow G, u \mapsto u = a^{-1} * u'' * a$
an isomorphism from $(G, *)$ to itself, i.e.
an automorphism? $\psi_a$ is called an inner automorphism of $G$. \ \
(2) Why does $\psi_a$ map every normal subgroup $U$ of $G$ onto itself?
Sciencenjoyer
So,hi I need a little help for (2). I'm new to this topic, so I'm struggling a bit
huh
what's the definition of a normal subgroup
I feel like since it mentions ker \psi theres some context but the statement of (1) looks odd

okay let (G,**) be a set and a element of G. Let U be a normal subgroup of G then: a *** U = U * a
why is it italic lol
that what asterisks do
now its thicc
okay let (G,+) be a set(edit: group) and a element of G. Let U be a normal subgroup of G then: a + U = U + a
do you have that g U g^-1 = U
yes I have read online, that these are equivalent
do you mean a group?
oh yeah sorry
yes you know it's true but is this proven already
nope, I haven't even seen that definition in my book yet, I think
obviously if you had it, it trivializes this proof, and you should see why this is what it's asking
Oh that is very cool
What is?
this question?
You mean (2)?
Is that something obvious?
what have you tried my guy
or how do you think you should do it
Would it help to show that \psi_a is surjective (even though that was already done in (1))?
Well, you’ve already shown that right?
ye
So just use it instead, where would you propose using it
What if I let v be an element of U and then calculated \psi_a(v) = v, why is the only solution because psi_a is bijective?
but psi(v) will probably not be v
thanks a lot for the reference!
The great Sharp
It would mean that psi_a maps every normal subgroup of G onto itself
Well, yes that’s a literal statement
are u guys done
But, it will not be the identity usually
or wait
So it won’t have psi(v) = v
questions on noetherian stuff is in #algebraic-geometry ?
It should fit there too yes
oh that is a good thought!
So rethink what it’s asking
For every element v of U there is an element v' of U such that psi_a(v') = v.
That should be better
@topaz solar k field, x transcendental. then k[x]/(x) -> closure of k has x map to 0, so x is nonunit
And that v’ in U implies v in U
Thanks, I keep missing something
Consider using how Ug = gU to try and show it
I'm already on it
As an aside, I do hope you know what Ug = gU says is equal
It means that the operation is commutative of course
just kidding

lool
I know
@topaz solar It's easier than I thought. I showed that for every v' there is a v such that psi_a(v') = v. I do not need to show the opposite as well, or do I?
v' and v being in a normal subgroup again
can someone help me understand the subgroup generated by two subsets, i.e. <A,B> ?
i think it consists of all words from A union B
This is the same as the subgroup generated by the set A ∪ B
That is, <A,B> = <A ∪ B>
You want to show psi(U) = U, and ofc there’s such a v because it’s a function G->G, you need to show v is in U
okay cool, so the elements look like words from A ∪ B
So that will do amirite?
then there exists, dependent on v, a term v' in U so that va=av'
yes
so can't just take arbitrary v' in U at the start like you do
I chose the v and v' to be the ones with that property (without mentioning because lazy)
yes, I am sorry
so you've shown psi(U) is a subset of U
you do know psi_a has an inverse, namely, psi_a'
I did know that
Couldn't I just write down the same steps of equality, which I used in the screenshot, for the other direction?

pretty similar, or just reuse it
No it was a joke, I was brain-afk
and then note \psi_a (\psi_a'(x)) = x
Why would this imply that x \in U?
it doesn't, but maybe you can use this fact yourself
and add it to what you've shown
Yes, got it know, thanks
how does this example follow from the theorem? the theorem states nothing about the ring R
or rather how do we know the existence of the Z6-module isomorphism
Well, part (iii) of the theorem
is the projective part used here
As for the isomorphism, you can like
What’s da iso doe????

Le Chinese remainder whatever
anyways doesn't part (iii) of the theorem require that Z6 is a free module
Regarding cauchy theorem,
suppose o(G) is prime then we know its cyclic and element has order of prime number p
if not prime and if its even then,
every finite even order group has a element of order 2 which is a prime itself
if its odd then we know say for element x then x^o(G) =e
we can prime factorize it and
(x^p1) ^(p2*p3... pn) = e
is this logic correct
sorry for not using latex
no it isn't
if you have an element $x$ for which $x^{|G|}=e$, doesn't that imply the group is cyclic
suremark
i was searching for u everywhere
sorry I was not able to give reply on time
but there is a theorem every finite even order group has a element of order 2
like u can pair element to its inverse but there still be one element left in even order group so 'e' can't be its inverse as its identity element neither any other element so it should have order 2
...huh yeah i guess that works
That is a good argument, yes.
although that's an element of order 2, not an element of order p
but its a prime cauchy theoram states if p | o(G) then there exits x belong to g whose order is p
This is true, but it looked like you were asking whether you had a convincing proof of that theorem in general.
yep, an element of order p
an element of order 2 is not an element of order p unless p happens to be 2, which it might not be
your logic doesn't handle prime power divisors, but even if it did you can't assume there exists x such that x^|G|=e. that's not even true for finite abelian groups
for instance if you have a group of order 12, 3 is a prime number and 3 | 12, so cauchy's theorem in this case would say that the group has an element of order 3
I am not saying that a finite group which has order equal to odd is cyclic
I am just saying we can prime factorize its order into
p1 * p2 * p3 say
then
x^p1 if its not prime then it should be in the group
we continue like this
(x^p1) ^p2
if its not e then it should also be in the group
and finally
(x^(p1*p2)) ^p3
it should be e
according to this
your argument would prove that it has an element of order 2, which is true but doesn't prove cauchy's theorem
That is actually true for all x in a finite group G -- it's Lagrange's theorem.
er, you're right. I was confusing ord(x) = |G| and the property x^|G|=e
...oh right yes it is
but what they- yeah
for the rest of the proof they gave to work requires that what they actually assumed is the order of x is |G|
see this please sorry for wrong rotation
,rccw
The trouble with this argument is that okay (x^(p1p2))^p3 = e, but it might be that it's because x^(p2p3)=e itself, and then you haven't found an element of order p3 after all.
Effectively you're arguing that the finite group contains an element whose order is some prime that divides |G|.
but x^p2 must belong to G
Cauchy's theorem promises more: it says that you get to choose in advance which prime factor the order must be.
say x^p2 = z
z must belong to G
then z^p3 =e
please correct me if i am getting u wrong
This is true, but that just means that z has order either 1 or p3.
If z=e (which is quite possible), then it doesn't have order p3.
I think i got my mistake I am not proving for that specific p which divides o(G)
thank u so much
If we consider any chain ${h_i} \in \mathscr{S}$, would $\mathscr{H:} \bigcup_{i \in I} \text{Dom }h_i \to J$ be a legitimate upper bound for the chain?
okeyokay
hello
yea I checked it and it worked
okay
can someone walk me through the proof of a module having a composition series implies having the ACC?
a composition series ( for an R-module A) is a series A=A_0 > A_1 >A_2...>A_n such that Ai/Ai+1 is simple
this would have length n+1
and A_is are submodules
The decomposition series is a maximal length chain of submodules isnt it?
So if the composition series is finite length so are all of the other chains
Sorry I meant composition
okay np
can a module have a composition series of infinite length?
or does that not make sense?
Maximality is guaranteed by the quotient being simple if that’s not clear
Good point
yea cuz the proof in the text( which i could not follow ) just assumes its finite of length n
I’d presume it has to be finite then
yea its weird
but i cant think of any examples or anything
i just got the definitoin
definitoin*
lmfao
definition*
An example of a module with an infinite decomp chain?
maybe like Z and just ideals of multiples
Just take any vector space of countable infinite dimension
like 2 4 6
Mixed signals boss
(6) is not contained in (4)
:jawdrop:
Anyway yes I can
yea anyone plz
Then what I said holds I believe
1 sec
(what's the ACC?)
ascending chain condition
no i meant
Jordan Hölder says the length of a module is invariant under what composition series you take. So if finite, they’re all the same, if infinite they’re all infinite
2Z and 4Z
That’s literally the same thing
6Z and 4Z
Yes
How is this not a composition seties
Yes this is called a finite length module
It's a special property
The quotients are Z/2Z
those quotients are clearly simple
That's mean
wait do u not include the last Z part?
What
like Z/4Z
re-read the definition of a composition series
yea i got it
Hello
I mean if you skip 2Z then yes
he is alwaays mean to me cuz im not that smart
he should be punished 😦
Anyway so like you can just show by induction that the length of the composition series is the maximal length of any strictly ascending chain of submodules
I meant it's mean to the modules
Calling them simple
it should be like immediate from definitions that this is the case
idk if anyone said
what composition series
You can immediately know it's not one because it's not maximal
oh you mean A has one now
Any compostiio nseries
Moldilocks?
I mean they all have the same length as has been previously stated
and then this compositoin series must have length greater than any ascending chaing of submodules

cf. [Chm23]
right?
why is that tho
because the quotients are simple
Well it should be quick from definitions
meaning each submodule is maximal in the previous one
there's nothing "Inbetween" you could pick to make things longer
yea right
yea right cuz if u assume there is one larger
then it would contradict that the simplicity of like
the left and right submodules
Do you know that if A and C are Noetherian and
0 → A → B → C → 0
is exact then B is Noetherian?
of the original compositon series
yes
can prove it too
I think it's important to show the numerical element to this though
Nice, you can use this to prove that having a composition series → Noetherian
True
yea this is true
"if the things are finite then they are finite" w0ah
or not finite length but having a composition series gives both ACC and DCC
Wew, kill yoursef
MODS

He's too based for this server
too based for tv
I need to move to truth social
u need to move to league of legends
lol
anyways
potato okay
now i think the contradiction is to find some chain of submodujles having larger length?>
Anyway so say $0 = M_0 \subsetneq \dots \subsetneq M_n = M$ is a composition series of an $A$-module $M$ and let $0 = M_0' \subsetneq \dots \subsetneq M_k' = M$ be any other chain. We can - for example - just refine this to a composition series by adding extra stuff if necessary, then by Jordan Hoelder this must be of length n, and so $k \le n$.
potato
Tbh like Jordan Hoelder is easy enough for modules so we may as well appeal to it and I think proving it by hand would just be near identical
idk jordan holder
Schreier refinement will be less nukey
Jordan Hoelder says that any two composition series of M are of the same length
As it is a lemma to Jordan holder
and moreover, the composition factors are the same up to permutation
Isn't Schreier refinement more for groups?
oh my golly gosh it's the free groups guy
For modules this is pretty easy to prove
I've only seen it for modules 
oh lol
oh
i proved it but for groups
but that was long time ago and i dont remember any shit detail
It's nicer in this case cause everything is a normal subgroup lol
Normalize groups
yo
given D is a division ring?
cuz ideals of this are of the form Mat_n(I) where I is an ideal
but D has no ideals?
What do you mean composition series as a ring?
just thinking of the ideals as submodules
like a composition series of modules of over that ring
So submodules correspond to left ideals (or right). But you seem to be talking about two sided ideals
It has more left ideals than just M(I)
Right, but then I don't think the notion of composition series really makes sense
But it is true that M(D) is a simple ring
wait so i would need two composition series?
one for left R-modules and one for right R-modules?
to show its both noetherian and artinina?
the most general I've seen composition series get is over abelian categories and Ring isn't abelian
There's a distinction between being left noetherian and right noetherian, and same for artinian yes
okay
I think the thing you're missing is that in a noncommutative setting the left abd right module structures are not isomorphic. So there's not two composition series, rather a composition series for each module. Most R modules don't have a bimodule structure tho where the left and right multiplication are different, so they don't have two composition series in a natural sense
Generally when working with modules over noncomm ring left modules and right modules are distinguished
Results still hold for both classes but not necessarily 'both at once' iygwim
yea i get u
okay look at this example
the ring of all 2x2 matrices of (a,b) , (0,c) where a is an integer and b and c are rationals
this is right noetherian but not left
i suppose to show this is to find a compoistion series?
A finite one yes
is it the same composition series for Mat_n(D)?
as in like
M_i = R(e_1+e_2+..+e_i) where e_i is the matrix that has 1 in (i,i) and 0 elsewhere?
R is the ring?
if L = Zx+Zy is a lattice (x,y in C, forming a rank 2 basis over R), a proof I am reading claims that the number of sublattices of L with index p is p+1. why is this?
I think Lang mentioned frobenius elements in an example, but gave all the theorems in more generality.
Which lead to my confusion
I ended up just satisfying this proposition
And then the Galois group of fhat over Z/pZ will be cyclic of order n
and then a counting argument got me my answer
Class 10 Math Chapter 2 Ghouri Mathematician
Chapters:
00:00 Intro Ghouri Mathematician
00:08 Q1 Ex 2.2 Class 10 Math Ghouri Mathematician
08:24 Outro Ghouri Mathematician
If you do math questions in this way, you have a good chance of getting full marks on the Punjab board exam.
Don’t forget to suggest our channel to someone who needs it...
can someone walk me through this proof?
I am a bit confused about the structure of the proof
perhaps also some words on what this proposition is trying to convey (I assume it's trying to say that a product of n elements of set S is uniquely defined)
<@&286206848099549185>
It says that all the ways to compose n elements all give the same result
I'm reading a thing and it explained conjugation as basically just 'renaming' the elements of a group, using the symmetric group as an example. this made me wonder, is it true that all isomorphisms from a group to itself are conjugation? if this is false could someone please show me a counterexample, if this is true could someone please give me a hint on how to prove this because I want to try and prove it
Isomorphisms from a group to itself are called automorphisms
The ones coming from conjugations are called inner automorphisms
automorphisms via conjugation are called inner automorphisms. but there are also outer automorphisms sometimes
They form a subgroup of the group of all the automorphisms
makes sense that they form a subgroup
I believe S6 is an example where there are other automorphisms
ty for the googleable term
It's a normal subgroup
And the quotient group is called the outer automorphisms group
So you are asking whether this quotient group can be non trivial
And it can
neat
is there anything we can say about the automorphism group of a group's automorphism group?
and so on, looking at automorphism group of that automorphism group
in particular, when do these terminate
how do i do this
i tried induction on s
base case trivial
then if ker pi_H is nontrivial its easy
but what if ker pi_H is trivial
This is the same as just asking about subgroups of Z^2 of index p. They will necessarily apear as kernels of surjective group homomorphisms to Z/p.
There are p^2 homomorphisms from Z^2 to Z/p (just by picking two places to map x and y). One of those is 0, so is not surjective. There are p-1 isomorphisms from Z/p to itself, so we have overcounted by that amount.
So there are p^2 -1 / p-1 = p+1 subgroups.
In an abelian group conjugation is trivial, so for example Z/3 would be an example.
So presumably p^s+1 still divides the order of G.
If H is normal, then G/H contains an element of order p, which you can lift to g and adjoin to H.
If H is not normal you can do the same trick to the normalizer N(H)/H. You just need to show that p divides this.
Consider the action of H on G/H by left multiplication. What does is mean for an element to be fixed by this action? What do you know about group actions of p-groups?
It seems that if you allow transfinite iteration, it always terminates
The automorphism tower of a group is obtained by computing its automorphism
group, the automorphism group of THAT group, and so on, iterating
transfinitely. Each group maps canonically into the next using inner
automorphisms, and so at limit stages one can take a direct limit and continue
the iteration. The tower is said to terminate if a fixed ...
And if it reaches the trivial group in finite time, then it's one of these cyclic groups
Cool!
Why does the degree of the composite LL'/K divide the product of degrees of L/K and L'/K? I can see that it's less than or equal to the product, but how to show divisibility? It may be assumed the degrees are coprime, if that helps.
yo
any PID is noetherian right?
cuz consider the union of the chain?
and then it stablizies with the union?
and this argument can be used to show that
i dont need it to have only one generators
as in lilke
if the ideals are finitely generated
then its the same argument rihgt?
All ideals fin gen is equivalent to noetherian
under dependent choice
In fact, you need to assume the degrees are coprime since the divisibility doesn't hold in general. But yeah, both deg(L/K) and deg(L'/K) divide deg(LL'/K), so if the degrees are coprime then their product divides deg(LL'/K). On the other hand, you've shown deg(LL'/K) is less than or equal to the product, so they must in fact be equal.
Lol i forgot that the degrees of L and L' must divide LL'. Thanks
No, wait a minute, I don't know if the degrees are actually coprime.
Here p does not divide n
Not true in general if a and b are two different cube roots of 2, then Q(a) and Q(b) both have degree 3, but Q(a)Q(b) has degree 6.
If the extensions are normal you should be able to do it by comparing the Galois groups.
Ah, you're right, the Galois group of the composite embeds into the product of the galois groups. Thanks.
any hints with number 4?
Why would sticking on a generator each J_i not work?
There is no finite set generating it, so why not take a (minimal) infinite set of generators
what is an anti-isomorphism? In the sense of "T -> T* is an anti isomorphism" (T being a linear transformation and * the adjoint)
Like let (a_i) be a minimal family of generators for I. Then let J_i = (a_1,...,a_i)
it seems to follow from (UT)* -> T*U*
Basically what sharp said
I mean you don’t want duplicates yada yada
But yeah each is an ideal containing the next
An argument I can't be stuffed making rn, but should exist
It does?
oh
i thought he was asking me why it doesnt work
As long as youre careful about it anyway
Corollary, if I is finitely generated
You have some issues if it doesn’t
wdym
I mean, clearly a similar argument doesn’t work
If I is an ideal of R, a Noetherian ring, and if a minimal generating set of I is {a_i}. If you have a chain J_1 subset J_2 subset ... whose union is I, then each a_i will sit in some J_s_i, then as {a_i} is finite, there is some J_n which will contain all {a_i}, and hence I
f(ab) = f(b)f(a)
an anti morphism from A to B is a morphism A to B^op
thanks
yea
got it
thanks guys
ur op
[n/p] is just how many multiples of p less than n there are, [n/p^2] is how many multiples of p^2 etc.
Any (non-sylow) 2-subgroup is normal in a bigger 2-subgroup. So you could sort of iteratively construct bigger and bigger 2-subgroups by taking normaliseres.
So maybe you start with an 8-cycle, s = (1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8). And consider another 8-cycle in the same subgroup like s^3 = (1 4 7 2 5 8 3 6).
Then find an element t such that tst^-1 = s^3 like (2 4)(37)(6 8). Then you got yourself a group of order 16. And then continue like that. A bit tedious I suppose.
The easier method is of course to just know a head of time that an answer is ||<(12345678), (15)>||
this group is too small to be Syl_2(S_8)
$S \in Syl_2(S_8)$ has order $|C_2 \wr C_2 \wr C_2| = 2(2^3)^2 = 2^7$, that group is order $2^6$
ALPERIN'S FUSION THEOREM
I believe you're missing the action of something like (13)(24)
Wreath product
you can get a really cool presentation for these groups by considering their action on an p-ary tree
🤓
why are you here
Right, counting is hard. Throw in (24)(37)(68) or whatever
So, I'm trying to wrap my head around the definition of Artinian rings. Could someone give me an example and a non-example or provide a place I could read more about the subject?
Any field is an artinian ring. The integers are not an artinian ring.
hm
So, the integers aren't because I can always take subsets of ideals that are themselves ideals
consider the chain of ideals (2^n)
right? e.g. (1) subset (2) subset (4) subset etc
yeah exactly
or superset
pretend I said superset
whereas with a field, you only have 2 ideas anyways (1) and (0)
ideals*
An exercise following up from that: prove that an Artinian integral domain is a field
I did see that as a relevant theorem, I'll give it a try
You may also want to try showing that given a field k, the ring M_n(k) of nxn matrices over k is an Artinian ring
matrices are my bane, so maybe
You may need to get up to speed with them if you want to study rings
Re: this,
I'm going the route of assuming A (my ring) has some element which is not a unit
so (x) \neq A
I also know x isn't a zero divisor (because A is a domain)
so perhaps the contradiction comes from (x) superset (x^2) superset (x^3) ... being an infinite descending chain of ideals?
So if you can show that is indeed descending then you're done
hmmmmm
well, let's do indunction on n in (x^n)
induction*
A \superset (x) is our assumption, so given (x^n) can we show (x^n+1) is a superset relationship
You're phrasing this as a question, but it's your job to answer it
I'm talking to myself :P
Well, since this is a monomial ideal, we're done on that front because a \in (x^n+1) is clearly in (x^n), as a = bx^n+1, so a = (bx)x^n
at each successive step you're removing the elements of the form bx^n
But it's really counter-intuitive that you're never going to "reach zero"
but, the integers are precisely a non-Artinian domain
It’s artinian so what about your sequence
well that's the contradiction
our sequence must end somewhere
but I believe that implies x is nilpotent
which is a contradiction
It does not imply that x is nilpotent.
Well if each ideal is just the whole thing that works too
hm
so
there has to be some N such that (x^n) = (x^n+1) for n > N
if it is Artinian
That's Noetherian
Oh eait
No lol
But in the context of this argument
Because if we stop at 0, that's a contradiction
("reaching zero" as I called it earlier)
So the only other option is that you have some point where it stabalizes
But since it's a principle ideal, this implies that x^n+1 | x^n
right?
principal*
I was about to ask
x^n+1 does divide x^n for some n. Now what does that imply.
(I said monomial earlier, but I meant principal)
doesn't that imply x is a unit?
or that x^n = 0
It does
what's the ring here, k[x]?
just some artinian ring
Artinian integral domain (field)
sorry, artinian domain
commutative!
all rings are ocmmutaitaivioeivoe
Ah right I missed the commutative adjective
Grumble grumble artin-wedderburn
when did we say it was commutative?
An integral domain is a commutative domain
N.b. a noncommutative ring can't be a field!
Unless you're French
I didn't know this
I might be using some terms interchangably that I shouldn't
anyways
We assumed x wasn't a unit
so this is a contradiction
(thus A is a field)
All this to try and figure out what the hell a hilbert series is
smh
How horrible of an artinian domain (non-commutative) can you get 
uhhhhhhhhh
I can't even think of a non-com artinian domain (because Mat_n doesn't work
)
@coral spindle gimme one
immensely boring
L unfortunate
H[x]/(some fuckin 239084759385 degree irreducible)

Surely being anti-commutative is a nice-ish property
But it's not anticommutative
H is
shit
I love that pic of him
:uponthewitnessing:
yes
Course it is
amazing
It has to be
:jubulantarcsofheaven:
https://cdn.discordapp.com/emojis/1124379186245668894.webp?size=80&quality=lossless
is being anticommutative a nice property?
yeah it's pretty swagggg
I guess so
"nice" in the sense that it makes things a little well behaved
reminds me of - \rtimes C_2 if you know you know
But I might point out that the only anticommutative rings are of characterstic 2 (i.e., they have 1 = -1)
skew commutative 
this sucks. I hate this
I feel like I'm getting into the deep levels of the Algebra Icerberg
But yes, we do indeed like Lie algebras
there ain't no triangles yet
what
you gotta get to the triangles
what do you mean by triangles
OH
Triangle man triangle man
triangle man hates person man
they have a fight
triangle wins
triangle man
no I mean literal triangles. Subsets of R^n
not commutative triangles
Oh oop
I feel like
Simplicies
although yeah universal properties are swag
I know about them but the lord knows I cannot compute anything to do with them
Legendary poem
I'm very in over my head ngl
lmaooo
.pin
You would usually want graded commutativity instead of anticommutativity, in which you have a graded ring such that multiplying homogeneous things commutes up to a sign that depends on the degree of the things you are multiplying
oh wild
It's from a song just so yall know https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=vOLivyykLqk
aka Z[x]
Z2 graded
wait.... let him cook actually...
No?
I'm kinda trying to learn about graded rings so
When do we have graded commutative
Any kind of cohomology theory should give you graded commutative products (if it gives you products)
Z as Z2 graded 
any metacyclic group with a ring structure :wickedwizardweed:
Yeah that’s unintelligible
So cohomology of spaces, group cohomology etc
good
Because the tensor product of chain complexes has to have certain negative signs
yeah cohomology has that nice thing where you take two n-cycles or whatever they're called and then you smack em together and boom 2n
So true
I love having no clue what's going on lmfao
you and me both
I don’t know cohomology but I believe it
I can see this clearly if we take the bar resolution
Lol basically graded commutative is the natural notion
Whenever you have differentials
So chain complexes, spectral sequences etc
Well it’s unintelligible to me but it’s less aberrant than opetopic types
Which are common things
Ye
hmmmm...
I just got an email and thought my thesis director got our meeting time wrong
so are cosimplical spaces....
It was in fact some spam
I'm doing some cookin rn chat lemme think
By space do you mean topological or simplicial set
Ye sure that's kinda 2d
how do I make one into the other there MUST be a way
My simplical fu is lacking but I don’t think they’re quite so easily transferred
I know next to nothing about both of these constructions
There is a functor SSet → Ch(Ab), not sure how that generalizes to 2d
yeah that's what I was thinking
just put another c at the start of both of them
csSet -> cCh(ab)
Wait do you wanna turn a bisimplicial set into a double complex or a spectral sequence
I'm not quite sure what I want to do just yet
oh wait yeah
it would just be a double complex
FAIL
very sad
Yo, followup question
actually it's not sad cause I can write "^{\bullet}" which makes me feel important
A ring like k[x] isn't Artinian in general yeah?
It is not
yeah it isn't
When would your cosimplical simplical set be a spectral sequence
Don't even need the "in general" part
that mofo is noetherian tho
Depends on the J
Yeah depends on the J
which is something that's relevant to my thesis
but it's always Noetherian if k is a field or even a Noetherian ring
If k is a field, and J is not 0, then it will be artinian
yes Hilberts basis theorem
this is interesting, it's obviously true if J is prime but I didn't know it would hold so generally
but that's not the case in terms of like, k[x_1,...,x_n]/J, J has more restrictions for this to be Artinian
If J = (f) and f had degree n, then k[x]/J is n dimensional
Finite dimensional implies artinian
true, I suppose
I can't see it very clearly though
dw I'll think about this on my own
Yeah this usually won't be
start by considering like, J = (x^n)
I would have a harder time proving it for a general f
eventually when you hit something with an x^n in it it will "collapse down"
so it's n dimensional
sick
The (probably a bit too un-rigorous) way I think about it is like
if you mod out by f, and f = x^n + stuff
then x^n = -stuff
yeah that's what I'm saying
and you can just substitute
that's what I meant by "collapse down"
Ahhh
the x^n turns into something of degree n-1 or less
Yeah this Does Not Work in general for k[x_1,...,x_n]
but if J contains enough nice fs, it will work
I hope you're not looking for an Artinian ring that isn't Noetherian!
oh no no no no
eg. J = (x_1^2,...,x_n^2), it is Artinian
Anyway, finite-dimensional algebras are always Artinian because finite-dimensional vector spaces are Artinian as modules
how does the displayed math show that the group is isomorphic to the group G_n under multiplication modulo n?
But simply: dimension go down
yeah if you turn all of the non-units into nilpotents it's definitely gonna be artinian
Well yeah, but is there a simple condition for when it's finite dimensional
"simple"
I'm sure Dr. 2808 has something cooking as we speak
who lol
Just for example, J = (x_1) doesn't give an Artinian ring for n > 1
I know we're overloading n but sh
Not impossible: [Z, Q; 0, Q] is (right) Artinian, but not (left) Noetherian
what on earth does that notation mean
oh nvm rm \equiv 1 mod n oops
Matrices with entries from Z, Q and 0
LMFAOOOOOOO
Matrices with integer entries top left, rational entries top right and... damn so fast
(in relevant locations)
bro really on that $\bZ \rtimes \bQ$
wew
what does \rtimes mean 😱
semidirect plopduct
Oi wew
If J contains x_i^N for all i and some N
stfu I need to read about triangles made out of backwards triangles
yeah, but I don't think that's exhaustive
Normal subgroups are like $N \unlhd G$, so since $N$ is a normal subgroup in the semidirect product, the triangle points towards it in the same way: $N \rtimes G$
Borty
oh I'm well aware
It's not necessarily so simple to check I guess
If it's a monomial ideal, it's simple
Idk if you're aware, I only speak because I like the sound of my own voice ||I'M JOKING SORRY||
once you leave that realm, it gets harder
you mean a principal ideal right
same
Crocodile eat da bigger one
We're in polynomial rings, I mean ideals generated by monomials
OK
I just remembered you said monomial earlier ;)
Could be a cool thing to try and figure out a condition on J which implies P/J is finite dimensional
What if we had a polynomial f_i in k[x_i] and looked at J=(f_1, .., f_n)
Could have a similar collapse like earlier?
I believe that would work yes
I doubt you can do much better than J containing x_i^N
Maybe something using Krull dimension
this is funnily relevant to my thesis work
Like if (f_n+1) contains a prime in k[x]/(f1, ..., fn)
I'm not familiar with Krull dimension
Krull dimension is the longest chain of prime ideals
And a noetherian commutative ring is artinian iff the Krull dimension is 0
interesting
I believe there is some theory that relates the Krull dimension of quotient of polynomial rings to the polynomials
I.... should read up on this!
But I don't remember exactly that the conditions should be
Yeah for the problem I'm working on for thesis stuff
We've been in an artinian ring this whole time
A quick search tells me "the dimension of the affine variety defined by an ideal I in a polynomial ring R is the Krull dimension of R/I." @rocky cloak
I think it's just that the Krull dimension of K[x1, ..., xn]/(f1, .., fm) is larger than n-m
So you need at least n generators
Give me a reference, I'm begging you 🙏
Yeah, prime ideals correspond to irreducible closed sets, so dimension of a variety corresponds to Krull dimension
I really need to review my definitions of variety and stuff
I have a book lying around
that I think I left in my apartment which I am not at
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/27145/why-are-artinian-rings-of-krull-dimension-0
Atiya Macdonald theorem 8.5
Thank you
Wait a minute...
how are we defining length
are we saying like, A subset B has length 1?
wait didn't you prove this earlier lol?
you showed commutative + artinian = field right
I showed artinian integral domains are fields
right, slightly different then
This actually proves it yes
Oh!
Assume A is artinian and has a prime p. Then A/p is an artinian integral domain
Hence field, hence p is maximal
It's a chain of prime ideals
not a chain which "starts with" a prime ideal
got it
The converse is probably trickier