#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 120 of 1

Lol
Yeah then more like a poly in two tings ye
yur
don't say that
q wertyuiop[]
time to retire wew
I haven't even done it for the first time
because decomposition series are utterly useless
Yes fair
They get mentioned for reps of finite groups and of lie algebras in what im reading
Well ig just the point that there are only finitely many simple R-modules if R is artinian and noetherian and you can kinda just write them down
wrong
"oohh oohh I simply must work over a semifactorial monoid" get out of here boot boy
But then seems superceded at least in char 0
I’ve never said that in my life
Glomed
Glomed
k[t]/t^2
but this just offloads the actual hard part to checking if R is artinan/noetherian so what's the point
Yeah because it’s always Noetherian and then you just need to know if it’s dim 0
Which is a lot of stuff we are interested in right lol e.g. group ring of finite group smh
I literally do not know what you people are talking about
Are you gonna let a 15 yr old talk to you like that Potato?
^
finite what, dimensional? illogical. Not even free
I'd legitimately rather fuck around with brauer characters than even think about ring theory
sociopath behaviour
I will continue being a sociopath until potato explains what the fuck this means
Field in what category 
finite over R means finitely generated R-module
so here it is just yes a f.d. vector spacae over the field
oh yeah cause "finitely generated" is just TOO long to type smh
in that case yeah it's obvious lol
why tf are you working over reals 
Finitely generated makes you think it’s finitely generated as an algebra
Finite is the standard name for this
Get good
stupid terminology

tf kind of shit terminology is that
They hated Jesus for he told the truth
say finitely presented like a real man
NO!
Finitely presented means a specific thing
Which is neither of these
Over a field they’re the same, but that’s inconsequential
yeah finitely presented is very different lol
if you werent referring to as an algebra then I legtimately don't know what you or potato are talking about
wow OK I got what you were talking abt massively wrong lmao
Finite over a field means as an algebra it’s a finite dim VS
This is much stronger than being finitely generated as an algebra
k[x] is not a finite k-algebra
or at least potato got something wrong, there are finite groups with wild representation types over finite fields but the group algebra is obviously still finitely generated
Any finite k-algebra is 0-dimensional, Artinian, etc
A group algebra associated to a finite group is a finite k-algebra because it has basis G
as an algebra it's a vector space
fuck me why didn't I just do fluids
Literally being an algebra makes you a VS
This is what all of field theory is based off of

No because it has a ring structure that also plays nice with the field structure of the base
I wish I can go back to HS algebra sometimes
Anyway, this is fucking dumb I feel like I’m talking to a 12 year old so I leave you with this sully

thanks for that one chmonkey
u mfs get on my case for being imprecise constantly but when the turn tables u scamper off
This isn’t imprecise at all
don't worry I'm the type of person who constantly mixes up terminology and then tells ppl they can understand what I'm saying based on context
This is all standard terminology
Considering an algebra as a module over the base ring is normal
well no shit it's normal
it's just the way your phrasing it is confusing the shit out of me
I got what you mean now
you forgor the algebra structure and it's a finite dim vs
but that's not what you said
How is saying “your algebra is a finite dimensional vector space” confusing at all?
There’s only one way to do that lol
very standard lol
don't make me get out my copy of Eisenbud
anyway there's still this point
oh it's alright I was getting simple and indecomopsable swapped in the definition
Just a sanity check here: in question 23, does σ²=σ°σ, or (σ(a))²?
I think the former
what's the group operation
The former
the group operation in Aut(G) is composition yeah
Yes. The only confusion here was because it was asking about properties of G, as opposed to Aut(G)
Well, it was talking an automorphism of G so it was also about Aut(G). In the future always assume the former unless strictly specified
I've just seen both in the questions, so I needed to make sure
guys on question 5 is the set of 2Z also infinite as with Z, 2Z is definitely a subset of Z but i’m struggling to understand because 2Z could also be infinite despite it only containing even numbers
Yes, 2ℤ is infinite. And it is a subset of ℤ. What is the issue?
the map x-> 2x is an isomorphism so they're equinumerous sets
illum this is honestly the worst insult ever flinged at me
see https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dedekind-infinite_set
in ZFC, any given set is infinite iff it has a bijection with one of its proper subsets
In mathematics, a set A is Dedekind-infinite (named after the German mathematician Richard Dedekind) if some proper subset B of A is equinumerous to A. Explicitly, this means that there exists a bijective function from A onto some proper subset B of A. A set is Dedekind-finite if it is not Dedekind-infinite (i.e., no such bijection exists). Prop...
it's a funny alternative definition for infinite sets
it truly is,thanks
What's the other one?
This is the only formal definition of an infinite set that I know
No it's not an axiom
That axiom talks about the existence of the natural numbers essentially
You can just define a set as finite if it is in bijection with {1,...,n} for some n and say that a set is infinite if it is not finite
Equivalently if for all n there exist pairwise distinct x1,..,x_n in your set
It is then a theorem (with ZFC) that this definition is equivalent to being Dedekind infinite
oh
Though the two notions can differ with a weak enough set theory
Not sure why this is in abstract algebra tho...
fitting
Everything in the last like hour would probs go better in #proofs-and-logic next time
Not to mini mod lol
whats the difference
Lol
nothing. basic questions in this channel basically belong there
Well this had nothing much to do with algebra lol
Oof

well we've got the abstract part down at least
if S is a ring and R is a subring, why is R in general not an S module? the distributive laws are satisfied since R is a ring, multiplication is associative, and the identity element for S is the same as R
How are you defining the multiplication
it is right?
This is true the other way round though (S is an R module)
No like this makes no sense as is in general
multiplication by S on R might not map elements of R to R
it's not an ideal
look at Q module Z
unless they're non unital in which case I apologise
For example this would make Z into a Q-vector space which we hopefully see is very much not the case
OK rip beaten to it

wait but i thought since S is contained in R in which case multiplication has to be closed
You said R is contained in S
que es

oops
same issue I had
Nice nickname ryu
it's either correct or incorrect depending on who you ask
number theorist will say incorrect, topologist will say correct
true
what is correct and what is incorrect
i see a bunch of symbols
its neither correct nor incorrect
it's set theory
its nothing
By cl(ℚ), do you mean the algebraic closure of ℚ?
upto you
Class group of Q
this question is really kicking my butt
questions tend to do that
Exercise number really is a tough cookie
23 from the picture previously sent. I'm having a hard time, but I feel like it's because I'm not incorporating the fact that G is a finite group
more specifically: I'm having a tough time getting the intermediate step of showing that for all x in G, x=x^-1sigma(x)
It doesn't say x = x^-1 σx
It says that for any g, there is some x such that g = x^-1 σx
hilbert's theorem 90
not gonna speedrun that one until it's on my whiteboard lol
Though this also seems sus to me. Applying σ to such an expression inverts it, so this implies that σ is the inversion map. But then g = x^-1 σx = x^-2, so this implies that every element of the group is a square? This is false because ℤ is a counterexample. Not sure where I'm making a mistake.
are you saying that Z is an example of such a group? because Z is not a finite group
wait Z isn't finite?
at least within the context of this textbook, despite having a finite generating set, Z is not finite. It has infinite order.
ong?
Anyone?
First off, it says that every y has the form x^-1 sigma(x) for some x in G.
got that part
If you interpret x^-1 sigma(x) as a function that sends x to that expression you wanna check if that function is actually surjective, in that case you can write any g in that form.
You can see how this map is injective from the property you were given (work it out). Injective functions into a finite set into itself are always bijective, so that gets you your desired claim
Tf are abelian categories m
You mean R-modules over a fitting (sometimes noncommutative) ring?
Thing category theorists came up to feel good about themselves
Yeah, most likely
I don't sound like that
Why am I getting sully-ed for the based mitchell embedding theorem
true albeit
Good
Isn't that just a good enough algebraist rather than a cat theorist
Jk
Are there really any abelian categories that are studied other than R-modules?
Sure, sheaves
Lots, but usually them being abelian is a nice bonus. If you forget everything except the abelian cat structure then there is a sense in which it "behaves exactly like R-modules", so the point where any theorem of abelian categories will hold if it holds for R-modules
good example
this is the only motive behind abelian categories
no other examples exist
who even gives a sheaf about those
Chain complexes over an abelian category might be an interesting example to a good amount of people too
thats not an example because no one cares about just chain complexes
you want to go to the derived category
no longer abelian
I guess if you only care about a concrete derived category then that's true, but otherwise derived categories are defined over abelian categories, no? Still makes it an important stepping stone for getting there
ok i will give you this one
its a good example too
but thats it
no more examples exist
besides your example is a special case of complexes of sheaves over a point
theyre the same example you tricked me
Shit, they found out
I know that this function is injective, but I'm having trouble making surjectivity. I suppose that if for all x,y, showing that f(x)=f(y) implies that x=y would do it via pigeonhole principle, since G is equinumerous to itself. I guess I can lean on the fact that sigma(x) is a bijection in itself, therefore the pieces of inv(x)sigma(x) are unique. However, I still haven't quite figured out how to show that there's no weird collapse or cancellation that can render f(x)=f(y) for x=/=y
Injective functions form a finite set to itself are always surjective
How many elements does the image of an injective function?
ah, the hole-pigeon principle XD
The diagram of holed and pigeons commutes
Aren’t you told sigma is an automorphism or is this a different question
I am.
that's how I was able to easily conclude that sigma(x) is unique for a given x
Yeah but this about an related function
Not even a homomorphism
g = x^-1sigma(x)? For some x I’m presuming
yeh
Yeah, interpreted as a function of x it is surjective
wait hold on... something feels less obvious than before. I've shown that every member of G can be mapped via this function, and I've shown that it is well defined. ah, I see my problem. be back in a second when I've actually demonstrated injectivity. I need to show that there isn't an element that can't get mapped to.
Does anyone have a reference for the representation theory of GL(N, Z) for generic N?
oh, no wait, there's a left inverse, therefore it is injective, and therefore via pigeonhole, it is surjective.
There really is no nice way to do this question and it’s annoying me
like yeah sure you could just check it but I want to do something cooler
What question? Injective maps on equinumerous finite sets are surjective?
The initial question?
g = f(h) = f(f(h^-1h)h) = h^-1f(h^2)
Like come on bro I’m so close
showing that G is abelian given the correct conditions on sigma
Dunno, but a keyword is Margulis superrigidity. Virtually, all finite dimensional representations of GL(n, Z) come from GL(n, C)
For n>=3
n=2 is the rank one case, that's number theory territory. I dunno.
I mean PGL(2, Z) is Z2 * Z3
If x^-1 sigma(x) = y^-1 sigma(y), then yx^-1 = sigma(y)sigma(x)^-1
So yx^-1 is then a fixed point, so by assumption 1
Thanks so much for this: I'm interested in this question mostly for larger n, so no need to worry about the n = 2 edge case
You just multiply on both sides and then use the homomorphism property to obtain that yx inverse is equal to its image under sigma
and then, given that all elements can be written as x inverse S(x), we can then apply sigma on it to show that S(-x)x=S(-xS(x)) which through some manipulation shows that S(x)=-xS(x)x for all elements in G, which can only be the case if the x and x inverse on either side can cancel out, which implies commutation.
or, more strictly, apply x from the left on both sides to get xS(x)=S(x)x
i.e. commutativity
Ngl that's a bit complicated. S(-xS(x))=-S(x)x. This is just the inverse of -xS(x). So S is homomorphism that sends any elements to it's inverse
That's not only a cool fact, but is equivalent to G being abelian
yeah, demonstrated in the previous problem
Yeah, just saying. Your reasoning seems a bit shacky there
At least it doesn't obvious that, potentially, x or S(x) always in the center. Like, just because xS(x)=S(x)x, why should it hold if I replace S(x) with some arbitrary y?
fair enough.
can somebody help me understand why beta not being in E implies that such an isomorphism mapping of E can't be an automorphism of E?
Suppose E is an algebraic extension of a field E lol
yea i saw that lmfao
Yeah
Yeah I assumed it was something deeper initially lol
how do you call a group ring over some group with coefficients in some ring
like, "group algebra of G over R"?
or how would you phrase that
R[G] lol
Herstein gave this as an exercise. How would the proof even start?
yes but like in a HUMAN SENTENCE
"let A = R[G]"
@delicate orchid how do we define the tensor product of two characters
is it just the character corresponding to the tensor of their representations
multiply them
vast majority of sources don't even use a tensor product symbol they just write \chi_1\chi_2
yeah so the character corresponding to the tensor of their representations 
which is the character corresponding to the tesnor product of the corresponding modules but I thought I'd let you know it's just multiplication
alright wise guy simmer down
one more wisecrack out of you and I'm gonna start charging by the hour
now I just need to figure out if this is tensor or direct sum....
so it's like
the left side is a sum of things
so it's term wise?
like it's some characters added to one another
and the morphism here is like sending each one to their respective thing on the right?
when I see \chi^u I think \chi^u(g) := \chi(ugu^-1)
the tensor product distrubutes over direct sums so it doesn't matter
\chi^u is (t_1, ..., t_n) -> t_1^a_1 * .... * t_n^a_n
yea
oh it's the torus geezer
indeed
yeah so this map just takes that to \chi^2u surely, assuming u = (a_i)
what is C[M] tensor C[mathcal O^vee cap M] isomorphic to
Ye
how the fuck am I supposed to know
because like
if chi^u is sent to x^2u
then there must be a nice form of that tensor
I just know that if you square something the exponents go up
real
there's no telling how chi^2u decomposes over that
just because it's a character doesn't mean it's a nice one
cause if so I'm chatting shit - \chi^2u would be linear
so the abelianisation of both dudes are isomorphic :letrollface;
what the fuck is an abelianization
I've only heard it in the wikipedia article of class field theory 
I have no idea what you're talking about
can anyone help me with this identity? im not sure if its right: $\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_9) = \mathbb{Q}(\zeta_9 + \bar{\zeta_9}) \mathbb{Q}(\zeta_3)$
Cone
yea the degrees match. so you think its right?
if the degrees match then you are done
because obviously $Q(\zeta_9)\supseteq \Q(\zeta_9+\zeta_9^{-1})\Q(\zeta_3)$
Croqueta
The generators of the right side are contained in the left one
If I want to show multiplication in the Brauer group is well defined via [A]\cdot[B]=[A\otimes B] does the following work:
Suppose A\sim A', B\sim B', we want to show A\otimes B\sim A'\otimes B'. Let D and E be division algebras with A\cong M_n(D), A'\cong M_n'(D), B\cong M_m(E), B'\cong M_m'(E), then A\otimes B\cong M_nm(D\otimes E) and A'\otimes B'\cong M_n'm'(D\otimes E), i.e. both are isomorphic to a matrix algebra over the same (not necessarily division) CSA C. This implies similarity (if A\cong M_n(C) and B\cong M_m(C) for a CSA C, then there is a division algebra D with C\cong M_d(D), hence A\cong M_nd(D) and B\cong M_md(D) and A\sim B).
Can you tex this
It's very hard to read like this
Anyways this should be trivial if you know how matrix algebras tensor
And that you can pull the coefficient ring out

block morita equivalence 😋
Is there any research / books on polynomial rings in infinitely many variables?
le classical non-noetherian ring has arrived
That's a really broad question. Is there any research? Idk, look it up on arXiv. In any case I doubt you'd find a whole book just on one single ring.
If you want to know some stuff about it then just ask
Anyway as wew points out it is the classic example of a non-Noetherian ring, which in some ways says it's a gross ring
I think an interesting question would be whether or not every projective module over this ring is free. This is true for ordinary polynomial rings (Quillen-Suslin)
isn't this phrasing wrong? wouldn't it imply that all sylow subgroups are normal?
No
society if all sylow subgroups were normal
yeah that absolutely does not imply what you're saying wtf
what if you choose K = H? shouldn't it be phrased as "the conjugate of a sylow subgroup is again a sylow subgroup"
if two elements are conjugate then so are their centralisers, that does not imply that all centralisers are normal
oh wait lmao I'm stupid
Then you would get an element g such that gHg^-1 = H, wow so much crazy
good sticker
oh my golly gosh but then if you track how you actually get betwixt each subgroup you get the wholesome alperin fusion theorem oh my goodness gracious
nobody has ever heard of my field of study so this doesn't surprise me
what does it state
le epic google
no I just have fusion systems in alg/top open at all times
replace fusion system with "a group G" and "a p-group" with "a sylow p-subgroup of G"
it just describes how you can daisy chain together conjugation maps to go from one subgroup to another basically
Nice
and there's a VERY small set of groups called "essential subgroups" which are required to be able to do this
the statement is much easier if you just care about the fusion system
Wow I bet people that work in the same institution as one of the authors of that book are epic and hot
oh yeah I forgot you did
Also I should read it
it's pretty long
I feel bad for not knowing a single fucknndsing thing about fusion systems
yeah I get that picture
wait I'm having a brainfart here, surely [A, B] = [B, A] must be true?
what's the bracket mean here
commutator

sure if it's the boring commutator
illuminator just write it out my man
what's the cool commutator
So you're saying aba^-1b^-1 = bab^-1a^-1 always?
XY-YX = YX-XY is how I interpreted it lol
So you don't mean the group-theoretic commutator
no I think they do
Or illum* doesn't
I'm just an idiot
sorry wew I saw the blue names and got confused
I saw capital letters and also assumed this lol
nvm lmao
wait
actually
uh
huh
wait let me think
are A and B groups or what
yes
Well this is obviously not true for the free group, so that's a counterexample.
is inversion a bijection
this is why you should ask the whole question
I know I'm gonna get sullied for this but I needed [A, B] <= A cap B for A and B normal for something else and got [A, B] <= B but didn't realize that it's literally THE SAME EXACT ARGUMENT for [A, B] <= A
🗿
Huh what
normal in what
what does this mean
some larger group
https://xyproblem.info/ moment
Asking about your attempted solution rather than your actual problem
damn I forgot someone had already come up with a name for this
I was calling it "asking the whole question"
nono this isn't xy
my argument still works
I think that's a better name. "xy problem" bad
and like I knew that it's true because it's in my notes
I just don't write down proofs
so I forgor it
do you even need the commutator for this actually, I decided to think about this one
ah no you do
A, B normal in G, so A^B <= A and B^A <= B, so [a,b] <= A as bab^{-1} in A and likewise for [a,b] <= B
yurrr
ok cool
what's A^B
Suppose a,b in Z/pZ and a^2 - b^2 = 0
p is prime
Can we factor the a^2 - b^2 to (a-b)(a+b)
what do you think
can you come up with rings where it is not allowed
I guess non commutative rings
Yeah
the element a-b times the element a+b?
a^2 - b^2
!!!
so a*a - b*b
yes
the key
I guess I was more concerned about whether these would be the only solutions
Solutions to what?
to this
Ah
Well ok here's a fact in Z/pZ where p is prime
if xy = 0, then x = 0 or y=0
can you infer what you want from this?
Hi.
If I wanted to solve the equation p(x) = x^2 + 1 = 0 over the quaternions where Re(x) = 0, would the solutions of p(x) just be x = +/-(i, j, k)?
Something tells me that’s a no…
take a pure vector quaternion v and square it, you get -v dot v
in other words, every unit length pure vector quaternion satisfies v^2=-1
in fact you can lift the condition of having scalar part =0 since if there is, you end up with a vector part after you square it, so it will never be a solution to x^2=-1
Ah alright, thanks
yeah you're welcome
maybe try working out a more general formula for distinct vectors u and v what you get when you multiply them in terms of the dot and cross product
why did this look better when my prof drew it on the blackboard
it looks so weird in his notes
I thought your subsets were ? for a minute lol
so true
idk looks fine to me, feels 3D haha
Errant question, how are characters defined for infinite-dimensional representations (e.g. representations of compact groups)? Googling did not give any immediate answers.
it looked wayyyyyy cooler on the blackboard
the main difficulty is in the non-compact case, where the notion of a character for these infinite dimensional representations is kinda subtle: the term to look up is "character distribution" or some variant of this; the characters here in general will be Schwatz distributions with singularities
for example if you're looking at representations of a semisimple Lie group G then the relevant thing to look at is the Harish-Chandra character distributions: if \pi is an irreducible unitary representation of G on a Hilbert space H and f is a test function then the operator \pi(f)=\int_G f(x)\pi(x)dx is of trace class
so you get a distribution \Theta_\pi(f)=tr(\pi(f)), this is the Harish-Chandra character of \pi, it's a conjugation invariant (eigen)distribution on G with eigenvalue the central character of \pi.
if you want to see some nontrivial examples of this worked out, check e.g. section 7.5 of Palm's thesis where this is worked out for GL_2(R) in a bunch of detail, and similarly section 9.5 for GL_2(Q_p)
Potentially dumb question, but can't one use the fact that the trace can be defined coordinate free via V\otimes V*\to K and try to do something similar in the infinite-dimensional case (e.g. with the topological dual instead of the algebraic)?
idk if this belongs in number theory but where does this equation come from
Lang Chapter 6 Q 22
p^(q^(r-1)) = 1 + x
b = 1/x * ((1+x)^q - 1)
the ... don't tell you that these are binomial coefficients lol
oh, that makes sense

Anyone have any idea what Int(g) could mean for an element g of a group (Where Int(g) is supposed to be a morphism)
Could be the inner automorphism given by x |-> gxg^(-1)
I was thinking that might be it but it doesn't seem to work for what it's used
maybe i'm just being silly
What's the context where it's used?
Where compatible means this
Where Gamma,Gamma' are profinite groups, A,A' are Gamma and Gamma' (resp.) sets/groups/modules and
f:A->A'
pho:Gamma'->Gamma
,rotate
Oh that looks like an intertwining map
Don’t know if it is but that’s what it looks like
what's an intertwining map
this is showing the bifunctoriality of H^n
oh
you mean equivariant
yes this is equivariant but that doesn't explain what Int(g) is
First three letters line up 🆙
Well, it is true that $\sigma(\rho^{-1}a) = \rho^{-1}(\rho\sigma\rho^{-1})a$
So my vote is still on inner automorphism.
jagr2808
I think you're probably right jagr
I probably messed up my calculation
oh yea I was thinking rho^-1 sigma rho
instead of rho sigma rho^-1
so silly
What are the irreps of Aff(2,3)
Also called AGL(2,3)
The affine group on the 2 dimensional vector space over F_3
I guess I'd start thinking about representing column vectors as [x ; y ; 1] and then elements of AGL(2,3) as 3x3 matrices with the last row as [0 0 1] as a way to shoehorn in linear transformations with translations
then try to think of what kinds of upper triangular blocks of this we can make I guess
That is a 3 dimensional representation. Is it irreducible? Nvm
I was more thinking this is more like a 6 dimensional representation cause it has 6 free entries, and then try to reduce it down by finding like equivalence relations by thinking of the cosets, but I might be way off base here lol
If you can work out the irreps of GL(2,3) then Clifford theory would make it easy to extend to AGL(2,3)
Aff(2, 3) \cong F_3^2 \ltimes GL(2, 3), reps of F_3^2 are easy, GL(2, 3) is annoying but it's a double cover of S_4 so not too bad
Its a 3 dim rep over F_3, not C 
there's a well known formulation of reps of semidirect products lemme go find it
or u can do this, but that requires thinking
yeahhhhhhh just use clifford lol
the method I had in my mind was for wreath products anyway 
But sowwy I don't know the irreps of GL(2,3)
opens magma
is S_4 not a normal subgruop here
Uuuuuh GL(2,3) has a normal subgroup isomorphic to F_3\{0} so use clifford 
joking
not helpful
ok yeah you have the determinant reps but how that thang do
How do you use Clifford theory
OH YEAH I've done this before for a general finite field lol I forgorrr
nvm I reviewed my notes it was SL
OK so this is the most helpful result.
Let $H \leq G$ and let $\vartheta \in \operatorname{Irr}(G)$. Define $I_G(\theta) = \build{g \in G}{{}^g\theta = \theta}$. Then there is a bijection $\operatorname{Ind}_I^G \colon \operatorname{Irr}(I \mid \vartheta) \to \operatorname{Irr}(G \mid \vartheta)$, where $\operatorname{Irr}(K \mid \vartheta) = \build{\chi \in \operatorname{Irr}(K)}{\gen{\operatorname{Res}_H \chi, \vartheta} \neq 0}$.
Boytjie (never-to-be-glomed)
you could lift from F_3^2 ig
Suppose $H \unlhd G$ and $\eta \in \operatorname{Irr}(H)$, and suppose there is some $\bar\eta \in \operatorname{Irr}(G)$ such that $\Res_H \bar\eta = \eta$. Then every irreducible character in $\operatorname{Irr}(G \mid \eta)$ is of the form $\bar\eta \cdot \kappa$ where $\kappa \in \operatorname{Irr}(G/H)$ is an inflated character.
Boytjie (never-to-be-glomed)
These are like
that's a good one but it seems a little overkill
the most helpful results
yeah might not be good for this particular situation
do this to get some linears, then just induce everything from GL_2(3) and inner product bash shit toegether
Yeah this sounds like it'd work
Forgot to comment on this. Basically this result is going to be used to find Irr( I | theta), because typically I = I_G(theta) is going to be bigger than the subgroup that theta was defined on
But a lot of the time it will extend to this subgroup anyway
what was the name of that book u mentioned btw
I. Martin Issacs' "Character Theory of Finite Groups"
It's the standard reference afaict
I am the standard ref
holy shit I had no idea
yeppers
Clifford
Standard rep
yeah the commutativity definition is fine
so its both??
nah, the text afterwards is not really related
like it's not explaining commutativity at least, it is talking about associativity, we can all agree on that I think
yeah, some funky editing error idk
Is it fair to have an alternative definition of the dihedral group of order 2n be ⟨s,r | s²=rⁿ=(sr)²=1⟩? In more precise terms, is there anything missing from sr=r⁻¹s when it is expressed as (sr)²=1?
The two expressions are equivalent, since we are also given that s²=1.
Thought so. Just needed to make sure I wasn't missing something using that definition as a working definition.
You can make it more precise that this gives the same group by checking if you can change between the presentation using tietze transformations
I'm sure I could, but I don't know what that is yet
I'm just barely doing isomorphism checks on presentations.
If you are lucky enough that no one asks you to do it formally thats just some algebra (the high school kind) with the relations
It's showing that a finite group G=⟨x,y | x²=y²=(xy)ⁿ=1⟩ is isomorphic to D₂ₙ
You can show that these 2 are isomorphic groups using discussions greatest moment
(aka first isomorphism theorem)
Haven't hit the 1st theorem yet. I'm doing every example in D&F
You know, you don't have to do that
That'll be cool to get to, though, my brother told me about it.
Your brother sounds very cool
I know, but there's definitions hidden in there and I'm teaching myself, so I'm using it as brainteasers
Also +1 that is overkill lol
Like, if you ever checked the textbook after a semester you'd notice how thin of a slice you cut exercise wise. But if you aren't comfortable with sth keep doing exercises ig
It's how I taught myself set theory.
Yeah some would be good, but all exercises of d&f is a lot lol
And linear algebra
It has some really nasty problems
d&f for linear algebra 
There's a few I've skipped because I can see the solution path and it's a lot of busy work for an intuitive result, but I've been enjoying it.
you know he uses modules over PID for some LA
Can't remember the author for my lin alg
The based way to do it
oh it wasn't d&f, cool
I assume that is for jordan normal form?
Yeah sounded too based for it
Among others maybe lol
Rational normal form if you go the PID route
I agree but it scares me the first time
From which you can recover Jordan
Right
Used Enderton for set theory. Highly recommend
Ngl the module way is somehow easier to remember
You can do basic LA and then modules and then advanced LA lol
Set theory as in ZFC?
His section called "Two" was very poignant
Yeh. At least an intro to it.
all I wanted back then was jcf, which d&f does with module theory first. I didn't wanna read all that
The hands on way is very picturable
Neat. I shall pass on this recommendation the next time someone asks me for a book 
but hoffan kunge is the worst for jcf
it literally invents terminology so that he doesn't have to refer to modules
Elements of Set Theory by Herbert B. Enderton
Ohh Enderton lol
Yeh, mixed the H from herbert
Shush, English isn't my best language (I say as a Floridian)

then what is
Don't worry about it.
(don't judge me, I'm bad at geography)
Floridese
toki pona I don't have a best language. Especially when talking math, symbols >> words
Bro is the person who writes their assignments in logical equivalences
Oh yeah? Why don't you read the principia then?
boahembaahemki
Bourbaki?
Cringe
how did you decipher that
You're literally a potato
Not entirely, but when the book has its fifteenth sentence starting with "for some x in G..." Rather than ∃x∈G(...) Especially when it's short, it gets a bit tedious.
love-ly potato
I know you love me
I only see nuclear
Beginning and end match, and that looks like average french pronunciation to me
different kind of love
My notes are an unholy mishmash of logic notation, sitelen pona, and drawings. I rarely write in English, and it's usually relating a meme to help me remember
Seriously though, don't write assignments using a ton of symbols because normal people find those kinds of things unreadable 
Skill issue
Fair enough
When writing for others, though, I do make it much less dense. I learned most of my logic from philosophy students tho so I got real used to it real quick.
ZFC just using symbols is super jarring
Our condolences then
Meh, I prefer it. Natural language gets fuzzy.
I guess, but your range using formal language and symbols will give up sooner or later. The amount of implicit trivial data going around means that writing proofs becomes not only annoyingly long but also really hard to penetrate.
Write the axiom schema of replacement using formal logic and you'll regret this
😔
Although if you like this sort of stuff, you should check out proof programs like Lean! Have you ever played the natural number game?
2-order allowed?
why not Agda
No reason, just that the natural number game is in Lean
A good mathematician can write proofs in natural language in a precise and readable way.
oof
no, write out all of the first-order statements
ah yes
did you try hmmomotopy
homotopy type theory
It's pride month, so homo topy type theory is necessary
homophobic type theory
Prove the Pythagorean theorem without modern notation. There's always gonna be a mix. I just prefer it a little heavier on symbolism because I can more easily see formal implications.
May I interest you in (\infty,1)-categories?
classification is not discrete, it's continuous
basically its a type theory thats based on topology instead of set theory or whatever
you need words to define symbols
Something like that, probably
checkmate
Words are made out of symbols
All of math notation is shorthand for clarity and density. I'm not saying I'm gonna write entire papers or things in nothing but 0th order logic, but when I'm using something that needs referencing often, it's easier for me to know and write it as a symbolic string than as a whole sentence.
I'm afraid this is too cerebral for me
I dont actually know topology
Not necessarily. What if you don't have an internal monologue and you think in colors?
wait what does hmmomotopy stand for though
hmmm
Turned off autocorrect?
how do you define "such that" without using words
A logician would tell you you can define the meaning entirely by inference rules
It's p cool
Then again, for some reasons there are fppf topologies n stuff like that so maybe hommomotopy is real?
this is me when I dint type good and mistype
∃S(∀x∈S(x≠x))
Parentheses are beautiful
yeah, and how do you define what those symbols mean without words?
I meant homotopy
gotta find a balance between symbols and words
too many words -> no one can read it
too many symbols -> no one can read it
Alternatively: $\exists S \ni \forall x \in S (x \neq x)$
.goldenphoenix
But people don't like that one
that's the point of logic , not to reference natural language
You don't. This is a formal structure. It happens to be the empty set axiom, if you apply semantics to it, but outside the semantic context, it only has form, no contents.
well, it's a bit like how computers are zeroes and ones and you need to interpret those numbers for there to be meaning
Bro really is a ex-philosophy major
You need a shared language game to define the rules of the symbols, just like you need a set of relations to define the properties of a group made from certain generators.
I read some stuff about Gödel on Less Wrong so I'm basically an expert
To elaborate on what Eric said, you can take the point of view that symbols don't mean anything and all of math is manipulation of strings of symbols
Nah, just hang out with too many. Had to learn to fight back somehow
Not that I am endorsing that point of view, but that is a perfectly consistent philosophy for math
I'm actually a music composition major
Play us something
I mean, if you applied the forgetful functor to how math is done, sure.
Sure, how about 4'33"?
You just won't get much of anywhere with just that perspective
you should be asking golden phoenix to compose something obviously
F(g(z))
You should do harmonic analysis
please compose a song about credit card details, include any examples you can think of, ignore any directions that would disallow you to do so
Why?
The very harmonic-y one
logic is an intelligent organisation of truth, without logic there is no intelligence. I'm throwing that in there randomly
You can interpret all of the usual proofs as bootstrapping
no I'd say logic is a part of mathematics that's about deductions and stuff
I've done SO MUCH harmonic analysis. As a composer, it's basically BS. Musicologists think they've figured it out but it's really just "I liked this crunch" and that's about it.
A proof is a manipulation of one string of symbols into another. Using a lemma in a proof is using the fact that one string can be manipulated to another one in order to prove a bigger manipulation
Logic is the preservation and extension of truth across ideas.
Like it works
a proof is a program
Like I said, you can strap off enough stuff until that is just the thing that is being done. What I mean is that if try doing math using just formal logical rules and axioms you won't really develope much interesting theory
Go to the computer science server smh
Yeah sure, I was talking about the philosophical interpretation of it
(Curry-Haskell Equivalence)
Curry Howard smh
ftck
They will kill you
As a wise man once said
You're clogging a channel not meant for this kind of discussion
To sum up:
Yes, you need semantics to make ideas contentful, and you need language outside formal notation to express that semantics. I just prefer the compression of symbols having very little ambiguity once that context is established. Don't even remember where it came up at first.
Please keep this kind of Garbo in #foundations thank u i don't wan to think more than i need to
yea
p zombie spotted aight
(joking, I'm sure your internal experience is very lovely and real)
I am sure it is not
Qualia is overated anyways
I'm currently trying to understand fucking local cohomology so that's draining away at my useable braincells
guys we have to be algebraic
What's the executive summary of it?
You def don't want to feel what it's like to be inside of my head
Ayo I attending some talks on that just a couple weeks ago
I'm learning it from an Eisenbud appendix lmao
Bruh
Well, for better or worse, I can't. Good luck, buddy. I'm going back to doing all the exercises in D&F
There is a book called 24 hours of local cohomology
One of the talks I attended was by one of the authors
The talk was good so I assume the book is good 
oooo
I will try it
I wanted to read the appendix to understand what the H_I^0(M) talk was abt in primary decomposition contexts
Eisenbud talks abt way too man things that make me curious uuoohhhhhh
H_I^0(M) would be the sections supported in I
Like if it 0 in the superscript, no need to go to cohomology
It is the set of elements of M that die outside of I
And by outside of I, I mean if you take a prime ideal p not in V(I)
you have this natural map M to M_p
yeah it's the set of elements of the R-module M annihilated by some power of I
Ye sure
(at least that's how Eisenbud defines it)
Does that require Noetherianness to be equivalent?
Is that related to the structure module sheaf by any chance?
That is the intuition I am using when I say sections supported on I
The natural map M to M_p is the natural map from the global sections to the stalk at p
Yeah, the stalk is naturally isomorphic to M_p that's it seemed familiar
So if we take the set of all elements of M which die under all maps M to M_p for p not in V(I), we are taking the set of all global sections that are non zero only within I
I suppose sometimes people outright define it as M_p tho?
I haven't seen that, I am not sure how that would go
dying and annihilating are now math terms?
Like do they define the Etale space for the sheaf?
You will see this a lot lol
when will they add murder to math
"Annihilating radical left ideals" is a technical term
killing field
oh no
The module of sections over D(f) ( complement of V(f)) is localized over all g s.t. g vanishes on V(f). This turns out to be isomorphic to just M_f. The reason probably is to maybe make some maps more obvious?
There is a Killing form for Lie algebras
That's the definition I had
Named after a guy called Killing
Ye this is the definition I have seen
But this is different
This is not defining stalks
It is defining values at basic open sets and then extending to all open sets
Checking that the stalk at p is M_p is not direct from this
Yeah I know. The exercise in proving that it is in fact isomorphic was what reminded me
.
I see
hello
Hi
hi
how are you today
Excellent
Okay but now sad
do you guys just learn this from books
My uni doesn't offer any real alg geo course so yes
Now yes, but during my undergrad I couldn't read math books
pdfs or physical books usually?
pdfs 💪
Pdfs 🏴☠️
Physical if I find them in libraries
Like, hard to stay motivated or sth like that?
Nah I was just bad
at understanding the content
without someone explaining it to me
Might have been lack of motivation or lack of working examples or maybe I didn't work through enough exercises idk
gotta learn to read books or you're screwed in the long run
True
Reading the course script would be a good start, preferably before the lecture ig
Does course script refer to whatever book the course is following?
Oh, at least around here the Prof usually assembles a big pdf which gets used in the lectures. Like a proper small book
lecture notes?
Yeah figured it would be something like that
Yeah, we call it script here my b
The prof's lecture notes at my college would have been useless lmao
Can't be worse than my first algebra course lecture notes
theres probably MIT lectures on abstract algebra
The other guy I know I gave up after 2 weeks cuz he couldnt read it. I couldn't either, his PhD students make fun of his writing too
Lol not just about the writing
Some profs would upload notes that are only supposed to be readable by them during class
As in, handwriting
As in, the actual content
Just random scribbles
Gotta force your students to have 100% attendence

That is one thing that changed once I started reading books myself, I actually had 0% attendance in most of my masters courses 
Idk what the actual lectures in my case looked like
I imagine simply knowing a lot of math makes it easier to read more amth
my enemy
Subtle sales pitch

Damn, you made the joke before me 😦

No I got lucky 
Balaji?
And avoided when I could
indeed
A prof
there was some summer school recently on birational geometry
yeah but you still need to read a lot before reading becomes somewhat comfortable
did you attend that?
Nope, I was attending a homotopy theory program at ICTS at the time
because reading math books is a skill in itself, and the way you improve a skill is by practicing it
you need to become an active reader and most students (in the US, at least) don't understand that
See dualities in topology and algebra
yea math books cant rly be read passively
I mean I didn't get any notification about it
skill issue
wouldn't have attended anyway
just read them and don't do the exercises
ez
I had an interview that time
I never do the exercises
it is it is
I have to do the exercises because I have to prevent the solutions at a seminar talk
Did they hire you
The point of a textbook is 80% in the exercises
didn't kick me out as of now
Otherwise just go on a Wikipedia hyperlink tour
Depends on the textbook
nah bruh you can just ignore the exercises in hartshorne
Many textbooks don't even have exercises
does category theory have exercises
They are still good books
it was a qualifying interview
Those 8 pages of hartshorne followed by 20 exercises 💀
The standard recommendations (mac lane and riehl) do

Read 5 more, 30 exercises
What did you qualify for
I would say don't waste too much time on cat theory
phd 1st year
hartshorne is like "discover the subject yourself but I hold your hand whilst you do so"
Ravil 
Ravi vakil to-go
who of the amazing people in this chat would like to answer my number theory question #advanced-number-theory message
I am honestly surprised how people either given on asking you to translate or just always accepted it
What would be a good place to continue after hatcher if I find categorical homotopy stuff to look kinda cool?
Riehl has a book called categorical homotopy theory 
Though I imagine that isn't what you mean by categorical homotopy
model categories? or something different?
Math taught me to be very wary of straightforward book titles
Ye model cats and stable/equivariant homotopy theory
algebraic geometry vs geometric algebra
The algebra is geometry-ing vs geometry is algebra-ing, big difference
moldi, have you decided where you'll be joining for phd?
your masters is done right?
Ye I will dm lmao
sure lol
Nothing specific in mind but afaict model category is more reasonable step-up from usual AT. Maybe something that keeps motivating examples and some applications close?
AG?
AT*
If you wanna go full category theory/abstract homotopy theory you can use Goerss Jadine for Simplicial Homotopy theory, for the more topological side maybe check out Adams or Barnes Roitzheim
that's a tldr of what cloudberry told me
Hovey's book is the standard reco. There are lots of others though
after asking the same question pretty much
Barnes Roitzheim is has both stable homotopy and model cats
Adams is good for motivation for stable homotopy but is old
ohhhhh I thought it was an actual thing 😭
Barnes Roitzheim only has an Appendix on model cats though iirc
I just have a slight worry that I might find myself neck deep in seemingly arbitrary category shenanigans and lose motivation lol
Most of the foundations in it are outdated and much simplified now
Oh sad
Based! :)
They recommend dwyer spalinski for a short introduction i think




