#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 129 of 1
With all due respect, your lacking in understanding of prior content is not necessarily the fault of the instructor. That being said, we now seem to have filled in the gaps, or at least I hope.
not explicitly mentoning the spectrum is the set of eigenvalues is dog water pedagogy and I refuse to blame ludicrous for that
relying on students to recognise something that important is silly
Not necessarily – if that's the definition of eigenvalues they're working with then it would be standard. I agree with you that it's a bad definition, but it may be consistent with the course.
a source of confusion is that we were also introduced to the "Eigenvalue spectrum" as a subset of the spectrum
but its also known as the "point spectrum"
And now we see that some context has been missing
oh.... lol?

mfs leaving out context for the sole purpose of making me look silly once again
So I imagine for the infinite-dimensional case these things can differ.
either way, being made aware of this property definitely helped a lot, so thank you guys! 😄
Yes this is common stuff for functional analysis
Yeah indeed, if we have a vector space with basis v_n for integers n>=0, then the map M sending v_n to v_{n+1} is not invertible (doesn't have an inverse on one side) yet has no nontrivial solutions. (unless I'm mistaken)
This was all just an extended setup to make wew look silly 
the demiurge has done it again
Mean >:(
D:
moderators ban this user for gang stalking
quick everyone sully him
Anyway @fair quartz the point I'm making here is that when your vector space is not finite-dimensional, this gives an example of when the eigenvalue spectrum is not equal to the spectrum as defined previously, where we generalise it correctly to infinite-dimensional spaces.
ohh i see
extra points if you can work out what the elements of the two are, but no pressure
thank you for the insightful answers Merosity and jagr2808!
@delicate orchid do you know any nice quick references to get the lowdown on Brauer characters?
You're the first person who comes to mind on this so forgive me for pinging you
bobby fusions covers them and that's where I learnt them but uhh it's very dense
kinda like reading fulton-harris for an intro rep theory course lol
I'll check da archives
really though, it's not analogous to regular character theory as far as I've seen
yar
as in, it seems to be much less useful
My purposes are very narrow. I just need a couple of results
although I haven't worked much with them I just do the funny blocks and the defect groups
Mfw when the
when the defect group is Abelian
when the princple defect group is trivial (I am working over C)
y’all know how an equivalent definition for a vector space V over a field F is an abelian group V plus a ring homomorphism pi: V -> End(V), where then scalar multiplication c * v can be defined by pi(c)(v)… if we just replace F with an arbitrary commutative ring then what we get are modules right?
You mean a homomorphism pi : F → End(V), but yes :)
yea oops
commutative
no need for that
but then it’s left and right modules which is weird
C.f. G-sets being maps pi : G → Sym(X)
it is weird but you can still get two sided ones and everything is wholesome
sets are modules over F_1
nobody does
ok nice, weird how wiki only mentions this definition for vector spaces but not modules
I guess it is a bit of an omission, but it's not really the greatest way to view these things
but if I want to remember the definition
modules, or as I like to call them - ideals
this is ideal
the definition is just a bunch of stuff that says "yeah this works like how you think it should"
Bro is sniping me
Well yeah honestly if that helps you personally, that's fine
But at least personally, once you learn more module theory you want to think of R-modules as algebraic structures in their own right
Anyway I'm distracting myself from the wholesome chungus modular rep theory
Ooook fine
Don't you get left modules
Right modules would be R^op → End V
Also I prefer this definition of a module over the "function R ⊗ M → M satisfying a couple more things"
we're in some integral domain. the ideal (3a+c, b+c) that is a subset of the maximal ideal (a,b,c) can be written as some sort of space of vectors with basis (3,0,1), (0,1,1), and the bigger ideal can be written as some sort of space of vectors (1,0,0), (0,1,0), (0,0,1)
is there any definite statement that formalizes the above?
some sort of isomorphism between the ideals (3a+c, b+c) and (a,b,c) and some sort of product space
a space where things look like vectors, i'm trying to give a definite statement
We can't analyse a typical integral domain as a vector space unless you mean that your integral domain is a field
no i know that
Oh ok wait you're saying that (3a+c, b+c) = (3a+c) + (b+c)
It's a sum, not a product
I'm trying to think of some nice way to do this
Yeah indeed, the elements x,y are R-linearly independent iff (x,y) = (x) + (y) is a direct sum (i.e. the intersection is empty)
I can't really see what you're trying to say beyond that so I'll just say that
that's a start, thanks
Is U a unitary operator on a finite dimensional space or an arbitrary hilbert space? The statement is true either way, but it the proof will be a little different.
arbitrary hilbert space
I see, do you know how the spectrum interacts with taking adjoints / inverses?
Also I guess this is functional analysis, so I dont know if it should be here or in #advanced-analysis . Guess it doesnt matter
Are we sure F_1 isn't just a big prank
this is an open problem
wikipedia says: an algebra A over a field F is a vector space A over F that comes with an additional binary multiplication operation that is distributive and compatible with scalars… but then the associative algebra page claims that the algebra turns into a ring because of associativity of multiplication; don’t we need there to exist a multiplicative identity for that to happen?
oh they’re assumed to be unital
Yes.
yes
The word 'algebra' is a bit overloaded. Not all algebras in the first sense are those in the second
A Lie algebra is not a ring, for example.
Don't confuse these two.
because it’s not unital?
algebra can also mean a textbook
or like completely different
It's not even associative
I've been studying physics and these notes say "after a little bit of algebra we get this" and it's just equation manipulation
well “algebra over a field”, at least according to wikipedia, does not require multiplication to associative
ok so the main discrepancy between naming is unital
ye that's what algebra meant to me in physics lol
No, not even
The definition of ring also changed from field to field
This is the greatest sin of applied math 😔
jk but also it is annoying
You can tell whether someone is doing analysis or algebra by where a ring has 1
what do analysts deal with that doesn’t have 1
what's the corresponding isomorphism?
Continuous functions with compact support
There are two main senses of the word 'algebra'
(1) a vector space with a bilinear binary operation.
(2) a ring with a natural vector space structure.
The two definitions on two different wikipedia pages are these.
(2) implies (1), but (1) does not imply (2).
because no 1 in (1)
That's true, but it also may not be associative for example
see lie algebras
eeee forgot about that
or R^3 with the cross product lol
or R^7 with a cross product if you want to smoke crack
wait where’s the wiki entry for (2)
That's a lie algebra

Z
ahhh and they assume them to be unital there
wait what if you assume multiplicative inverses too
That is called a division algebra
that’s like a field over a field
E.g. C, H
O, S, T
Nah those aren't division algebras in the associative sense
Those are other things
trying to think what comes after T
Don't need to be commutative
So more like division ring over a field
mhm
Field over a field is usually called field extension
R, C, and H are the only three fin. dim. real division algebras btw
thought I'd mention that
H is an element bruh
H is the quarternions.
jagr2808
what i find funny is like
normed division algebras aren't necessarily assumed to be associative, so like O is a normed division algebra but not a division algebra (in some terminologies)
surely people who dont require normed divison algebras to be associative, dont require that for division algebras either, right?
I just realised
Is it the case that the induced group operation on the quotient group is well defined iff the quotient map is a homomorphism?
I suspect these mean the same thing
I've just always desliked the term 'well defined' since ironically enough I think that term isn't well defined enough
what does it mean for a map to be a homomorphism if its not between groups?
Well defined would mean it doesn't exist
it's an incredibly clear definition. x = y => f(x) = f(y)
I guess you'd restate is as f(g*h) = f(g)*f(h) where the * on the RHS is the induced binary operation
yes
which is the main issue
you could rewrite it in terms of sets
what
function as a set of ordered pairs
and as long as each x corresponds to exactly one y you have a well defined operation
u people are some of the most pedantic mfs on the planet
A priori we only have a relation when we write something like f([x]) = g(x). Well-definedness states that the relation in question is a function.
to speak of f(x) means you already have a set of ordered pairs where there is a unique y st (x,y) in f
I mean otherwise it doesn't really make sense
I mean you have to check
could map to the set of all possible values
Is a function by definition not such a relation?
I'm actually going to put my fist through my screen
But that assumes there is an induced binary operation
why do I fucking bother sometimes
Anyway so like the well-defined bit usually comes up in this situation: we have a set X with an equivalence relation ~ and we define a function X/~ -> Y (Y another set, say) by sending [x] -> something dependent on x i.e. through a function X -> Y
then saying it's well-defined just says that if [x] = [x'] then x,x' have teh same image under that map X -> Y
oh but if you set that equivalence relation to be "=" then the entire fucking chat dog piles you
Well you said it was incredibly clear and then said something unclear lol
Define it as $aH*bH:=\cup{(xy)H:x\in aH, y\in bH}$
philka.
Here I'm saying the function X -> Y is already well-defined
Okay, but then it's always a homomorphism
Is it?
If H is not normal then it will have strictly larger cardinality than H no?
Here's one for the fans. $\text{id}_S = =|_S$.
philka.
Regarding the proof: How is B' guaranteed to be maximally linearly independent? Doesn't one run into problems of the following sort if v is not a successor:
{v1, v2, v3, ...}
{v1+v2, v2, v3, ...}
{v1+v2, v2+v3, v3, ...}
...
{v1+v2, v2+v3, v3+v4, ...} ← does not span V
hausdorff
Also are there any other references to the stronger result that is proved here? Namely, that if S is linearly independent and B is a basis then one can replace |S| elements of B with elements of S to get another basis
This is from Aluffi's Algebra: Chapter 0
my bad, it's (X+1)(X^3 + X + 1)(X^3 + X^2 + 1)
Factorising polynomials over a finite field has a simple algorithm: go through every polynomial in order of ascending degree and check if it's a factor, if so divide, and continue.
This works because we can enumerate polynomials over a finite field very easily.
Now if you're asking for some kind of trick to see it easily, I don't think there is such a thing I'm afraid.
There's also the algorithm with square free factorization into distinct degree factorization into equal degree factorization though
x⁷+1=(x+1)(x⁶+x⁵+...+1)
Any factor of (x⁶+x⁵+...+1) must have a nonzero constant term, and one can rule out x+1 as a factor
Then you are left with two degree 2 polynomials to check, x²+1 and x²+x+1, but x²+1=(x+1)² so we can rule it out instantly. Then you only need to check for factors of degree 3
Can't think of a 'quick' method though
isn't the last condition redundant?
f(a) = f(1_R a) = f(1_R) f(a) and f(a) = f(a 1_R) = f(a) f(1_R)
no
no, f(x)=0 for example
and clearly there is only one multiplicative identity in a ring
beware of division by zero
(it would be redundant in a field)
wait
no f = 0 would still kill it nvm
this assumes cancellation, which only holds in specific rings
then it's the same right
where'd I use cancellation
yep indeed
can we find a polynomial in n = 2 variables such that the lexicographic, right lexicographic, homogeneous lexicographic, and homogeneous right lexicographic valuations wrt minimal valuation are all pairwise different? for n > 3 you can find one easily, but I doubt such a polynomial exists for n = 2
f(a) = f(a) f(1_R) implies 1_S = f(1_R)
i see, thanks!
my point was that since your first equation holds for all elements a in the ring, the element f(1_R) is an identity in S, and since identities in rings are unique, f(1_R) is the multiplicative identity
but I guess I assumed that f(1_R) ≠ 0_S, because we cant have 0_S = 1_S (fixed the typo above)
so that's why I think that if you replace the condition of f(1_R) = 1_S with f(1_R) ≠ 0_S it is equivalent
wouldn't you still need an integral domain for that
why is that
ok f(a) = f(a) f(1) for all a in R right
so f(a)(f(1) - 1) = 0
but how do you know that f(1) - 1 isn't a zero divisor
what's wrong with f(1) - 1 being a zero divisor
let me look over your claim again
you want to use uniqueness of the identity in R and S here
ok i think the mapping identities condition is redundant
some definitions omit it, even when considering rings w/ identity

and i take back what i said, you did not assume cancellation above
and i believe your proof holds
I'm looking through Dummit Foote and it's so infuriating; they define rings as not necessarily having multiplicative identity
f = 0 tho
then f(1) = 0 so not a homo
ig if it sends everything to 0 we can call it the trivial homomorphism but i don't think people like that
it makes me sad
so in DF they're fine with homomorphisms where f(1) ≠ 1 ?
ugh
that's actually messed up wtf
always the functional analysists gotta ruin everything
Consider the ring of 2x2 matrices and $f\colon R \to M$ by $f(r) = \begin{pmatrix} r&0\0&0\end{pmatrix}$
jagr2808
What is infuriating about this definition?
I don't think it's inherently worse, I just don't like having to juggle around different definitinos for the same thing in my head
here f(1) = 1 right?
Ah
hmm
f(x) = f(1)f(x) for all x in R
you want to say that since f(1) satisfies this for all f(x) in S, it must be the identity
maybe if f is surjective
but what if f is not
no
oh I thought your ring was just matrices of the form [r 0 ; 0 0]
no all matrices
Ahh
ok it looks like this is where you need surjectivity
so surjectivity is the killer then
yea
(DF)
I would think that not requiring ring homomorphisms to send 1 to 1 would significantly change a presentation of ring theory
It does yes
but looking at the table of contents, DF proves the same stuff?
Ye this made me avoid lol
However for any nonunital ring R, there is a unital ring ZxR such that the representation theory of ZxR coincides with that of R.
More specifically the forgetful functor from unital rings to nonunital has an adjoint
So the general theory is still similar
Ok I'll take your word for it then
So it's pretty intuitive for a ring R you make the new ring consist of elements of the form n+r where n is an integer and r is in R. With addition and multiplication defined in the obvious way.
Then a unital ring homomorphism, must map n to n*1 and can map r as any nonunital ring homomorphism
Yeah, so if R is nonunital and S is unital. Then there is a bijection between nonunital ring maps R to S and unital ring maps ZxR to S. This is what it means for two functors to be adjoint.
quick sanity check, if two subgroups are conjugate their normalizers are equivalent right?
or at least isomorphic?
yeah you just think of the conjugation as an inner automorphism
So the normalizers would also be conjugate
ok cool that's what I thought
suppose an ideal A is not a subset of an ideal B, and neither is B a subset of A. Do we have A/B = (1)?
I'm not sure what you're asking
ur quotient is ill defined
or, is the image of A under the natural quotient map to R/B equal to the entire quotient ring?
hm.. right, thank you
I'm curious what the condition needed for that to hold is
Since for R = Z, A=(5) and B = (4) it holds
ig an element of A has to be a unit mod B
i want to say (4 mod 6) is not an ideal of Z_6 because 2 mod 6 * 4 mod 6 = 2 mod 6, and we'd want to say 2 mod 6 is not in (4 mod 6). but in what sense is 2 mod 6 not in (4 mod 6)? since if (4 mod 6) is the additive group generated by 4 mod 6, clearly it contains 2 mod 6 = 4 mod 6 + 4 mod 6
I'm going to write just 2 instead of 2 mod 6 for the element of Z/6, because it is a schlep to do so otherwise.
(4) is most certainly an ideal of Z/6. I don't know why you think otherwise
It is - by definition! – the ideal of Z/6 generated by 4
Now note that 4 + 4 = 2 in Z/6
bowte beat me to it
So indeed 2 is in (4)
I think there is a severe lack of understanding going on here.
That sounds very dramatic ...
failing sucks, but at least you can fail dramatically
Confusingly enough in our linear algebra course they didn't insist on ring homomorphisms fixing 1, but in our course in rings and modules they did, and every course subsequently after that
I think it has something to do with the fact that not all authors demand rings to have a multiplicative unit
Yeah homomorphism should be a structure preserving map, so if your ring has not 1 then certainly you don’t need to preserve it
non unitary rings aren't real they can't hurt you
whats the deal with rngs anyway
idk ask dummit and foote they seem to really like them
I guess they have a nice definition
@dummitandfoote what are your thoughts
(R,+,*,0) such that (R,+) is an abelian group with identity 0 and every g_r:s\mapsto rs, h_r:s\mapsto sr is a homomorphism of (R,+)
Yeah we know the definition lmao
Idk really why people talk about rngs. Having an identity is very nice
I just realized I made the exact same error a while back when I thought that functors necessarily map identity morphisms to identity morphisms
Non-unital algebras arise in all kinds of places, and they naturally become rngs if we forget the scalar multiplication.
spotted the phyisisicts
I guess 1 just acts as the identity homomorhpism then
but you might want to exclude such a map
but they do
i've never seen someone define a functor without saying that it preserves the identity
From what I understand you can always give a ring a unit so it doesn't matter what you specify
no like I thought that preserving compositions alone implied identity morphisms were preserved too
oh
Mapping identities to identities is part of the definition of functor
ah yea, that is not correct
The condition is that A+B = R. For R=Z we have (m) + (n) = (gcd(m, n)) so this happens when m and n are relatively prime.
what's your favourite ring (you can't say F_1)
thought it does hold if the functor is surjective on hom-sets
this seems like some sort of bezout for ideals. do we have A+B = R for proper ideals A,B iff A,B maximal?
Upper triangular matrices
For example, you can have a not-a-functor from Grp->Grp that maps every group to itself and every homomorphism to the zero map. That preserves composition, but doesn't preserve identities.
The ring of formal power series on the reals
similar to how a surjective function between rings that preserves addition and multiplication necessarily fixes 1 (and is thus a homomorphism of unital rings)
No, I mean in the first place we could have A = B maximal. In general the sum of maximal ideals need not be the whole ring: take for example the maximal ideals (2) x (3) and (3) x (3) of Z x Z.
Could you embed every ring into that?
What kind of a ring is $M(\omega, R)$.
philka.
Wow this was way wrong! My bad.
Those aren't maximal, but they are prime.
If A and B are maximal and distinct, then yes. The condition A+B=R is sometimes called comaximal. But also coprime or relatively prime
thanks!
Probably that would mean the endomorphism ring of an omega-dimensional vector space?
thanks for the example
can anyone give a tldr of why the “field with one element” has a gigantic wikipedia page
It was wrong!
Hi
like what is there to study lmao
Because it's not a field, nor does it have one element
It's not a ring at all
Keep reading the article
For any ring R, consider the upper triangular matrix ring with coefficients in R. Boom boom
🙀
F_un has very good publicity for something that doesn't exist.
I fell for it
Who among you guys are mathematicians?
Sorry meant to say integer matricies
Not me pshsh 👀 💦
Then I fairly certain you cannot
I mean literally any uncountable ring obviously cannot be
If you allow infinite-dimensional matrices, perhaps. If not, certainly not
Yeah I see how that messes with functional rings, but I'm sure there's a eutopia where it works
Q(zeta_p)
Cyclotomic fields are indeed nice
Consider instead $M_\omega(\mathbb{Z}^{\cdots^\mathbb{N}})$
I find regularity in primes fascinating
philka.
could you then do it?
No; in the first place there are no torsion elements in this group
I mean, even if you can, I doubt it would be a particularly interesting way to look at rings
So clearly rings such as Z/2 cannot be realised
Fine pick a subring of $R\leq M_\omega(\mathbb{Z}^{\cdots^\mathbb{N}})$.
philka.
$M_\omega(M)$ where M is a Z module
if you require your embeddings to preserve 1 this is never going to work
since there's rings of different characteristics
philka.
mwahaha
That doesn't make sense. What's the multiplication?
Anyway, conversely, every ring is a quotient of a polynomial ring Z[x, ...] for some (possibly very large) number of indeterminates
Well, commutative.
If we want non-commutative ones, we need Z<x, ...>
where the indeterminates do not commute
Every ring is a subring of End(M) where M is some Z-module. More specifically if M = the ring itself
Since rings can be arbitrarily large, we cannot find one single such Z<x, ...> for which every ring is a quotient
This might be a stupid question but isn't every R module with R is a PID a ring??? By the structure theorem
Or is that wrong
Who's fighting?
Yes, but not in a canonical way. You can define different ring structures on the same Z-module for example.
no he's asking who so he knows who to bet on
You must specify the multiplication
Structure theorem only applies to finitely generated modules
So you can have different multiplication functions on the same PID module
Yes
Right yes
Oh I wonder if people have studied the group of multiplication maps
Sounds interesting
Every ring is a module over Z, so you can see this in the extreme by looking at non-isomorphic rings with the same underlying abelian group
The unit group?
Yeah idk what that means either
As in ${\pi: M\times M\rightarrow M \text{and }(M,+,\pi)\text{ is a ring}}$
And how is that a group?
philka.
How is it even a ring?
Oh right you're saying thtat (M, +, pi) is a ring
not the whole thing
yes
Now I want to know too how it is a group
I'm sure there's a natural way to turn it into a group
I don't think so
what about $\pi\cdot\tau:=\pi+\tau$
philka.
there's certainly one way to make it into a group
does associativity not follow?
That's what I'm asking
I don't see why not
That's not typically good enough for a proof
At the very least you can study ${\pi}$ as an object with a group action acted on by $\text{Sym}(M)$
philka.
It's certainly not going to typically be a unital ring, at least. You can check it by just seeing what the definition gives you for the product in Z with itself
Furthermore, you will have to include the map pi(m,n) = 0
but still again it may have underlying geometry
and that certainly doesn't work as a multiplicaiton
The trivial ring is terminal, getting rid of it is probably a bad idea
Just a heads-up: when people say F_1, they don't mean the trivial ring.
They don't mean a ring at all.
I know it is sometimes called 'the field with one element'. Don't be fooled!
I got excited
It doesn't exist
Well I say it does
The polynomial ring is a PID, Z is a PID, hence Z is the polynomial ring over some field. Which field is it? I dunno, let's call it F1
That's not what people mean when they talk about the so-called "field with one element"
It's a very weird idea in algebraic geometry. There is no such field F_1
$F=({0}, {(0,0)},{(0,0)},0,0)$
philka.
That is the trivial ring, correct
Doesn't satisfy that 0 =/= 1, and doesn't have nice field-like properties besides
when people say F_1 they are talking about something completely different
We were just talking about this earlier
Ah so fields are required to be nonzero
The definition usually includes 0 \neq 1, yes
ideals and modules aren’t the same thing right (like how abelian groups and Z-modules can be thought of). Sure, every ideal I of a ring R has a natural R-module structure, but an R-module in general has no corresponding ideal?
Every ideal is a module, but not every module is an ideal, yes.
In the first place there are only so many ideals of a ring, but there are a proper class of modules.
And not just in general – there is a proper class of isomorphism classes of modules.
There’s a construction which basically makes any module an ideal
Form a ring A•M with underlying abelian group A (+) M, and multiplication
(a,m)•(b,n) = (ab,an + bm)
Clever
This makes 0 (+) M into a square zero ideal, and you can verify that almost all module theoretic properties of M as an A-module are the same as 0 (+) M as an ideal
I can’t for the life of me write down a formal way in which they’re “the same”
I mean once we restrict scalars back down to A they're the same, right?
But this construction is used in eg Nagata local rings
Uh, basically but then M isn’t an ideal anhmore
The point I think is that

Well yeah but this is where it's a module
(a,m)•(0,n) = (0,an)
Nilsquare extensions are very cool
Anyway this is also used for deformation theory as the trivial extension
Anyway, I agree with what you said, but I think this construction is cool so I mentioned it
In nagata’s book he calls it the idealization
Or maybe idealisation I forgor
A and (A,M) ought to have equivalent module categories right?
That’s my thought, maybe?
Or maybe you look at a subcategory of A•M-mod
Probably the latter
Or wait no
I don’t think so
It’s weird
Because it’s like, we’re associating the module M to A•M
So it’s like…
A•- as a functor or something
Idk
I didn’t work out anything formal
I'm gonna look at the hom-sets
who is A
The ring
I do commutative algebra where the French have a large influence so A is often used for rings coming from the French “Anneau”
Which means ring in French
Oh I thought you were giving your ring the name A•M
Yes that is the name
It comes from an A-module named M
And you mash the two together
Ohh
But with the M part implicitly scaled by a nilpotent factor so you don't need to reveal you don't know how to multiply m's together? Clever.
how does mapping alpha onto a different zero of irr(alpha, F) imply what they wrote?
Yeah idk. The functors I thought would work don't. Oh well.
Maybe I'm just being naive about how I'm going about this
if a is in the LHS but not the RHS, the above argument gives a contradiction
Thank you, your kind words are always appreciated
It is not

not an alt
I know I was being silly
well, you were close. This is a @hidden haven alt
so true
oh it's because the conjugate of irr(a, F) must be in E right
well, in my mid the argument went as follows: By the above argument, there exists an automorphism of K fixing E but not fixing a. But this contradicts the fact that a is in the fixed field of all such automorphisms.
ah that makes a lot more sense thanks
ah ok that makes more sense
thanks
dont know if this is the right channel, but was wondering what do they mean by 'face' here is it reffering to the face of the entire Rubiks cube or a cubie?
Face as in like there are 6 faces to a cube
Think like faces of a square
really? isn't that completely useless though just flipping the face of the entire rubiks cube
Well no cuz you can twist one side
If you know anything about rubics cube lingo this is called the F or F' move
Have you ever held a Rubik's cube?
yeah
And have you tried to twist any of the faces?
Yes...
maybe Im confused on what you're considering a face here
Wait, so what is your question?
a face is the entire square on the cube
a side is only a third of the face
and you twist the sides to get new confiugrations of the rubiks cube
So when you turn the face of a Rubik's cube you move nine of the cubies (or you just move 8 I suppose)
you don't turn the entire face
This is the way you scramble the cube
Hello. In 10 months I have the 12th grade math olympiad and I started learning earlier. The subjects are abstract algebra and real analysis 2. Real analysis is very fun and I like it the way I liked it until now. But Abstract Algebra looks a bit different so far. I am at the beginning (I started one month ago) and now I am at the applications of Lagrange/Cauchy theorems (+center of a group, centralizer, normalizer) in contest problems. It's getting harder and harder and I don't know how to learn more efficiently. Can someone give me some advice? Where can I find problems, explanations, techniques, ideas?
I'm so lost, Hungerford defines rings with unity but then ring homomorphisms don't need to preserve it?
Like bro that's a rng homomorphism
i think you actually cant deduce homomorphism sends unit to unit if you dont a priori assume it right
Yeah we had a long convo about this earlier today
what do i want in order to have: prime ideal that is not maximal is principal
i.e. what's a sufficient condition on a ring so that it has this property
i dont understand why the corollary is true
it's not omitted tho?
if p divides either a or b they're 0
because p is 0 in this ring
oh
sorry corollary
just notice that everything except 0 is a unit
immediately follows
huh
hmm okay
let's try a more general method
finite integral domains are fields
let a be a nonzero element in a finite integral domain
ye
I think this is what quasi-semi-group meant actually
anyway
so consider the sequence formed by a^n
so a, a^2, a^3 ... etc
since it's finite there must be some integers i, j such that i > j but a^i = a^j
(of course there's the trivial case where a = 1)
wait what does this have to do with an integral domain tho
it has to do with being finite
and integral domains have cancellation
so we notice that
a^(i-j) = 1
is any nonprime ideal contained in finitely many principal prime ideals, even in non UFDs? (we need finitely generated ideals here, no?)
I can't figure out why the frobenius map is an automorphism on a field
No, take k[x1,…] and the maximal ideal (x1,…) should not satisfy this
It isn’t always
Such a field is called perfect
do we have it for noetherian rings?
thanks for the answer btw
For finite fields it follows because it’s injective and then pigeonhole principle says injective<=>surjective<=>bijective
Do you want it contained in the Union?
Or in the ideal generated by those primes
in their intersection
That doesn’t really make sense
Why say finitely many if you’re taking intersection?
Adding more ideals makes it harder to be contained inside of it
well, why? this isn't obvious if there are non unique irreducible factorizations
And the answer is no, any height > 1 ideal cannot be contained in a principal prime because then it wouldn’t be height > 1
Since principal primes are either height 0 or 1 by the Hauptidealsatz in a Noetherian ring
oh sorry I meant in rings of char p
Okay but what I’m saying is it’s equivalent to ask if it’s in any principal prime
Frobenius is only a homomorphism in char p, my answer is the same, unchanged
is it not an automorphism if the field has char p?
It isn’t necessarily
hm right
thanks
take F_p(x)
Asking it to be an auto morphism is asking for there to be p-th roots
And x has no p-th root
thanks for this, i realized that i'm instead looking for conditions for an ideal to be able to, instead of actually being, in an intersection of infinite principal primes
But isn’t that still just the same as asking it to be in a single prime? Unless you mean that there exists an infinite list of principal primes, not the same, with x in their intersection
If so, I think yorue basically asking if you can have an infinite “irreducible” decomposition
yeah, existence of a choice of infinite primes
And this is possible yes
Not in a UFD as you pointed out
And I can’t produce an example immediately, but you can do it
i'll think about it thanks
You can do it in a non-Noetherian ring easily I think
By taking an infinite polynomial ring and modding out by relations which make you divisible by all xi I think
In a non-Noetherian ring you can also be divisible by infinitely many powers of x
As in,
\cap_1^infty (x^n) is non-zero
It can’t happen in a domain though (IIRC)
of interest: noetherian implies finitely many minimal primes
Krull's principal ideal theorem: if I is principal, in noetherian ring, minimal primes over I have height 1
oh that's what you referred to by Hauptidealsatz
So I haven't touched fields outside of linear algebra and analysis but I was reading about commutative rings and I was wondering is it true that, R is a field iff every nonzero element of R is a unit (where R is a commutative ring)
yeah that's the definition
Oh right duh this is just multiplicative inverse exist
good to note its an integral domain as well
Is this result true for arbitrary vector spaces? Given a linearly independent set L and a basis β disjoint from L, there exists S ⊂ β with |S| = |L| s.t. β ∪ L \ S is a basis.
It's also cool that all the units form a group
When can I learn this
No, what would I have to learn/understand to start abstract algebra
You would read a book on abstract algebra
There arent really any strictly necessary prerequisits to learning abstract algebra, but it is useful to have some experience with proofs.
taking a proof based linear algebra class for example is often a reccomended prerequisite
This while not necessary, can be very useful for intuition as well as giving some easy examples
Well when you say 'is' you mean 'is isomorphic to'
So let's be clear here, they're not literally the same
yea
But the approach here is to find a map. How can you convert an element f : M (x) N → P to a function g : M → (N → P), to abuse notation a bit
If you can do that in the most natural-looking way, you've probably got the isomorphism.
From that point on it's not hard to show it is indeed an isomorphism
my thinking was the map f is probably factored out by the universal property of the tensor product and maybe if i can map the map f to one of the factors or somethhing
but i thought this wouldnt work
ig the other way around is easier first
like sending the map g to something in the tensor
or idk im confused
Sure, either way works. Just write down what f is defined to be
Given g, write down the definition of f
Say y is the root of X^(p^2) - a, an irreducible polynomial in K[x], where char K is not p, and p is odd (idk if that helps). Suppose K has p'th roots of unity but not p^2 roots of unity, is there any way to show that if the extension K(y, w) / K has exponent p, then [K(y, w) : K] > p^2, where w is a primitive p^2 root of unity?
okay i think i got it
or wait
f(m tensor n) --> g where g(m) is f( m tensor n ) for n fixed?
like g sends an element in M , m to f(m tensor n )
and this f now since it has its m is a function of n
You can write this much more simply as g(m)(n) = f(n (x) m).
Now you have to prove that g(m) is in Hom(N, P) and that g is in Hom(M, Hom(N,P))
Remember it's not enough for these to merely be functions – they have to be module homomorphisms too.
this n is fixed right?
No, I'm defining the function g : M → Hom(N, P)
so for some m, we know that g(m) is a function N → P
So it makes sense to write g(m)(n) for some n in N
Is that clear?
yea
so f in Hom(M tensor N , P) gets send to the map g in Hom(M,Hom(N,P))
where f(m tensor n) gets sent to g(m)_n
where g(m)_n is f(m tensor n) ( which is in P )
is that correct
what does this notation g(m)_n mean, I don't understand it
Furthermore why are we sending f(m tensor n) to anything – that's a value in P and we're not considering any functions with P as a domain
We are sending the function f to the function g, where we defined g as above
yea i just wrote it as f(m tensor n) to like show whats m and n
but yea i see what ur saying
this is g(m)_n
That hasn't really helped me understand what you mean by that
Do you mean g(m)(n) really?
yea but i just dont like this notation
The notation g(m)_n is most certainly worse
If you really don't want to write it, you could say that g(m) = h, where h : N → P is defined as h(n) = f(m (x) n)
yea thats better for me
now i want an inverse map h: Hom(M,Hom(N,P)) --> Hom(M tensor N , P )
and then prove all of those are homomorphisms and inverse to each other
maybe sending the element in LHS , call it f
or like
like the image would be
it sends m tensor n to f(m)(n)
so like the map it gent sent to , call it k or whatever
is defined as it takes m tensor n to P by f(m)(n)
or better by f(m) = g , where g:N-->P and then it inputs that n into the g
yea thats so much better
is that correct
You need to check well-definedness when specifying maps out of the tensor product
isnt f well defined
Not a priori, no
For example the map f : Z (x) Z → Z ‘defined’ by f(a (x) b) = a + b is not well-defined
Look back and remind yourself of what it means for a map from the tensor product to be well-defined.
ig the tensor product is just a quotient?
so i would have two pick two equivalent elements a tensor b and a' tensor b'
and show that they map to the same thing right?
yeah
An arbitrary element of the tensor product is a sum of those
Remind yourself of the universal property of the tensor product.
This should be in whatever source you are reading.
would it be to find a bilinear map from M x N to P so that it induces the map f?
or this i mean*
Yes
Tattoo this on your forehead: a map from the tensor product is well-defined iff it is bilinear
nah man it wont look good
Face tats are all the rage rn you'll be so cool
as in M tensor N -> any module?
yea but not on tensor products
yea so u mean that i get the well definitness for free cuz the map comes out from the bilinear map from M x N to P?
by the uiniversal property?
That is the universal property
What do you mean by the extension having exponent p?
The Galois group has exponent p
yea
and f is already an R-module homomorphism correct
That is the assumption, yes
so its bilinear 😄
but from the product
not from the tensor
and then by commutativity of the diagram it composes with them pa g(a,b) = a tensor b
so we get the map we are after
is that correct
Prove it.
It is far from obvious that the map (m, n) |-> f(m)(n) is bilinear.
Well what you've written doesn't make sense as-is
But it's a start
Write down the properties you have to prove for bilinearity and prove them.
To be clear, it should be (f(m1)+f(m2))(n)
yea forgot that
and i also need linear in the second argument as well
and also af(m)(n) = f(am)(n)=f(m)(an)
i dont see why this is far from obvious
i am 100% missing something
You haven't proved linearity in the first argument yet
Write down the proofs!
If you say it's obvious and you can't prove it, then I sincerely doubt it's obvious.
then u get f(m1)(n) + f(m2)(n) ?
Yes, by the definition of addition of functions
That's additivity in the first argument, yes
😄 why is this far from obvious
it took me 5 mins to just make sure
im not missing something
haha
cuz i was like how
what did he mean
Does it normally take you five minutes to see something 'obvious'?
no it took me 5 mins after u said it isnt
actually, it's been 13, so idk.
Your doing better than me
tensor moment
It took me 3 days to do a counting argument
cool
tysm flat
Now i still have to do that theh sre homomorphims
And inverse to each other
Hmm, so k(y, w):k = p^2 would mean k(y) = k(y, w). We have G(k(y)/k(w)) is a normal cyclic subgroup, so the only possibility for the Galois group is CpxCp or Cp^2. You want to show that it's not CpxCp.
Consider the automorphism defined by mapping y to yw. This must map w to w^s where s=kp+1 for some k.
Iterating this mapping p times gives y maps to yw^t where t = 1 + s + s^2 + ... s^p-1 = (s^p - 1) / (s - 1)
Calculating s^p -1 we get 1 + pkp + O(p^3) - 1
So t is congruent to p modulo p^2 hence the map y -> yw does not have order p.
Also I jumped over the case k=0 here but you can check that seperately.
@frigid lark
thx
consider the ideal (18, 22) in Z. are (2) and (6, 22) the only proper ideals that contain it?
Well every ideal of Z is of the form (a) for some a
You can check that (18,22) = (2)
and also (6,22) = (2)
oh, that makes a lot of sense, thank you
i'd also recommend you look at this
proof isn't bad though
Also I think its just never the case that the group has exponent p. The remaining option would be that k(y,w):k(w) = p^2, and then G(k(y,w)/k(w)) would be cyclic, which contradicts the group having exponent p.
I wouldnt say that
I knew that was the case, I just needed the k(y,w):k(w) = p case done for a question
And I killed a day trying to get it
But thanks for the help
k is a field. in k[x,y], the ideal (x^2, y^2) is contained in (x,y^2), (x^2,y), and (x,y). are there other ideals containing (x^2,y^2)?
(x + ay, y^2 ) for a nonzero also contains it
(x², y², xy)
thanks for the answers!
a hint would be nice. smells of eisenstein
pf(X) = p^n X^n + p^2 X + p but eisenstein's criterion doesn't seem directly applicable
A hint could be that f(x) is irreducible if f(ax + b) is irreducible.
ah, right, putting pX = t seems to do it then
Hint: there is a useful theorem you know that assumes that gcd(k, n) = 1
Do you mean that gcd(k,n) = 1 => kx+ny = 1 where x,y is an integer?
That's Bézout's lemma, correct. It is what you want to use here.
if normal subgroups are analogous to ring ideals, is there also analogy between prime/maximal ideals and a certain class of normal subgroups?
the only thing I can think of would be maximal normal subgroups
do we have that an ideal is maximal if and only if it is also a maximal normal subgroup of the ring's abelian group?
I don't believe the converse is true
hm that would make sense
but I can't think of a counterexample immediately
No. For example the ideal $0 \oplus \bR$ of the ring $\bR \times \bR$ is maximal as an ideal, but it is far from maximal as a subgroup.
Note that all subgroups of an Abelian group are normal, so it is redundant to specify normality here
boytjie
thanks for the example
Okay I am continuing reading my book
And it days: for polynomials in F[x], if an irreducible poly p divides fg, it divides f or g (or both)
Doesn't that imply that all nonzero elements of F_p^k (mod some irreducible poly) multiply to nonzero elements?
Having trouble distinguishing from x^2 + x + 1 in F_2[x] and x^2 + x + 1 in F_8
Worth noting that not every group has a maximal normal subgroup. For example Q under addition.
Yeah that's right, modding out by (the ideal generated by) an irreducible polynomial gives you a domain.
Isn't the normal subgroup the kids in my class that weren't weird (and were closed under +)
Haven't encountered "domain" yet outside the set of inputs for which a function is defined
A domain is a ring which has exactly the property you described: the product of nonzero elements remains nonzero.
Wait that sounds a lot like a field
Except I guess in a domain you can have ab=ac for a,b,c nonzero and b!=c
Z is a domain.
And no, the property you list there is equivalent to being a domain.
Ahhh so they multiply to unique values and in theory could have multiplicative inverses but those inverses aren't part of the set?
Which means all non field domains would have to be infinite
If you have a commutative domain R, there is a way to construct a field Frac(R) which contains R
That's exactly right. Another way of putting this is that finite domains are fields
or well
finite commutative domains are fields. It is true that finite domains are fields but the proof is much harder than just showing the commutative case.
We needn't discuss non-commutative rings for your purposes though
I forget do we need associativity to be a ring
Yeah I dont even deal in infinite fields, I'm a software engineer
so you've said
any kind of algebra without associativity is a waking nightmare
Life is a pain without commutativity too
Not really, we care a lot about non-commutative rings.
There is only so much to say about finite Abelian groups too.
Everyone loves non associative non commutative word problems in this channel 
Mfw face when (when) I can't put my socks over my shoes 

So wait
Doesn't irreducibity of a poly depend on the field(domain?) its coefficients belong to?
Irreducibility = non-factor-ability
x^2 - 1 cannot be factored in Q but it can be factored in the quadratic closure of Q
x^2 + 1 needs Q[i] at the minimum
Yes
Woo I actually am starting to grasp this madness
And not coincidentally, Q[x]/(x^2 + 1) is isomorphic to Q[i]
x^2-1 can be factored in Q
I imagine you wrote x^2 - 1 as a typo. Clearly x^2 - 1 = (x-1)(x+1)
Bad example
Ok not ready for that on
A thinko but yeah
Was thinking of solutions to x^2-1=0
Err
X^2-2
The square root of 2 😛
Yeah. And again not coincidentally Q[x]/(x^2 - 2) is isomorphic to Q[sqrt(2)]
Typing math on a phone sucks
Discord mobile has a bug. Using a bluetooth kbd you can only type one character and then the input box loses focus
Trying to picture this and failing
Well look at it this way
The first one makes the square of sqrt2 equal to zero
No wait it makes (sqrt2)^2 - 2 = 0
Which seems too tautological to be true
Let's consider the element x in Q[x]/(x^2 - 2). I'm writing x instead of x + (x^2 - 2) for ease of writing
Now x^2 - 2 is in the ideal, so x^2 - 2 = 0 in this ring
so x^2 is 2
so x is a square root of 2
Isn't x just the most basic nonzero polynomial here?
Idk what that means exactly. When I write Q[x] I'm referring to the ring of polynomials in x (which is just a symbol at this point) with coefficients in Q.
I don't understand ideals yet
This book has yet to cover them and the wikipedia page was too difficult to follow
Wait now I'm mixed up. At least part of my understanding is that F[x] is the field F plus a "transcendental" x that is not the root of any polynomial with coefficients in F
Which is normally gonna be a ring unless you do F[x,y] with xy=1
Like C is basically R[i]
Wait is C a field? i^2 is not unity
And Q[sqrt2]
F[x,y] with xy=1
This is a contradiction with what you just said above!
I know C has some weirdness going on, like it doesnt have a proper order
When we write F[x], we mean polynomials in the ‘unknown’ symbol x.
Similarly for F[x,y]
Now conversely, Q[sqrt 2] is suggestive notation, but it means something different.
If we have a ring $R$ which is a subring of another ring $S \supseteq R$, given some element $s \in S$ we write $R[s]$ to mean the smallest subring of $S$ containing both $s$ and the entirety of $R$.
boytjie
That's why I said I'm mixed up. My "knowledge" seems to be inconsistent, and since almost all[1] mathematics is consistent, obviously one of my understandings is wrong
I was in the middle of elaborating
Lemme process that one for a moment
So now my point here is that Q[sqrt 2] is the smallest subring of C, if you like, that contains both all rational numbers* and sqrt 2
(* as it happens every subfield of C contains all rational numbers, so this is a bit redundant, but oh well).
So my main misunderstanding is that F[x] could refer to either:
Univariate polynomials of x with coefficients in F
Or
F adjoin(?) Some x that basically defines a+x a-x ax and the ring that results
And with x,y people usually mean the former
And with t,i,j,k and explicit numerical expressions they mean the 2nd
While this is true not all subrings include Q, such as Z
F[x] vs F(a)
Yes, this is why I corrected what I had written
Yes
Wait the book had that syntax earlier but I forgot what the distinction was, lemme look it up again
People will also typically say "the polynomial ring F[x, ...]" to denote the first.
F(...) is the smallest subfield such that blah blah blah, F[...] is the ring.
And it may also refer to F(x) the ring of so-called 'rational functions' which are fractions of polynomials
As it happens, Frac( F[x] ) is F(x) :)
Wait does that mean C is R(i)
Gotcha. [] adds the elements
() adds the elements and their multiplicative inverses
Wait hrm
Oof
For example (and don't get spooked by this notation) there is a difference between the ring F[x, x^-1] and the field F(x)
The first has only ‘polynomials’ like x^-1 + x^2 + 2
But the second has things like (x+1)/(x+2)
Wait x here is a variable, right? We're creating a poly ring?
Well like I said don't get spooked by this notation
It's very suggestive but it doesn't fit into what we've seen before
Is it cuz F[x,x^-1] has negative exponents
This means something different.
Anyway I did describe what its elements look like above.
Oh you said it already
Damn this tiny screen
In Q[x, x^-1] for example there is no inverse of the element 1+x, but in Q(x) there is. Maybe you'd like to check that
That doesn't spook me too much, actually
Yeah that makes sense
It's like
F[x, x^-1] is like (N->Z) while F(x) is like (Z->Q)
Sure, if that makes it easier for you.
It does
x is called an indeterminate
it’s not a variable in the sense that we don’t assign it a numeric value at any point
you can formalize this by thinking of a polynomial x^2 + 2x + 1 as an ordered tuple (1, 2, 1)
I feel like it's easier to think about F(x) as the field of rational functions of F[x]
I've never dealt with rational functions and might never need to, so I'm trying not to get too bogged down in it
Except aren't polynomial functions a thing
polynomials are expressions, polynomial functions are functions
it’s just a technicality but I think I read somewhere it’s important...
Yes. A polynomial is very different from a polynomial function.
For example: the ring of polynomials on F_2 is infinite.
The ring of polynomial functions F_2 → F_2 is finite.
ye because the same polynomial can mean different things in different fields
No it's more like polynomials can have the same output despite being described differently
;-;
The ring of definition is important too, but that wasn't the point of this example
Are they the same polynomial? Or are they different polynomials written with the same sequence of characters?
o yeah if it’s like x^3 in F_2
that takes on the same values as x^5 but it’s a different polynomial
No it is still very important!
maybe for a mathematician
OK.
Yeah like in F2
x+1 = x^2+1 right?
For an example of why we care about it, see classical algebraic geometry.
Indeed, since x^2 and x are equal for all x in F_2 :)
Mathematicians? In the math server? Is nothing sacred
blue
If we did not have the distinction, then we would not be able to construct finite fields, for example.
wdym
The finite fields of characteristic two are certain quotients of F_2[x]. If we identified these with polynomial functions, this ring would be finite and would only have a couple of quotients.
Understanding this difference is vital to this construction.
ye if you take F[x]/(p(x))
the degree of p(x) impacts the number of elements in the field you end up with
Btw I tried to write a formal mathematical description of IEEE 754 floating point values in abstract algebra terms and it's a nightmare
The only thing you get is commutativity
No associativity
No closed subsets (except maybe {0})
FOUR sets of absorptive(?) elements
Two of which are subsets of the third, one subset more absorptive than the other
Many elements have no additive inverse
Almost no elements have a multiplicative inverse
can't you embed F_2 in \bar{F_2}
floats aren’t real
And how do you construct the algebraic closure of F_2?
How would we even calculate in it?
Come on man. We need to understand the difference. It's very clear.
They aren't even Q, or even Z or N
The nonassociativity alone is a mess
Lmao is this like trolling, who would argue this distinction doesn’t matter?
I also like my,ring,of,polynomials over Fp to be finite
- Teach an algebra class
- HOMEWORK 1: Construct the algebraic closure of F_2
I can't tell if this is intentional at this point
You're talking about yourself 
