#groups-rings-fields
1 messages ¡ Page 113 of 1
Linear algebra is part of algebra, and Artin doesn't wanna assume linear algebra background
If you don't wanna review linear algebra, read Jacobson
Or D&F
Or just skip to group theory
Anyway time for me to conquer this channel a bit and review last week's conference
So this should be in GL3 as long as the top left entry is non-zero and the bottom right 2x2 bit is in GL2
Sloth King Daminark
So that's $\frac{(q^3 - 1)(q^3 - q)(q^3 - q^2)}{(q-1)(q^2 - 1)(q^2 - q)} = q^2(1 + q + q^2)$
Sloth King Daminark
Actually no I should divide further by q^2
The number of such matrices is what I said times q^2 since I forgot you can have q choices for the (1,2) slot and q for the (1,3) slot
So yes number of lines in F_q^3 is 1 + q + q^2
Number of planes should be the same
Sloth King Daminark
And that has the same count as before
Each plane contains q+1 many lines, that's just the order of P^1(F_q)
And we wanna say that each line is contained in q+1 many planes, which likely holds by a kind of symmetry but
Wrong type of algebra
You want #prealg-and-algebra
thanks đ
oh my golly gosh it is le wholesome parabolic subgroup
truuuu
But yeah so let me attempt to make that symmetry argument
So given a L and a plane P containing it, I'll map the line L to {(x,0,0)} by some element of GL_3
Let's call that element A
And let's let P' = {(0,y,z)}
A(P) + P' = F_q^3
So dim(A(P) cap P') = 1
So what I do is, I'm gonna map the plane P containing L to the line in P' which is given by A(P) cap P'
Question is, does this depend on the choice of A?
If not then I should be able to say this is a bijection from planes containing L to lines in P'
I mean really the answer is orthogonal complements basically
Out with it det
too shy now >.<
was gonna say something about this >.<
okie i'll say it >.<
yea but i would say that's more so because in early algebra you're studying sets with extra stuff, like it makes sense to say "consider a function f : X --> G from a set to a group", which if you're being pedantic is a map f : X --> UG.
aluffi introduces functors right before doing some "harder" linear algebra like tensor/symmetric/wedge stuff and later for some homological algebra. i think that's a good place for it. Other than that, I think i really find it useful to keep "rights adjoints and hom functors are continuous" and all that in mind while doing algebra as they change your perspective on proving a statement like Hom(-, A) turns co-products into products, from "yea this is an easy check, which i can do but i'm too lazy to" to "ofc, continuous preserves limits".
.<
That's a pretty fair point yeah. I guess what I was going for with my statement was less
Ugh why is Aluffi already doing functors
So much as, I think the lack of category theory in other books isn't a huge problem, and not enough to counter Aluffi being a bit too slow/not the best problems/examples
right, aluffi not exactly a problem book. it's exercises are usually just to see if you understood the definitions than "solve this thing right now, which hardly anyone can. later you'll see when we develop more material that this was not that bad"
Anyway, to formalize the whole shtick with orthogonal complements instead of dicking around like I was earlier
A plane in F_q^3 is given by some equation ax + by + cz = 0
So given a line l = span(x_0, y_0, z_0)
We're counting the set of (a,b,c) such that ax_0 + by_0 + cz_0 = 0
But now we can just think of x_0, y_0, z_0 as coefficients and a,b,c as variables
So gg
Never seen dami in aa before 
dami does scawy aa 
aaaaa
Let us continue
So, this isn't in the notes but connects to my combo class
A "finite projective plane" in general is an incidence structure, so I have a set P of points, a set L of lines
And an incidence relation I \subset P x L, telling me which points are on which lines
And I want it to be such that:
- Any two lines share exactly one point
- Any two points live in exactly one line
- (Non-degeneracy condition) There are 4 points, no 3 of which are on a line
In this case, I'm gonna let the points be lines in F_q^3, and the lines are planes in F_q^3, and incidence is inclusion
Well, given two points, aka two 1-d subspaces, there's exactly one line (2-d subspace) containing them both, namely their span
Given two lines (2-d subspaces) V and W, we have V+W = F_q^3
So dim(V cap W) = dim(V) + dim(W) - dim(V+W) = 1, so their intersection is the one point (1-d subspace) they both contain
As for non-degeneracy, probably just take {<e_1>, <e_2>, <e_3>, <e_1 + e_2 + e_3>}
Now, in general, the degree of any point in a projective plane = the degree of any line, call this quantity n+1, and say that n is the order of the plane
Then you have n^2 + n + 1 points, and n^2 + n + 1 lines
In the case of P^2(F_q), the order is q (sensibly), and the q^2 + q + 1 tracks with what was said earlier
The proof of the fact that all degrees are the same and of the count of points and lines? Prob could do it another time, and frankly I did in combo way back when, so I won't emphasize now
So, two types of ways I can draw these guys. One is, points as points and lines as lines. The other as a bipartite graph, points are blue vertices, lines are red vertices, and an edge connects a point to a line which it's on
In particular, consider P^2(F_2). Order 2, so degree of things is 3, and #points = #lines = 7
Black vertex = point with label, white vertex = line labeled as set of 3 opints
oh my golly gosh it's le wholesome octonians
Lol
Anyway let's even go so far as to assign the points to subspaces
To see apartments
This might start to be a bit more painful given that these guys have their labeling already
Isn't that the heawood graph
Yeah, a name I just learned đ
Its the graph you get by embedding a complete graph on 7 verticies into the torus and then taking the dual
Yeah I played a bit on a whiteboard and see it now
The idea is to take 3 vertices consecutively, go to the other side (take the only edge that's not on the "boundary", go 3 vertices in the other direction, come back
what do quadratic forms over the p-adics look like
up to equivalence
posted here because i wasn't sure where else to put it
The key case to think about is in 3 dimensions
Isn't there something called the Hilbert symbol or whatever that tells you about that?
All of them can be diagonalized and it comes down to classifying squares in Q_p, understanding which 3 dimensional forms are equivalent, then doing induction to classify all of them
Serre Course in Arithmetic I think discusses the stuff
Yes but these kinds of manipulations are where the Hilbert symbol comes from and it can be done by hand in this case
and then can you always go up from 3d
this is the full answer for that sheet
it's just braindead to put b) as a task in the exam
i mean
if you know what it's supposed to look like
you can skip some steps
or just write it in terms of indices
but i do agree that's not a very good exam problem
Can anyone help me with this question C(i)
This is an unnecessarily long solution to this question. It is not hard at all to prove what is written here using indices rather than writing out each one.
or 1/i = -i ?
jesus christ
with my current knowledge i will have to write that should it come to the exam
but i think it's unlikely since i am sure they learned from their mistakes and saw that students had trouble with this
Are you aware that $(AB){i,j} = \sum{k=1}^n A_{i,k}B_{k,j}$?
Boytjie (never-to-be-glomed)
This simple formula makes what is written very easy to prove
i am not that advanced
If youâre CS and donât know that formula i really do wonder how youâre implementing matrix multiplication
function composition then look where the basis vectors land 
@spice whale yeah it turns out every form of dimension > 3 is a trivial form in n-3 dimensions + a nontrivial form in dimension 3, thus can be proved by induction
*this
The higher forms get âglomedâ down
What
Oh quadratic form
lol this is what i initially suggested
đ¤ we can lead a horse to water
Looks like something Chmonkey would know
how does 33.10 imply that the subfield K of the algebraic closure of F consists of the zeros of x^p^rn - x? wouldn't it just consist of the zeros of x^p^n - x?
also what is n in this case? (if F has p^r elements and not p^n elements)
Not sure what you mean
K is by construction just teh roots of x^{p^{rn}} - x
It's not the same K as in 33.10
You just change n (in 33.10) to rn
If an element x^n (n>0) is in a prime ideal, does it follow that x is in that ideal?
Well x . x^{n-1} is in the prime ideal, so either x is or x^{n-1} is (or both, ofc)
by induction we're done
Ohh right, I forgot you can induct 
You need to see if you can remove an ideal, so you want to compute the three pair-wise intersections, and try to verify if any of these are primary. If not, itâs minimal.
Alternatively, you can try and compute associated primes of J itself and then use primary decomposition nonsense to see if itâs minimal, but this is probably harder to be quite honest
i'm confused as to what purpose the sentence "because the elements of E are zeros of x^p^n - x, we see that f(x) is a factor of x^p^n - x in Zp[x]" serves? couldn't we just use the uniqueness of the irreducible monic polynomial f(x) in Zp[x] and basically apply the first half of the proof to E' to show that they're both isomorphic to Zp[x]/<f(x)>?
I think the answer is <x^2,y^2,z> becuase it contains <x^2,z> and the radical of <x^2+y^2-z> is equal to the radical of <x^2,y^2,z> i think. so we can elimate that one
@next obsidian
I donât understand what you mean
Youâre saying you think you can remove that ideal?
Wait Iâm sort of confused even lmao <x^2,y^2,z>\cap <x^2,z> is just <x^2,z>
i guess the main confusion that i'm having with this proof is understanding why f(x) is the irreducible polynomial in Zp[x] for both E and E', is it just due to uniqueness of E and E' both being simple extensions over Zp?
So you can remove that for sure
yes
So you have the first and last ideal
agreed
I donât think so?
i see
Let me look at them again
i thought they were the same
The terminology for this is that prime ideals are radical btw
The radical of the last one is <x,z>
I donât see how that could possibly be the radical of the first ideal
no
how does x^n land inside of the first ideal
I was thinking about the first and second one
Right, but you removed the second one
Since when you intersected it with the last one, you just get the last one
Well no
i understand now
Youâre just saying that like
I\cap J\cap K = I\cap (J\cap K)
And here J\cap K = K because K < J
Yeah?
Chmonkey (glomed)
ha
$And here J\cap K = K because K < J$
Chmonkey (glomed)
can i get some help here pls?
They're trying to show that it's the same f(X) in both cases
Have you done splitting fields?
yea i have
Yeah, then you can show that each field of size p^n = q, is isomorphic to the splitting field of x^q - x
cf Lang Chapter 5 section 5
Over Z/pZ[x] ofc
And you can actually prove the existence of a field of size q by proving that the roots of x^q - x in Z/pZ[x] form a field
And x^q - x in Z/pZ[x] has no multiple roots since its derivative = -1
oh yeah i remember seeing that for f(x) in F[x] any two splitting fields for f(x) are isomorphic
yea fraleigh did that earlier
is there any reason why some people do Z/pZ[x] instead of Zp[x]? obviously they're iso but i haven't come across a canonical choice
Z_p refers to the p-adics
Honestly at this point you could just write F_p
or GF(p^r)
Since you've proved uniqueness
p-adics?
In mathematics, the p-adic number system for any prime number p extends the ordinary arithmetic of the rational numbers in a different way from the extension of the rational number system to the real and complex number systems. The extension is achieved by an alternative interpretation of the concept of "closeness" or absolute value. In particul...
why is $\sigma^b\sigma^{ad}(x) = \sigma^b(x)$?
okeyokay
$\sigma^d(x) = x \implies \sigma^{ad}(x) = \sigma^d(\sigma^d( ... (\sigma^d(x))...))$ a times is also $x$
Parrot Tea
$\sigma^d(x) = x \implies \sigma^{ad}(x) = \sigma^d(\sigma^d( ... (\sigma^d(x))...))$ a times is also $x$
Parrot Tea
By the sylow theorems, a group of order 60 must have 1 or 6 subgroups of order 5, and these subgroups are all conjugate. But not all 5-cycles are conjugate in A_5, so is this a contradiction? Where did I go wrong?
I don't think A_5 has 2 conjugacy classes of order 5 elements, you've got 4! = 24 elements of order 5, and each subgroup of A_5 has exactly 4 of those elements in them (along with the identity), moreso this allocation is in fact a partition. Thus by a counting argument you have 6 subgroups of A_5 each having order 5, and each of them conjugate to each other by Sylow
You can tell that there are 4! elements of order 5 since an element of order 5 is a 5 cycle, for uniqueness fix the first entry, say 1, then for the second entry you have 4 choices, third entry 3 choices, and so on.
but 24 doesn't divide 60
One could also that all 5 cycles are of the form (1 $\sigma(2) ; \sigma(3) ; \sigma(4) ; \sigma(5) )$ for $\sigma \in$ sym${2,3,4,5}$
Parrot Tea
Does that matter?
And the size of the conjugacy class divides the order of the group
So there are two classes each with 12 elements
what do you mean by the size of the conjugacy class?
The number of conjugacy classes?
No, I mean the number of elements in the conjugacy class
Why?
because number of elements in the conjugacy class is index of centralizer of any one of the elements of the conjugacy class
That statement says that the conjugacy class is a subgroup
not an individual element
So in your case you would have 6 conjugacy classes
Corresponding to the 6 distinct subgroups of A_5 with order 5
Elements don't have normalizers, subgroups do
I thought normalizer N(a) of an element a is defined as {n in G | na = an}
That's a centralizer
Aren't they the same thing
edit: for a single element a
Parrot Tea
That just means that the coset gA is the same as the coset Ag
Recall the proof of this statement, let H be a subgroup of G. Then G acts on the conjugacy classes of H by conjugation. The stabiliser here will be all elements g in G, such that gHg^{-1} = H, i.e. N_G(H). This action is obviously transitive. Thus by the orbit stabiliser theorem, the number of conjugacy classes of H is equal to [G : N_G(H)]. If G is finite then the number of conjugacy classes of H is equal to |G|/|N_G(H)|
the proof I know involves a bijection between the left cosets of N(H) and the conjugate subgroups
So A_5 canât have a conjugacy class with 24 elements since 24 doesnât divide 60
But Iâm still confused about why the sylow theorems donât imply that all 5-cycles in A_5 are conjugate
It's not a conjugacy class of the elements, its a conjugacy class of the subgroups of order 5
Of which there are 6
and 6 | 60
The Sylow theorem's explicitly refer to subgroups of G
Not necessarily elements
if K is a 5 subgroup of A_5, the Sylow theorem's state that all other 5 groups of A_5 are conjugate to K
is this for the same question?
Yes
One can show that for s in S_5, s(1 2 3 4 5)s^{-1} = (s(1) s(2) s(3) s(4) s(5))
yeah, yeah in A_5
Oh I meant in A_5
You just have to check that if such an s lives in A_5
That shows that this statement is trivially true in S_5
Oh, then if the s necessary for conjugating a 5-cycle to its square is odd, then it isnât conjugate
Well you would actually have to check for 5 s's
To account for cyclic shifts
There might be an easier way
(12345)^2 = (13524) which needs a 4-cycle to conjugate
So in this case sigma must send 1 to 1, 2 to 3, 3 to 5, 4 to 2 and 5 to 4
But there exists another sigma that sends 1 to 3, 2 to 5, 3 to 2, 4 to 4, and 5 to 1 that is also sufficient
and so on, and so forth
So the answer to my original question is that not all elements of a subgroup are conjugate to each other, and the conjugacy classes are split evenly across all subgroups
I understand
I don't know
Alright, good luck
@solemn garden your username must surely be true in the dyadics
are dyadics same as 2-adics
it's just another name for them
if the 2-adics have characteristic 2, then itâs true in them
yeah the p adic numbers have characteristic p
totally
now prove that that's wrong
there is a field homomorphism of Q into Q_p
this is algebra related tho lol
Consider the element (1, 1, 5, 5, 5, 5, 69, 69, 69,...)
what's that an element of?
Would (1,0,0,0âŚ) and (2,0,0,0âŚ) work as a counterexample?
you guys are doing it wrong
fuck inverse limits, all my homies hate inverse limits
use decimal expansions đ
Or the element (0, 0, 4, 4, 4, 36, 36, 164, 420, 420,...)
I have only created padics using inverse limits
silly you
Not elements of 2 adics
I had that mindset too in the beginning
but the p-adic analysis way of defining them is superior
Keep in mind that I know 0 maths
Why
the only things I know about p adic numbers come from wikipedia
This server needs a good hug emoji
my favorite p-adic number is $(p - 1)^\infty$
What is an inverse limit?
Read Lang
Or the start of a homological algebra book
I like this style
1+2²+2³+...=-1 now makes sense



(Inverse) limits are for real ones
inverse limits uwu
That's literally the same exact thing but ok
Like there is actually no difference
With this question, I proved that G = Z in a slightly different way:
I argued by contradiction:
If G != Z then: we can get the quotient G/Z which will also be a p-group of lower order,
Then G/Z must have a nontrivial center too, so we can consider (G/Z)/Z which is again a p-group of lower order,
we can repeat this process. It is guaranteed to terminate since G is finite.
The fact that this process terminates means that on the last step we had a p-group with a trivial center which is a contradiction so G = Z.
just wanted to fact check that my logic is sound
No your logic is not sound
This would prove every p-group is abelian
The issue was how you concluded, this process terminating means you had some iterated quotient thingy where Z(G) = G, thatâs what terminates the process
Not when Z(G) = {1}
this complaint is unrelated to this particular question
shhh don't tell them
I'm trying to pursuade them into doing p adic analysis
@grand cliff youâre not very far off from a proof though, just need to work a little harder
Sadly I poisoned my mind with the answer
Unless there's a way to recover with my approach
so I'm trying to prove that |GL2(Zp)|=p^4-p^3-p^2+p without using the fact that in general |GLn(F)| is the product from i=0 to n-1 of (|F|^n-|F|^i) for finite fields.
I've determined that it is clearly less than p^4, since that would be the total number of possible 2x2 matrices with coefficients in the given finite field, and I thought I knew that you could subtract out p^3 for all the matrices such that the bottom row is a multiple of the top row, and then p^2 for all the matrices such that the bottom row is a zero row, but now I'm realizing that I didn't technically restrict my p^3 case to be non-zero rows, so I may be overcounting here. In any case, I'm not sure why I would need to re-add a copy of p into the order, and I'm a little stuck.
How about you try thinking about the possibilities for the first row, then the possibilities for the second row, etc.?
Isn't that essentially what you do for the general fact?
dunno yet, haven't gotten to part 3 of the textbook where they talk about fields and prove this. I'm still in baby mode, you know, like how you spend the first week of calculus only knowing the limit definition of the derivative before you realize you can skip it 90% of the time.
You should do this
Use the linear algebra fact that a matrix is invertible iff it has full rank
dummit and foote moment
literally
what edition are you reading
3rd
me too!!
hmm.... ok so a nonzero determinant only works if ad=/=bc, which breaks down into two cases depending on the coprimality of a and b
but I'm thinking too hard already lol
Donât use that characterization
Did you learn about column space, row space, etc
I did, but it's been a hot minute. iirc they share the same rank
The column space is the vector space spanned by the columns
time to pull out the Lalgebra text I used to refresh lol
A matrix is invertible iff this is the entire vector space
So, to put it in more actionable terms
A matrix is invertible iff the columns are all linearly independent
(Same goes for all rows)
So, to find all invertible 2x2 matrices you have to count all pairs of linearly independent 2 x 1 vectors
Does that sound doable?
I mean, it does, but clearly something has gone wrong in the way I'm counting, as for pairwise dependence, one must be a scalar multiple of the other, which I've already been looking at.
Okay so letâs look at it a combinatorial way
You first pick a nonzero vector
Then pick a vector which isnât in the space spanned by the first
How many choices do you have at step 1, and at step 2
ah, got it.
given a non-zero vector (a b) you have a total of P choices for either vector, resulting in p^2 vectors, but removing the option (0 0) gives you (p^2-1) options. Choosing the second vector, you must now find a linearly independent vector, which can be accomplished by taking your vector (a b) and adding to it some vector (x y) s.t. x=/=y. This means that you have a new vector (a+x b+y) where a and b are fixed according to the previous choice, and you have p options for one of the new variables, and p-1 options for the other (since they cannot both be the same value). Given that the choice for a and b is independent of the choice for x and y, you get (p^2-1)(p^2-p)=p^4-p^3-p^2+p
/box
Yes!
Thereâs an easier way to establish the second number though
Which generalizes for more than just 2x2 matrices
You have p^2 vectors total
And have to avoid the 1-dimensional space spanned by the first vector
Which has p things
So p^2 - p
This works for say n x n better because at step k you have p^n vectors, and have to avoid the (k-1)-dimensional space spanned by your previous choices
So you have p^n - p^{k-1} choices
'tis true, but that's a generalization I'd probably come to by doing a couple constructive assessments. teaching elementary arithmetic and geometry has made me prefer concrete constructions (that and the fact that I taught myself linear algebra several months ago and haven't used it since)
I think this is concrete
And itâs a more instructive way to view it I think
Youâre really just âavoiding bad vectorsâ
So it makes sense to count how many bad choices there are
This is really common in combinatorial arguments
Anyway, you got the right answer, I just wanted to highlight a different way to think about the count
never did combinatorics, to be fair. set complements make sense, but I'm still rusty on my space manipulations lol
"never did" as if I haven't been doing naive combinatorics since 5th grade
lol
Sure sure, the point is just sometimes itâs easier to count he complement
If you know the size of the ambient set
This sort of stuff is really common in all math where itâs like, you can dualize things and examine the opposite thing
And figure out stuff about the thing you actually care about
I just bring it up because itâs good to have in the back of your head
If you do topology and it asks you to show a set is closed, often times itâs much more obvious the complement is open
Etc etc
used to have it, lost amongst the more "important" stuff teaching elementary geometry and constructing everything out of triangles for a month straight. We love how the brain prioritizes facts and methods
"show that GLn(F) is non abelian for any n>1 and any field F"
uh... matrix multiplication is non-commutative, and all properties of matrix operations in R hold for arbitrary fields F (according to the blurb before the exercises, to be proven later). next?
sometimes exercizes seem to be quite funny in their ordering
This isnât good enough
Take the subgroup of matrices which are just some fixed number x along the diagonal and 0 everywhere else
This is abelian
You can have abelian subgroups of nonabelian groups (in fact any subgroup generated by one thing satisfies this)
To do this you have to explicitly exhibit non commuting matrices in GL_n
I'm looking for some standard notation/conventions on this particular concept of "nearly semidirect products" that is occuring a lot for me. Any references are appreciated :)
My particular question is just if anyone knows any standard conventions on this stuff
(Also I guess my second definition is 'inner' rather than 'outer' lol)
maybe not for a college course, but it's almost painfully trivial tbh. It's one of those things like saying "show that log(a+b)=/=log(a)+log(b)" because there exists a special case like "log(1+2+3)=log(1)+log(2)+log(3)" my autodidact brain: gestures wildly at definition of matrix multiplication as composition
No it isnât sufficient at all
You need to know that you can have non commuting automorphisms which is not a priori obvious
You have to know the structure of vector spaces and swap some basis elements or something
It is not painfully trivial at all
Try to find two matrices in GL_2 that don't commute. You may be surprised that you cannot do so as easily as you seem to think
As it happens, if you can show that GL_2 is non-Abelian then you can use this to show that GL_n is non-Abelian for all n > 2. You may treat this an an exercise if it's not already clear.
Extension: find an example that works for any field F (maybe even of positive characteristic)
don't have sufficient knowledge of fields to do so
they're not until a couple sections later in the book
at least re: positive characteristic
just take two arbitrary matrices with entries a,b,c,d and w,x,y,z respectively. aw+by=/=wa+xc generally. It would be harder to demonstrate for some finite field, but I'm not restricted to finite fields, so I can freely use whatever values I like so long as the determinants are nonzero. (0 2 / 4 6) and (1 3 / 5 7) work just fine in the 2 case as a concrete example, and any extension to larger matrices will necessarily contain the combinations of these elements the same way (albeit with extra terms added). I'm not sure why that's non-obvious
btw @merry plaza needs to lurk on this so I can talk to him later lol.
why is every group sub group of itself??
For the same reason that every set is a subset of itself
aight
can it be related to the isomorphism property shown by groups?
Not in any interesting way
đ
take the identity, it has kernel 0 and is surjective so the group is isomorphic is itself. hope that helps đ
sure , thanks i was thinking the same thing
also but what do you mean by kernal 0 there?
its kernel is trivial
its kernel is { 0 }
{0} is the trivial sub group of set of all integers with addition binary operator if that what you mean ? becaues it is an identity element
They mean to say the subgroup consisting only of the identity element of the group under consideration.
oh all right i was confused by the naming convention i'm quite new to the gorup theory
i think i got an example that generalizes to all n>1 and all nontrivial fields if you wanna hear it, it only uses the assumption that 1 =/= 0 and doesn't mess with field characteristic
I have my own. I'll share it sunday
trying to figure out representations of symmetric groups. Fulton-Harris constructs given a Young tableau a pair of subgroups $P, Q \le S_n$ that preserve the rows and columns respectively. Then we set $$a = \sum_{g \in P} e_g \in \bC[S_n]$$ $$b = \sum_{g \in Q} <sign>(g) e_g$$
m...
but I can't think of anything I can really do to these objects?
the first exercise after asks to prove $\bC[S_n]ab \cong \bC[S_n]ba$ and I'm stumped
m...
hmm I guess conjugates of P and Q by g are preserving rows/columns in tableau that have been acted on by g
Am I supposed to use the fact that ab is idempotent? I don't think that was proven yet
x mapsto xa and y mapsto yb are two halves of an iso by idempotency of ab
You can easily prove it yourself! In general any projection/averaging map like this will be idempotent for very formal reasons.
It's a composition of two noncommuting maps though
But b commutes with a on the image of a, since on the image of a, a is just the identiy as it is idempotent.
No it doesn't, but I suppose proving this is as hard as proving the whole statement. You could also try just proving it formally by multiplying a_\lambda by b_\lambda and collecting terms
Sounds horrifying
It's very easy!
The only relevant fact is that you are averaging over subsets of S_n which are closed under inversion
and the sgn(g) = sgn(g^{-1})
*that
Ok that sounds less horrifying
ah that makes sense, thanks!
Reminds me of the covariant measure projection trick
Hmmm I don't know enough about statistics to know if there's a more than formal similarity.
oh no you also have an averaging map $X \mapsto \int_{U \in G} UXU^{-1}$
m...
this turns out to be an idempotent onto the commutant of G
and the projection is orthogonal in the trace inner product
Can someone explain to me why every non-trivial free product A x B, as long either A or B have order larger than 2, contains a free subgroup of rank 2?
Let's say $A$ contains distinct non-identity elements $a_1$ and $a_2$ and that $b \in B$ is not the identity. Then if we let $x = a_1 b$ and $y = a_2 b$, $\gen{x, y}$ is a free subgroup of rank 2.
Typo!
Boytjie (never-to-be-glomed)
Oh. For the proof use ping-pong lemma with, I guess, the sets of reduced words starting with x or y?
I expect that would work đ¤ˇ
What did you have in mind?
why does $|\sigma_i|$ have to divide $m$? I thought $m$ was the least such positive integer?
okeyokay
Nothing but my intuition. I thought about writing a proof via the universal property though
I don't understand your confusion. If $m$ is some integer such that $\sigma^m = (1)$ then $|\sigma_i| \mid m$, it's really as simple as that.
Boytjie (never-to-be-glomed)
We then later identify the smallest such integer m.
Note that $\sigma^m = (1)$ does \textbf{not} mean that $m$ is the order of $\sigma$!
Huh, so like send x and y to their formal bethreen in F(x,y) and determine the kernel?
Boytjie (never-to-be-glomed)
No that's not the universal property, but you could do that too I suppose
Yeah that is a relatively straightforward proof, intuitively we have have k-cycles as order k, disjointness (as composition is thus commutative) allows us to distribute powers in the way we anticipate, so you have that at the lcm it is surely the identity and an easy contradiction below the lcm.
What other universal property besides that of the free group/product you wanna use here?
sorry I don't see it
I only get sums over conjugates of P and Q
that don't match with sums over P and Q obvs
We can view a complex number $a+bi$ as a real $2\times 2$ matrix $\begin{pmatrix}a&-b\b&a\end{pmatrix}$. Similarly, we can view a complex $2\times 2$ matrix as a real $4\times 4$ matrix by expanding each complex entry into a real $2\times 2$ block. In this sense, the group $\mathrm{SU}(2)$ is identified as a subgroup of $\mathrm{SO}(4)$. The latter has a natural action on the $3$-sphere $S^3\subseteq\mathbb{R}^4$, given by matrix multiplication. If we now have a finite subgroup $\Gamma\subseteq\mathrm{SO}(4)$, and we assume that the action of $\Gamma$ on $S^3$ is free, will $\Gamma$ be conjugate (in $\mathrm{SO}(4)$) to a subgroup of $\mathrm{SU}(2)$?
gustavn64
i think so actually
Why?
this may be an unsatisfying answer but SO(4) cap Z is a group of order 384 that is not cyclic and not dicyclic (I think?) and not one of the 3 exceptional subgroups of SU(2)
er, of order 192, but same reasoning applies
But this doesn't act freely on S^3.
Maybe I misunderstood something. By SO(4) cap Z, do you mean those elements of SO(4) where all entries are integers?
yeah i also did not understand
yes exactly that
The matrix diag(1,1,-1,-1) is a non-trivial element in it which has fixed points when acting on S^3, for instance
nice
oh wait I mixed up with faithful action 
Ah
can't you just find a subgroup of SO(4) that acts freely that is larger than a subgroup of SU(2)?
wouldnt that be the thing to chase for a counterexample
What do you mean "larger"? Containing one as a subgroup?
SO(4) contains a copy of SO(2)xSO(2) (block diagonal)
so you have a family of products of 2 cyclic groups, that should act freely?
ah wait again no
I think I just meant larger in the sense that the conjugation isn't an isomorphism
only an injection
where did you see this problem
are you sure about this
what about like
-a²-b²-c²-d² over the reals
For this exercise, I'm pretty sure I've got most of the steps, but I just don't know how to fill in the orange arrow area
Basically I need to show that if the normaliser of a stabiliser is equal to the group, then G will be a fixed point free permutation group (aka a semiregular group)
btw, thanks guys for actually holding me accountable for doing these exercises in this book, lol. I really don't feel like finding a set of generators and relations for Q_8, but it's nice to be able to bounce things off of others and see where I'm going. (the generators are i and j, and the relations are at least i^2=j^2=-1, ij=k but checking the completeness of the generating relations is tedious)
maybe I need "ijk=-1" in there but I'm not entirely sure if it's directly implied already
I don't think ij=k is a relation, if the generators are i and j
oh, yeah, because the only elements you want to reference in relations are generators and identity, oof
iji looks funny in this font lol
Oh, also in that category is i^2 = j^2 = -1
Cause -1
yeah -1 isn't a thing a priori
the last one is from
-ji = ij
i²ji = ij
iji = j
wow, sudden memory flash: relations can be thought of as "commutation rules" (paraphrasing loosely). dunno why I forgot that that's sort of the purpose of the relations, to be able to reduce unusual combinations to canonical forms.
haven't gotten to rings yet ;-;
the hard part of starting from basically nothing in an area of study lol
CoffeeMan
I skimmed stack exchange and finding the unit group of a group ring seems non trivial
I have no idea
always remember the distinction between "think about it like" and "it is." The former is an intuitive aid, while the latter is a rigorous notion.
I think a counter example may lie in groups of odd size (maybe ones that aren't equal to 2^n - 1)
in other news, I was supposed to be calculating the order of elements of the Heisenberg group over Z_2 earlier, and I realized that since the H-group is a set of diagonal matrices with only three degrees of freedom, I could express all elements of the group as a 3-dimensional vector and then calculate a matrix (or two) that squares or cubes the vector (in Z_2 all elements have order 3 or less). I'm proud of myself, even if the exponentiation matrices required using a variable dependent on an entry in the vector. Made it easier to keep track of than doing repeated matrix multiplication the whole time.
If we replace ring with field this statement is trivially false (a group of size 5 for example). Would there be any way to reduce a ring case down to a field case?
Oh, think I've found a simpler argument. The set of units in the field of fractions is finite while it is infinite in the other from what I can see.
Wait is $k[x]_{(x)}$ how you denote the field of fractions of $k[x]$?
Parrot Tea
field of fractions should just be k(x)
wops, sorry, meant ring of fractions
ring of fractions is a field
Does the initial ring has to be an ID for that?
ye think so too
No, the set of units in $k(x)$ is definitely not finite. But you can simply argue that one of these is a field, and one of them is not
Parrot Tea
You can inject Z into the unit group (1 maps to x)
Does sylow's theorem just state that if you prime factorise a finite groups order $|G| = p_1^{a_1}p_2^{a_2}\dots$ there are subgroups $H_n$ of G where $|H_n| = p_n^{a_n}$
Jamarcus
That is one of the Sylow theorems, yes
I'm being a bit pedantic here, but you should probably say $|G| = p_1^{a_1}p_2^{a_2}...p_d^{a_d}$ cause it has finite size
Parrot Tea
Is the ring of fractions a field here? How would you invert x/1+x?
(1+x)/x
But x is in (x)?
The field of fractions of any integral domain is a field, no matter what.
Yes, but we're not talking about the field of fractions
Wait, do you mean the ring of fractions of $S^{-1}K[x]$ where $S = (x)$?
Parrot Tea
sorry, I haven't touched this in a while
Are you sure you donât mean the localisation
Dunno about terminology. Using what Dummit and Foote use
In which case you would set S to be the complement of (x)
Yup, that then
arghgh, this is what doing 5 regression models a day gets you
lol
CoffeeMan
I think the unit argument still works when k is finite
Dang, that still leaves the case of k infinite with finite characteristic
What are the maximal ideals of k[[x]]?
I was just thinking of things that could work
Wait, if such an isomorphism, $f: k[x]_{(x)} \to K[[x]]$ existed, would it have to send x to x?
Parrot Tea
Those are not isomorphic
yeah striving for a contradiction
why?
Because that would show that your two rings arent isomorphic
Because they have different quotient fields
What is k(x)?
quotient field of k[x]
Wait who originally asked this question
CoffeeMan
Oh
I'm just a person failing at doing maths at midnight for no reason
Are they asking if the obvious map k[x]_(x) -> k[[x]] is a bijection
And I'm a person failing at doing maths
Or just if there is an abstract isomorphicm
just any isomorphism
^
Ty
Wait⌠cant you just do linear algebra
k[x]_(x) is a countable-dimensional vector space over k, but k[[x]] is uncountable-dimensional
I mean, ngl, wouldn't know how to argue that, but think I follow. But why is k[[x]] uncountable-dimensional?
Is N^N uncountable?
yesh
Yes
ah, ok
|N^N| >= 2^|N|
Ok, my set theory sucks, sry
Cantors diagonalization's argument?
Can't let my irrational hatred of set theory get me banned
Isnt this a standard linear algebra fact? That $\bigoplus_{\mathbb{N}} k$ and $\prod_{\mathbb{N}} k$ are not isomorphic?
Buncho Bananas
Mb, my uni decided to cut the linalg course into 2 parts and place the second part on graduate level, so...
ye, should prolly finish the linalg book this summer instead so I won't have problems like this
at least you did your uni's linalg course
~~parrottea didn't?
~~
parrot tea got a weird prohibition
Hmm so maybe its not âstandardâ and does involve some minor cardinal arithmetic
Because it doesn't work when it's infinite ?
Yeah ok
The infinite case is not taught in undergrad
Idk what youre saying, that statement is true for all fields
F_1
Idk what you mean by âthe infinite caseâ but i did learn this in an undergrad class :/
Finite $\cong$ Boring $\cong$ not making my head hurt
Parrot Tea
finite = combi = hard
I like combinatorics
Isn't this an algebra chat, shouldn't we be good at counting?
It doesn't make my head hurt
1, \dots, n, \dots
Indukcion

I'll trade
He doesn't exist
no eating babies 


ryu 
oyasumi
Sayonara
I've come across the phrase "Morita progenerator", in Assem's rep theory book with no explanation. Should I take it to be the P that shows up here in Morita's theorem? Perhaps someone who knows can confirm, but seems the most likely
Over the reals forms are just determined by their signature! But you were asking about p-adic forms I had thought.
oh this is a p-adic thing
I'd be interested in the proof of that 3d reduction thing then
how do I show this, D is a domain (not necessary commutative) and M_n(D) is semisimple then D is a division ring?
For some n?
i think this is in the first half of serre's "course in arithmetic"
"course in arithmetic" will never not be the funniest title to me
yeah no n is specified
if we replace E and Zp with GF(p^n) this statement still holds right
in other words the elements of GF(p^n) are exactly the zeros of the polynomial x^{p^n} - x in GF(p^n)[x]
correction: polynomial x^{p^n}-1 in GF(p)[x]
the statement you wrote is not technically wrong but it's not the direct translation of the theorem
huh okay i'll have to think about that thanks
i'm a bit confused about this question, is it asking me to show that x^p^n - x is the product of all the monic irreducible polynomials in Zp[x] of degree d dividing n or that the only factorization of x^p^n - x into monic irreducible polynomials are those of degree d dividing n
uhhh LOL could i get a hint im kind of stuck, i could upload what i wrote but my handwriting is so fucking messy
don't know if i'm on the right track or not negl
second pic is me fucking around and trying to figure shit out
while we're at it: I'm trying to prove that for some isomorphism M: G -> H, |M(x)|=|x| for all x in G. Assuming towards contradiction that such is not the case, I've determined that there exists some x such that one of the following must be true: M(x)^n=1 and x^n=/=1, or the reverse case. Something about the reverse case bothers me, though. Am I right in saying that it cannot exist because homomorphisms map identities together?
I suppose that's part of fully exploring the contradiction for the proof, but I'm not fully sure if that is accurate or not.
<@&286206848099549185>
is |x| denoting order here?
yes
you don't need contradiction
probably not, it's just a method I like exploring to start with
there are many proofs I like using contradiction for that don't really need it
<@&286206848099549185>
$Let \theta: G \rightarrow H$ be an isomorphism mapping. Assume that the order of $x$ is precisely $n$. Then it follows $\theta(x)^{n}$ = \theta(x^{n}) = \theta(e) = e.$
kodiak
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I'll leave you to do the minimality aspect.
that's the part that I'm working through. I know that the exponent commutes with the homomorphism, but I'm using contradiction for minimality
quoting it at me kinda defeats the purpose of creating the proof tbh.
I should've marked it as a spoiler, my bad
it's fine, I can just not read it until after.
but my general advice would be to get away from the habit of contradiction, I am also a habitual lover of contradiction but it can cloud direct arguments like this
in either case, I'd be employing my sanity check that homomorphisms map identity to identity
sure, but there are practical and philosophical reasons to avoid contradiction unless it is necessary
I'm also working a proof by contradiction because the second exercise is to show that this doesn't work for general homomorphisms, which would be shown much more quickly in a branch of the proof which allows for minimum counterexample
if you are interested in a counterexample: ||just consider a mapping between a cyclic group and a product of cyclic groups of non-relatively prime order like $\mathbb{Z}{4} \rightarrow \mathbb{Z}{2} \times \mathbb{Z}_{2}$. There are easily homomorphisms on these groups but they have different order structures||
it's a good thing I already finished both branches lol
I didn't really see it as a problem formulated in this form anywhere, but the motivation comes from Riemannian geometry. You can look at the manifold $S^3/\Gamma$, where $\Gamma$ is a subgroup of $\mathrm{SO}(4)$ acting freely on $S^3$. This is a Riemannian manifold. The question is essentially asking whether it would suffice (up to isometry) to look at the subgroups of $\mathrm{SU}(2)$.
gustavn64
Quick question: What's the dimension (as a vector space, of course) of a free Lie algebra on a set X?
Surely infinite if X is infinite, but what of when X is finite? Still infinite?
No? I mean take a 1 element set and have a finite dim lie algebra act on it
as in the free action on the set gets you back to the lie algebra itself
And if X has cardinality >1?
I mean I'm trying to see if [x, y], [x, [x, y]] and so on and so forth will just always be linearly independent (in which case it's infinite dimensional) or if skew-symmetry/Jacobi identity will produce enough identities to make the dimension finite. Doesn't seem clear on the face of it
can i get a hint for this question pls
think about Fp(a)
is that Zp(a) where a is a zero of x^{p^n} - x?
well i guess all fields of prime order p are isomorphic so it doesnt matter
yes
all finite fields of some order are unique up to iso 
yee
sorry i'm really confused as to where to go with this, i know that F_p(a) = GF(p^n)
what? how does 31.4 show that each alpha has degree dividing n? it only mentions two fields here, namely F and Zp
<@&286206848099549185>
You could write [F:Z_p] = [F:Z_p(alpha)] . [Z_p(alpha):Z_p]. The second term is the degree of alpha over Z_p
ah yeah that makes sense thanks
Elements of K can be characterised as being solutions to the equation t^p=t
Now if L isnât K, then a isnât 0 and so f should be irreducible
K can be an extension of F_p though
also not having roots doesn't automatically tell you it is irreducible
(unless i misinterpret whut you said >.<)
how did you show L = K(alpha)? it should be a simple check if you realized that 
yep exactly! so if g(t) was a factor of f(t) what would it look like?
(hint: ||what's the coefficient of t^(deg g - 1) in g||)
nah, i mean more like... you know all the roots of f, so you also can factorize g fully! can this g actually be a polynomial over K though?
pretty much!
because otherwise you'll have like some j * alpha + something where 0 < j < p

this is similar to how you show that x^q-a is irreducible when a is not a p^th power.
tubuwu 
detuwu 
did you eat food today? 
Doesnât really change anything. I donât take p to be prime but a power of a prime
Still all elements of K must satisfy t^p=t
what about an infinite extension?
No itâs given that K has degree p>0
also p is the char of K, so it is prime
p isnât infinite
Fields can have degrees that are powers of primes
p doesnât have to be prime
there is no degree for a field usually, degree is defined for an extension no?
and degree of [F_p^n:F_p] = n
I might have messed up terminology, I meant order as in number of elements in the field
Sorry!
not sure
so we only know that x^q-x-a has no roots, as every element of F_q satisfies x^q-x
Oh oh oh I see. Question says K has characteristic p and not order p
That breaks my argument
I really messed up my terminology
.<
đ¤Śââď¸

Det kawaii as always ><
i found a paper and it's saying that they're all 3d or 4d + n copies of the hyperbolic plane
not 3d + trivial
if a function and its derivative share roots, that tells you something more about f
It relates to the quadratic case when disc = 0, and I take it this generalises ig...
I got it down to $D = u_1 p^{40} + u_2 q^{24} + u_3 p^8 q + u_4 p^4 q^2 + u_5 p^2 q^4 + u_6 p q^8$
Parrot Tea
For some unknowns
I assumed that D is a homogeneous symmetric polynomial of degree 120
I may have messed up my counting
@spice whale Iâm pretty confident in what I said, however since some forms are equivalent itâs possible to describe these things in many different ways.
What is the âhyperbolic planeâ as a quadratic form? Is it x^2 - y^2
Yeah D is the evaluation of a homogeneous symmetric polynomial g(X_1,...,X_5) of degree 8 + 6 + 4 + 2 = 20, sending X_i to a distinct root of f
then $D = u_1q^4 + u_2p^5q$
Parrot Tea
Cause since G is symmetric we write it with the basic symmetric polynomials
and then evaluate noting that that the evaluation of the first, second, and fourth elementary symmetric polynomial is 0, and the third one is p, the fifth one is q
Then we just have to find two suitable polynomials to get some simultaneous equations and solve for u_1 and u_2
yes
Why is the condition Stab(G, ι) ⤠H ⤠G important for orb(ι, H) to be a block of imprimitivity?
in permutation groups
The proof is helpful, but not super enlightening since it's very algebraic
@spice whale then I think this is wrong, perhaps youâre looking at a classification of hermetian forms? For instance if p is 1 mod 4 then -1 is a square so the âhyperbolic planeâ is just the usual Euclidean quadratic form.
just partially learnt this. fancy stuff
know any cool way to solve this? :
Let G a group , Z the center of G , and f\in Aut(G). Prove that f(Z) is a subgroup of Z.
Z(G) char G
I'm not sure about the result I just wrote and too lazy to check atm. Try to show f(Z(G)) â Z(G)
remember g= f ( f^{-1}(g))
this is true but just a harder version of the problem they're trying to solve lol
Yeah
oh I forgot the definition of a characteristic subgroup for a second lmao
You can use this, but you don't really need this, you just need surjectivity
Sure
Itâs intrinsically defined
yeah it is
the paper is very explicitly about quadratic forms so like
idk
chapter 4 and 5
they prove the u-index of Q_p is 4 so my statement is true
@spice whale I donât know what the u-index is⌠but the statements youâve been making donât seem true/seem taken out of context. If I were you I would try to sit down and prove these things myself at this point. Itâs very easy to see whatâs going on which is why I donât really have any doubt about what Iâm saying about this
The three relevant things are: every quadratic form can be diagonalized, then diagonal quadratic forms are classified by their discriminant in K/K^2, their rank, and the product of the hilbert symbols of the diagonal entries, and taking direct sum with the trivial form only changes the rank
I would at this point give your 4th recommendation to read Serre
Well it is possible to compute the discriminant of f = x^n + ax + b in general by using the relation with the norm of the derivative evaluated at a root and rearranging cleverly
just take a = x
You can use a) with L=K and use the linear independence applied to a suitable vector space to conclude
@south patrol want a Galois problem?
duel over woman
But win
yes, Ultimate Chad
Yes pls
I have exam soonish
Show for an irrational $\alpha \in \overline{\mathbb Q}$, there exists an extension $E/\mathbb Q}$ not containing $\alpha$ s.t. any finite extension $F \subset \overline{\mathbb Q}$, $E/F$ is cyclic
basically this one
Btw, I'm assuming this is a past paper?
So I'm wondering how you managed to prove that # Galois group = [K:k] without using this as part of that
We did it a slightly different way but the standard way basically uses the method of this question
Ah okay sure nice
i downloaded it
any hints for this btw?
I am aware this is a special case of smth more general with cycle types tbh so trying to show that uh
If f in Z[x] is monic, separable and irreducible in F_p[x] then the Frobenius in a splitting field(which just cycles through the roots) corresponds to an n-cycle in the Galois group over Q
But I see no obvious way to relate the two things
yo guys
if we look at the gorup (G, *)
and want to define the inverse element of *
does it feature all a^-1 element of G that are inverese of a
but i have to throw an exception here?
\{0}?
the heck
* isn't an element of G, for starters
What does throwing an exception mean? This isnât a program
And you donât need to define an inverse
dude
i am talking about the inverse wth
??
how is it called in english
"the inverse element of *"
i understand the screenshot
das hat nichts zu tun mit dem was du geschrieben hast lol
implies * is an element
and still don't know what you're saying
Itâs a property of being a group that for any g in G, an element which we call g^-1 exists such that gg^-1 = g^-1g = e
Same here lol
One can then show such a g^-1 is unique
all a^-1 element of G
KRANKENWAGEN
i said it ehre
What does that sentence mean?
Klaus maybe just say it auf Deutsch lol given there are three other german speakers active rn lol
cereal bars are delicious
alter ich will nur wissen ob es in Gruppen ein inverses bezĂźglich * fĂźr alle elemente gibt, oder ob die 0 davon ausgeschlossen ist
fĂźr alle elemente
so schlecht kann mein englisch nicht sein
per definition
das wundert mich
hättest "with respect to" sagen mßssen
heiĂt bezĂźglich
0 * 0 = 0, wieder die identität
aso wieso gilt das bei kĂśrpern nicht?
Unter addition ist es ne abelsche gruppe
und wenn du ein inverses zu 0 hast dann geht alles kaputt
da gibts auch Ăźberall ein Inverses
vllt verwirrt es dich dass wir die identität in einer gruppe mit 0 bezeichnen
aber nicht unbedingt ein multiplikatives (bzw nur 0 hat keins)
kĂśnnten es ja auch 1 oder e nennen
jo
Was wäre 0 in einer arbiträrer Gruppe? Es gibt in einem KÜrper zwei Verknßpfungen und 0 ist das additives Neutralelement und hat also nichts (a priori) mit der Multiplikation einer Gruppe zu tun
passiert
Aber sowas (R, *) wäre zum Beispiel keine Gruppe wenn die 0 dabei ist?
ja weil 0 kein inverses hat
ah ok passt danke
de nada
Du passierst
ok fuck I'm having a brainfart here
I'm stuck on a definition
noic
why does this book have so many typos
which book oop
Lol wir haben zu viel Deutsche
( @velvet elk do you happen to have any hints for the q I did above btw? Idk if your notes covered stuff about cycle types and reduction mod p that I'm missing lol)
Or is the proof that no n cycles => always reducible mod p actually just easier lol
This q lol
trying to find the homology modules for $C_n = \mathbb{Z}/8\mathbb{Z}$, and boundary maps $x \mapsto 4x \pmod 8$\
i found $H_n \simeq \mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z}$. i don't think it's a heavy computation if anyone would be able to confirm this for me
maximo
Yes, each kernel is 2Z/8Z and each image is 4Z/8Z so we get Z/2
perfect, that's what i got. thank you potato
sorry potato for hijacking the channel. i have another question
what is meant by u mapping Hn(C) to Hn(D)?
i've shown boundaries -> boundaries and cycles -> cycles. i feel like im missing something fundamental about extending a homomorphism to act on a quotient module
ah is this saying u(Zn(C)) = Zn(D) and u(Bn(C)) = Bn(D)
Not quite, it means u(Z_n(C)) \subseteq Z_n(D) etc
Hopefully it's clear why that leads to the map on homology
right this is clear to me
sorry for ping
oh i think it's coming back to me
if u is the chain complex map, then the induced map u_* : Hn(C) -> Hn(D) is just given by u_*[x] = [u(x)] right
if so it's clear to me yeah
hm i think im confused. is the question asking me to define that induced map, or is that understood already. there is no mention of it in the text
ok i found something on mse that is a little more general. i'll try to go off of that
thank you again potato
yeah ok it seems like we just know Hn(u)[x] = [u(x)] for any [x] in Hn(C), it just wasn't mentioned
Let $K$ be a number field and $\alpha_1, \ldots \alpha_n \in \mathcal{O}K$ a $\mathbb{Q}$-basis of $K$ such that $\langle \alpha_1, \ldots, \alpha_n \rangle{\mathbb{Z}} \subsetneqq \mathcal{O}_K$. The initial problem I wanna solve is to prove that there is some type of algorithm to find an integral basis. Now, I'm proving this right now, and I'm struggling to show that $\mathcal{O}K/\langle \alpha_1, \ldots, \alpha_n \rangle{\mathbb{Z}}$ has an element of order $p$ (prime). Any ideas?
lewis
well for a general p just use cauchyâs theorem once you know the index is finite but you can have strong restrictions on p do you know how ?
sounds pretty alg-nt, i feel the following works, but not super sure. me never studied alg-nt properly 
if K is the splitting field and pO_K = (P_1 ... P_r)^e , then i think the assumptions imply that P_i have residue field F_p^n. If D is a decomposition group, i.e. subgroup of Gal(K/Q) fixing one of the primes say P, then it will give you an injective map D --> Gal(F_p^n/F_p) = Z/nZ. but order of D would be [K:Q]/r = ne and it so this is also surjective and e = 1. so you get to pullback the frobenius and get yourself a nice n-cycle in D.
not sure how, how would you do that
Thanks! @lethal dune @chilly radish @formal ermine @next obsidian
you have two Z- modules of rank n one is a submodule of the other, finiteness of the index comes from usual results on modules over pidâs, for the other part well p will divide the discriminant of $K$over $\mathbb{Q}$ and thatâs because if you have a sub $\mathbb{Z}-module$ of the free $\mathcal{O}K$ you gain an ÂŤÂ adapted base  I forgot the exact name of your $\mathbb{Z}-module$ and a matrix sending the base of $\mathcal{O}K$ to the base of the $\mathbb{Z}-module$ the determinant of which is exactly the initial index now use this matrix and its determinant to find a formula to link both the discriminant $D{K/\mathbb{Q}}=D{\mathcal{O}K/\mathbb{Z}$ and $D{\mathbb{Z}[\alpha_i,i]/\mathbb{Z}$
rayane
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if you donât see it I can give you the answer, btw in fact in general you just have to worry about non-totally ramified primes, also this is number theory so this isnât the right place to talk about that
Ye using the decomp group is definitely how to do it with alg nt
even more $p^2$ divides the discriminant
rayane
@south patrolpotato are you speciliased in abstract algebra only?
just didn't know if this would be considered advanced number theory, but how is the determinante exactly the initial index, that's the part that i don't quite see
the rest i can figure that out
if $(e_i)_i$ is a $\mathbb{Z}$-base of $\mathcal{O}_K$ there are some $a_i$ such that $(a_ie_i)_i$ is a $\mathbb{Z}$-base of $\mathbb{Z}[\alpha_i,i]$ now first the morphism sending the $e_i$to the $a_ie_i$ has determinant the product of the $ a_i$âs immediatly (the matrix is diagonal) and $\mathcal{O}_K/\mathbb{Z}$ is isomorphic to $\bigoplus_i\frac{\mathbb{Z}}{a_i\mathbb{Z}}$ which shows the determinant and the index coincide
rayane
oh yeah I didnât mention the matrix going from the $\alpha_i$ to the $a_ie_i$ is invertible in $\mathbb{Z}$ so has determinant +-1 which justifies that the two index are the same
If f mod p was irreducible then Frobenius acts transitively on the roots!
rayane
No
Yes I meant like relating it to the Galois group over Q
But yeah seems you need a big-ish theorem relating Galois group over Q to mod p stuffs
i could need a German in proofs and logic to proofread some of my stuff -_-
a lot of people here speak german
^
KRANKENWAGEN
What is Krankenwagen
ambulance
funnily enough you can also translate ambulance as ambulanz in german
for the dramatic effect
Of what?
it
Proving you speak German?

Ich kann nicht Deutsch sprechen
You don't need a big theorem, you just need to know that automorphisms mod p lift to the p-adics, you can show more generally that this is true for any henselian local ring/complete hausdorff local ring.


