#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 135 of 1
1 is not the identity in Z
Yeah shit I was thinking rings for some reason, crap
You don't, no set containing the identity is a free generating set.
Correct, thanks
Why is {2,3} not a free generating set? phi(3) - phi(2) gives us phi(1), and once we have phi(1), we have phi(n)
Let G = Z. And consider the function f: {2, 3} -> G such that f(2)=0 and f(3)=1
How would you extend this to a group homomorphism from Z?
If there is an extension, call it g, it must satisfy g(1) = g(3) - g(2) = f(3) - f(2) = 1; but this forces g(2) = 2 and g(3) = 3 which is a contradiction
Fair
Apologies if this comes in an hour late (spotty internet) but it’s because there’s a non-trivial relator between 2 and 3, mainly that 2*3-3*2 = 0, hence the group they generate cannot be free. Alternatively we could use a dimension argument, if {2,3} was a free generating set (aka a basis) then Z would have dimension 2 as a Z-module which is obviously nonsense
the lack of relations between the elements is a key point
as mentioned, they're like a basis
ahh, yeah, makes sense!
and if there were a relation between them, then sending them to incompatible elements fails the free group property
just {2} alone doesn't work either because if G = Z and phi(2) = 3 (or any odd number) then we've no choice for phi(1)
so there'll be a set where it fails
the basis intuition doesn't work here tho
2 don't generate Z
It does ^
A basis has to be a generating set
In fact, a module is free iff it has a basis
I know we’re doing groups here but shush
not as a Z module it don't, you wont get 1 as a multiple of 2
yeah!
(2Z isomorphic but we don't care)
S will generate F if this is true, hence freely generated
consider lifting the map S->F
thanks!
this makes a unique homomorphism F->F
where S->F->F = S->F
what is that homomorphism
Yur we need them to be equal as sets. Just like how (1,0) isn’t a basis for <(0,1)> despite them being isomorphic
Can’t wait for this message to be sent at 6:43pm
quick exercise: suppose we had two elements in S such that some expression made out of them is identity in F, show it can't be freely generated by this S
the identity
exactly
this shows you've generated it by S, but you can fill in the details further if you wish
I’m going to start ranting about the connections to presentations now
(this should be a quick argument, could do it pretty immediately ||with like <S>)||
quotient time
Given a generating set S that gives you a free group F(S), since it’s free there are no realtors between elements of S so we can write F(S) = <S| >.
However, given a map from S into a group G (say G has the presentation <S | R>) the induced map is the canonical map given by quotienting F(S) by exactly the normal closure of the subgroup generated by the realtors R in G, which I find to be a really good intuition for not just this map but quotients in general
could you explain this some more?
S -> <S>
So the universal property of the free group is basically just the universal property of the quotient but a little more general
this has a unique homomorphism
notice this is kinda also the same as S -> F
gg
See it?
theres a couple similar routes you can take but this is basically t he idea
uhhh no wait. so suppose S freely generates F. the inclusion S -> <S> is extended uniquely to a group h.m. F -> <S>
there's exactly 1 map F -> <S> extending it
what do you do with this extension? we want <S> = F, so an isomorphism
smallest group containing S in F
so <S> < F right?
yes certainly
yes!
So that composes to identity, and the latter is inclusion, so it was the identity all the way through
the inclusion <S> -> F is the inverse of F -> <S> obtained by the univ property
do you see how to do this one?
let me give it a thought
how would you immediately suppose to show this
first intuition
Using wew ladz's statement is kinda cheating in the sense that it's related to what we're proving in the first place, so I'd ask that you don't reference it
Never ignore wew's advice
You can get a lot farther by doing the opposite of what he says
I never care about the details of the problem I just chat about cool shit
don't overcomplicate it, just assume some expression formed by some a, b will spit out the identity in F, and show that this must violate the universal property
Based
I think wew meant to reply to your message here @median pawn
The basis intuition works; it's the same universal property in a different category.
I meant “the intuition does still work, {2} cannot be a basis because it doesn’t generate the whole space”

I will elaborate that this is essentially saying we want independence, though not exactly linear since ya know
not a linear space
the exact same idea for why a linearly dependent set ain't a basis works 
I wonder why
well presumably universal properties are a bit newer in material than basis-es
Full subcategory of Ab spanned by the Z/p modules 
That's just Z/p-Mod lmao why did I say it like that
No they're not because before the universal property was discovered (not invented) people didn't know what a basis was 
i need a clarification first, why is phi (the unique map from F to <S> extending the inclusion S to <S>) the identity map? 
this composes to identity yes
<S> -> F is the inclusion map
so i(phi(s)) = s, but i(phi(s)) = phi(s)
Do we have to recite the “universal property characterises objects up to iso” meme or is this different
this is different
ok why?
no but we're extending (S -> <S>) to (F -> S) right
? no
F-> <S>
there's only one
and F->F there's only one
but we can compose F-><S> with <S>->F
that extends S -> <S>, and we compose with <S> -> F
Get quiver up and draw the triangle
you've extended S -> F
nachos lmao
I'm hungy
The great Sharp
awesome so the map F to F is the identity
drawing like this
See how easy it is with the funny Doritos
notice i:S -> <S> composed with i:<S>->F is just i:S->F
AH I SEE all of it now
God
triangles unnecessary, just had to see inclusion is inclusion
we use the univ property with F once, and then with <S>
local mathematician learns subset is transitive live
Bullshit. I don’t believe it for a second
now do this
this is similarly "oh, duh" the second you open your eyes
Bro let the guy celebrate a W
bro is gonna open his third eye rq
Oh right we’re doing this haha I like this
meow
And then the furries showed up
nacho neko desu
in fact, you can immediately generalize it by saying having any list a_1, ..., a_n having an expression which goes to 0 (nontrivially) cannot freely generate F
once you get 2 elements, getting n is immediate
Hint, there’s a nice choice of G here
the dumb choice works
In fact there’s two nice choices of G
do we not show the surjectivity of the unique map from F to <S> at any point?
composes to identity -> bijection
this isn't exactly a sound derivation in general but uhh
Have you checked that they compose to identity both ways
it's iso here
Don’t worry! It’s ok ✅
:reassured:
notably, <S> -> F is injection by inclusion map
and composing that with F-><S> is identity
yep it follows from there ofc just wondering if checked it a priori
all good all good
any handy details about g such that g o f is identity?
yes! g is surjective, f is injective
lol I was asking the sharp, idk what the problem is I am just here to shitpost

I didn't check because it's clearly surjective 
presumably it's later on in the text, but showing F is unique (given S) up to isomorphism, and that such an F exists for every S, might be fun for ya
i have something for this
hausdorff
Looks good?
I'd just say send a to (not zero) and b to zero, then p phi(a) = 0
this doesn't work though because uhh what if F not abelian
in fact, the only abelian free group is Z 
(consider unique lifting to non-abelian things)
yeah i'd have to fix the hypothesis, but that's it, right? (i.e., change from pa + qb = e_F to a more general expression)
doesn't matter what it sends to, so long as it doesn't go to identity in the end
1 isn't special here
good morning algussy
lets say I pressed a hypothesis of, say, aba^-1 b^-1 = 0
ok minor glitch here
that is, that a & b commute
show it does not freely generate a group (in the sense of free groups, not free abelian groups)
ok let me fix this thing, i got it
this is confusing lol you're using 0 on the right but multiplicative notation on the left
are u suggesting a map from {a,b} to F?
phi(a)phi(b)phi(a^-1)phi(b^-1) = phi(e) = e and setting phi(b) = e gives phi(a)phi(a^-1) = e which doesn't help bc it's always true
this is exactly asking phi(a), phi(b) to commute
ah so just assign them to non-commuting elements
universal property says it lifts to unique homomorphism
whoops, it fails
what if I were to take some arbitrary expression $a^{a_1}b^{b_1}a^{a_2}...b^{b_n} = e$
The great Sharp
give me a moment
we gotta make cases though, when the coefficients a_i sum to zero and when they don't
similarly for b_i
that's a reasonable idea
if it sums to zero, what does that say about what you can do with it
or can't, perhaps
question: for most cases, it's probably best to check closure first when trying to qualify or disqualify a particular subset as a subgroup, yes? i.e. the inherent structure of the group that is a superset will usually satisfy most of the conditions of groupness on any subset, and if the two conditions of closure and inverses are met, then that directly implies the identity condition anyway.
Pretty much
if the two conditions of closure and inverses are met, then that directly implies the identity condition anyway.
The subset could be empty
Sure, that in some way is gonna go wrong a lot.
Can you show being a subgroup H<G is satisfied if a, b in H implies ab^-1 is in H?
- plus nonempty ofc
How do you show inverses without identity omegaLUL
Oh subgroup
Owned
Very imprecise question, but I mean
it's not a precise type of question, just trying to save myself some mental energy by tackling the discriminants in order.
"is this the vibe" type question
This should be an iff because subgroups obviously satisfy the condition
If an implication is trivial there’s no point including it lest you look the fool
Ok mochizuki
Got DANG who are these mfs
Why not include them lol
I mean, when dealing in definitions it is often important to use biconditionals ime. Not doing so can make for confusion when someone else reads it.
Anyway yes I’d start with closure as it’s usually the most annoying one
The easiest is being inhabited but that’s uhhh probably obvious in context
The easiest would be identity if subset isn’t given imo
I was just showing that the subset of ((Z x Zn)-(torsion group))U{(0,0)} is not a subgroup and went the dumb way and just checked if it was a group via the 4 properties like a numpty instead of recognizing the operation is already defined as a group-able operation.
You can still define an inverse as a^(-1)ab = b I guess. But then it follows that a^(-1)a is the identity.
lol yeah i'm stuck
because even if it doesn't sum to zero, there's a possibility that a^{\sum p_i} = 1 already
Ok, let’s say they dont sum to 0
or b^{\sum q_j} = 1
What if I sent them to a convenient commutative group
That’s not gonna have any issues with commutativity
So then you can turn it into a variation of your original idea I suppose, but there’s other commutative groups
let's just use Z
Name one that isn’t Z and should be helpful here
okay why not Z
Because I say it’s a good idea
the real question is why is Z a bad idea
Z x Z?
Yep
Send a to (1,0) and b to (0, 1)
Because our condition isnt a commutativity thing
And choosing Z in particular means we have no coprime things to worry about
We just care that being commutative doesn’t screw us immediately
This make sense?
(This also obviously generalizes for n element version)
yes it does
The real tricky thing is, what if the a_n and the b_n both sum to zero
i'm just in awe of the idea of choosing Z x Z
As said before, it’s just independence ye?
So let’s map them to independent elements (linear) when being commutative isn’t an issue
This may not be the “best” method, but I think it’s effective
thinking
So, I’ll suggest that we can assume WLOG that there are no relations on any other elements of S, or that there are no other elements even
Whatever you happen to think of as usable
yeah it's enough to assume S = {a,b} bc even otherwise the other elements of S never show up in the proof
the relation we have only contains a and b
Ok, so you know you have a relation on a, b but you cannot use a commutative group
But all you need is a group where the relation doesn’t hold for some pair a’, b’
What is the question
If we have a relation on some generators then it doesn’t freely generate a group
(Universal property version)
It’s super obvious if you construct F(S) but I believe that’s later in the text
Or maybe it isn’t and that’ll give buddy here an idea
Well, if any relation kills it, then center is trivial
correct
Since, ya know, commutator
The trick is, make it
You’d be hard pressed to have a group where every possible relation fails somewhere, I sure don’t know it off hand, so maybe make one for the relation
Well, no sane one
ahhh okay
Or maybe you’ll big brain it and find such a group
You get the idea though
(And how it applies for n elements of S in an identical way)
@south patrol you see it?
Idk I'd just use the free group lol
Lmfao that’s kinda ya know
What we’re showing in a sense
Did you see the earlier thing where if one element’s exponents summed to nonzero, we just use Z^n?
yep if any one of the sums is not zero we just send stuff to Z^n
I quite like that one for making the independence thing obviously
So, they’re all zero, so you’ve gotta do something more specific to the relation
(Assuming all sums are 0 is non-essential, but Z^n is clean so I want it there for exposition)
do i need to define a group using generators and relations? i'm not 100% comfy doing that rn lol
ye i've done a similar exercise
Well, you could instead, say, build the elements of the group itself
A finite group will suffice
I think
Or at least a very simplistic group, anyhow lol
I’m pretty sure my reason why what I’m think is finite is a scuffed argument oop
Wait so how are you defining "freely generating"
universal property
Sure
So we have the definition but haven't shown existence for every set, got ya
Use the adjoint functor theorem then /s
So what this is, is saying there are no relations in F, which I thought is a fun exercise from this point
*nontrivial relations
Sure i think it's a good exercise
It’s trivialized by ya know
F(S)
But problem is you gotta build that
It’s kinda the uh
Definition of it lol
depends how you build it ig lol
But i'd be interested in whether you can prove it from the universal property rather than by constructing an explicit model
But I brought in the Z^n thing in particular for the independence bit
but i guess that is what we are doing lol
Oh yeah you 100% can (*pending my argument working)
I’ve got an argument but there’s certainly others
let me know if you want a hint in the direction I’m thinking in particular 
i have a question
maybe im being dumb, but i am working through dummit and foote and encountered an exercise that asks to prove that Z(G) is a subgroup of N_{G}(A) for any subset A of G
sure
Z(G) is the center of G and N_{G}(A) is the normalizer of A in G, A subset of G
Okay so what definition of normaliser are you using
/ what characterisations of it do you know
N_{G}(A) = {g in G | gAg^-1 = A}
it is the collection of elements of G that "make" A a "normal subgroup"
yes
The centre
gag^-1 when g is commutative is…?
That is what I was asking shook lol ye
though "g is commutative" i assume is a typo
honestly i was able to show the 2 conditions of a subgroup i just cant show it's a subset lol
well show this
for some reason it doesn't click why every eleemnt of Z(G) must be contained in N_{G}(A) for any A subset of G
It should be quite clear that gAg^-1 = A for g in the centre
okay hang on
like if a is in A, what is gag^-1
i may have been thinking about this wrong
You were
You know what I mean, center-y
im a bit rusty
okay yeah it is clear now g in Z(G) => gag^-1 = a for all a in A => gAg^-1 = A
if H is subgroup of G and for a single g from G and for all h from H it is true that ghg^-1 is in H, does this mean gH=Hg?
it is clear that gH is subset of Hg
but the other way idk
If H is finite, then you have equality since gH, Hg are the same size and one is contained in the other
gH = Hg should look like gHg^-1 = H?
okay thank you @south patrol im not quite sure why that one was giving me trouble
np
Do you see why?
yes
not yet 😄
Well, what do you know about ghg’
it is in H
right, can you have two distinct ones map to the same element in H? @ornate vessel
meanwhile, I'm over here trying to prove that for H,K < G, H U K < G iff (H subset of K) OR (K subset of H)
Got the subset => subgroup direction, but my workings out in the subgroup => subset direction have lead me to need to prove that H-(H intersect K)={} or K-(H intersect K)={}, but I feel like I'm going about it slightly wrong.
Draw a Venn diagram of H and K inside G. You'll find that if neither is a subset of the other, all regions in the most general Venn diagram that you can draw are non empty. Try multiplying elements from different regions and seeing where the products land using the fact that H, K, and their intersection are subgroups
You will find that there are 2 regions such that multiplying an element from one with one from another can't be in the union. You should be able to guess which 2 regions these should be from our assumptions.
What if we did like, g’gHg’g = g’Hg?
H = g’Hg we would also expect too, what can you say about this
take h and look at g’hg
isnt this almost the same as gHg' 😄
right
If you answer no, then that means you’d get your desired equality right?
If you use a similar argument to your original with g’ you could get it that way too maybe?
yes but
If we had x in G and g’xg in H, then x is in H
so supposing there are some elements a,b uniquely in H,K respectively, ab existing in either of them would necessarily imply that both a and b must be in both, right? i.e. put ab in one group, multiply it by b inverse and you necessarily get a, which drags a into the group. So in order to have closure on the union of H and K, you need ab to exist for all a,b in the union, and in order for that to happen, ab has to be a member of H or K originally, which necessarily implies that both a and b must be part of that same group by closure. Therefore our assumptions safely "absorb" all of one group into the other group.
side question: doesn't this setup also directly imply that H<K or K<H (I don't have the leq symbol and I'm lazy)?
Yes this proves that if the union is a subgroup, then one must contain the other
I mean particularly that one is a subgroup of the other, not merely subset
That fact is a lot more basic
it seemed so, but sometimes I need a sanity check
Sure
from ghg' in H for every h, doesnt it follow that gHg' = H 😄
It follows that gHg' is a subset of H
if x is in H not always g'xg in H?
prove forall g in G, gHg' sub H => forall g in G, gHg' = H
well, I’m saying the inverse might be helpful to look at
this will be true if gHg' sub H for every g ?
what if gHg' sub H for only one element g
You want to prove that gH = Hg, why don't you check both inclusions? Take an element of the form gh, and show that you can write it in the form hg for some other h, and vice versa
This is very direct
gHg' sub H => gH sub Hg; H(g')' sub (g')'H => Hg sub gH
uh
what lol
do this
i dont get how u get Hg'' sub g''H
use first isomorphism theorem

How second line
You should be multiplying both sides by g on the right
thats a typo but idk where 3rd
that gHg' sub H for every g in G
Are you able to construct a group homomorphism N -> NM/M?
i am not
thats why from Hg' sub g'H we have Hg sub gH
Yeah basically if ghg' in H for all h in H, then for any such h, gh = kg for some k in H. This shows gH \sub Hg. Since both have the same size (g being invertible) gH = Hg.
my original question was
think of a typical element in NM/M
there's a fairly obvious one, all elements of NM are of the form nm with n in N, m in M
first time i am using this theorem
Do you know what NM/M is? I.e. what the elements look like?
so really hard for me to think a typical element in NM/M
Do you know what NM looks like?
NM/M is NM * M?
it shouldn't be any different to thinking of any other quotient
gHg' sub H
=> (gHg'g = gH sub Hg) and (g'gHg' = Hg' sub g'H)
wlog Hg sub gH
=>
gH = Hg
ye
so without relying on the forall quantifier i dont see how you achieve equality
thats the wlog bit
notice that nM is an element in NM/M
Here you seem to have constructed a map N -> NM/M. Which is good, that's what we wanted
should be able construct explicit example
Now what is the kernel of this map
in particular if gHg' sub H but g'Hg isnt for some g
i've memorised it but i didn't understand the proof of it
but it states G/ker(phi) is isomorphic to H in this case?
yeah
iso to the image of phi right?
i don't understand how phi : N -> NM is a element in NM/M
it isn't, that's a map?
NM/M = NM * M = NM ?
assume H is a subgroup of G, then a quotient group is a*H, where a is in G
normal subgroup but yeah
hmm about that loose notation
so what does an element of NM/M look like, knowing that elements of NM look like nm
if ur just starting to learn it
G/H = {gH : g in G} yes
(usually N not H to indicate H is normal)
why does it have to be a normal subgroup?
because otherwise the quotient isn't a group
shuri ur spoiling it :(
Is it that G\H =H\G?
first off, \ usually denotes set difference; second, in terms of quotient groups, not always
g . H = H . g = gH is necessary
it appears there are some colossal holes in your understanding
I'd go back and review
eh sorry what
im jk
The notation H\G is often used for right cosets.
my bad
its ugly 
ive never seen that notation before oops
thank god i rarely talk about cosets 
Consider the map f: N -> NM/M given my the rule f(n) = nM. Show that the kernel is N \intersect M (this is pretty obvious if you write it out) and the map is surjective (also not super hard to show), then use the first isomorphism theorem.
if right coset = left coset it is a quotient group?
Fits in with the notation for double coset H\G/K
correct.
gH = Hg for all g in G
gotcha
if and only if H normal
that's an awful justification
i have also never seen the double coset notation LOL
who cares, everything commutes 
I have, but it doesn't justify writing H/G, it could justify writing H\G but that's set minus
So NM/M = NM * M = M *NM then?
i always just use aB for left coset and Ba for right coset
Why? Having nice and consistent notation is a good thing no?
no, NM/M is not, and never will be NM
except it isn't consistent, the slash is going the other way
I have seen it as shorthand for two left cosets
M=*
issue is its overlap with existing elementary notation
elements of NM/M look like nmM = nM
now can you construct a map from N to NM/M or do you need more hints
Well it's obvious that it isn't a setminus in this context
I think I can continue from here
just to make sure i understand correctly, we can say an element of AB/B is just (ab)B = aB right
god i find this confusing to read monke
AB/B is the set of cosets
cuz (ab)B = aBbB = aBB = aB ? (only in the case of normal subgroup)
oh how so? not my goal
it wasn't confusing dw
if you like A - B why not also use A + B and AB and f(A) 
(tbh I only like the last one)
wut
whats fA
A + B for coproduct of sets is based
nuh uh
and who doesn't use f(A) lol
\amalg supremacy here
I don't even know what that is
$X \amalg Y$
ana(functor)mono(morphism)
probably something like image(f)
is A+B meant to be union. pretty
unfortunately
jagr2808
It's really big for some reason
Disjoint Union
\coprod is for the big indexed coproduct like \sum. For the binary operation you should use \amalg
Or, + like a sane person
$\coprod$
You add morphisms not objects please
okeyokay
okeyokay
Wow
Should be \coprod and \bigcoprod 😠
So it matches \oplus and \otimes
They should make it \plus and \bigplus instead of + and \sum
,,\bigplus i
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
shame
we should do that
its unfortunate when your plus on paper isnt quite big enough and confuses ppl tho
emdash 
you guys need help
make it commute first
you too bby
can we discuss the natural projection pi : AB -> AB/B ? (when B is normal in AB)
AB/B = {aB} as established earlier right?
yes
= A/B or nah?
Is there something to discuss?
how do I even find the kernel here? Since phi : n => nM
the "restriction to the subgroup A"
My question is: for do I find phi : n = nM = e ?
Is it surjective? Discuss.
so creating from it the map phi : A -> AB/B
You should start by finding out what the identity in the group NM/M is
i'm on it 👍
B might not even be a subgroup of A
then AB = A trivially
i want to understand the motivation for why from the map pi : A/B - AB/B we "restrict to the subset A" and create the map phi : A -> AB/B
ok i should think this shit up properly lmao
almost like the 2nd isomorphism theorem tells you something about the intersection of A and B
what wew says cleared it up for me
and what it actually means to "restrict to a subset"
there's no restriction? who said this
dummit and foote
"A/B" is AB/B if you want it to be well defined
more like dumb and foot
dummit and foote more like dumb and foot
just take the map a -> aB
aw shit
A intersect B
ta da
CANONICAL EPIMORPHISM
2nd iso proven
i get that part but it's this intermediate step that i can't find the motivation for
which intermediate step
namely why we consider the natural projection pi : A/B -> AB/B and then "restrict to the subset A" and create this new map, phi : A -> AB/B
The second and third isomorphism theorems are built into the notation in Ravi Vakil's diagram calculus for abelian cats and using it means that you never have to manually apply these theorems 
look ignore what they're saying
okay
literally just
a -> aB is a homomorphism from A to AB/B
kernel is the intersection, so use first iso
but don't we need to know that it is surjective to use first iso
it's pretty obvious that it's surjective I'm ngl
Every map is surjective onto its image
So you can always use the theorem to get an isomorphism of the quotient with the image at least
Every map is surjective.
FTFY 
yeah ok so that's why they're doing the restriction thing
to get around actually showing it's surjective
"let aB in AB/B, then a in A maps to aB in AB/B" shows it's surjective
Jagr set theory 
ok i completed it
(not written nicely, just scratch workt)
i self study
but you guys are my teachers
thanks 😄
ok now for the third iso
Where's my tuition fees
but i would have never thought of creating such a map
dont forget to coauthor me in your first paper
i want second author status
no less
see if you can use a similar idea to show that (G/K)/(H/K) is iso to G/H as practice
so third iso?
no worries, i'll make sure my cousin knows you helped me!!!
yeah
does your cousin have one kajillion usd
okay i will try to prove it
as for YOU @hidden haven
thanks @delicate orchid
Your name starts with a, so I guess you should be first author
you can help me with this nonsense

I know what these stupid characters are but I cannot be BOTHERED to actually do the calculations
"ooohghh induce from <a, b^p>" fuck offfffff
undergraduate math "research" in a nutshell
professor says "I have these things but i dont want to calculate it. do it for me"
I'm venting because I have to do this garbage
Calculations are important
sucks to be you
I feel this 🫂
So I have to show that the intersection of arbitrary many subgroups is itself a group, and I feel like it's fairly obvious, but it said not to assume that the number of intersections is countable, which spooked me. I know if it's countable I can merely prove it inductively, but for uncountable, is it sufficient to show that the structure of an arbitrary intersection must contain identity, inverses, and have closure? If it didn't that would imply that there is some inverse or product present in one member of the intersections but not in others, which disqualifies it from being a group.
they're ordinary characters at least. The day I have to compute a brauer character is the day I drop out
They mean you should use the general form of the intersection instead of assuming a certain size.
It's really not that complicated.
well those are the 3 properties of being a subgroup so yes that would be sufficient
Induction proves things for finitely many things not for countably many things
Wew help me I need to compute blocks in order to calculate some l-local Schur indices I want die
Yeah forgot to mention that
You CANNOT show facts about infinite things with induction
(ordinary induction at least)
what's the group algebra boss
Can't remember can I lad
Sometimes I need to remember I'm not doing set theory where transfinite induction just exists
well get to thinkin
I'm lazy, wew
Nah I just need to work out the partition of the ordinary characters
if it's just a little one I'll bash it through the Brauer homomorphism with you
Transfinite induction exists everywhere but then there is no reason for it to stop at countable
It should really be said: You do not need transfinite induction to prove this statement!
I know I don't. I also don't need Fermat's last theorem to prove ³√2 is irrational, lol.
I'm mostly kidding.

regular flt ong
although that being said, I think you know more block/modular memes than me so idk how much of a help I'd be
nah I don't know shit about modular reps
Hence why I am not™️ looking forward to it™️
is ur field algebraically closed at least
Nah
🚪 🚶♂️ _ _
How about you people learn some presentation theory before representation theory
You really need it
Honestly it shouldn't be that bad. I just need to understand a particular ring of integers
The O thing
isn't representation theory just presentation theory but done again????
But how else are you going to prove cbrt(2) is irrational without using flt /s
yeah you look at characters over an algebraically closed field with positive characteristic and then translate that back into the ring
I'm assuming your thing is local
just pull a kummer and pretend every prime is regular
yeah, that's the standard setting
Totally char zero too
(was it kummer?)
it's no biggie
wtf do you call the field u get when you quotient a local ring by it's maximal ideal
residue field?
whatever that is, is the field of char p that you do the brauer nonsense over
that's the one
Two ordinary characters are in the same ell-block if their values differ by an algebraic integer in the local splitting field I'm working with
So it's fine I really just have to do that
interesting
I had so much respect for you before I knew you were into rep theory borty
wtf
I tend to work with W-blocks instead of L-blocks
Um uh it's just what my supervisor tells me to do 
I respect wew for being british and based
🙋♂️ 🇬🇧
oh then carry on may you recover 
I didn't at all sign up for it 
wait u werent talking to wew lmao
I literally named the person I was talking to in my message 
I respect wew he is one of the best musicians in the world
im scared because of nothing tomorrow
Yo that means ur really smart coz sock rates
I BARELY OWN ANY SOCKS
tomorrow i will eat breakfast >:)
then i will take a nap >:) then eat lunch >:) then take another nap
HELP WHERE DO I GET SOCKS FROM QUICKLY
HOW
I am also a little replet ackshually
I ALWAYS RUN OUT OF THEM SO I JUST WALK AROUND BARE FOOT 😭
how tf do you run out of socks
do you like
throw them away
do u think socks are one time use
I just don't have many
wOAH!! What a correct and true statement! As an unbiased third party I highly agree!
bit late honestly idk
I'm hardly even a rep theorist I do weird shit that makes people's eyes go wide at conferences
Don't make me rep all over you

"dude what if like... class functions but like...... there's even more conjugation dude.... like... just add MORE in..."
I proved a teensy tiny theorem about Schur indices a few weeks ago
Schur
Schur
what is the intuition behind multi gluing besides glUING
the most rep-theory thing I've done is explicitly compute character values for the sylow p-subgroup of S_{p^k}
I attended a series of talks by Henning Krause this summer
nerds lmao
He did rep theory 
he doesn't exist
he's a "professor at bielefeld"
lmaooo
what a bunch of idiots
bielefeld isn't real guys
Are you allowed to do presentations on representation theory? Or just representations?
Please no sheeping in this chat
combinatorics jumpscare
Pretty sure that officially makes you a representation theorist
it was a joke
this took me 13 hours straight to derive and I finished at 3am and started violently shaking from the adrenaline dump
idk what this means, they're two different fields
It's so much funnier now
If you do a presentation twice, does that mean you did a representation?
this is the number of irreducible characters of C_p \wr C_p \wr ... \wr C_p with k wreaths of degree p^x
I think this is the fifth time this joke is being made in this chat in the last 15 mins 
That group probably has derived length k
I don't scroll up
ive seen it for the first time
u will never guess what
Whatever you say bro
worked for C_5 \wr C_5 \wr C_5 good enough for me
I'm surprised there's partition stuff going on there
it's the sylow subgroup of S_p^k why the fuck are you surprised
Ohhhh that makes sense
wew told me its true good enough for me
ok on an unrelated note, but do any of you guys happen to have adobe xd?
No xD
adobe 
my humble abode
Language joke. Less funny than tubular cat's
I need to convert an xd file to after effects (I exported it from figma)
and FOR THE LIFE OF ME
I can't find someone that owns adobe xd
I even asked on their official discord
it's actually kinda scary how simlar GL and S_n are in terms of their local p-structure
bruh who uses that shit
Ooooh it's the Weyl group 👻
Bruh at least we were talking about algebra before
this similarity is made manifest by the fact that S_n is GL_n(F_1)
and group actions are F_1-reps
F_une, fields are feminine
or do YOU know two covariant quasi inverse functors between the category of adobe xd files and that of after effect files????
it's so funny you just set p = 1 in all the formulas for GL and you get the formulas for S_n

Bielfield mf spotted in chat
We all know illum isn't real
projective == illum?
el nino character table
yes hes tryna be cute
Uh-huh it's a change in brand
Wew I love and support u in all endeavours but u need to change the way you do tables in TeX
He had me tricked, I almost sent him all my savings
wait till he sees the oh no no no no
instant pretty tables
I am your grandson
I had a car accident
I need money
hi bruno
oh no no no he is unaware
boytjtjie also needs money, his 23 kids are starving
free groups stuff
Message deleted 💀
Oh don't worry I fed them all ||to my man-eating plant||
Tf did the bot delete my message lmao
Sorry Hausdorff
Those arrays scare me
scary
LMAOO
Who made this into a thread 
shitposting is the main topic of this channel
simmer down in the back
We are having a good time shitposting since nothing else is happening here
uhmmm guys how do I get the grad+ role 👉👈

apply for it
I actually asked a question but everyone ignored it ):
hints in the name
I got denied
cope
Nothing else is happening here
AAAAAA
tf is multigluing
idk what glue u using
gluing more than two affine varieties
try using superstick
glUING N VARIETies wheRE N > 2
society if G \cong \widehat{G} for all G
Your shift button needs help
Is widehatG the presheaf cat on G
Whenever I see illum spouting words i dont understand I tell myself he's pretending to understand it to cope
Isn't that the category of right G-sets
no it's the pointy yang duel
but yes it is also kinda the category of right G-sets
there's a nice connection there actually between the burnside ring and the rep ring
How is that different from the pontryagin dual
omg ponrtytagoing duality my beloved
it isn't

if it was true it would just mean all irreducibles were linear basically
oh I used the Burnside ring a lot while homotoping theory
makes sense
I don't think I've ever seen someone spell poetry aging wrong
golden quip
so true
what prereqs does the second chapter of neukirch have
@wraith cargo
do u know algebra
I pretend I do
that's enough
it's called improvised bullshitting
u have to be an adult.
If you have taken undergrad algebra
I hate you
You can read neukrich
haha
do not lie
What
I took grad alg nt 1 1/2 this semester and I wanna take 2/2 next sem and wanna be prepared

You can't read Neukirch without grad algebra lol
What is the difference
the under
Like what do you consider to be necessary from grad alg
what a noetherian ring is for example
localizations
category theory
idk if I went and looked I could probaby find more stuff
the only advanced thing we used was like localization, tensor products, limits
like you need to know A LOT of Galois theory for Neukirch lol
Neukirch as a book is very deep but at the same time it's not tame
I think you'll be fine illum

I've never heard anyone say Neukirch needs all these prereqs and it's used here to teach a course following basic algebra +galois theory and some commutative algebra
ok done
it was <b> not <a, b^p> though so I had to do it twice
only took you two hours
I only started like 30 minutes ago
Only took you a quarter of what illumi said
can somebody give me a hint to find the kernel of gf
i mean i guess i could look at the image of a homomorphism A --> B under the exact sequence but im not sure what it is
what do we know about g
it's a monomorphism, so the kernel of it is trivial but f is an epimorphism and ig that's where i'm having trouble
oh wait
oh it's just kernel f oops
i think
yes
thanks you a g
what's the best way to proceed here? induction on the length of the sequence?
referencing this
oh nvm i guess i can just consider an arbitrary exact sequence i think?
nvm i think induction is better, idk what's the better strategy for this kind of proof
there's a really really nice diagram you can draw
oh right i didn't even consider diagrams lol
weww.... glad for that
is there an injection from the ideals of a unital subring to a unital parent ring? edit: consider Z -> Q, clearly not
Exact sequences are reasoned about visually almost always
lmk if you want some hints
ye imma struggle for a little bit but i'll probably need some soon lmfao
what does the stuff in blue mean? compatibility means?
A* is the set of words and F(S) = A*/~ where ~ is the equivalence relation that takes care of cancellation with inverses
do you mean phi(x) = phi(y)? that makes more sense
No.
similarly for phi*
I do mean phi* tho
phi*(x) is an element of G though? and there's no known equivalence relation on G. G is literally any group @coral spindle
ok yea i have no clue where the fuck to start lol
suppose A is a unital subring of B, and B is a commutative unital ring but not a field. is there an injection from the ideals of A to those of B?
the long sequence A_n is exact
oh ok i'll consider that thanks
- not sure what "compatible with generating set of ~" means
oh so basically i just have to describe the short exact sequences which make up that diagram
i guess that's pretty clear
i think??
well the trivial maps always exist so yeah that makes sense
yeah so you use the fact that the image of f_i is the kernel of f_i+1
right ok i'll try that out, tysm
dumb question; could we just append trivial maps like this
because they always exist right
that's really REALLY lame but I can't see anything wrong with it immediately
this is what I wanted you to do
hopefully it's clear that this commutes and the diagonals are exact
LOL hey if it works it works
you might say it's canonical
😹
it's not canonical, what I did it the canonical construction
nah canonical means easier
there will be some subtle reason why what you did doesn't work
oh right yeah, short exact sequences require 5 elements
but then you have 0 -> A_5 -> 0 -> A_3 -> 0 -> A_1
wait isn't like 0 --> Ai --> A{i + 1} --> A{i + 2} --> 0 five elements
yea


