#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 116 of 1
Yeah those correspond to the congruence subgroups corresponding to the divisor.
So just the stuff in (Z/n)^* congruent to 1 mod m, which you can compute prime by prime.
no worries 
Yes as long as N is finitely presented or R is noetherian and N is finitely generated.
Depends on the generality for R, is R still a semisimple ring?
I will slow down lol
No assumptions made on R in the theorem, but the section is on semisimplicity.
Thanks.
But it's definitely interesting to think about, you may know that every abelian galois extension of Q comes from a subgroup of Z/n^* in this way for some n
Not necessarily coming from a divisor, might be something more complex
Yeah it's cool
how is it that every factor group being of order p directly implies that each group is abelian? i know that every group of prime order is cyclic and hence abelian, but im wondering how we can deduce directly from p being a prime that such a group is abelian
prime order groups are cyclic and hence abelian
for a nontrivial element, look at the subgroup it generates
no yea i know that
but why did they say actually cyclic
ig that's confusing me, their phrasing implies that a group of prime order is abelian automatically without using the fact that it's cyclic (otherwise i thought they might've wrote "where the factor groups are of order p, and hence cyclic and actually abelian")
Because what is important is that they are abelian
yes they are cyclic and hence abelian
Is semisimplicity local like ACC/DCC (M/N and N have X property => M has X property)?
No
Z/p^2 is not semisimple but Z/p is
any hints for trying to show that a subgroup of order 35 is normal in a group of order 35(47)?
willing to bet $5 it has to do with the fact that 47 is prime
yea definitely it's some sylow shit
trying to show that any group of order (7)(5)(47) is abelian and cyclic lol, already showed that if H is of order 35 and K is of order 47 then H x K is abelian and cyclic, just trying to prove that any group G of order 35(47) is isomorphic to H x K (which requires that I show that K is a normal subgroup of G)
Sorry 5 and 7 I meant lol
all g
wait wdym by element count
i was considering just taking the union of the sylow 7-subgroup and sylow 5-subgroup??
oh wait oops we could just consider HK
Yeah so what I originally said but adapted with the right numbers (lol):
Don't you get n_5 = n_7 = 1
And that is p much enough to conclude
i'm using a proof involving the commutator subgroup actually now
@white oxide one way: the subgroup H of order 329 is normal because it’s index is the smalles prime dividing the order of the group. So the group is a semi direct product of a group of order 5 and one of order 329 which must be cyclic since 7 doesn’t divide 46. The automorphisms of Z/329 do not contain an element of order 5, so we see that in fact the group is cyclic
And every subgroup of a cyclic group is normal
Poorly worded question: What is the intuition I should keep about semidirect products of groups? I never really understood them when I took algebra. The notion of direct product is easy enough. Is there a source you think provides good intuition?
Direct product but one side is sort of twisted
split extensions 
(since you asked the question, i know i shouldn't be saying stuff to confuse you more >.<)
one motivation comes from asking the question, how do you put together the simple components of a group back to form it. for example, after loads of effort, people are able to classify all finite simple groups. how far are we from classifying all finite groups.
in general, if you're given groups N and H. then the question would be how to find all the groups G such that N is a normal subgroup and H is then isomorphic to G/N.
this would be very hard, to solve. but if magically H was also a subgroup of G such that NH = G, then you're in luck!
I see, so the constraint is "Whatever decomposition I find, I must do it by quotienting pieces by normal subgroups"?
i don't fully understand the question, sowwy >.<
Well, if I understand what you're saying, we're trying to decompose an arbitrary group G as some two pieces N and H, such that N is normal in G, and NH=G
So we're not decomposing G as a direct product, but rather as this pair (N, H), and then recurse to decompose N and H respectively in the same way. Is that right? Is that a decomposition one wants to achieve?
yep
by jordan holder theorem, the final gruops you get in the end won't depend on how you broke the group up
but the information how these were put together is totally lost
Is there some sort of guarantee here, of the form "If some_property(G), then G has a unique decomposition of this form"?
yee
first known use of the jordan holder theorem in human history
when
Uhh
exactly
From reading that theorem's statement, possibly naïve question: Why do we only list the normal subgroup chain, and don't bother decomposing the intermediate quotients? That is, if we decomposed G into N and H this way, where N is normal, don't we also need to decompose H?
So if A is a left artinian & left noetherian ring then applying JHT to the left A-module A shows that there are finitely many simple left A-modules
So in particular there are only finitely many k-linear representations of a finite group without assumption on characteristic &c.
Ugh spent a while trying to do a proof in a nice way
But it came down to just like "one field is contained in the other and they have the same degree over Q hence equal" lol
wait a min
nvm I'm equating irreducible and indecomposable in my head which is not true for modular reps
Since this server is filled with people that are experienced with math can anyone give me a recipe for meth?
*math
I was thinking "how could every kC-module be left/right artinian when there are finite groups with wild representation types"
Because the last ones I've been given didn't work. And only produced shards when I wanted numbers to eat.
...
have some creativity to it
banned
banned for being boring
math sounds like meth lol amirite guys
i hate superreactions
anyways proceed eveyone
mine was on accident as well
what is meant by 'prime density reasons' in this stack exchange post? for context, we just finished proving that for p a prime that is 3 mod 4 not dividing the discriminant of the elliptic curve E from earlier, that the order of E(F_p) is p+1, and that for such primes p, we have an injection from Phi to E(F_p). also Phi is a finite group. for more context, the link is https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3765573/points-of-finite-order-on-y2-x3dx
is it the thing where primes are equally distrubuted among all possible values mod n is that the thing
hmmm
wow i left for 5 minutes and missed something worth superreacting to 
since the statement doesn't hold for only finitely many there must be an infinite number of multiples of 4 (p+1 = 0 mod 4) that |Phi| divides, therefore (because Phi is finite) |Phi| divides 4?
is that the doodad? the thingimajig?
This is probably a stupid question, but I don't get how exactly $U$ is the sum of the isogenous components contained in itself. The proof shows that if $S\subset U$ is simple of type $\tau$, then $M_\tau\subset M$, but I'm having trouble showing that the sum of these $M_\tau$ is actually all of $U$.
Ocean Man
I tried the following (and failed): if $x\neq0$ in $U$ is arbitrary, then $Rx\subset M_{\tau_1}\oplus\cdots\oplus M_{\tau_n}$ for some $\tau_j$ (since $M=\bigoplus_\tau M_\tau$) and if $S\subset Rx$ is simple (such an S necessarily exists), then $S$ is wlog of type type $\tau_1$, so $S\subset M_{\tau_1}\subset U$, but this doesn't show that $x\in M_{\tau_1}$.
hmm i dont see it. say |Phi| divides 7+1, 11+1, 19+1, and generally p+1 for p that is 3 mod 4. why does this mean |Phi| have to divide 4?
Ocean Man
okay was looking around some more and found this paragraph in koblitz elliptic curve book. here i think m = |Phi|
Okay uh. If you have an arbitrary family of A-modules (A is a commutative Unital ring), how do you define direct sum and direct product?
Atiyah makes it confusing
The direct product comes first.
The direct product's underlying set is just the ordinary set-theoretic cartesian product.
You may happily think of elements of the direct products to be very large tuples of elements in your A-module
The direct sum lives inside the direct product. It consists of tuples whose entries are 0 for all but finitely many (we sometimes say 'cofinitely' many) entries.
The action of the ring and the addition are done in the (dare I say) obvious way.
oh so, finite tuples, but there's no limit in how long those can be
That's right
wait so
I didn't ask then, but what does finitely presented mean here? For my purposes I need this to hold for N cyclic and R arbitrary (which after sketching a proof, I assumed it did), but the definition on Wikipedia is "there is an epimorphism R^n->N with the kernel finitely-generated", so the condition doesn't apply for R absolutely general.
(a, b) and (c, d,e) can reside together?
Well we would really say (a, b, 0, 0, ....) and (c, d, e, 0, 0, 0, ....) if I'm interpreting what you're saying right
But yes
Ah no it's not
hmm
We are looking at infinite tuples, but they're just zero in most places
so for direct sum it's precisely the ones with finite non zero entries in the tuples
That's right
and in case of direct product it doesn't have to be finite
Yup
damn
Of course this means that if your family of A-modules is finite, there's no difference between the direct sum and product
now I wonder why there's an distinction between these two
Right this is an interesting point
It comes from how we want these objects to behave.
oh hmm..
The desired property of the direct sum/product can be expressed in what we might call category-theoretic terms. Don't let this put you off, it's quite simple.
Sorry this is going to take a second to type up
Boytjie (never-to-be-glomed)
This is obviously a bit technical...
hmmm.... i got the projection thing
You can think of it as saying the following: the product is the 'least restricted' module that has each M_i as an image.
OH
is it like the uniqueness you establish in case of quotient objects as well
i mean the 2nd statement
Yeah it's similar
For the sum, we have a similar property, but everything is reversed: we have inclusions M_i → S and a unique map eta : S → N.
damn
And as it turns out, this describes the sum and product up to isomorphism.
Any object that satisfies the property above is isomorphic to the product, I mean.
ahh
So I mean again this is a bit technical and strange
i mean it is technical
But to kinda make a long story short, it turns out that we need the cofiniteness condition on the direct sum because in the unique map Sum M_i → N that must exist, we can't add together infinitely many things.
the first time I saw this stuff for Quotient groups and rings I was shocked too
Haha yes well you do get used to it
I would really recommend trying to prove that the direct sum and product satisfy the properties I claim here. It ought to really explain what I'm getting at with this 'summing together infinitely many things' explanation
Hope that explains things in any case
thank you very much 🥰 let me actually try prove what you said so maybe I don't forget about it
maybe a simple and intuitive explanation would be even better

har har
I have a joke for that
Well I give both the technical definition and the intuition behind why it causes things to be that way
so I hope to think that it really is approaching both
Hilbert be damned, I can't explain it to a person on the street
what's the best response to a harmonic analysis joke? "hardy haar haar"
That's p good
what's an algebraic group? can't find any definition online that isn't like "a group object in the category of k-varieties"
where
nah dude
learn to google
I overlooked that line
literally how
I am illegally blind
G x G -> G being regular means G^2 -> G being regular?
or wait
that doesn't make sense
cuz we can't talk about the coordinate ring then, no?
I was thinking like product topology
what does it mean for G x G -> G to be regular then
the product of two algebraic varieties doesn't get the product topology but something slightly different
I don't know how you define the product of varieties, I'm guessing you could just multiply their vanishing ideals together?
i don't know what algebraic geometers like to call it
X*Y = V(I(X)*I(Y)) but this is probably wrong lol
you take the tensor product of the coordinate rings
TENSOR PRODUCTS ARE ESSENTIAL TO THE EXISTENCE OF BLACK HOLES

do algebraic geometers call the topology on product varieties the zariski topology
might be a goofy question lol, just asking since i know it's not the product topology
shows what i know!
AG people play with many topologies tho, fppf, fpqc, etale, tho idk much about them 🙈
don't forget fnjc
hearing that for the first time 
yeah because I just made it up

regarding this: are there any nice results on tensors of polynomial rings
(but i think these are like topologies on a grothendieck site and not directly open subsets of X)
k[x] ⊗_k k[y] = k[x, y] lol
wait so
we take the tensor product of our coordinate rings
how do we identify it with a variety (up to iso)
umm like it's still a reduced separated finite type blah blah algebra over k
and the categories of varieties over k and these are anti-equivalent
(i hope i'm right)
Yea like your new Algebra is still some quotient of a free Algebra
The corresponding variety is the vanishing locus of the ideal
It should correspond to something involving the 2 varieties but uhhh I don't remember
Ok yes
It's just the coordinate ring of the product
if G is affine, you just flip things around and try to understand ring maps A --> A⊗A
wait so this was right????
Idk why * means in this context

product
k[V] (x) k[W] = k[V x W]
now G being a group is same as A being a hopf algebra
idk how to work with non-affine G tho
I'm afraid that I don't understand the definition of a hopf algebra either
it's the definition of algebra but you flip all the arrows around
so instead of having a multiplication A⊗A --> A
you have a comultiplication A --> A⊗A
and then you phrase all the good stuff like associativity, etc as commutative diagrams
for example, k[x] is a hopf algebra
the map is k[x] --> k[x] ⊗ k[x] sending x to x⊗1 + 1⊗x
this is same as saying the affine line A^1 is a group under +
the function x in k[A^1] gives you the x-coordinate of a point and so x⊗1+1⊗x is the function on k[A^1 x_k A^1] which adds up the coordinates of the two points.
WHAT ABOUT THE ANTIPODE
They always forget the antipode
i still don't get what why a = 0, because if a^2 is congruent to +-7 (mod 5) then 0 is congruent to 2 mod 5 which is clearly not the case
yea that's weird
they probably meant go mod 7
then either b = 0 mod 7, which implies a = 0 mod 7. or (a/b)^2 = 5 mod 7. which is not possible.
if you go mod 5 then there are no solutions for a^2 = +-2 mod 5
in either case you get that 7 is irred in Z[sqrt5]
Wait ye lo this nice
Weird reasoning afterwards ig lol
@glossy crag in general if M is finitely presented iff Hom(M, -) preserves colimits as a functor (as Chmonkey mentions, only filtered colimits). However I suppose to just preserve direct sums M only has to be finitely generated it seems
Any D-vector space V is End_D(V)-simple, regardless of dimension, right?
D is a division ring i'm guessing? as long as V is non-zero that sounds good
Yes, D is a division ring.
Yeah, just wanted to double-check.

No, it’s finitely presented iff this commutes with all direct limits (or filtered colimits if you want to use that language)
You always commute with limits by definition of what a limit is
hey y’all, I just can’t figure out what the operation in example 9 is doing exactly. I know it’s simple but im not seeing it.
I see that it’s not commutative b * a =a but a* b=c can someone please explain the operation
Why is a *a =b
yes row entry * column entry
Okay, then it’s because b is in the square associated to (a,a)
That’s it
There’s nothing more you can say
It’s just defined that way
I thought there was something I wasn’t getting, that’s just how it’s defined I see now
So I am trying to show that every element of $\mathbb{Q}[\omega]$ is representable as $a_0 + a_1\omega + a_2\omega^2 + ... + a_{p-2}w^{p-2}$ where all $a_i$ are in $\mathbb{Q}$. The hint is that I have to show that $\omega$ is a root to $f(t) = t^{p-1} + ... +t + 1$, and show it is irreducible by considering $f(t+1) = ((t+1)^p - 1)/t$, and I think I've got a proof, but I'd like to get it checked
mirzathecutiepie
$w$ is a root of the polynomial because it can be rewritten as $(t^p - 1)/(t-1)$ and when we plug in $w$, which I forgot to mention is the pth root of unity where p is an odd prime, we get $(w^p - 1)/(w-1) = 0$
mirzathecutiepie
How do you know f(t+1) has that form?
Also showing it’s a root, that’s indeed how you’d do it
Oh never mind sure, you’ve written down what f is equal to so f(t+1) follows from that
Yeah this proof works, I assume you’re showing f(t+1) is irr by Eisenstein?
Now we need to show that it is irreducible. The book suggests using the eisenstein critereon. We know that $Q$ is a field and that that means there is only one maximal ideal namely ${0}$, here $f(t+1) = \frac{(t+1)^p - 1}{t}$. We can consider for now just $t f(t+1) = (t+1)^p - 1$, if this is irreducible over $\mathbb{Q}$ then $f(t+1)$ will also be irreducible. The book specifies that the first and last elements of a polynomial have to be outside the maximal ideal while the elements in between are not, which works here, since all the in-between elements are 0
mirzathecutiepie
This one is the iffy part for me
Anyways if $f(t+1)$ were reducible then $t f(t+1)$ would be too, deriving a contradiction, so therefore $f(t+1)$ is irreducible as well. Now we did all of this so that we could take the quotient by the ideal and show the following equality $\mathbb{Q}[\omega] = \mathbb{Q}[X] / (f(t))$
mirzathecutiepie
No, this step is not valid
tf(t+1) is not irreducible, it’s divisible by t
Eisenstein requires a prime ideal where all coefficients except the leading coefficient are in it, and the constant is not in the square of the ideal
ahh
You can look at f(t+1)
And then see that in the numerator the constant is 0
And everything is divisible by t, so you can remove that, that’s the /t handled
So the constant of f(t+1) is the degree 1 term of (t+1)^p
hm
Or really just, use binomial expansion
which is p
To see why Eisenstein is applicable
Okay but before that can we see if the last step is correct
What last step
Ah sure
Yes you can write it that way and then apply known field theory results
Or you can just unwind why that works and why Q[t]/(f(t)) is finite dimensional
With basis 1,t,…,t^n-1 for f of degree n
hm i realize my last step is iffy too
I think it’s nicer to do it the latter way
No, it works
You know F(a) is just F[x]/(m_f(x))
And you demonstrated that f was the min poly of w
But I think it’s worth expanding on how you get the basis
You showed that
w^p-1 = stuff in degree <= p-2 in w
So Q(w) is spanned by 1,w,…,w^p-2
i wanted to show here that every element would be able to be written as (w-r_0) ... (w-r_{p-2}) 
Why?
Then expanding it would give the result right
Which result?
Oh I see, okay it’s worth expanding on why your isomorphism you wrote does it for you
that everything can be written as$ a_0 + a_1 w + ... + a_{p-2}w^{p-2}$
But we can just do it directly
I had degrees off by one, so please read this
what does stuff in degree mean here
Anything in Q(w) is a polynomial in w, but this relations means you can always take things which require more than p-2 ws and replace p-1 ws with something with <= p-2 ws
Like
It’s a polynomial in w
Of degree p-2
The fact that f(w) = 0 tells you this
Knowing that f = t^p-1 + … + 1
hmm
could you explain this a little more
Take f(w) = 0
okay
oh
Good?
right okay
Yeah, that makes sense
So really for your statement that’s enough
But really you want to say this is a basis
We removed the dependency so it's a basis
This is where linear independence is needed
And why you needed f to be irreducible
If there’s a dependence then there’s a lower degree poly w satisfies, so it divides f
And then f isn’t irreducible
right, makes sense
but also don't we need f to be irreducible to be able to take the ideal and thus the quotient 
It won’t be an isomorphism
ah right
Or uhhh
it wont be a field
could we go over this definition of eisenstein too 
Sending t to w won’t be injevtive
Is the problem
Sure
The most general form of Eisenstein I know is this:
Let A be a UFD, and F its field of fractions
Let $M$ be a maximal ideal in a ring $R$ and let:
$f(x) = a_n x^n + ... + a_0$ where $n \geq 1$
be a polynomial over $R$ such that $a_n \not \in M, a_i \in M$ for all i < n, and $a_0 \not \in M^2$. Then f is irreducible over $R$
If f = a_nx^n + … + a_1x + a_0 is a polyomial in A[x] with a prime ideal p < A such that a_n not in p, a_0,…,a_n-1 in p, and a_0 not in p^2, then f is irreducible in F[x]
mirzathecutiepie
You need a bit more assumptions I think, but maybe the maximal ideal-ness saves you?
In particular I imagine you need at least domain
Actually I don’t think you need to introduce F. You can always stay in A and then Gauss’s lemma handles it, so maybe you don’t even need UFD
I think all you need is domain
So this is how the proof goes
So if I'm looking at $\mathbb{Q}$ then the only maximal ideal this guy has is ${0}$ right, so then I can only consider polynomials with the biggest and smallest degree terms
No
mirzathecutiepie
You’re showing it’s irreducible over Z using the prime /maximal ideal (p)
And then applying Gauss’s lemma to see that irreducible over Z => irreducible over Q
Eisenstein’s criterion is useless over a field, because a_0 in p but not in p^2 is impossible
Since p is forced to be 0
ahh i see
Well it’s useful if you can apply Gauss’s lemma
okay
But you have to go through a ring
this is pretty cool
Swag
Alright makes sense, that bit about the Q[w] as a vector space over Q really made sense, thanks
hm how
The proof I gave shows this field has basis {1,t,…,t^n-1} for f being of degree t (I mean the class of t in the quotient ofc)
And the iso to Q(w) sends t to w
Now f is of degree p-1
So you win
w8 dont we want degree p - 2
No the min poly is degree p-1
Because that let’s us write
degree p-1 = stuff in degree <= p-2
Let's assume A is a finite direct product of rings A_i
Gotta show that this is an ideal of A
The additive subgroup part is obvious (it's even isomorphic to A_i)
But there's another condition to check
For any $x \in A$ and $y \in \alpha_i$, we have $xy \in \alpha_i$
Riku
how to show this? I don't know how the multiplication is defined in the direct product
this is probably just a guess but does componentwise multiplication work?
okay nvm
This is what Lang says
if that does work, $xy = (0,0,.....,x_ia_i,....0)$ so it's in $\alpha_i$
Riku
rather was rather easy no?
I see, whenever in doubt do the natural thing

wow that's really interesting tell me more

You originally wrote down limit which is the only reason I said anything
Although it is also important to have the word filtered otherwise the result can still fail spectacularly
yes i meant to say "direct limit"
Is this proof of R,S left-semisimple rings (semisimple as left modules over themselves) => RxS left-semisimple valid:
R,S left-semisimple => R,S direct sums of some minimal left ideals. As left ideals of RxS these remain minimal (since left ideals of RxS are products of left ideals of R and S; I assume this holds the same way it does for 2-sided ideals) and RxS is a direct sum of these => RxS left-semisimple. Same way with right instead of left.
@glossy crag yes
So this way I can show via the Wedderburn structure theorem R left-semisimple => R-right semisimple, since R is isomorphic to a finite product of matrix rings over division rings and these are right-semisimple.
Now if I want to show the converse (right ss=>left ss), is there some simple way of reducing this to (left=>right) via R^op somehow?
Or do I just go "the theory developed for left ss rings holds exactly the same way for right ss rings, symmetry, blah blah".
@glossy crag you can show that if R is a matrix algebra over a division ring then R has a canonical involution. Using Artin wedderburn this makes the right iff left very trivial
But yeah you could also argue that however you proved Artin wedderburn using left semi simplicity the same argument would go through for the opposite rings
So what's the canonical involution for M_n(K), K a field? Surely not transposition, that's an antiisomorphism?
You exactly want an anti-isomorphism
But shouldn't an involution be a ring homomomorphism such that f^2=1?
It depends on your definition
I want to transfer structural results about left ideals in A to those about right ideals in A^op so I want an anti-isomorphism
Maybe you’d prefer anti-involution as terminology
I suppose, yeah.
Thank you.
Another dumb semisimplicity question: I know that if R is semisimple there are only finitely many isomorphism classes of simple R-modules. Now I want to show that in the direct sum decomposition of R every class is represented, i.e. if \tau_1,\dots,\tau_k are all the classes, then R\cong M_1^n_1\oplus\cdots\oplus M_k^n_k. where M_i is of type \tau_i. How to do this? I know that every simple R-module is isomorphic to a submodule of R, but how do I know they are all represented in the direct sum. Equivalently, how do I show that the isogenous component of type \tau_i is a finite sum.
Actually nvm, I know that if M=\sum_i N_i with N_i simple, then every simple N\subset M is isomorphic to one of the N_i, therefore if R is the direct sum of some simple submodules, every type \tau_i has to be represented in that decomposition.
Okay, that makes sense
@glossy crag I don’t think your argument is enough if I understand it correctly. You have to show that a simple ring has a unique nontrivial irreducible left module at some point.
Wdym?
I think your statement is slightly wonky
Gimme a moment, I'm clarifying.
For instance if R is M_n(K) you have to show that K^n is the unique simple module for M_n(K), that’s what your statement amounts to for simple rings
The statement for semisimple rings reduces to doing this for K replaced with an arbitrary finite dimensional division ring
That a (left) semisimple R has only finitely many isomorphism classes of simple modules is a classical result, not my invention. If R is semisimple, it is the sum of some minimal left ideals => sum of finitely many, since 1 belongs to finitely many, so I can write R=I_1\oplus\cdots\oplus I_m with I_j minimal left ideals. Now my claim was that every isomorphism type is represented here: it is known that every simple R-module is isomorphic to a simple submodule of R and if you have a decomposition of M as a sum of simple N_i, then every simple submodule of M is isomorphic to one of the N_i (again, none of this comes from me), so if S simple of type \tau, it is isomorphic to one of the I_j, so every type \tau is represented in this decomposition.
Okay, I though you wanted to prove the statement that every simple R module is isomorphic to a sub module of R
Since that seemed to me to be equivalent to what you were asking
That holds for R semisimple and I already digested that, I think. IDK if it holds for R general.
But yes upgrading from the proof for R simple to R semisimple is trivial
woaw!
Could I say here that $R$ as a right module over itself is the same thing as $R^{op}$ as a left module over itself, so right semisimple $\implies R_R$ semisimple $\implies\prescript{}{R^{op}}{R^{op}}$ semisimple $\implies R^{op}_{R^{op}}$ semisimple $\implies\prescript{}{R}{R}$ semisimple to complete my proof of left semisimple iff right semisimple?
leave_no_norm
How do you justify R^op being left semisimple implying it being right semisimple? This seems circular to me.
after applying the induction assumption how does the expression simplify to that?
this is for proving the generalized associative law for groups
That part I already covered with the Wedderburn structure theorem (a left semisimple ring is isomorphic to a product of matrix rings over division rings and such products are right semisimple), I was looking for a simple way of doing the converse.
idk how to show left semi-simple => right semi-simple since i only worked with f.d. alg/k alg closed. but i'm guessing the wedderburn-artin works in higher generality as well?
but yea your argument shows that to show left iff right it suffies to show left => right
(oh oops 🙈)
pull out the a1 and rest would follow inductively
that product is (a1 * (stuff)) * (other stuff) and by associativity, this is same as a1 * ((stuff) * (other stuff))
nvm I figured it out
oh so do you just say each M(n, D) is left-semisimple as it's a direct sum of its columns and by appealing to transpose, it's then right semi-simple as it's a direct sum of rows.
is $\mathrm{Tor}_1^{k[x,y,z,w]}(k[x,y],k[z,w])=0$?
Irony Incarnate
I'm trying to figure out if $(x,y)\cap (w,z) = (x,y)(w,z)$ (I strongly suspect this but I want to be sure)
Irony Incarnate
yep
i can see it using the koszul complex with the k[x,y]-sequence (x, y)
thanks!
Eisenbud exercises can be rough
I still have no idea how the hilbert function works 
i still have no idea how commutative algebra works 
I thought you were the algebraic geometry type hmmmm
i directly started with learning scheme theory as you need to know only like tensor prods and localizations to get started
but i'll have to come back to commutative alg now >.<
will try reading matsumura
I wanna be a commutative algebra person before going deeper into algebraic geometry
I really don't like matsumura lol
Idk the way it's formatted is not my taste
Literally feels like a list of results
Eisenbud I really like
It's long af but his writing style is phenomenal tho sometimes it can be somewhat overwhelmingly dense
my motivation for doing matsumura
comm alg feels like rusty metal to me
breaks your brain I get that
and this 😂
#algebraic-geometry message
If you read Eisenbud you'll get brain swelling and you'll have to go to the hospital
In conclusion Eisenbud good
(warning: I am a person that likes books other people are known to dislike)
you could say I go against big math :smug:
i like cute books >.<
i hope matsumura gets cuter >.<
i like just started and it already hurts my brain
in second section he decomposes modules into direct sums of countably generated submodules or something
in order to show projective/local = free even in non f.g. case
Damn eisenbud started talking abt like how localization is connected to sheaves in ch. 2 lmao
sheaves are nice
I think he talks abt projective modules later in some like homological algebra setting
so much field theory 
tbh like the nt I've read up to this point isn't very comm alg heavy
I can imagine ti becomes later tho lmao
idk, when i did some alg-nt like 1.5 years ago a lot of arguments felt like they would be very natural geometrically but are phrased purely in terms of commutative alg and so look shit
even proving like equivalent conditions for being a dedekind domain was weird
what did you read
we had a first course in alg-nt
ah
Idk I like Neukirch a lot
so like stuff about dedekind domains, and a little geometry of numbers
oh i see
He even does a bit of algebraic geo to present how it's used in nt
i knew no commie alg back then, so neukirch was hard
Oh yeah lol that is true haha
and knew some basics, so marcus felt like reinventing the wheel
Idk where the boundary of comm alg and like other alg is tho
my algebra class just kinda mixed a lot of stuff
and did some more explicit comm alg stuff towards the end of the class
will read neukirch after matsumura maybe
Yeee
Neukirch also has fun problems
Hey guys quick question
Primitive element theorem for finite extensions of finite fields
The proof is just that we say the extension field is finite, hence has cyclic unit group, and we adjoin a generator of this to the base field, right?
Yes, pretty much.
Yes
Ok nice
Well, that works, but there is another way you can do it i think
Well tbh using a generator is probably best lol
I'm not sure if this is the right channel for this
but given a cone
how can we determine the linear forms that for its positive locus
I've noticed that if we're working in Q^2
then it seems to be just swapping around the vector components and negating some of them?
not sure if this is just a coincidence and that I've been looking at too well behaved examples
What is a cyclic permutation? The book talked about permutations in an earlier chapter but it's not said anything about a cyclic permutation.
yeah
ion know bro im a bit confused
how can ~ be an equivalence relation
how is (x1, x2, x3) ~ (x1, x2, x3)
true
cause that means f(x1) = x1, f(x2) = x2, f(x3) = x3, and thats (x1)(x2)(x3)
The identity is typically thought of as a 'trivial' cyclic permutation.
Writing (x1)(x2)(x3) is silly, though. We could also write (x1 x2)(x3) and then loudly proclaim, "look, it's not just one cycle!"
It is still one cycle.
In any case I think it is far simpler to think of this as just an action of the cyclic group. Then the equivalence relation is a particular case of a general thing.
another question on a similar topic: if I know that a conic is 0-sharp then how do I find the corresponding functional?
In this context I think a "cyclic permutation" means something different from the general meaning @coral spindle and @formal ermine describe.
Note that it speaks about a "cyclic permuation" of a particular p-tuple. In that case it is clear that it speaks about the relation between
(x_1,x_2,x_3,...,x_p) and (x_{k},x_{k+1},...,x_p,x_1,x_2,...,x_{k-1})
specifically, for some k with 1<=k<=p.
if the conics generating vectors lie in the positive spectrum then it's pretty clear that we can just choose any absolutely positive functional, no?
You're of course right Tropo, my mistake
Ah thank you, that makes the problem much easier now.
. Let S be the set of all integers 0, ±1, ±2, ..., ±n, · · · . For a, b in S
dene ∗ by a ∗ b = a − b. Verify the following:
(a) a ∗ b = 1 = b ∗ a unless a = b.
(b) (a ∗ b) ∗ c 6= a ∗ (b ∗ c) in general. Under what conditions on a, b, c is
(a ∗ b) ∗ c = a ∗ (b ∗ c)?
(c) The integer 0 has the property that a ∗ 0 = a for every a in S.
(d) For a in S, a ∗ a = 0
Do you have a question or are you just sharing a problem?
I need help with that
!status
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin
2. I have begun but got stuck midway
3. I got an answer but I'm told it's wrong
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked
5. I have a question about someone else's worked solution
6. None of the above
4
OK, post your answer then and we'll be happy to check it.
Hi guys!. I have a question on linear representation theory. We have that for finite abelian groups every irreducible complex representation has degree 1. This is a consequence of Shur's lemma. I want to know if this holds for compact groups (we have an analogous Shur's lemma). I'm reading the proof for the finite case and i don't see where we use that G is finite, so... somebody knows if there is a problem with just taking that proof and replace finite abelian group for compact abelian group?
Well yes we do have a Schur lemma, but it really has nothing to do with the groups.
Schur's lemma for rings states that if M is a simple module, then End(M) is a division ring
For k-algebras where k is an algebraically closed field, and M is fin. dim., we have End(M) is isomorphic to k
So since an irreducible, finite-dimensional representation of any group G – whether finite or infinite – is in particular just a f.d. simple kG-module, we obtain the lemma.
Does a simultaneous diagonalisation argument work for the infinite case
It really ought to, just by induction on the dimension of the spaces, right?
Well actually in any case we get that the action of each element is a homothety anyway, so it doesn't matter
Can someone explain this to me
I know what the words mean... individually
But wtf?
oh we gotta start teaching this one in elem lin alg
(I don't have any context for this, I just saw it in a meme)
For any (nonzero) group, is it possible to define another operation such that it becomes a field?
No
What are the possible orders of finite fields?
Right, and you can have a finite group of any order
What about the infinite case?
sort of related, it's not even necessarily unique, the fields F_3(x) and Q have the same multiplicative groups
well, I mean from the perspective of starting with just an infinite group for multiplication, you could attach an addition to it to make either field
Also any infinite field has to have infinitely many generators of its multiplicative group so that’s a big restriction
Yeah, it's clearly true for a lot of examples
But like, if you took an arbitrary infinite set, is there a binary operation (let's say addition for now) that you can define on it such that there is no other binary operation you could define (multiplication) where it becomes a field?
If you consider your arbitrary infinite set with a binary operation to be any non-abelian group, then there is obviously no other binary operation one could define on it such that the set considered along with the two operations is a field.
can anybody explain how this is even possible
What if H intersect K = 1? Is it impossible to have two disjoint subgroups of an infinite group that each have a finite index?
Since G is a possibly infinite group, wouldnt |G : H intersect K| be infinite, which is not <= mn
@glossy crag can I talk to you for a min, I had few questions about knapp
Well the thing you're being asked to prove seems to answer that question haha, maybe it would help if you thought of some examples for what G, H, and K could be?
How can i find [Q(ζp):Q] where ζp is the pth primitive root of unity?
show that the p-th cyclotomic poly is irred over Q
cyclotomic?
Phi_p(x) = 1+x+...+x^(p-1)
there are many descriptions of this, when p is a prime stuff follows easily from eisenstein's criterion
for this, notice that Phi_p(x) = (x^p - 1)/(x - 1)
so any non-trivial pth root of unity is a root of Phi_p(x)
(and in general, you define Phi_n(x) as the polynomial whose roots are all primitive nth roots of unity)
they're really fun
should be simple enough to show irreducibility
yep, it's a very standard eisenstein trick
i think beyond the scope of this course probably gonan find them in advanced alg structures
but can be tricky if you've never seen it before
do I use the fact that f irreducible iff f(X-b) is also irreducible?
you can use them to prove a few fun things, like the arithmetic progression 1+nZ has infinitely many positive primes
another one is that any finite (possibly non-commutative) domain, is actually a fintie field.
oh another cute one is that you can show if G is a finite subgroup of F* where F is a field, then G is cyclic.
Oh are you saying can prove that using cyclotomics? How come
because if |G| = n, then all elements of G are exactly the distinct roots of x^n-1.
(this also tells you that if char F = p, then p doesn't divide n)
and since x^n-1 doesn't have repeated roots, any root of phi_n(x) can't also satisfy x^d-1 for some d | n, d < n
Hm isn't that just a rephrasing of the normal proof ig
ig yea, but it literally hands you down the generator
pick any root of phi_n(x), that's a generator!
me when primitive root
the proof i know all seem to have one hard/tricky part involved. here it's argument using cyclotomics, else there is combinatorics of phi(n), one is to use some sort of structure argument to find an element of maximal order
I think the combinatorics of phi(n) are just embedded in saying x^n -1 is product of dth cyclotomic for each d|n
But yeahh
Inch resting
uhh so
can i say X^p - 2 in Q irreducible
because 2 is prime
2|2
2 doesnt divide 1
and 2^2 doesnt divide 2
so eisenstein?
i dont see smt wrong it just feels weird
it feels weird because you're also using Gauss' lemma
a primitive polynomial f in Z[x] is irred over Z iff if it's irred over Q
and eisenstein applies for stuff in Z[x]
as there are no (non-zero
) prime numbers in a field
OHHHHHHHHHHH
REAL
Okay I'll try to work out the meme alternative
can I have a hint for this
I showed that assuming there is a root in K all roots are in K
so now I have to show that assuming f has no roots in K ==> f irreducible
but idk how to move forward with that
Consider the field formed by adjoining a single root
You need to show it has degree p over K
Which should be immediate from the work you've already done
I think you can write down its factorization in an extension field and find that multiplying any of the linear terms is gonna give bad coeffs
assume no roots
let a be a root of f
consider K(a)
show that if a in K(a), a+1 is also in K(a)?
as K(a) has characteristic p
This shows that if one root is in all roots are in, but a factorisation needn't have a root
Like you can have f be a product of 2 polynomials, neither is which have a root
It doesn't
Not immediately at least
What mero is saying is that in K(a) you can write f as a product of its roots
:O
And then use that to show that if you can write f as a product gh then one of those has to have coefficients not in K
If both are not constant
i have smt ignore what i sent for now
i have that: all roots of f are in K(α) while no roots of f are in K
so f factorizes as (x-a)(x-a-1)...(x-a-p-1)
from there i have no idea how irred would follow
might be missing some important thm or idea 😢
that I cant remember
in K(α)
(where α is a root of f)
you can also think slightly Galois theoretically about it lol
multiply together m of those and then look at the coefficient on x^{m-1}
nooooooooooooooooooooooooooo
Look at (x-a)(x-a-1) = x^2 -(2a+1)x + a(a+1)
Like suppose g|f and g is irreducible. You can show g has p distinct roots in K(a) after you adjoin a root a in K(a)
but then how does irred follow 😔
because we consider the polynomial to be able to be factorized this way in K(a) not K
By considering the action of the Galois group on a
Any factor of f will have to be a linear combo of the (X - a - i)'s which don't live in K[X]
the coefficient on the x^{m-1} term will have m*a in it, which is in K only when m=p
A factorisation in k[X] translates to a factorisation in K(a)[X]
ok
i see
ty
so any combination of these factors other than all of them gives us coefficients outside of K thus it must be irreducible as we cannot factor f into g,h in K[x] where h irreducible and degree h =/= f except if h is 1
Hi, I'm trying to show that if A is a factorial ring then for any multiplicative subset S of A, S^{-1}A is factorial
where S^{-1}A is the localized of A at S
to do this, I first tried to found the irreducible elements of S^{-1}A
I guess you disagree with Lang on this one
he mostly uses factorial ring
(in Algebra)
Well in french we use factoriEl
I want to prove that x/1 is irreducible in S^{-1}A iif x is irreducible in A and (x) \cap S = \emptyset
I did prove the right to left implication but I struggle with left implies right
Here is what I started with :
Let $\frac{x}{1} \in S^{-1}A$ be an irreducible element. If $(x) \cap S \neq \emptyset$, $\frac{x}{1}$ is invertible in $S^{-1}A$ thus it is not irreducible. We conclude that $(x) \cap S = \emptyset$.
valentin9912
Now, lets prove that x is irreducible in A
Let $a,b \in A$ be elements such that $x = ab$. We want to show that either $a$ is invertible or $b$ is invertible in $A$.
valentin9912
We have $\frac{x}{1} = \frac{a}{1} \frac{b}{1}$ but $\frac{x}{1}$ is irreducible in $S^{-1}A$ so $\frac{a}{1}$ is invertible or $\frac{b}{1}$ is invertible in $S^{-1}A$
valentin9912
suppose that $\frac{a}{1}$ is invertible
valentin9912
Hence there exists $r \in A$ such that $ar \in S$
valentin9912
this is were I'm struggling
I guess I have to prove that ar = 1 but I can't figure out how to prove it
if someone could help me....
Croqueta
Boytjie (never-to-be-glomed)
They could write $\chi_1(g)/\chi_2(g)$
as 1/chi_2(g) ?
Boytjie (never-to-be-glomed)
yeah exactly

how is this proven
very weird notation imo
its elementary I think
sin^2(x)
let me think
yeah I noticed, but Im not a big fan of that notation either
I agree. It's familiar if you've seen the inner product of characters in rep theory
I use f^2(x) for f(f(x))
notice that $\chi_1/\chi_2$ is another character. Denote it by chi. Then what we want to show is that when chi is not trivial then $\sum_{g\in G} \chi(g)=0$ (chi not trivial means chi(g) is not just one for all g in G)
If chi_1, chi_2 are distinct then chi_1(g)/chi_2(g) =/= 1 for some g. This sum is invariant under multiplication by this quantity, hence 0.
Croqueta
Lol yeah same proof
I mean yeah, not that you can do a lot of different things
but I didnt provide a full proof, I wanted Illuminator to finish it OwO
ah
I was too eager
there is a fun problem that uses a similar idea, but requires a bit of other stuff
I'm guessing this is probably not the case, but if K is a field and a is separable, then is K(a) separable?
what is a separable over? K?
separable over K, yeah
It is true
Yeah it's a handy statement
I had to check my field theory notes
when I first learnt about separability I was like
no one cares
cuz everything separable 
if m(x) is the minimal polynomial of a, then for any b = c1 + c2*a, the minimal polynomial of b is m((x-c1)/c2) and then go from there?
ah rip
what if the minimal polynomial of a has degree > 2?
yeah
do you have a proof hint?
ok, I only have a very basic understanding of galois theory though, we saw it at the end of one of my algebra courses, so if it requires heavy machinery I might not get very far
doesn't seem like an overly complicated statement though
So if you have some Galois theory one way you can argue this is that there's L containing K with L/K Galois
Okay actually this depends on how you develop Galois theory in the first place lmao
where L would be the splitting field of m?
Yes
So the problem is sometimes this lemma is used to develop galois theory i guess
It wasn't in my course though
mine either
Okay good lol
So you can take a splitting field of m and then L/K Galois
Now L/K is separable
So in particular, K(a)/K is
(do you see why those two follow?)
Tbf how sensible this depends on how you're defining Galois lol
I'm basically saying splitting field of separable polynomial => normal and separable
we haven't done infinite degree Galois theory but I assume the splitting field of a polynomial has to be a finite degree extension
Yes it does
After all, it is generated by the roots of the polynomial
There are only finitely many such elements and all are algebraic over the ground field
yeah, we haven't seen that explicitly (because we only considered finite degree) but we saw the equivalent thing saying that a finite degree extension is galois iff separable and a splitting field
That is the same because these are finite degree
yes
ok cool, makes sense
thanks
I get the impression that very few things are not separable
There are quite heavy constraints on inseparable polynomials sure
Like an irreducible polynomial f in F[x] is inseparable iff F has char p and f is a polynomial in x^p
yeah, its derivative must be 0
Indeed
how do we know that the splitting field of m is Galois actually?
splitting fields are always normal, so just need to verify separability
.... which would require showing the separability of the subfield K(a) ?
(remind me the question again >.<)
if K is a field and a is separable, then is K(a) separable?
the splitting field of a separable polynomial is separable
how come?
isn't that by definition lol
lemme be a lil pedantic here, you don't say separability of a field usually. you can talk about separability of polynlmials but otherwise you always talk about separability over a field
the definition I was given is that an extension is separable if all of its elements are
ah, my bad
that may be that I was given an unusual definition
nah, that's the standard definition
the easiest way to think about this is by defining the notion of separability degree and thinking about a few of its properties. ofc you can do the whole argument without actually defining it as well
For me this is by definition lol it depends
On how you define Galois
if you have an algebraic extension F/k, you define [F:k]_s to be the number of extensions ways to extend the map k --> kbar to all of F. or in notation [F:k]_s = |Hom_k(F, k bar)|
and the cool property is that if you have a finite extension F/k then it is separable if and only if [F:k] = [F:k]_s
what is k bar?
an algebraic closure of k
ah
or really any algebraically closed field containing k. it's not super hard to show that this number doesn't depend on the choice of that.
since F/k is algebraic you can also put it inside. but not in a canonical way. the number of ways to put it is exactly the separable degree
ah ok, I think you switched k bar and F in your definition of [F:k]_s
and that corresponds to extending k --> k bar to F? not extending k --> F to kbar?
yea extending the inclustion k --> k bar, to a map F --> k bar.
extend usually means to make the domain bigger.
okie so try to show the following:
- [F:k]_s doesn't depend on the choice of kbar (more precisely, the choice of the map k --> k bar that you're extending)
- use that to show [F:k]_s is multiplicative in towers
- then try to see what [k(a):k]_s is, and show it equals [k(a):k] iff a is separable over k.
- use multiplicativity and the case of simples to show [F:k]_s <= [F:k]
- finally show that show that if F = k(a1, ..., an) is a finite extension of k, the following are equivalent
(1) F/k is separable
(2) each a_i is separable over k
(3) [F:k]_s = [F:k]
i'd suggest to go (1) => (2) => (3) => (1)
damn
this should give you good understanding of separability uwu
and very basic galois theory suffices for all this?
none actually. just need basic field theory, maybe a little experience on how to work with alg closed fields and a little about degree and stuff.
no real galois theory.
I might give this a try after reading up a little bit on those
okie :3
thanks for the help

i always found separability really hard to understand without introducing separable degree. like think about the equivalent situation of algebraic extensions and the usual degree. showing that k(a, b)/k is algebraic just by knowing a, b are algebraic/k is kinda hard to show directly. but it's immediate once you introduce degree and prove basic facts about it like the multiplicativity in towers.
why exactly does hom(f, g) consist of all pairs (\alpha, \beta)? like why do all maps from f to g come in the form of pairs of functions (maybe i'm having trouble visualizing a morphism between two morphisms lol)
you're defining the category D
you get to decide what to call a morphism
remember category is the data of objects, morphisms and how to compose morphisms and the identity morphisms at each object.
you just need a sensible notion of what a morphism is, so that you can naturally compose two such things, if that happens you're happy 
oh ok that makes sense, so basically if the axioms are satisfied then any definition is valid
for example, here you didn't have to ask for the commutativity, but to make the category D more interesting you did
idk maybe i'm not used to this level of abstraction lol and this is weird
ah ok
that makes sense thx!
Imagine it as a morphism between diagrams
You want commutativity plus all the objects to map essentially
cats are nice. think about it the other way... objects in a category can get super weird... but cat theory lets you abstract all of that and think of it as a point sized individual object!!
this makes it a lot easier to keep all the data in your head without getting overwhelmed
if you do some homological algebra, your objects would be infinite chains of maps
... --> A_{n-1} --> A_n --> A_{n+1} --> ...
do you really wanna keep all the info in your head?
when you can just call that thing A and think of it as a point without any internal structure :p
imagine dealing with a diagram of these complexes 
ahh ok that makes sense thanks!

maybe it's because i'm used to like working with the structures of objects and not just a general overview of all of them
so it's weird
idk
true true, but you'll get used to it pretty quickly!!
like have you done some field theory?
yee
a similar situation happens there
fix a field k and consider the category of algebraic extensions of k
so your objects are maps k --> F
and a morphism between (k --> F) and (k --> E) would be a field map F --> E making that triangle commute
this is nice to do, in this category you don't always have to keep drawing that k --> again and again
it would simplify up your diagrams a lot
for instance, if k --> L is an algebraic closure, then it has this funny property that if F/k is an algebraic extension then there is at least one map F --> L (over k, i.e. in the category we constructed above)
so it's almost like a terminal object, except the uniqueness
if F/k is any extension then [F:k]_s = |Hom_k(F, k bar)| is a nice invariant of F/k. because given any two algebraic closures of k, they're unique. so
Hom_k(F, L1) =~ Hom_k(F, L2) where L1, L2 are algebraic closures
in short, it fun 
(and Fun Things are Fun
)
oh wow okay i'll have to process that
thanks for typing that all out det! ur very helpful :) 
notice that this was a special case of your example with A = C = k and alpha = id_k
Are you asking what the size of the subgroup <i> of C* is?
Have you tried writing out the elements? it's unclear to me what your confusion is.
You're using strange terminology
but one is already
"the generator element" are you asking how many generators <i> has?
or are you asking how many elements <i> has?
Please be clear.
look 19
OK so you are asked to find the number of elements of <i>.
Can you write down all the elements of <i>?
<i>=<1,-1,-i,1>
OK you're still using generator notation
What you wrote is technically correct, but this is not what I asked for.
Are you claiming that <i> = {1, -1, -i, 1}?
That makes no sense: i is not included there.
Try again.
<0,i,-1,-i>
I think I'm wrong, I've realized
When we're writing a set, we use {}.
Also, 0 is not an element of C*, so it cannot be included in any of its subgroups.
It looks prettier xD
Well it's also wrong :)
Are you aware of what writing <i> means exactly? Can you write down a definition?
OK I didn't want to know what the elements are, but yes <i> = {1, i, -1, -i}.

Do you understand what the notation <a> means in general?
yeh
For example, if I said I had a group G and an element g of G, could you explain what <g> is?
If means that i is a generator, apart from being a generator, it generates a subgroup
OK so what is the subgroup <g>, can you explain precisely what it is.
If the answer is no, just tell me
nopis
Maybe I know, but for security I would like to understand what you are saying
If you have nopis you should visit a doctor, but let's continue
<g> can be understood in a couple of ways
- <g> is the smallest subgroup of G that contains g
- <g> = {..., g^-2, g^-1, 1, g, g^2, g^3, ....}
that second part is very helpful, I'm sure you agree
Is it clearer using part 2. why <i> = {1, i, -1, -i}?
Yes I understand, only that I was wrong when operating and when I saw that it was under the multiplication different from 0
"nopis" means no in English je
I understood what nopis means, I was making a joke.
I'm glad you now have a better understanding of what <g> is.
So do you know the answer to the question now?
suppose $m = p_1p_2$ then $(\mathbb{Z}/m\mathbb{Z})^{\times} \cong (\mathbb{Z}/p_1\mathbb{Z})^{\times} \times (\mathbb{Z}/p_2\mathbb{Z})^{\times}$ does it follow that $(\mathbb{Z}/p_1\mathbb{Z})^{\times} \times (\mathbb{Z}/p_2\mathbb{Z})^{\times} \cong \mathbb{Z}/(p_1-1)\mathbb{Z}) \times \mathbb{Z}/(p_2-1)\mathbb{Z}$?
why should it? the orders aren't even the same
haha loser
You're adding ^\times where unnecessary
moreover, why would that statement follow from the first statement
I was being hopeful lol
You don't mean to imply that (Z/pZ)^\times is isomophic to (Z/(p-1)Z)^\times
this is clearly not true
You mean (Z/pZ)^\times is isomorphic to Z/(p-1)Z.
oh p1 and p2 are prime
yeah, we know
I didn't even notice that 💀
did you mean this?
my bad, that is a typo
If you fix that blatant error, there's no issue.
yes
ah ok
ForJoke
It is in fact true that if A iso B and C iso D then A x C iso B x D 😱
I was blindly copy pasting cuz of laziness
now prove that phi(p) = p - 1
smh I was making sure, I've never done group theory, this is for my number theory class
@delicate orchid wtf when did it become :mocha:
I refuse glome
and now it is mocha
wtf
isn't that easy?
illum is probably making a reference to the fact that this observation allows you to prove that phi is multiplicative
if A iso B and C iso D with phi, theta being isomorphisms then (phi, theta) is an isomorphism between AxC and BxD
hopefully this is clear now
oh I see i see
and therefore prove the usual formula
that does make sense, i think i was just scared of some goofy group theory nonsense happening
does this even follow if one of the group pairs(A and C/B and D) is non abelian?
Yes ofc
now that I say that, I'm not sure why it wouldn't lol
it works in an arbitary category 


