#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 132 of 1
equivalently, it's the smallest field extenstion such that the polynomial factors into linear thingies
Alright, so thanks to tropos we assume f(1) = 1.
Then we want to show f(z) = z^n . So if f(z) = g(z)/h(z) we want to show
g(z) - z^n h(z) is identically 0.
This is a polynomial of degree say m, so it's enough to show that it vanishes on m+1 points.
Let w be a primitive pth root, with p big enough so that the field generated by the coefficients of f doesn't contain primitive pth roots of unity, and there are more than m+1 primitive pth roots.
Assume f(w) = w^n (can we prove this).
And let s be a Galois automorphism permuting pth roots of unity, say s(w) = w^k. Then f(s(w)) = sf(w) = (w^n)^k = (w^k)^n . So f equals z^n on more than m+1 points, hence they are equal.
@frigid lark
AHHHHHH okay, I get it
Okay this was really easy
That explanation was fire, thx again
yeah everything is easy once you understand it - it's understanding it that's hard! 
mr robot is a great show
If more context, definitions are needed I will provide
just include the left/right thirds of the text
Where do you get n from? I've argued that if there is an n at all, it has to equal f'(1), but to begin with we don't know such an n even exists, or for that matter that f'(1) s an integer.
Sure, will send now
while you're here tropos is it at all useful?
If you adjoin an algebraic element you get a finite extension. If you repeat this finitely many times, you still get a finite extension. A splitting field of a polynomial is formed by adjoining all of the finitely many roots, hence a finite extension.
I've been trying to figure out an argument along those lines, but I can't quite wrap my head around it yet.
Yeah, shoot. n depends on m and m depends on n...
stop spamming my god
tropo can you do something about this guy
Dont spam pls
Cmon you're encouraging this thing
not even abstract algebra...
My bad
Muted while I figure out if there are any extenuating circumstances.
ok, did you mis-calculate the sign of one of the permutations?
that's the only way I can see a numerical error coming into play
Oh, I'll send what I've done.
cause now that we know this we get f(w)=w^n(w) for each root of unity where n(w) is an integer depending on w no?
I didn't write it all out explicitly, I tried being clever 
a grave blunder 
this is cool though I've never really thought about the exterior algebra like this
this is a good addition to my low res reaction pic collection
i prefer to do algebra inside
no problem boss
I agree with 2pi_4(f_i (x) blah blah blah (x) f_l) so far
oh I see I slightly misunderstood the multiplication
is f_i (x) f_j (x) f_k = D_ijk a standard thing?
Yep, that's the determinant function
Oh, especially if we can show that n(w) is less than the order of w when the latter is high enouh.
well you can choose it to be no?
Ah yes of course.
If the existence of n(w) holds in the first place, which still feels slippery to me.
ngl you've kind of convinced me it should be 12 
did you spot it
LETS FUCKIN GOOOOOO
I bet they forgot the 2 infront of the D_ijk that's my fan theory
Lol ye
also with this much errata maybe find a different source lol
I dunno if they released a newer edition
I have the physical copy back home, but I still remember there being a 6 in that
I follow you as far as [K(f(w)) : K] divides [K(w) : K] which is at most the order of w, but why can't the order of f(w) be larger than that?
gah i see your point
darn
can't even get a nice rational power from that cause n/phi(n) -> infty if im not mistaken (tbf rational powers would be dodgy anyways if we're working all around the unit circle)
Hmm, but we can conclude that the order of f(w) is at most the order of w, times the highest order of a root of unity in K.
Wait, so if n(w) exists, we can choose n(w) such that |n(w)| < the order of w divided by 2 (i.e. letting it be negative half the time). Then if one can find p such that phi(p) > p/2 + m, where m is the maximal degree of g and h in f = g/h.
Then my counting argument should go through.
could you elaborate a bit?
I thought I could conclude that, but now it eludes me again. :sigh:
It's not clear to me we have an argument for n(w) existing yet.
Can we prove in general that if L/K is an extension and x in L is a root of unity, then the minimal polynomial of x over K is of the form x^k = a?
this isn't true though
just take L=Q
i mean K=Q
Oh right, there are easy counterexamples to that.
Okay, how about this. It's it true that the only roots of unity in K(w) are of the form aw^k where a is root of unity in K? If so, you have
f(w)/a = w^k
And the argument would go through I think
we do have phi(o(f(w))) <= phi(o(w)) so surely we should be able to say they arent too far from each other
i dont think this works: Q(i,sqrt(3))/Q(sqrt(3)) has a primitive 8th root of unity
6th, you mean?
I see, I'm out of ideas then
Maybe someone actually has to read this book on Diophantine geometry that is referenced in the problem
What was the original problem?
Here's the original problem.
we're probably missing a simple step
i mean tbf it's a galois theory textbook and weve barely used any
guys I'm so confused, if I have a field of characteristic p, why does it follow that the the polynomial ring over the algebraic closure has characteristic 0
It has characteristic p, so it doesn't follow at all.
yyeah right, I thought it too
I do not understand a proof we did in the lesson and it is in german
Anyone needing help can reach my dm
send it
it's about the statement that a field of characteristic p>0 is perfect iffthe frobenius endomorphism is bijective
this is the proof, and it's exactly what my professor said since I listened to the lecture again which is registered
that's not how this server works
what is your definition of a perfect field
when every irreducible polynomial over K is separable
what part are you confused about
in the 4th row of the "=>"-direction
the first implication
that K has characteristic p implies that in (K bar)[X] p=0
oh no wait, this does exactly mean that it has characteristic p right?
Yes
omg, these mistakes...................
I was so confused for a moment haha, thank you guys
it's always these kind of things which make me struggle
another easy question for you: why is every injective homomorphism f:K->K, where K is a finite field, surjective?
every field homomorphism is injective btw
what can you say about an injective function from a finite set to itself
every injective function from a finite set to itself is ||also surjective||
||This fact characterises finite sets btw. A set X is finite when every map f : X → X is surjective iff it is injective. I just really like this fact||
ideal fact
moderators ban this individual
I know that being a finitely generated module isn't a local property in general, but is there a name for a ring such that it is the case? Have rings with such a property been studied? I ask because that would cause the property of having finite global dimension to be a local property too
When you say 'local' do you mean that it is inhereted by its submodules?
A ring for which every f.g. module has only f.g. submodules is Noetherian.
local usually means inherited by all localizations at primes I think
Feel free to ignore me then lol
finally, somebody ACTUALLY explains what local means
NOO
why< did y<ou tell him
you are supposed to gatekeep it
tbf that only accounts for like
$10 if someone can name a local property that does not hold for maximal localizations
one of 1266 different usages of the word
as in like
Did you consider that I might have intentionally given him wrong information 
most local properties are A has P iff A_p has P for every p iff A_m has P for every m
I have yet to see one where the last iff is false
a similar idea holds for groups btw, in my area we deem something a "local" property if it can be gleamed by looking at some \pi-elements for some set of primes \pi
🤓
you have no fuckin right to nerd react me after posting this
that's standard for a set of primes 
JUST SAY "pi" LIKE A NORMAL HUMAN
I feel offended
that would be because I offended you
14 years of age... grandpa..
ok time to actually do math
I've been trying to do math for the past like 2 weeks but video games are too distracting
toric geometry is killing me
Which one
Being finitely generated is local tho?
So true
my friend let me borrow his hyperion so I've just been doing f7 runs without an end
Or what is your definition of local?
Hyperion? What’s that?
the best weapon in the game
it's a sword that lets you teleport forward and make a big explosion
it's worth 2.1 billion coins
the best player right now has like 100 billion
I mean local in the sense that a property being true for a module M is equivalent to it being true for all localizations of that module, and also equivalent to all localizations in the primes, or in the maximals (viewed respectively as modules over the localized rings)
this
oh no timo
I do know a counterexample to this
moderator moment 🤓
which one?
I even asked on mse
no responses
krull?
yes
interesting
obv it's true for maximal ideals because it only has one
but fails when localising at (0)
because that's the fraction field and has dimension 0
but that's not a local property then no?
yeah but I'm looking for a local property that is not maximal local
huh
I'm looking for an A and P such that A_m has P for every m does not imply that A has P
and that P is a local property of A
That's not gonna work
when taking A_p has P ... as definition of local
why?
As that's the definition of a local property
m is a maximal ideal
yes
yes
so if A has P <=> A_p has P for every prime ideal p, we can always conclude that A_p has P for every prime ideal p <=> A_m has P for every maximal ideal m?
wait no
that's phrased wrong
uh
let me think
Oh
like
idk how to phrase this properly
most local properties are: A has P iff A_p has P iff A_m has P
what I'm asking is if we can just remove the last iff because it will always be true anyway
I think no but I'm looking for a counterexample
you're asking for a property s.t. A_p has P <=> A has P but A_m has P is not equivalent to A having P?
Yes that's equivalent if I'm not stupid
it should be by looking at the maximal ideal that contains p
Because if R has P for all maximal ideals, then Rm has P and then localise that at p and you got Rp
wait why is (R_m)_p = R_p?
Properties of tensor products
wut
Maps from R_m_p to S are maps from R_m to S that map things outside p_m to units which are maps from R to S that map things outside both p and m to units
If you localise twice you're not gaining any nrw information
But things outside p and m are the same as things outside p
Just use the universal property to get a map and show it's S
an iso
but how do we know that R_p has P
So homs out of both things are isomorphic functors
that's what you asked it to
Me when the yoneda embedding reflects my isomorphism
Btw this same proof works for the third isomorphism theorem
what is S
A typo
lets draw the triangle
wew ladz
yup this looks like a universal property to me
The definition of the localisation needs the information of S^-1R AND j
You need to know both who your ring is and how R relates to it
Ok but your ring embeds inside a certain way
to show this characterises S^-1R we do the standard thing of setting T to be some different localisation (S^-1R)' and then the two maps induced by the universal properties must be inverses and you get that the localisation is an isomorphism
If you embed it differently then it won't act like you want it to
You want your ring to embed in such a way that respects the ring operations
Among other things
(generally there might be different embeddings tho)
hm
But you have to specify who your ring is inside the big ring
So when you do the fraction do you do this implicitly
By setting elements of your ring to be r/1
why must they be inverses
how do you show that
The identity map is makes the triangle
R → S^-1 R
↓
S^-1 R
commute when you put it in the diagonal
All together now
this is a standard argument for universal properties, you always have the identiy map from an object to itself, so if we have two maps like in the pic, they must compose to give the identity as there is only one map from S^-1R to S^-1R. This is assuming the embeddings are the same of course nah
And so do the composites, but such a map has to be unique
how does this work? like what do I have to tell the bot to draw that? do I just need to write latex code and it does that? ;-;
A modern commutative diagram editor with support for tikz-cd.
click latex then copy paste the code
ye
thanks
q.uiver is fire
im sure there's some people out there that just type it out by remembering the commands

It has some limitations but there's like 50 others similar tools with different limitations that you can also use
ok I think I understand it let me just repeat it to make sure I didn't get anything wrong
in the triangle we have
then we set f = id so j circ g = id and thus they are both isomorphisms?
so R_m is isomorphic to (R_m)_p
how wrong is that
ah frick
the composition of the straight dotted maps must be equal to the curved one because there is a unique map from S^{-1}R to itself by the universal property
fuck I drew them backwards oh well
it's symmetric
you can apply this argument to anything that has a universal property
the bottom one is supposed to be the other way around?
yeah imagine the dotted arrows are going the other way - this diagram is still correct it's just upside down
both?
all three if you want
I don't really know how to explain it in any simpler terms
uhhh
why must g circ g' = id
because, by the universal property
because it's unique
couldn't it be any isomorphism?
so by uniqueness they must be the same map
but the uni prop just says something about the triangle
not about other stuff you put in no?
I just joined two triangles together 
sounds like goddamn category theory to me
I feel stupid right now
bruh I'm reading abt sets rn and I feel stupid af so I know ur pain
The identity map and the composition of the maps make the diagram commute. The universal property says there is exactly one map which makes the diagram commute
ZF didn't know dick why did they come up with so many axioms
but what diagram? doesn't the universal property just talk about one single triangle and not that whole diagram?
Yes, apply the universal property to the outer triangle
ahhhhh
the sinister third triangle
okay that's what I was missing
I don't see how we can use this to show that R_m_p = R_p
no clue
note that all the non units in R_m_p are those contained in p and same story for R_p
I think you can use a similar argument to show that the units are all the same
this is a rough idea but I think it would work sorta
without any fancy machinery
an open source textbook and reference work on algebraic geometry
how can I see that $F(y_1, \dots y_n)$ is separable over $E$?
okeyokay (analysis is cool)
Are all the y_i distinct?
If so you have a polynomial, specifically f in E[X] which each y_i is a root of, and that f has no double roots
Hence each generator of F(y_1,...,y_n) is seperable
Over E
Hence the extension is seperable
Hence for each y_i, Irr(E, y_i, X) won't have double roots
Presumably f is assumed to be seperable right before this
yeah
oh i thought you had to show that every a in F(y_1, ..., y_n) is separable
but i suppose the y_i generate that field so that makes sense
i guess i should try to prove that formally then lol
Try first with one generator
And then apply seduction induction
Well that argument would only hold for finite field extensions
oh yea ig applying seduction makes sense
ye
my guess is that i would have to use the homomorphism property
Have you defined the separable degree of an extension?
no i don't think so
How was a seperable extension defined?
they only defined it for finite extensions, but if ${E: F} = [E: F]$
okeyokay (analysis is cool)
where ${E: F}$ is the number of isomorphisms of $E$ onto a subfield of the algebraic closure of $F$ fixing $F$
okeyokay (analysis is cool)
OMG GUYS I DROPPED SOMETHING THAT'S LIKE 400 MIL AND HANDLE IS 600 MIL
LET'S GO
IT'S 0.01% CHANCE
Alr, good enough, you can also consider {E : F} to be the number of embeddings of E into some algebraic closure of F that fix F
beat your wife to it
Spoiler for this ||if a generator, b, is seperable, let f = Irr(F, b, X), then you can embed F(b) into F^a over F by sending b to any root of f||
oh yea im def gonna come back to this an exercise just doing some reading rn
Okeyokay
why is every submodule now free of rank 0 or 1
wouldnt this imply the Gi+1/Gis are free
why does it follow for every other ssubmodule
actually locally free and stalkwise free are different
for notation F_i is just the submodule generated by all x_j such that j < i
x_i is the basis for the free module F and G is a submodule and we want to show that G is free aswell
given the ring is a PID
yes but that's not a local property
and then they're related to projective in some annoying way
ayy is this hungy
yea it just appeals to the noobies like me
and the exercisesa re not terribly hard
anyways can u help with the proof?
oh no i just got to section 2 of that chapter i believe lol
(just learned about exact sequences from section 1)
srry
maybe not in the sense of "local property" that most local things are, but "locally free" has the word "local" in it
yes but that's a different local
and @delicate orchid said "what local means" not "local property" so i'm just trying to be clear
because i spent like half an hour on deciphering this shit myself
Yes that's what local means in algebra
that's what "local property" means in commutative algebra
Yes
but "local" can mean a bunch of different things
Yes...
yeah it's just like
a vibe
But context clearly matters
so what is the issue?
idk u tell me ;-;
dumb queston, but subgroups of imprimitive groups are imprimitive right?
It seems true to me
like just from the other angle
if a permutation group is primitive, then none of it's elements can fix a non-trivial partition
nvm this turns out to be stupid
Let $\zeta_{3}$ be a primative 3rd root of unity. I was using the fact that $\Phi_{3}(x) = x^2 + x + 1$ in order to find the minimal polynomial of $2 + \zeta_3$ over $\mathbb{Q}$, and got $a^2 - 3a + 3 = 0$. Is this correct?
Sapphire
The minimal polynomial will be \Phi_3(x-2), which I can't be bothered to calculate tbh.
Yes, looks like it.
If you require justification, x\mapsto x-2 is an automorphism of Q[x], therefore the polynomial \Phi_3(x-2) is irreducible. It is also monic and has \zeta_3+2 as a root, therefore it is truly the minimal polynomial of \zeta_3+2 over Q.
The same procedure works for any algebraic element over any field for exactly the same reason: if f(x) is the minimal polynomial of \alpha over K, then 1/c^nf((x-d)/c) is the minimal polynomial of c\alpha+d over K.
This should be true. Let n be maximal such that $\zeta_n$ is a primitive n'th root of unity in K. And let w be a primitive m'th root of unity. Write n = da, m = db, where d is the gcd of n and m, and a,b are coprime. Then WLOG let $\zeta_n = \zeta_{dab}^b$ and $w = \zeta_{dab}^a$. Then there exists some integers, r,s such that rb + sa = 1. Hence $\zeta_n^rw^s = \zeta_{dab}$. Hence $K(w) = K(\zeta_{dab})$, thus all of the roots of unity in $K(w)$ are contained in $\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_{dab})$, and we just showed that we can write any root of unity in $\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_{dab})$ say $\zeta_{dab}^c$ as $\zeta_n^{rc}w^{sc}$
parrottea
hello! does anyone know of a good source for solutions for pinter's abstract algebra?
Narwhal pointed out a counterexample to
all of the roots of unity in K(w) are contained in Q(zeta_dab)
namely K=Q(sqrt3), and w=i
which gives n=2, m=4, dab=4, zeta_dab=±i, but K(i) contains all the 12th roots of unity.
Okay, I see the last conclusion is wrong
I think your argument shows that zeta_dab is in K(w), but not that it generates K(w).
Wait, perhaps it does.
No K(w) is contained in K(zeta_dab), but not all roots of unity in K(w) are of the form zeta_dab^s
i.e. not all roots of unity in K(w) are contained in Q(zeta_dab)
we still on the same problem from earlier
Yes.
my strategy of napping and hoping someone else solves it before I wake up didn't work so well
same
Narwhal also pointed out that we probably haven't applied enough Galois theory for the exercise to be about that.
what book is this from
Lang
oh ok, cool I have that, maybe skimming the section will give some ideas for tools to throw at it at least
Maybe
I tried
It doesn't smell like anything present in chapter 6
Maybe something to do with characters
but that's pushing it
Can we find some property of K that allows us to bound the ratio between "highest root of unity in K(w)" and the order of w?
We could get a not so useful bound just by considering [K(w) : Q]
Then the highest root of unity, say zeta_n cannot have phi(n) > [K(w) : Q]
then as phi(n) > sqrt(n/2), we have n < 2[K(w) : Q]^2
What I hoped for was a bound of n/ord(w) that didn't depend on w.
But I've no idea where to look for that.
I might have an idea
since we know |f(z)|=1 when |z|=1, I think that should mean the derivative of g(t)=|f(e^it)| should be 0
which might just be like looking at f'(z)=0 when |z|=1
so if we write $f(z)=c \frac{\prod_i (z-\alpha_i)}{\prod_j (z-\beta_j)}$ and do logarithmic differentiation it'll force a condition on what the roots/poles have to be
merosity
we already know the alpha and beta can't be roots of unity, so they must lie inside or outside the circle
carrying out the differentiation I think gets us $$\sum_i \frac{1}{z-\alpha_i} = \sum_j \frac{1}{z-\beta_j}$$
merosity
for all |z|=1
whether this is right or wrong, I don't think this will be enough either since we have some f(z) earlier that map the unit circle to itself that weren't wz^n
might be something much simpler than this actually, almost falls out by symmetry
if we have $f(z)=c \frac{\prod_i (z-\alpha_i)}{\prod_j (z-\beta_j)}$ then $$1 = |f(z)|=|c|\frac{\prod_i |z-\alpha_i|}{\prod_j |z-\beta_j|}$$ if you look at the individual distances, and take $\alpha_i$ somewhere inside the circle that isn't the center, then $|z-\alpha_i|$ will be lopsided as you move around and will have to be accounted for
merosity
Does that lead towards an argument that excludes, say, f(z)=2(z-½)/(z-2)?
that's what I had in mind when I made this comment
Yes, I hoped the post after that somehow suggested a way around the problem.
it might be enough to narrow it down to f of the form that's a product of (az-b)/(bz-a)
Considering Clifford Algebras are generated by a quotient of the tensor algebra and can contain spinors, what exactly defines these spinors as sufficiently "isomorphic" to regular tensors so that they don't exceed the size of the tensor algebra?
The more general statement is indeed proved in the book Fundamentals of Diophantine geometry as theorem 7.3. I don't have time to read it now, but it is there
thx
I'm not exactly sure what I have to show here. My best guess was to define $d=\prod_{p\mid a,b}p$ and show that $a\mathbb{Z}+b\mathbb{Z}=d\mathbb{Z}$, but I can't figure out how to do this without needing to re-prove the theorem from the book (for all integers a,b there is a unique d so that aZ+bZ=dZ). Am I showing what's being asked for? Is there a better way to do it?
person2709505
is there a specific way your book defines gcd
I think it says that gcd(a,b)=d (the d in the parentheses in my last comment)
It also gives that d is a common divisor of a,b as a corollary
hm I believe if you show aZ + bZ = dZ you can then use the book's theorem to conclude that since d is unique it is the gcd
i don't think you'll need to reprove it in this case
I tried doing that but as far as I could tell, showing aZ+bZ=dZ reduces to showing that if p,q are prime then there are integers r,s so that rp+sq=1, which I think is most conveniently shown by proving bezout's identity. Maybe I misunderstood?
(The part I'm stuck on is showing dZ \subseteq aZ+bZ)
That's ${z\in \mathbb{Z}:z=ax+by\textrm{ for some }x,y\in\mathbb{Z}}$
person2709505
is gcd being a linear combination given to you
or bezout's lemma as it's called
if it is given just go ahead and use it and then you're done
I assume our proof will have to depend on the fundamental thm of arithmetic somehow
sure you can use 2.6 then
So the idea is we show $\prod_{p\mid a,b}p=d$?
person2709505
yeah pretty much that's your job
For anyone interested the specific proof is given in thm 6.4
Yeah I was thinking about how to reduce to just working with blaschke products yesterday but I couldn’t get a handle on the poles
oh 6.1 is enough as well
Nvm just realized can’t reduce to this anyways since you could absolutely have poles within the unit circle, but I guess might be able to still say all poles are in the unit disk or outside to reduce to that case up to a reciprocal
One thing we do know is zeroes and poles are related by a circle inversion if I’m not mistaken
Yeah so I think you can kinda do the same trick as with blaschke products to collect poles and zeroes and get an explicit form for f in terms of a product of disk automorphisms to some integer powers
I realize this is probably what y’all were basically already saying
HI
Reposting old question.
I've partly solved the first question, but not entirely, would appreciate some help.
If $g:A\otimes_K L\to\operatorname{End}L(V)\subset\operatorname{End}K(V)$ is another isomorphism, then using Skolem Noether ($A,B$ simple $K$-algebras, $A$ central and finite-dimensional, $B$ finite-dimensional, $f,g:B\to A$ homomorphisms $\implies\exists u$ with $g(b)=u^{-1}f(b)u$) we get a unit $s\in\operatorname{End}K(V)^\times$ such that $z^g=s^{-1}z^hs$ for all $z\in A\otimes_KL$. The same applied to $g^{-1},h^{-1}$ (now considered as $L$-algebra homomorphisms because $A\otimes_KL$ is $L$-central) yields a $t\in A\otimes_KL$ with $x^{g^{-1}}=t^{-1}x^{h^{-1}}t$ for all $x\in \operatorname{End}L(V)$. Let $v\sigma$ be the units such that $x^{g^{-1}\sigma g}=v^{-1}\sigma xv\sigma$ for all $x\in\operatorname{End}L(V)$. The map $a\otimes\lambda\mapsto a\otimes\lambda^\sigma$ is a $K$-algebra automorphism, so $t^{\sigma}$ is again a unit, likewise $t^{\sigma h}$. Using Skolem-Noether twice we see $x^{g^{-1}\sigma g}=((t^{-1})^\sigma x^{h^{-1}\sigma}t^\sigma)^{g}=s^{-1}(t^{-1})^{\sigma h}x^{h^{-1}\sigma h}t^{\sigma h}s$ for all $x\in\operatorname{End}L(V)$. The element $r=t^{\sigma h}s$ is a unit, so $v^{-1}\sigma xv\sigma=r^{-1}u^{-1}\sigma xu_\sigma r$, so $u_\sigma r=v_\sigma a_\sigma$ for $a_\sigma\in L^\times$. Now if not for the pesky $r$ I'd be done, is there any way to get rid of it or show $r\in L^\times$?
leave_no_norm
let m be a maximal ideal and p a prime ideal, why is pm = p
Bet this is nakayama
wait no nvm
m = 2Z, p = 3Z
Yeah nvm I guess
hmmm
CONTEXT!!!!!!
Is A local
no
Then this is false innit, by a similar example to Terra's
m = 3Z and p = 5Z this time
here
Well actually the same example works lmao
that was yesterday
Wise wtf
maybe show both inclusions?
I feel like this is very doable by hand
but didn't we just give a counter example
u didn't tho
tterra did no?
I mean I assumed when you asked the question you meant that p is contained in m
wow
oh
the context was like
we were talking about local properties
and how they're always given as A has P <=> A_p has P for every prime p <=> A_m has P for every maximal m
I asked if the last iff is always true anyway
or if it's only true for some local properties
then nine pointed out that if A has P <=> A_p has P and R has P for all maximals, then R_m has P <=> R_m_p has P and then said that R_m_p = R_p
note that there's a one to one correspondence of prime ideals of R_m and prime ideals of R that don't intersect R-m
So if you're taking (R_m)_p I assume that p there is actually something interesting in R_m
for two maximal ideals (R_m)_m' is 0 when m =/= m' so it doesn't always hold
this is what TTerra essentially said
wait so what did @chilly ocean mean
I think they meant in the case where p is contained in m
y'all are really stretching the meaning of my original statement lol
i didn't mean anything deep i literally only gave a counterexample to "mp = p"
Yeah that only works if p is contained in m
Pretty sure I said that in my message as well tho
oh so the maximal local => local local thing is not true?
Eisenbud actually taught me something 😎
My day is getting brighter
What?
It is
So
So if R has P <=> R_p has P for all primes p, then you want to show this is eq to R_m has P for all m.
One direction is easy. Now if you want to show that R_p has P, you choose a maximal ideal m that contains p, and then you have (R_m)_p = R_p, so R_p has P
you choose a maximal ideal m that contains p
and there the riddle is solved
CONTEXT!!!!!!
zorn my beloeved
WE FINALLY GOT IT
I'm so proud of this community 🥹
abs alg's greatest moment
The roots-of-unity thing?
wait but how do you show that pm contains p lol
It doesn't, but that's not what you need to show
then how do we use the proposition
A_p means A[A\p^-1]
oh I forgor
field k has algebraic closure K. B is a finitely generated k-algebra. Suppose we're able to extend the inclusion map i:k -> K to i:B -> K. is this enough to say B is an algebraic extension of k?
oh! suppose instead we have a nontrivial extension of the inclusion map? maybe it works in this case?
OK extend the inclusion map by sending x to 1
hm... right. thanks
but there is some way to infer that B is an algebraic extension from the given premises here, right?
Let B = k(x).
so the homomorphism extension must be an injection
If the extension is an injection, this is the equivalent of saying "If B is a subfield of the algebraic closure of k, then is it a subfield of the algebraic closure of k?"
what has me a bit confused is, I've previously encountered the definition of a subfield to be that of a field that is an actual subset of the parent field, not anything given by a map
It is a mild abuse of terminology to say that "is a subring" rather than "is isomorphic to a subring" but this has the same effect.
oh I see! this makes sense, if it is isomorphic to an algebraic extension (subring of algebraic closure) it might as well be one too
being isomorphic to an algebraic extension is the same as being an algebraic extension
Yes you edited your message to be more accurate
i see, thanks a lot for clearing this stuff up!
Hello I have a problem
Hello I am a problem
Let p be a prime and the set M=Z_p × Z_p. We define the operation "o": for every (a,b), (a',b') in M, (a,b) o (a',b')= (aa'-bb', ab'+a'b). We know (M,o) is a commutative monoid. What is the number of invertible elements? I saw that (1,0) is the identity of M.
I am stuck
Any hint?
is this just Z_p[i]
Yes. Which means that its properties depend on whether Z_p already contains a square root of -1 or not.
If there is a b such that b² == -1 (mod p) then (b,1) o (b,-1) = (0,0) so those elements certainly cannot be invertible.
But if there's no such b, then the usual rule for division of complex numbers works.
It's not quite Z_p[i].
For example if p=5 then since 2 is a square root of -1 already, Z_5[x]/(x^2 + 1) is just Z_5 again
Or well ok let me amend that
what I said was wrong
It is what I wrote down, but Z_5[sqrt(-1)] as written would be just Z_5 still in that particular case.
hmm so say I have G acting transitively on X, and I consider the componentwise action on X^n
then the orbits will correspond to essentially partitions of n (the set of n elements)?
the "equality structure" of X^n will be preserved
no wait that's not necessarily true is it, these can in turn fall apart into smaller orbits
is there a notion of when this does happen? like when the action on X^n is "as transitive as possible"
thinking about the space of bezier cubics... as functions R -> R^2 they have an action by Aff(R^2) (on the image), but also an action by Aff(R) (on the parameter)
the space of bezier cubics is almost everywhere 4*2-dimensional (determined by 4 control points), and Aff(R^2)xAff(R) is 6+2 dimensional
though we know that the action is not transitive because in the "general" case there are self-intersecting and non-self-intersecting beziers and these two classes are preserved by this action
I wonder if the orbits are discrete however
how would you know that we have to find an extension of the rationals of degree 2 prior to knowing what ${\rho_0, \rho_1, \rho_2, \rho_3}$ fixes?
okeyokay (analysis is cool)
like say for example we wanted to find the degree of the fixed field of ${\rho_1, \rho_2, \rho_3, \rho_4}$ without knowing what each of them fix, but we know the subgroup diagram
okeyokay (analysis is cool)
"As transitive as possible" sounds like you basically want G to be the product of symmetric groups on each orbit.
what do you mean by a group "being" another group on an orbit?
(Disclaimer: I haven't absorbed all the details of your bezier curve example)
I meant G would need to be isomorphic to the product of each orbit's symmetric group, in order if we want to be able to predict the orbits in X^n from the orbits in X.
But I now don't think I was right about that, if n is small compared to the size of the orbits.
the exact property I had in mind was that given $(x_1, \dots, x_n) \in X^n$ and $(y_1, \dots, y_n) \in X^n$ such that $\forall i j, x_i=x_j \iff y_i=y_j$, there exists $g$ with $\forall i, gx_i = y_i$
mniip
this seems to be equivalent to the definition where given $x_i \ne x_j$ and $y_i \ne y_j$ we have $\forall i, gx_i = y_i$, except the degenerate cases where $|X| < n$
mniip
Yeah -- that's the same as saying the action of G is n-transitive, I think.
well
k-transitive for all k<=n
an action is always trivially n-transitive if n>|X| but not so much with my thing
but if n<=|X| then n-transitivity implies n-1-transitivity
Okay, point.
okay yeah but bezier curves
I suppose your Bezier curves are infinite curves, not with definite start and end points?
I'm thinking of maps f:R -> R^2
they have "start" and "end" points as much as they have f(0) and f(1)
by considering the image of f instead, you're implicitly quotienting by the symmetries of the argument space, and I don't want to do that quite yet
Okay, so transforming the argument space gives you something you consider a different curve, not just a different parameterizaton of the same curve.
in practice bezier curves are quadruples of control points
reparameterization is a symmetry that acts on this space
I suspect it would be enlightening to pretend we're working over a finite field so we can count instead of trying to imagine dimensionality ...
anyone?
curves over finite fields I am scared
It seems to be the most important distinction is between curves whose four control points are collinear and ones where they affinely span the entire plane.
(Which is a distinction preserved by all of the transformations).
well, there's also the distinction between self-intersecting and non-self-intersecting curves
Oh, and degenerate curve where all the control points coincide.
the Aff(R^2) will act rather differently depending on how many points are unique yes
so my book (fraleigh) defines a separable extension as a finite extension E of F such that [E: F] = {E: F}, where {E: F} is the number of isomorphisms of E onto a subfield of the algebraic closure of F keeping F fixed. How would you define a separable extension in the infinite case, where E is an infinite extension of F?
The self-intersecting-or-not distinction shows that we'll have more than one orbit, but I don't think it directly influences the size of the orbits.
A special kind of non-self-intersecting curves, though, are the ones of degree 1, since they are the one where the Aff(R^2) and Aff(R) actions overlap, so their orbits are smaller.
Hmm, this can also happen for degree-2 curves. For all of them, though?
This classification becomes complicated and might not even be helpful.
Let's heuristically assume that most curves are in general position and have enough distinguishing features (self-intersections, inflection points or the like) that a parameter transformation cannot look like an affine output transformation.
E is separable if given any F-algebra A, A (x)_F E is reduced.
Equivalently, in the case that E is finitely generated as a field extension, there exists a “separating transcendence basis” {x1,…,xn}< E which is a transcendence basis and such that E/F(x1,…,xn) is separable algebraic.
This requires you to say what a separable algebraic extension is, in the finite case one definition is what you said, but the “proper” one IMO is that each element is separable, meaning that its minimal polynomial has no repeated roots
I don’t feel like saying anything more, so if you have more questions please consult Google or someone else
Here's my line of thought: if Aff(R) x Aff(R^2) has finitely many orbits, then every bezier curve can be produced by reparameterizing and affinely moving one of these finitely may "primordial" bezier curves
for lines and parabolas this is obviously true
however there's a certain sense in which a parabola is on equal grounds to a curve where 2 control points coincide
but these are obviously in different orbits
For a finite field k of size p, the order of Aff(k²) is p²·(p²-1)·p(p-1). And it acts faithfully on general-position curves.
Aff(k) has order p(p-1), so the order of Aff(k²)×Aff(k) is p²(p²-1)p(p-1)p(p-1).
Huh, this means that there actually isn't room for more than one "general curve" orbit in the finite case when p is large.
So much for speculating that the finite-field case would be helpful.
oh ok thanks for typing tha tout
I guess I can say one last thing
(Mostly) nobody fucking cares
It’s rare you deal with this, so you can mostly forget it
A lot of people will never have to care about separability in fact because everything is separable in char 0
ok so here's a possibly important fact: the space of self-intersecting curves forms an open subset
and e.g. curves where P1=P3 lie on the boundary. Parabolas also lie on the boundary
maybe we can move to #math-discussion cause this is leaving the realm of abstract algebra
how would i show that $\varphi$ is a representation? i'm trying to show that $\varphi_{\sigma_1\sigma_2}$ and $\varphi_{\sigma_1}\varphi_{\sigma_2}$ agree as functions on the standard basis, i.e. $e_{\sigma_1\sigma_2(i)} = e_{\sigma_1(i)}e_{\sigma_2(i)}$ for all $i \in I$, but so far I haven't got anywhere
okeyokay (analysis is cool)
because say $\sigma_2(i) = j$, then it sums up to showing $e_{\sigma_1(j)} = e_{\sigma_1(i)}e_j$
okeyokay (analysis is cool)
@white oxide how are you getting e_sigma1(i) e_sigma2(i)
group operation for GL_n(C) is given by matrix multiplication so phi_sigma1 phi_sigma2 corresponds to a composition of the permutations
is there any non-painstaking way to check that $\rho$ is a homomorphism? i don't want to check all combinations of elements of $S_3$ lol but it seems like that's the only way since the representation was defined in terms of the generators of $S_3$
okeyokay (analysis is cool)
or well i guess the point is that i only have to check it for the 6 elements of S_3 expressed as a combination of the generators?
idk
ye
ah yea makes sense thx
wait how would i even compute $\rho\bigl((12)(123)\bigl)$
okeyokay (analysis is cool)
because i don't know it's a homomorphism yet
define it on generators and extend in such a way that it is a homomorphism
yo if A is a free R-module then its torsion free obviolusly right?
cuz it would contradict independance?
Ok I’ll try that thx
you know how in linear algebra you can define a linear map by saying what it does on a basis? similar idea
it's probably a good idea to think about the general question: given a presentation of a group, when does a function on the generators to another group extend to a homomorphism?
i odnt understand
is p a prime of Z or of A
or what
and what is the multiplication in pa
multiplication in the ring A or in Z
p is the same prime as char A
$pa$ is just $\ob{a + a + \cdots + a}{p times}$
characteristic?
characteristic of a ring R, denoted char R is the smallest positive integer n such that for all elements r in R, nr = 0
also does anyone know how this is proved cuz i have no idea
first show
ye for two
can someone explain the implication that choosing this r gives us rX is contained in F?
the proof is easy for me after that
wait wdym
I found it funny that pre university has access to the advanced channels just by the advanced role
we have two cases. If $x\in S$, then $rx \in F$ because $F$ is the free submodule generated by $S$. If $x\in X-S$, then we have the $r_x x = -\sum_{i=1}^k r_i x_i \in F$, so in particular $rx \in F$ because $rx$ is a scalar of $r_x x$.
thejoesully
Oh fugg
I either misread, or you edited the question
I thought you were asking why rX < F means rA < F lol 
ohh
so thats why they included all the product of r_i
yea that was samrt
thank you i got it
If o(a) =m and o(b)=n , gcd(m,n)=1 , and ab=ba then I have to show that o(ab) = mn
Now in this
Only thing remains to show is
mn | o(ab)
And that is where I can't think anything
What's the idea?
what is o
Order of an element
you use contradiction
How
That mean
it follows quite fast
o(ab)=( mn)(p) + r
can you write your work down on a piece of paper or a latex document somewhere else
Yes it is
now notice w > 0
It's r
So we have (ab)^ r = e??
yeah you should be able to finish the rest yourself
I'm not sure where to start with this. It's simple to see that for any x,y in G the isomorphism has to conjugate xy by y, but this doesn't exactly specify a bijection. For what it's worth there's an easy homomorphism (just map everything to 1)
For reference
can you think of any unary operation that “flips” xy
Conjugation by y...?
fwiw conjugation by any element is an automorphism
Oh yeah wait
but i don’t think that suffices here since it’s specific to the y you pass in
i had something different in mind
think of some matrix actions that swap the matrices
yes
Ok yeah I got it that shouldn't have taken that long
the name of the group is also a nice hint
Any hints on 2?
Can I show closeness with two $$\phi_{1}$$ and $$\phi_{2}?$$ And show that the product of those two are in G, thus t he closeness is G and because of this closeness shows it is a automorphism?
and then try to do the same with inverses?
jonathan100
the product of those shouldn’t be in G
it should be in Aut(G)
do you remember what the group operation is in Aut(G)
I don't, what is it?
composition of maps
“group under composition of automorphisms in terms of maps”
your goal is to show the composition of two inner automorphisms is an inner automorphism
think about what element that would be a conjugation by
i.e. if you do conjugation by g and then conjugation by h, that’s the same thing as conjugating by something else
you used h twice
each phi should be conjugation by a different element
it doesn’t necessarily have to be different, but it should be arbitrary and so you should use g and h (or some other 2 distinct letters)
Let G be a nonempty set and let * be an associative binary operation on G. Assume that for any element a,b in G, we can find x in G such that ax=b, and we can find y in G such that ya=b.Show that (G,*) is a group.
what have you tried
i can’t tell what happened in that third equality
I tried to equate the two equations
i agree, i just don’t understand how those outer terms got there
I'll write it more clearly
i would begin with the axioms axioms a group
the operation is associative
we have closure and associativity
identity element and inversibility
what happens if you set a = b?
if a=b then x and y must be the identity
let’s rephrase that
if a = b then there is some x such that
ax = a
and such that ya = a
you somehow need to show x = y
both x and y are equal to a*a^-1
because ax=a for all a in G, doesn't that mean that there exists a right identity element in G? and doing the same with ya=a, we get that there exists a left identity element in G. now setting a=x in the second equation we get that yx=x but yx=y, so x=y. is this correct?
Why x is the same for all elements in G?
"ax=a for all a in G" it isn't given. What's given is that for each a in G there is some x such that a x = a.
Ok I didn't realize there was more context 
But what you can do to modify your proof is to fix your first x such that ax=a for some a, and try to work things out from there
sleemo why did you delete that, this is the right channel
let's say we have ax=a with x fixed. from the second equation, ya=b, we get that y(ax)=ya => (ya)x=b, so bx=b. we proved that the x satisfying ax=a also satisfies bx=b. so we can choose the same x for all elements in G. correct?
i feel like you are now mixing and matching the x's
hm actually it looks fine, i think i misunderstood
that suggests that x is a right identity for all x yes. the rest of the identity proof should be straightforward
do you know how to approach the inverses?
we can set b=e and from ax=b we get that ax=e, so x is the inverse of a?
right inverse, but yes
if we denote the right identity element with er and the left identity element with el, then er=el*er=el, so we have an identity element in G
yes
werent we doing inverses
sorry
from the second equation, we set b=e so ya=e
so how can you characterize y
y is the left inverse of a
and we have to prove that the left inverse and the right inverse are equal
Are you OK from here on out? @trim stirrup
I think I am
Good luck
I'll figure it out
it's quite similar to the other proof we did
Goodjob
thakns @prime sundial for helping
I thought it would be better in help
Let G3 be the symmetry group of a cube.
(a) Determine the order of G3.
(b) Consider the subgroup H3 < G3 generated by the three reflections on the planes x1 = 1/2, x2 = 1/2, x3 = 1/2. Determine the order of the group H3.
(c) Let S(P) be the stabilizer of a vertex P of the cube. What is the order of S(P)?
(d) Prove that every element of G3 can be written as h·s, where h ∈ H3 and s ∈ S(P). Hence, G3 = H3 · S(P).
(e) Recalculate the order of G3.
But I got no answer so yea, let me repost it^^
where are you stuck
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin
2. I have begun but got stuck midway
3. I got an answer but I'm told it's wrong
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked
5. I have a question about someone else's worked solution
6. None of the above
a) How does one do this in their head? Like aren't there pretty many?
b) What is meant with the plane x1=1/2? Is this the plane where x2=0 and x3=0 and it's just parallel to the other axis?
c) Isn't this every element of G, such that for example the reflections go through the vertex P and the rotation axis go through that point? But there is no rotation axis such that the whole cube stays the same when it goes through a vertex p, so I guess S(P) is only id and bunch of reflections?
d) no idea how to prove this
e) also no idea
a) Who says you have to do it in your head
b) it’s the plane (1/2, x_2, x_3)
c) the group is generated by reflections, but they’re not the ones given
d) take an arbitrary element and show it’s a product of those two elements, not much else to it
e) worry about it when you get there
b) Do I just think of every possible way, those reflections can be arranged. e.g.: x1 o x2, x1 o x3, x1 o x2 o x3 ....?
c) I don't get it. How is there more than 1 reflection?
G3 being the symmetric group of a cube? well, how many ways can you arrange the faces with only rotations and possibly reflections? (the book I use doesn't allow reflections for the symmetric group, yours may differ).
try thinking of it in terms of one face and the surrounding vertices
ok so for c i found 3 reflections now and I guess the identity
and rotations of k*90°?
another way is to orb stab it
On my last line, did I distribute everything correctly?
For this you can and should use a calculator/software
Like some mindless computation isn't gonna make you better at math, it's just kinda wasting your time
If you just have a computation problem, go to #prealg-and-algebra
spicy
I can't find a way to show that $$(\phi * \psi *\phi) (g) = \phi(g) $$
jonathan100
that's not what you have to show though
take a careful look at the definition of a normal subgroup
ah your handwriting is a little hard to decipher
you have to show that conjugation of an inner automorphism by any automorphism is again an inner automorphism
Ahh I found it, only have to show that it is a subset of it
So my proof is enough I think
the second line is wrong. you're not showing that conjugation by psi fixes phi, you're showing that conjugation by psi sends phi to another inner automorphism
given phi in Inn(G) and psi in Aut(G), you must prove that psi o phi o psi^{-1} is in Inn(G)
the rest of the proof is actually correct in this regard
minus a small typo at the end of the third line
you correctly showed that, if phi is conjugation by h, then psi o phi o psi^{-1} is conjugation by psi(h)
"because psi(h) is in G" is irrelevant
strictly speaking it's not (psi o phi o psi^{-1})(g) that's in Inn(G), but psi o phi o psi^{-1}
this looks better though
Can you prove this without the "(g)"?
uhh yeah
wait
no i misunderstood you
you have to show one way or another that psi o phi o psi^{-1} acts on G by conjugation by psi(h)
yes
computing its action on an arbitrary element g of G is one way to do so
it is also probably the most direct way to do so
Does it even make sense to chain mods like that? Thinking about the correspondence theorem, the ideals of Z mod p are exactly the ideals contained in (p), which is just (0) - which is to be expected as Z mod p is a field
Even implicitly embedding back into Z from Z mod p doesn’t guarantee that x is some kth power so I don’t see why this holds at all
Trying to grasp field extensions and algebraic closures of prime fields
If F2-bar is F2 union F4 union F8 onto infinity
Is the element x+1 in GF(4) the same as the element x+1 in GF(8)?
This doesn't really sound right to me but I don't have a good picture in my head, and I cant see how an infinitely large GF(2^k) could eventually have an element where x^2 + x + 1 = 0 in F2
As written, that is not a construction of F2bar. To take a union of sets, the sets must first be embedded in some larger common set, but that larger set is what you are trying to construct.
In any case, F4 cannot be embedded into F8.
So the x+1 in GF(4) and the x+1 in GF(8) are not the same?
What is x
Gf(4) has four elements
0 1 x x+1
Are you constructing those fields as F2[x]/(quadratic or cubic)?
So x is the transcendental(indeterminate?) Used to construct the field
No x is not transcendental. It satisfies x² + x + 1 = 0
Hrm does it matter? If all fields of the same finite size are isomorphic
No but I was just asking what you meant by x
Ye so the x in F4 and the x in F8 are different things entirely
The weird part isn't that F4 doesn't embed into F8, but that it does embed into, for example, F16
Hrm so while F2-bar is the union of a copy of all GF(2^k)
The actual definition of the operators in F2-bar is not that of any of the subfields it's made from
Operators? You mean elements?
If f2 bar is a field it has two binary operators
You can construct it from these finite subfields, just that you have to be more careful and can't just say that it's a union since the bigger set doesn't exist yet
Oh ye the operations on F2bar extend those of the finite ones
In the sense that all of these finite ones embed into F2bar
And (x+1)[F4] + (x+1)[F8] equals an element in F2bar
But none of the source fields has an operator that works on both
Yeah but also you have to be careful when you say x+1 of F4
F4 does embed into F2bar but not uniquely
Ugh. Wikipedia literally says
For a finite field of prime power order q, the algebraic closure is a countably infinite field that contains a copy of the field of order qn for each positive integer n (and is in fact the union of these copies).
So x+1 can have different meanings there
Yeah it's true but not a definition
So then the x+1 in the copy of F4 is the same x+1 in the copy of f8?
I'm not sure if F4 is a true subfield of F2bar
There's no the copy, but in no choices of copies can they coincide because that would give you an embedding of F4 into F8 and that isn't possible
One sec
F4 can't embed into F8 because then F8 would be a vector space over F4 but the cardinalities don't allow that
It is a subfield but not in a unique way
You can swap x and x+1 in F4. This is an automorphism
So if you take an embedding of F4, you can apply this automorphism and then the embedding to get a different embedding
so in F_2-bar
there is an element a corresponding to (x+1) from GF(4)
and an there is an element b corresponding to (x+1)from GF(8)
and a!=b
Though it is true that this new embedding will have the same image (this is true for all choices of embeddings because all finite char 2 fields are normal extensions of F2)
Yeah sure
if a == b then you could embed F4 in F8 which doesn't work
Yes
and what I'm really trying to get to is
there are four elements in F2-bar that correspond to 0,1,x,x+1 from GF(4)
is the structure of those four elements equal to that of GF(4)? I can't think of how to describe it
basically I guess those four elements are isomorphic to GF(4) under F2-bar's definitions of+ and -
how would we know that we're trying to find an extension of Q of degree 2 prior to knowing what rho0, rho1, rho2, and rho3 fix?
Yes
And in 2 different ways
You're having a hard time here because you've given them the same name
is it because of the one-to-one correspondence in the fundamental theorem of galois theory?
If you call the elements in F2bar y and y+1, then maybe it'll be easier to say what you want
so that means GF(4) is a subfield of F2-bar
Yes
are there any finite fields that have subfields?
reading my book, it likes to focus on Q and e.g. Q(sqrt2). Q is obviously a subfield of Q(anything)
imma start doing Q(i) to upset people
F4 has a subfield F2
More generally F_(p^m) embeds into F_(p^n) if and only if m | n, and in that case there are m different embeddings, all with the same image
wait doesn't m|n mean 'm divides n'? aka mk=n for some positive integer k
Do you know the index of H_1 in the whole group? The fundamental theorem also says that the degree of an intermediate extension is the same as the index of its aut group
Yes
but you said F4 doesn't embed F16? or did I misunderstand
It does
err embed into
Not in F8
F4 _does_embed into F16
Yep
ohhh right
thanks!
oh Imisread what you said
F4 doesn't embed into F8 (3/2 not in Z) but it embeds into F16 (4/2 is in Z)
Yes
but if I named the elements of F16 0,1,x,x+1,x^2,x^2+1,...
the subfield of F16 that is isomorphic to F4 is not 0,1,x,x+1?
No
that's a 'no it's not' or 'no you're an idiot'



