#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 130 of 1
Idk I'm just reading the paragraph that describes what boytjie was telling me
"F[x]/p(x)F[x] is the same as the field F(a) that results from adjoining a root a of p(x) to F, that is the closure of F union{a} under +-×÷"
Wait it says a root a
What if p has multiple roots
F[x]/(p) is how I would write that
:)
That's the magic
It doesn't matter
They're all indistinguishable from the perspective of F
Wait is it possible to construct a poly in Q with roots of e.g. sqrt2 and sqrt3? Or maybe sqrt2 and cbrt2
even if it’s like a multiple root?
Yes, but not an irreducible one.
p needs to be irreducible over F
otherwise this construction doesn't work. Typically then F[x]/(p) won't even be a field.
o
Ah so that's where the magic breaks down
Well I don't need this magic I think anyway
Sure you do, how else are you gonna describe a finite field?
Ahh the exact example it gives is Q(sqrt2)
lol
the cayley table of course
Graham's number G64 is constructed entirely of threes, so that means it's a prime power and the size of a finite field
I'd like to see the table for that 🙂
Cayley table of a field lol

anyone have a source on this, I tried googling but didn't find anything: If Aut(G)\cong Aut(H) does G\cong H? If it makes it easier consider the case of finite groups (I am almost certain infinite groups will give a lot of counterexamples, but it's hard for me to believe this is untrue in finite groups)
I wonder how many bits are in G64
Min size of that table is the square of that
I think xkcd gave numbers on maximum bits of storage per kg of matter based on quantum mechanics
Actually twice that cuz you need both + and ×
Well I mean there's a silly example: Aut(1) is iso to Aut(Z/2Z)
Also Z/3 and Z/4 have the same automorphism group (Z/2)
https://groupprops.subwiki.org/wiki/Automorphism_group_of_a_group
This list gives a few more other counterexamples, some of which are actually interesting
This one is cool!
@chilly radish this should be enough I hope
hm, I failed to consider this haha
yea Z/3 and Z/4 is a good nontrivial example
A really nice one is that Aut(S_3) is isomorphic to Aut(V_4)
Nah they're both S_3!
is V_4 the klein 4-group in this case?
oh wait right my bad, we can permute (1,1) with (1,0) and (0,1) too
I was only thinking of permuting the factors but yea you can permute those as well
I can't help but wonder if this generalises. Would Aut(Z/2 x ... x Z/2 (n times)) be S_{2^n-1} or something
hmmmm
in which case Aut(S_n) = S_n for all n>2 and we're done
Well I say we're done when I mean there's an infinite family of counterexamples
n!=6
Can't forget the exceptional automorphism!
but yea these are all good counterexamples
thanks
now i'm wondering if there's some nice subclass of groups which are classified by their automorphism group
Well S_n for n>2 is such an example right?
As in, that infinite family
That's pretty nice
If A,B are groups and A x Z \cong B x Z then
- A,B are isomorphic if both are abelian
- if they aren't both abelian, they needn't be isomorphic
Do there exists maximal families like this?
I need to think about that one
Oh nice
That's cool
yea boyt, I was wondering if there's any interesting properties all such groups must share
well firstly they are all classified by their automorphism group...
Wdym by classified by automorphism group
you could probably do some universal algebra memery on this
Aut(G) uniquely determines G up to iso
Like cutting up groups into families based off automorphism group?
Isn't that like never the case
Can't you just uh
Hm
I was wondering if given G there's a way to produce a different group with same automorphism group
that's the requisite next question
Like product by some group or smth lol but yeah
Well we were saying earlier that S_n for n>2 gives a family of groups that all have distinct automorphism groups right
So clearly such things exist
Like, families of groups that have this property
we did say that this is not true for 3 at least
or
oh you mean inside that family
yea
Sorry I'm being sloppy with my notation
but yeah I mean that class of groups
Like let's look at the full subcategory given by such a family
Is this gonna be... idk is it gonna have products even?
I think that's a hard question
I don't even know if we can answer that for the family S_n expanded to include finite products
By which I mean, do they remain distinguishable
yea, this seems like it's gonna require more heavy machinery to tackle
I might come back to this at some point but I don't think i'm currently equipped to tackle it
or at least I don't have the brain capacity to think about it too hard rn haha
Aut ((Z/2)^n) = GL(n, 2) which has (2^n - 1)(2^n -2)(2^n - 4)...(2^n - 2^n-1) elements. Which doesn't seem like it equals 2^n-1 !
You're right! It's way too many
Idk what it would be then.
But here's a nice observation: finitely generated Z/p-modules form a nice such family (for p prime)
Yeah indeed. Since they're just F_p-vector spaces they ought to be classified by just the sizes of their automorphism group
(Fixed some mistakes there)
yea that's a nice observatin
Another interesting question: is there some group that doesn't appear as the automorphism group of another
I'm sure there is, but how can one characterize them
According to a mathoverflow post it's yet unknown
the second part I mean
there are explicit descriptions of some
whoops, math stack exchange
not overflow
reading this paper rn
this sounds like you could translate this to an inverse galois problem
Seems like an absurdly difficult question tbh
"A,B nonidentical maximal ideals in R implies A+B = R". is the following a proper translation in module theory? "A,B are submodules of the R-module R. the direct sum A + B is isomorphic to the R-module R"
The sum is typically not going to be direct
The correct translation is that if A,B are maximal submodules of the R-module R then A+B = R.
oh i see, perfect. thank you. what sort of sum is it?
i see, thank you!
For an example of why the sum is not generally going to be direct, take the ideals (2) and (3) of Z. Their intersection is (6)
If a ring R is a direct sum of two maximal ideals then it is the product of two fields
hm... i'm not sure I understand. do we not just have (6) equals the ideals (0,2) = (3,0)?
Absolutely not no
(0,2) = (2)
(6) is strictly contained in both (2) and (3).
What do you think the notation (0, 2) means?
if we're taking a direct sum of (2),(3) as modules, then (0,2) = 2*3, no? most likely i'm adding additional structure that's not there
No!
I don't understand where you're getting this from
Again I'm gonna ask, what do you mean when you write (2) or (0,2)? What does this notation mean to you?
(2) to me means the principal ideal generated by 2, and (0,2) was just an ordered pair in the direct sum of modules (2), (3)
gotta love notational overload
my bad for lack of clarity
The onus is on the author
When we talk about the direct sum of modules N and M, there are two senses:
- the 'external' direct sum of N and M, which is in particular as a set going to consist of pairs of elements.
- the 'internal' direct sum, which I will elaborate on now.
These things are isomorphic.
boytjie
So when I say "The ring R is the direct sum of ideals I and J" I mean the internal direct sum.
As an R-module, this will be isomorphic to the external direct sum I (+) J, but this is no longer equal to the ring, but merely isomorphic.
i see
So unfortunately this comment still doesn't make sense even once we have this understanding in mind
(6) is an ideal of Z, whereas (0,2) and (0,3) are elements of the external direct sum of 2Z and 3Z
And they are most certainly not equal.
So I'm afraid you are going to have to continue to explain what you mean
hm, i'm not sure, but maybe we can give an isomorphism between 2Z x 3Z and Z with (-1,1) = 1?
i.e., -2 + 3 = 1
so then we can produce some sort of map between the structures
What are you viewing 2Z x 3Z as? Is it a module?
sorry this is not very clear
adding the ideals (2) and (3) produce the whole ring because the sum contains (1)
Anyway, as a Z-module 2Z (+) 3Z and Z are not isomorphic. The second is a cyclic module whereas the first is not.
Yes
can we not give some sort of representation of this fact through structures containing vectors, so that the fact that -2 + 3 = 1 is given by a map (-1,1) to 1?
where (-1,1) means -1 * 2 + 1 * 3
I'm going to write 2Z and 3Z instead of (2) and (3) for notational clarity for a bit
When we have modules N, N' \subseteq M, we have a map N (+) N' → N+N'
It's given by (n, n') → n+n'
This map is an isomorphism if and only if the intersection of N and N' is {0}.
(c.f. condition 2 in my definition of an internal direct product)
we wouldn't have empty intersection in this case, since both 2Z and 3Z contain 6
So we do indeed have a map 2Z (+) 3Z → 2Z + 3Z = Z
And this map is surjective.
And yes, this isn't an isomorphism precisely because there is a nonempty intersection
I am writing $(+)$ in ascii instead of $\oplus$, which is the symbol for the direct sum.
boytjie
i am parsing what you wrote, thank you very much
right, and we don't have an isomorphism because (3,0), (0,2) both map to 6
I dislike this notation you are using intensely
3 is not an element of 2Z so it is wrong to say that (3, 0) is an element of 2Z (+) 3Z
If you compose with an isomorphism Z (+) Z → 2Z (+) 3Z then what you write makes sense.
if A is not a finitely generated ideal, is there a surjection between the infinite product \prod Z and A?
suppose A has countably many generators
or, maybe a better question: for an element in \prod Z do we have the natural surjection sending the ith component z_i to z_i times the ith generator?
What is A an ideal of?
a non noetherian ring
So we have an ideal A of a non-noetherian ring R, and you're looking for a map Z^N → R (I assume countable product since you just say 'infinite')
Well being finitely geenrated as an ideal of R means as an R-submodule, which can be pretty different to talking about Z
yes, and yes countable product
So are you expecting this map to just be a function?
And what kind of surjection do you want
Because Z^N isn't going to be an R-module typically
of Z-modules?
Ye lol
I suppose the quesiton that'd make most sense to me is like
replacing Z with R
But yeah depends what you want
But A is specifically not finitely generated
Are you just trying to say that if A is not finitely generated, is it countably generated?
Because the answer is no.
it would be nice if it had ring homomorphism properties, because the ultimate goal is to express the ideal as generated by an infinite dimensional vector, but i'm realizing this might only be possible if the entries of the vector are actually elements of the ring, and not just Z
Every time you say 'vector' to refer to something that is not an element of a vector space, a puppy dies.
no, that's not my question but what you said makes sense
I still don't have a clue what you mean
i'm trying to get at the most abstract possible representation of a non-finitely generated ideal
The most abstract possible representation is that it is an ideal of a ring
That's already peak abstraction
right, well, something a bit more concrete: i think that maybe we could represent it as an infinite dimensional tuple
No typically you cannot.
where each entry represents multiplication with the ith generator
You seem to be suggesting that every module is either free or a direct sum, and this isn't true
direct *product rather
oh! they're not? are not the elements of an ideal a linear combination of its generators?
right
Modules are very unlike vector spaces.
could we proceed in this way if we accept the representations are not unique?
Then be precise about what you want to see
I've never been so confused in my life
Can you not maybe state your questions in a simpler way? Almost time you have asked a question here, everyone else has had to spend a lot of time figuring out what you are saying.
sorry i'm not being precise but the way you give definite answers is very illuminating and clarifying about the proper way to state things and ask the question
You could define a Z module morphism if you just take the direct sum over all elements of the ideal but I don't think that's useful for anything
You couldn't define it on the product actually, since you can't take the sum of infinitely many things
definitely not potato
yeah that's one of the problems i'm dealing with, presumably an element of a non finitely generated ideal with countably infinite many generators can be generated as a linear combination of countably infinite many generators
But this is not a problem
A linear combination of any number of elements always consists only of finitely many summands!
This is part of the definition of the infinite direct sum
right, but i'm interested in the infinite product
Why so.
i'd like to give a representation of non finitely generated ideals that countenances both ideals that are infinite direct sums and those that are infinite direct products, and i conjecture that if i stick to the infinite direct products, the resulting property will be easily transmissible to the infinite direct sums
Well good luck with that
Direct products are less natural here because
-direct products are interesting regarding mapping into them, not out of them
-the notion of being generated is defined in terms of sums
hm i see
yo can i have a hint for this question pls
this is what i got so far but im stuck
my guess is that they want me to show injectivity by using the uniqueness of fbari = f somehow
say i(x) = i(x'). then have the map f: X -> UA send x and x' to different elements, and get a contradiction
My brain isn't working: if A and B are ideals in a Dedekind domain s.t. that A+B=1 and P is a prime dividing neither, why then AP+B=1?
oh i didnt know we could define it as such but that makes sense
thanks
you guys done?
Suppose $Q$ is a prime such that $Q \mid AP + B$. Then $Q \mid B$ and $Q \mid AP$. The first one implies $Q \ne P$. Since $Q \ne P$, $Q \mid A$. So $Q \mid A$ and $Q \mid B$, contradiction
potato
Or actually it's easier to use an analogy to integers lol
if a and b are coprime, then multiplying a by a prime factor which doesn't divide b won't change that
My reason was to show coprime ideals => sum =1, so I can't use this.
can't you do that without the thing
Oh lol
Are you defining coprime by like no prime divides both then hm
Do you kow that P is contained in Q iff Q | P
Yes
hm well then there's an easier way to prove the coprime thing then
which doesn't need your statement as a lemma
How so
I thought to just inductively apply this
But they're sort of equivalent anyway
Well if sum isn't zero, then A + B contained in a prime P
So A,B are contained in P
Forgot about the containment/dividing equivalence
hot potato
you guys done irght
okay so now
suppose A --> B --> C --> 0 is an exact sequence of R-modules ( R is a commutative ring with identity )
show that tensoring this with an R-module is exact
i managed to do everything except one step
showing that the kernel is contained iin the image in the right part
Are you aware that hom is contravariant and left exact?
whats contravariant
Nevermind then.
you still eat ink?
yoo hahaha
yea
on occasion
anyways
someone helped me prove "adjoint associativity"
and atiyah mcdonald proves tensor is right exact in 3 lines using it
and i dont undersatnd why
that was a joke name
i did it normally and i got stuck
at ker is a subset of img
and btw
if f:A-->B then it indcues f bar: D tensor A --> D tensor B with sending d tensor a to 1_D tensor f(a)
those are generators ik but you just need them to define the whole map
yh
yea im new to this tensor stuff
anyways can someone walk me through it? the profo of right exactness
the usual way
not using adjoint associativty thingy
I mean Atiyah Macdonald gives the usual way right
Not sure what you mean by adjoint associativity
Hom(M tensor N,P) is iso to Hom(M,Hom(N,P))
It's in a sense (imo) the best possible proof because it just uses the universal property of the tensor product
Oh I can just explain this cause it's important
yea terrible flat helped me prove it
the normal way would be to show it manually
that the kernel of each map is the image of the preceding map
Is there a reaosn you wanna do it manually lol
yes
But yeah okay we can try to do it by hand but it'll be a bit of a pain I think
this secret coming out might result in the fall of nations so i will just keep it to myself
aits actually easy untill the final part
that the kernel is contained in the image
Usually that is the hard part and the other is trivial
yea
i tried the same argument
with the Hom one
like using the inverse map
but it didnt wor
or okay
i can prove now adjoint associativity
so if you can help me understand right exactness using it
i will just prove both on the exam
Okay so I mean $M' \otimes N \to M \otimes N \to M' \otimes N \to 0$ is exact iff $0 \to \mathrm{Hom}(M'' \otimes N, P) \to \mathrm{Hom}(M \otimes N, P) \to \mathrm{Hom}(M' \otimes N,P)$ is exact for all $P$, now replace all of those by smth equivalent
potato
lmfao
so yea then i use adjoint associativty at each Hom
and i get Hom of something and something
which ik is exact anyways right?
I wouldn't call this adjoint associativity, never heard of that term
its used in hungerfords text
its not my wording
but it doeds feel like adjointess involved
like adjointess from functional anlaysis
<Ax,y> = <x,A*y>
idk man
feels fishy to me
Yes, the slogan is that "the functor $ - \otimes_R N$ is left adjoint to $ \mathrm{Hom}(N,-)$"
Quick question, I saw this picture of extensions in an answer on mse, can you not conclude immediately that the fourth root of 3 is not in Q(sqrt(2)) because that would mean that the degree of the extension on top is 2 which is lower than the right extension which is a subpace of the top one when seen as vector spaces?
but @south patrol
after we simplify each Hom thing or object or whatever
why do i know the resulting sequence is exact?
Because Hom is left exact
In case you don't figure out how to prove it @void cosmos, here is a very clean proof from Jacobson
yes so i need the things in the Hom functor first to be exact
like Hom("left exact sqe" ) is exact
lol very clean when it's messier
Sure
I consider this clean tbh, pretty straightforward.
youa re much smarter than me hahah
but yea i think knowning how to do it manually is good too
thank you ocean man'
Sure yeah, I guess I view it as more elementary but less conceptual
Maybe i am too cat pilled
Yep, it's elementary, but very concise.
is it
and do you mean M'' tensor N --> 0? the far right part of the first sequence
for me ig
Yeah sorry
anyways how do i know whats inside the Hom is exact
?
after i simplify the tensor product out
quick question, reading dummit and foote and i'm confused what this notation means exactly. is it a group action on a set and if so, what does Z x Z mean? the additive integer lattice?
specifcially 12/13/15
Correct
appreciate it
infinitely adding things together electric boogaloo 2 redux: is there a surjective ring homomorphism between the infinite direct sum Z^N and a non-finitely generated ideal that contains no infinite sums/products of elements?
yea you should know about it more generally as the direct product
like it should be familiar
no actually i don't think the books talked about direct product
i'll look into it thanks
u sure?
if so then i must've missed it
yea recheck them , you should be familiar with those
they are p easy and cool anyways
What is an ideal that contains no infinite sums/products of elements? There is no such thing as an infinite sum or product in a ring in general.
anyways im still stuck with the proof
we have Z[[x]] no?
why didnt we say Hom(M tensor N , P) --> ... is exact from the first place
okay cuz that assumes what we want to prove cuz its an iff
Yes and? Z[[x]] consists of formal sums. You still cannot add together an arbitrary infinite collection of elements in Z[[x]].
okay so we use the isomorphism and now i get a sequence of like Hom(M,Hom(N,P)) ---> ...
i see! thanks
There is an enormous difference between a formal sum, which you should think of as just a symbol, and an actual sum.
I mean, Z[[x]] is a topological ring with the x-adic topology. So I guess it makes sense to take infinite sums and long as they converge
you were so right
both that it was there and that it was cool
yea i was like 99% sure its there
and i was just weirded out by ther fact that you had to guess what Z x Z was
i was like yea that guy missed it haha
lmao fair enough
hf
ofc thanks
also its weird how you know about group actions even though the section ur at rn is before group actoins
hahaha ur a time traveller
I might also point out that every element x of an ideal is a finite sum of elements of the ideal... namely x.
nah no way group actions were section 1.7, this is section 2.3 exercises
right. but aren't nonformal series actual infinite sums of ring elements? in the real numbers, for instance
No they are not
Given a binary operation, we cannot define what it means to take an infinite sum
We can only do this in certain special circumstances, such as with a topological ring like the real numbers, and even then there is no way to assign meaning to an arbitrary such 'infinite sum'
woah this is very cool stuff, thanks
this changes significantly how i think of non finitely generated ideals
awesome
Are you reading a book?
yeah Steps in Commutative Algebra, but I was working on a proof for the isomorphism theorems so i've been working very hard to think about what ideals are
Well I'm going to tell you now that this approach is not helpful for understanding what ideals are.
I would suggest continuing reading.
noted, thanks a lot for the help
when does one actually understand what ideals are tbh
A good way is through the isomorphism theorems, instead of trying to express them as a quotient of a free module(!)
when you learn about number theory i think
@south patrol you there ?
for 4a) can i choose R = Z/mZ and A = Z/mZ and B = Z/nZ?
A tensor B under R is just B while its Z/(m,n) under Z
B is not an R-module. So tensoring over R doesn't really make sense
yea ur right
okay 1 sec
what if i take R= Z/6Z
and B to be Z/2Z
B is a Z-6 module
right?
Yes
so it works
Yes, but does it solve the exercise?
You may have to be more creative with your choice of R
Even more creative perhaps
Ye
hi potato
how are you doing
I am okie yeah having one of those times where maff is hard but learning a lot lol
Hbu
going over some stuff for my exam in 1 and a half weeks
newton okounkov theory
is mostly just toric/algebraic geometry
the only part that scares me is grassmannian stuff
toric geometry is meh
Oh okay now I see who you are lol
oh yes I am illu
like I sort of understand it
but there are so many indices
and fucking summation signs?????
when did those get added to algebra
like just LOOK AT THIS
Ouch
Grody!
Just why!
Okay here is a question
Surely there must be a more convenient way to express that
it's for showing that the grassmannian is a projective algebraic set
Say I have an abelian category A. I've seen people construct the derived category D(A) by saying the naive homotopy category K(A) admits the structure of a triangulated category and working with that, whilst I've also seen people basically put a model category structure on the set of non-negative chain complexes over A and form the ("true") homotopy category of that
Am I right in thinking these give the same thing? Is there an advantage / disadvantage / major difference?
Hm
yo @rocky cloak why cant i think about like free stuff
like in a division ring everything is free and the tensor product of two free is free
like maybe A tensor B under R is the same as A tensor B under Z but one is free under R whiie not free under Z
or idk
I'm not quite sure what you're saying...
Z/2 is a free Z/2 module but not free as a Z-module
for example
would that be a counterexample ( suppose i can get to that )
So there are a few Rs that won't work, and Z/2 is one of them
why do we care about lie theory
Uhhh lie algebras come up in topology and geometry a lot for starters
Do you mean, why do we care about Lie algebras? Or do you mean why do we care about Lie groups.
both
We care about Lie algebras because they classify Lie groups.
We care about Lie groups because we like em
real
Also physics, idk.
Lie algebras also come up in topology and homotopy theory a lot in modelling certain things
I mean, I am doing a summer project where Lie algebras are a major tool used to compute things about spaces
That's cool I didn't expect that to be the case
In general if I is an ideal in R and M and N are R/I modules. Then the tensor product of M and N is equal whether you do it over R/I or over R.
Equal as an R-module, you mean, right? I think this is part of the confusion
Well yes equal literally as a set
but isomorphic as an R-module
For example (I need to learn more about it!) Quillen shkwed there is a correspondence between rational homotopy types and differential graded lie algebras in some sense
Interesting
Well assuming R is commutative I guess. But first and foremost they are isomorphic as abelian groups.
But yeah any R/I module is naturally an R module
this..... so much this...
Yeah I'm just pointing this out because of the comment about free modules. I don't mean to intrude
How should i be interpreting $\Ext^1(u_i,A)$ (near bottom)? The $u_i$ are inclusions from $T$ into $T^d$
ΣΑC
oh as a morphism from Ext(T^d,A) to Ext(T,A)?
yo anything tensor itself is just itself right?
this actually just turned out to be the cartesian product 😭😭
cuz u have (a,b) --> ab as a bilinear map anyways?
yea it is 😄
how do i make sense of Z_2 x Z then
one is cyclic in a multiplicitive sense while the other is cyclic in an additive sense
well
its just the cartesian product with the structure in the textbook
and the operations are pointwise
V \otimes V is definitely not always isomorphic to V
I wish it was cause then the tensor algebra would be nice and simple
(a,b) -->ab doesnt work?
a dimension argument will suffice
a supposed generator for the group would be <a, b> where a is in Z_2 and b is an integer i guess
ong
V* tensor V* is Hom(V, V*)
okay
now hwy
is not sending (a,b) --> ab
not work
is it cuz thats just induces a homomoprhism? and may not always
have an inversE?
what the fuck
what
my wife is mean to me!
you guys aren't on reddit enough to understand my level of humor
so i should never go on reddit then
then the next person has to comment r/beatmymeattoit
i don't know why, but i read "beat my wife into it" followed by "what's the injection supposed to be?" 
and the person after that r/beatmywifetoit
i cant do it
illumi get your head out of the gutter
i cant find a counterexample

im so frustrated honestly
R^2
everything literally works
i meant for the problem i posted
that's the one
Think about what tensoring with Q over Z does
Actually don't think about that, idk if it's helpful here
But think about it anyway because it's kind of cool
next question boss
anyway idk just take like
C[G] \otimes \C[G] for some finite group G that'll probably work
ohhh or can we be funny
Z/2Z \otimes Z/4Z \otimes Z/2Z \cong Z/2Z? remains to be seen
Yeah Moamen I think you're onto something
Tensoring Z[x] with itself over Z gives Z[x, y]
how do i know that
Yes
You can show Z[x, y] satisfies the universal property, or just construct the homomorphism explicitly
no i meant how would i even come up with Z[x,y]
But tensoring Z[x] with itself over Z[x] just yields Z[x]
like okay maybe sending f(x) --> f(x,0) or something
yea
it works
but i wouldnt be able to see Z[x,y]
it makes sense if you consider what the elements actually look like, p \otimes q for some polynomials p,q
yea sending Z[x] x Z[x] --> Z[x,y] like (f,g) --> f(x)g(y) or something
then you can wrench out all of the Z coefficients, and then use the nice additivity of \otimes to seperate it into things that just look like x^n \otimes x^m
idk
Universal property it
lame
are u talking to me
Yeah
thats what im trying to do 😄
what is it then
if im not doing this
im trying to find a bilinear map
from the product to Z[x.y]
is that NOT the universal property or what
It's easiest to just show Z[x, y] has the universal property
im sorry what does that mean
You want to show that if you have a bilinear map from Z[x] \times Z[y] to some abelian group M, then you get a unique homomorphism Z[x, y] -> M such that the composition Z[x] \times Z[y] -> Z[x, y] -> M agrees with the original bilinear map
Do you know what the universal property of the tensor product is
Best to denote the second one Z[y] but yes
so what i am trying to do is find a bilinear map from Z[x] x Z[x] to Z[x,y] so that it induces a map from the tensor product to Z[x,y] so that the diagra m commutes
i think it might help to look up the commutative diagram for universal property
thats the universal property for me
Yes
isnt that what i have been trying to do?
or is that something else
The universal property says that bilinear maps Z[x] x Z[y] to A correspond to homomorphisms Z[x] (x) Z[y] to A
In a nice way
It suffices to show that Z[x,y] has this property
?
No
moaman is asking what the map at the top of the triangle is I think
You are trying to construct a map Z[x] x Z[y] -> Z[x, y] descending to a map out of the tensor product which happens to be a homomorphism
moamen is mega frustrated :d i think the map at the top is (x,y) -->< x tensor y
yea
and what your saaying is you want me to find a 1-1 correspdoncone ? between bilinear maps from the product and linear maps from the tensor?
or what
Okay I see what you mean
yea sorry im just very confused
can u do an example
of "universal property it"
cuz i thought thats what im doing
No I misunderstood you you are trying to do the right thing
so i was universal propertying it?
If your goal is to show that given any bilinear map Z[x] x Z[y] -> A there is a map Z[x, y] -> A commuting with the map you suggested then yea
fuck .. no
The proper wording would be: show that Z[x,y] together with a certain map Z[x] × Z[x] -> Z[x,y] has the universal property that defines the phrase "tensor product".
my understanding of the universal property is is that IT INDUCES the map
like it does it for me
Let f : Z[x] x Z[y] -> M be a bilinear map
Can you find a linear map g, of the form g(p \otimes q), such that g(p \otimes q) = f(p, q)
like once i give a bilinear map
the universal property gives me the homomoprhism for free
is that wrong
There are two maps invoved.
It does
we don't know if this module has the universal property yet
yea i think thats the problem./.
^
The "tensor product" comes with a map from A×B to T.
Then if you give it another map A×B -> C, it produces a map T -> C for you.
Or you can be cool and say that Z[x] (x) Z[y] and Z[x,y] both have the property that a map into A is equivalent to a choice of two points of A hehe
so by doing this you show it has the universal property, and is thus the tensor product
this map is (a,b) to a tensor b right?
I mean that basically is the proof potato
a) Why should there be a sigma fixing beta and moving alpha?
b) What do we even need separability for?
Yes, that's what it's called.
Okay sure lol
okay so
I guess it is ultimately ges
now this is for any problem lilke this: to show that it is actually the tensor product i show it actually achieves the universal property
which says that given a bilinear map from the product it factors through the map tropo said basically
or that it induces a map from the tensor to the abelian group such that the diagram commutes
I think you may be confusing that concrete construction of a tensor product we talked through the other day, with the abstract chraracterization of a tensor product via a universal property.
yea i think im confusing alot of things haha but i think i get it now
so let f: Z[x] x Z[y] --> A be bilinear , why cant i just say define f bar as f bar(f tensor g) as f(f,g)
i've stopped thinking of generators and started thinking only in terms of containment relations between ideals and it clicked. i was thinking of PIDs and rings with ideals of nontrivial height and these led me astray heheh
? excuse the redudant naming
or you can be actually cool and just $p \otimes q = (\sum a_nx^n) \otimes (\sum b_ny^n) = \sum\sum a_nb_m (x^n\otimes y^m) \mapsto \sum\sum a_nb_m x^ny^m$ I won :iwon:
wew ladz
something probably breaks here
this by definition forces the diagram to commute right?>
is that well defined
its bilinear to its well defined ig
Before you start doing this, you need to define what the map Z[x] × Z[x] -> Z[x,y] that you will be composing with is.
just thinking for something like a Q-module you could replace f tensor g with xf tensor g/x, could run into well definedness issues
Yes, if h=g :-)
Okay, right.
okay so now the map this corresponds to "from the tensor" is sending f tensor g to fbar(f,g)
again excuse the redundant naming
call it f bar
Instead of apologizing for the reduncant naming, why not use different letters for different things?
yea mb
so this works ?
but now this is only half right? cuz this is just a homomorphism not an isomorphism
yet.
I think you'll just confuse yourself if you keep calling it "f tensor g" instead of f(x)g(y).
Anyone?
The larger problem is that if you have a random element of Z[x,y] that might not actually be a product of a polynomial in x with a polynomial in y.
yea so instead i must find an inverse
So you need to define your fbar that makes it clear that (a) it has a single well-defined value on every element of Z[x,y] and (b) it is a homomorphism, and (c) finally, that its composition with the canonical map is the bilinear map you started with.
Yes, these should give the same thing. In the former you already have a triangulated structure and then just do a verdier localization. So this seems like the most straight forward way to do it if you want to study the derived category (this is the approach I would go for).
I would guess the latter approach is more useful if you're already working in the language of homotopy theory, i.e. the derived category is just one of many homotopy categories you work with and want to compare.
But I'm no homotopy theorist so, I don't really know why people take the second approach.
Fortunately Z[x,y] happens to be a free module over Z, so you can define fbar by specifying where it maps each element of a basis for Z[x,y] and asserting that it's linear.
are you talking about the map f bar thats from the tensor to Z[x,y]?
im confused again lol
Unless I've lost the thread, you're trying to show that Z[x,y] is the tensor product of Z[x] by itself.
what ur asking is show this is well defined
Sure, fair enough thank you!
right?
I guess yes this is just because I am coming from the perspective of homotopy theory
(I hope we're talking tensor products over Z, but I can't quickly find a place to confirm that in the scrollback).
But yeah afaik the triangulated structure is still p useful because it keeps the suspension functor as part of the structure right
yea we are
why would that matter now?
cuz it might not be bilinear in another ring right?
cuz the scalars change?
Which we want in analogous situations like the stable homotopy category
Yes
You'd be hard pressed to find a non trivial Q-linear map out of Z[x]
Just making sure I'm not talking about a different situation than the one you are.
is that what you meant?
if a ring has krull dimension n, is there a sense in which there are n classes of minimal prime ideals?
Well, I would prefer to say I'm asking you to define it at all.
If a is not in K(b) then the splitting field of a over k(b) is nontrivial. So there is an automorphism moving a bit fixing k(b).
Without seperability we can't guarantee, that the automorphism moves a.
the map from Z[x] x Z[x] to Z[x,y]
okay let me rename things
the original bilinear map
from Z[x] x Z[x] to Z[x,y]
sending (a,b) to a(x)b(y)
and now i want to show that this induces a map g from the tensor product (that i dont know of ) to Z[x,y]
such that
the diagram commutes
No no no.
okay
Read my lips.
i cant we are on discord
You are trying to show that Z[x,y] is the tensor product.
okay
Yeah, I worked both out, thanks. Separability still feels like overkill though, it's enough for the minimal polynomial to have more than one root, no?
so the top right of the diagram is actually Z[x,y]
okay but whats C here
is C also Z[x,y]
I don't know if that's the main reason they're useful, but it is true
You have defined a map f: Z[x] × Z[x] -> Z[x,y].
Your adversary now comes with a module C and a bilinear map g: Z[x] × Z[x] -> C.
Your task is to produce h: Z[x,y] -> C such that g = h o f.
i thought this C was Z[x,y]
and i show that the tensor product is homomoprhi to that C
and has inverse so its iso
No, C can be anything the adversay fancies.
Minimal polynomial over k(b) should have more than one root. But I guess it would be akward to frame the hypothesis that way
Maybe not though, what we need is for the minimal polynomial of alpha over K(beta) to have more than one root, so there is probably no simple way of guaranteeing it besides assuming separability.
Yep, came to that conclusion myself.
yes, and in this diagram the Z is completely arbitary
lmfaoo
What I called C is called Z in that diagram.
Not to be confused by the Z that means "the integers".
i thought this C was the thing i was trying to prove the tensor product is
yea that makes sense
ie literally any bilinear map that involvles the product induces a linear map that involves the tensor product
whatever it goes
ig
okay
but isnt phi always (v,w) --> v tensor w?
interesting what happens if you do put Z[x, y] as Z though, you get an upwards map via the other universal property 
oh wait not quite
shame
"tensor" here is just another name for the map that the diagram calls phi (and which I called f before).
yeaa thats right
they call it tensor AFTER they obtain the image
like tensor is just the image of phi..
yea okay
okay so now i want to show that Z[x] tensor Z[x] is Z[x,y]
It's literally just a typographical variant of the name phi, notated with an infix symbol instead of parentheses.
so to do that i have to show that for every bilinear map from Z[x] x Z[x] i can find a linear map from Z[x,y] to the same modfule or group o rwhatever
Yes.
Apologies for trying to define new names for everything. I was annoyed by you calling them all f. Shall we use the names in the diagram instead of the ones I proposed?
yea sure
didnt mean to annoy you
you can say im new in math
so forget it
problem is tho..
since Z is arbitrary
how tf do i define the map h
The map h is given to you by an opponent.
The map you should be trying to define is h-tilde.
yea
yea yea i figured but
h tilde is going to be composed with phi
such that its = h
so i need to know what h does XD
You can't.
h is something arbitrary that your opponent chooses!
Now the domain of htilde is Z[x,y], and the way to define a Z-linear map to the opponent's module (which I'm going to keep calling C because Z is in use already) is to define what htilde(v) is for each v in a basis for Z[x,y]. Do you know a basis for Z[x,y]?
That would mean that you can write any element of Z[x,y] as a linear combination of x and y.
How would you do that for, for exampe 3x²y + 5?
what about tropo's example
x^i * y^j but yes
yea the indices are meant to like
index the basis for Z[x] and Z[y]
like x_1 is first element in basis of Z[x] and etc
mb
Oh, I thought we were talking about powers of the variables?
ugh its just my stupid notation
{x^1,x^2,x^&3...} is basis for Z[x]
and similary for Z[y]
so x_i would be like ith element in Z[x] basis whcih would be x^i or x^(i-1)
u get me
I'm not sure, it sounds like you're going in an unhelpful direction.
Yes, if we agree on what that means.
yea
okay so the hting is
i dont know hwo to define this h tilda
at all
cuz
i dont know where its supposed to go
you can just define where it sends these basis elements
Tbh it's probably best to show that Z[x,y] is isomorphic to Z[x] (x) Z[y] as Z algebras [that is, rings lol]
yea but where
And that's easier in fact imo lol
my mind is cast back to many a moon ago
to some Z-module C ig
We've just spent an hour on setting up a different approach ...
😦
Oh lol oop
well, now we can ask a similar question for Z[x] x Z[y], what would the basis of this one be?
interrupt me if this isn't where you were heading tropo
yo just send x^i*y^j to h(x^i,y^j) lol
As Z-modules I'm pretty sure Z[x] and Z[x,y] are isomorphic anyway right
so lots of structure lost
But just to make sure, am I still right that we're talking about tensor products of Z-modules rather than tensor products of Z-algebras, @void cosmos?
yea im with you man
algebras are the next 2 sections
i knew this was going to be rough af
wouldnt it be the cartesian product of the two baseses ?
I hope what you mean is send x^i·y^j to h(x^i,x^j)?
Because h doesn't know anything about y's.
wait what did i saay
oh you mean ys
yea yea mb
but isnt Z[x] and Z[y] the same?
but yea yea ur right
its better this wya
yea
so now i need to show that this is LINEAR right?
given h is bilinear
right?
Okay, so with that specification you've actually managed to define a htilde.
This htilde is implicitly linear, because we're tacitly using "htilde is linear" to explain what it does to things in Z[x,y] that are not basis elements.
yea
so we should be done right? we just have to prove that this commutes with the diagram
and is a homomorphism? ( which it is cuz its linear? )
Yes, for modules, "linear" and "homomorphism" is the same.
What we still need to see is that (a) htilde o phi = h, and (b) there's only one htilde with this property.
Of these (a) means we need to show htilde(phi(p,q)) = h(p,q) for every p and q in Z[x].
alright captain capslock simmer down
xd
Indoor voice, please. But yes, most of abstract algebra is about homomorphisms.
is there one overall definition of "homomorphism" or are they each different for each structure
a structure preserving map
like people tell me group homomorph and linear maps are not equal
or an arrow in the corresponding category
yet linear maps are homomorphisms?
okay but we havent defined phi right?
Different for each structure, but with common themes that are mostly informal at this level.
hm alr
you're ignoring the big word "group" before "homomorphism" for unknown reasons
Yes, but we were calling it f at the time.
phi(p,q) = p(x)q(y)
so homomorphism isnt just some type of map that linear maps happen to fall into, its a thing that changes from thing to thing and homomorphism and linear map are actually equal in its field
idk that just sounds complicated
now this is was to show that the tensor product IS Z[x,y]
A "homomorphism of Xs" is a map that preserves X-structure.
So a homomorphism of groups preserves group structure, a homomorphism of vector spaces preserves vector space structure, etc
this ISNT showing that the tensor product is isomorphic to something else right?
to do that iw ould then put that something else as my C?
ah
what does it mean preserve though?
like what 5.2 is saying here ?
i mean the sets it connects are already their structure
it commutes with any operator on the structure
what does the map between them have to do with anything
oh
As far as I'm concerned, the only tensor product we're working with here is Z[x,y], and there is no isomorphism between that and any other tensor product involved in the discussion here.
yea yea
i meant now in general
cuz
in general
what we were doing rn is showing that tensor product IS none other than Z[x,y]
but if i were want to show that for example
Z/nZ tensor Z/mZ is Z/(n,m)Z
isomorhic
would i take my C to be Z/(n,m)Z?
and find an inverse map?
i mean i get these are the conditions of the homomorphism, but why "preserves" operations, what operations? Vector spaces have associatity and commutitivity on addition, how does the map "preserve" that, it has no operations of its own
i just dont get it
look at this guy
I think this is what I was getting at earlier by somehow being able to leverage the universal property of Z[x, y] to get a natural inverse to Z[x] (x) Z[y]
this guy took his C to be B
You would then let Z/(n,m)Z be the module in the top right of the diagram you showed.
and then just said oh and cuz the universal property says so we find a homomrphism instantly
okay can u check out the last thing i showed
.
those are conditions on the operator, not the operator itself
this proof
by commuting with the operator all of those conditions naturally hold - assuming you're mapping into something with the same structure
this is the part where I really just want to pull the category card lol
but that's circular and unhelpful even if it's easier
the linear transform of a sum is the sum of their linear transforms
like i think he took what he wanted to prove the tensor product is to be his C
so that he gets the homomorphism fro mthe property for free
and then constructs an inverse
so adding in vector space 1 works similarly in vector space 2
😭 i dont understand, T(a + b) = T(a) + T(b)
and T(ax) = aT(x) are just arbitrary conditions we tacked on, how do these axioms force the map to preserve anything
Oh, the rings are not necessarily commutative? 
a vector space is a set with the operators of addition, and scalar multiplication
yea we are using bimodules here
You can think of the operations as giving the thing its structure. For example if x, y and z are vectors such that x+y = z, that says something about how x, y, and z relate and says something about the structure of the space.
Then a structure preserving map should also satisfy
f(x) + f(y) = f(z). I.e. the image of f has "the same structure".
a linear transformation respects those operators, by which I mean exactly what you wrote
it doesn't matter what order you do them
oh
and wdym what did he do can u not go read it
That looks like he's phrasing what he's proving as "we already have an R otimes B from god knows where, and now we will show it happens to be isomorphic to B".
is this for linear maps or all homomorphisms
the same principle applies for all homomorphisms
"linear map" is another word for "vector space homomorphism".
yea tahts what i meant as my questioni think
how is that different from what i tried to do?
he's going from R \otimes B to a concrete module (B in this case)
you were doing the other way around
So like I said before a "homomorphism of Xs" should preserve the operations that define the structure of X. The structure of a vector space is defined by addition and scalar multiplication, so a homomorphism of vector spaces (aka a linear map) should preserve those.
A group of defined by its group operation, so a homomorphism of groups should preserve that
mhmmmmmmmmm
yea that makes sense ig
There are two different ways to achieve the same end result:
- suppose we already have something that satisfies the universal property, and show that such-and-such is isomorphic to it.
- show directly that such-and-such itself satisfies the universal property.
These are really the same thing (because the way universal properties work, anything that is isomorphic to something with an universal property has that universal property itself), but the details of the proof will be worded differently according to which of them we say we're doing.
okay now last question im sorry
but why
isnt what i wastrying to do
finding a map from Z[x] x Z[x] to Z[x,y]
the same
a mfin commutative triangle in that proof would make it so much easier to read it's unreal
I am not quite sure what you "were trying to do" -- I only came in after Moth said "universal-property it", and that is the starting point for everything I've been saying.
yea
.
yea i think now i get what u wre trying to say
we were showing that Z[x,y] transforms like Z[x] (x) Z[y], satisfying the definition that a tensor is something that transforms like a tensor
yea
I know I'm just doing a little trolling
that "defintion" is more for the physical applications of tensors
tropo if i were to find an inverse to the map induced (from the tensor product to Z[x,y] ) from finding a bilinear map Z[x] x Z[x] to Z[x,y]
wew doing his best to make timo right 
would that be the same as showing its isomorphic to the tensor product?
ie approach number 2?
oh timo was completely correct
and is that what he did in the proof i sent?
well, constructing an isomorphism between two things tends to show they're isomorphic


