#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 103 of 1
If there was an injection R^n \to R
Then we would get an injection F^n \to F which is impossible by linear algebra
from dimension counting?
The reason that F^n \to F would have to be injective is because localization preserves injections.
Yes from dimension counting you see that this is only possible when n = 1 or 0.
They have a basis 
A free module is just $R \oplus R \oplus \dots R$ for some set of factors.
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
but could be infinite
Basically it means that, as wew is saying, there is a set of generators with no relations.
infinite factors
Yes some set of factors, not necessarily finite.
The problem with ideals is that (a, b, ...) always has the relation ba - ab = 0.
Another way of thinking about freeness is that each element can be uniquely expressed as some combination of some fixed (basis) set of elements
that is my intuition
So this wouldn’t be free as ab = ba - two different ways of writing the same element (one with a being a scalar, and one with b being a scalar)
I just think of freeness as being like a vs
The things me and topos are saying are equivalent so go with whatever 
ok and free modules with finite basis of size n are always isomorphic to R^n as R modules, right?
Yus
My face when Z is isomorphic to 2Z
is it not true?
As Z modules sure lol
Modules do not contain a multiplicative identity, hence 2Z not containing 1 doesnt matter right
I know everyone has a different way to multiply cycles so it will probably be hard to help me
but I went wrong somewhere and I got: (1,2,7)(3,5)(4,6)(8)
I know 3 goes to 5, and then when f is applied, 5 doesn't move
so why is it (3,5,8)
5 goes to 3 then goes to 8
ye, it's true
I recently learnt a nice generalization of that
ok but aren't you supposed to always start with the lowest possible number
like since (1,2,7) is a cycle the next cycle starts with (3,..)
g changes 5
g sends 5 to 3
Ok lets assume what you say is true
5 gets sent to 3, then 3 to 8
so it will just be a transposition (5,8)
this topic is so confusing for no reason
If I'm not mistaken this just breaks my lecturer's method of multiplying cycles
Would you mind sharing how you do it?
take the smallest number and write it down
apply g then f
find out the number and write it down
apply g then f to this number
find out the number and write it down
etc until this number is one of your previous numbers
close the parenthesis
choose the next smallest number that has not been written down
do the same thing again
until you run out of numbers
ok right now im at 3
applying g to 3 gives 5
then applying f to 3 gives 8
f doesn't move 5
it does nothing exactly
so 3 goes to 5
now write down (35 and apply g to 5 and f to whatever the result is
it makes sense now
im not exactly sure where my confusion was but its gone
thanks for your patience

Indeed a Z-module is just an abelian group equivalently
And 2Z and Z are clearly isomorphic as groups
If you wanna think of it in a more natural way lol
yes
ong?
I pointed out that Z is iso to 2Z in response to this
It should not be surprising anymore
If you think of fields as commutative rings with no nontrivial ideals, it becomes clearer imo
It's interesting to me personally that the equivalent for noncommutative rings is so different: noncommutative rings with no nontrivial two-sided ideals are matrix rings over division rings
Like, you'd really want it to be just division rings, but no...
No
iff it's projective
Almost never
stupid question sorry
Bruh now it looks like I'm talking to myself
take any cyclic group over Z as a counter example
related to the above topic (kind of): are there any equivalent conditions for all nonzero ideals of a ring to be isomorphic to a power of the subring of that ring as the subring modules? e.g. this is true for the ring of integers of a number field: every non zero ideal is isomorphic to Z^n as Z mods where n is the degree of the number field
yup I expect so
I'd do smith normal yeah
or just bash them together like a caveman until they became linearly independant
but that allows me to calculate R^3/N
what about N
how do i find a basis for N?
what have you tried
anything would be a good start but one mo
$N = \langle (X^2, X^3, X^5+X), (1, X+1, X^2+1), (X, X, X) \rangle$
Wew
yeah
then do this 
Wew is suggesting you use Gaussian Elimination
oh
for the second part
2nd part has to be smith normal surely
Yeah
it does
but
im wondering
do i need to use the linear independent list in the second part
or use original matrix
both should work right?
both should work yeah, they span the same space
ill get an isomorphic cokernel?
i can only elemntary row operations right?
not column
seems to be Linearly independant already
if im not mistaken
this shit is painful
Does a group G have a subgroup for every factor of |G|?
I mean H <= G and |H| is a factor of |G|
if it's abelian sure
otherwise not necessarily
e.g. A_4 has no subgroup of order 6
or more generally
for n \geq 5 A_n can't have a subgroup of index 2 as that would mean it's no longer simple
I see
if G is not abelian you have the sylow theorems
I'm trying to prove "If G has an even order, then G has an element of order 2"##
I think the intended way is proof by contradiction
but I'm trying to do it directly
by lagrange
It’s easier to prove it directly
How? I can only show the element is of even order
But not by lagrange
It’s even order, so you can split the elements into pairs
There’s a particular pairing which is useful here
each element with its inverse?
Yes, exactly
I think this is the 1st sylow theorem
There’s at least one element that doesn’t pair up nicely
Sylow
it's simpler than sylow
I'm kinda lost
Yeah it’s just cauchy, of which I’m trying to guide someone through a proof of
is the left over element the identity?
It is, yes
So how does that show there's an element of order 2
I think what wew meant to say was that you're supposed to pair every element in G \ { e } with its inverse
Because there’s an even number of elements, and all but one can be paired up with their inverses - there must be a second element that can’t be paired too
No, I didn’t
You can’t pair them up, that’s an odd number
Then why “correct” me?
holy fuck
and that element is b^2 = e
Yes! Since that element can’t be paired with its inverse it must be equal to its own inverse - cause everything else is in a pair (or is the identity…)!
No worries - this is one of those proofs which is very memorable but near impossible to come up with
For what it’s worth, I think you can do this with Lagrange as well but I can’t remember it and it’s not nearly as cool
I was learning mobius transformations, and then wondered how many group actions are there? I know there's a library website for groups/rings/fields has everything been discovered about group actions or its just another tool that is not "perfect"
for finitely generated module over a PID
we have this, "M is torsion free if and only if M is free"
why is that true?
the quotients R/(a_i) will give you torsion elements if they are not trivial
,av tterra

kilroy
will those kill the free part?
a_i is a torsion element of R/(a_i)
but a_i is not a torsion element of R
can you explain?
no
ActiveChapter
any m can be written as (r_1, \cdots, r_n, r mod (a))
how does this get killed by a ?
What does an element of the direct sum look like?
tuples?
(0, \cdots, 0, 1) is very clearly torsion
free => flat :packwatch:
How could it be torsion as a vector space
You just showed that free modules are torsion free
I’m not smart
but thanks
How would i do it though? M if finite dimensional over k => M is torsion module over k[X]
i did the other direction
other is false >.<
f.g. torsion => f.d.
(but i assumed u had that implicitly >.<)
wym?
i got a perfect score on my final. thanks for all of your help this semester y'all!
Hello, I hope this is the right channel for representation theory. I am doing an exercise where I should write down a complete basis of symmetric rank 2 tensors, and then use this basis to express the representation of generators of the rotational subgroup of D6 (i.e. rotations of $2\pi /6$ about the $z$-axis.
I have constructed a basis of symmetric rank 2 tensors by just using
$E{ij} \equiv \frac{1}{2}(e_i \otimes e_j + e_j \otimes ei)$
but I can't figure out how to figure out how to write the representation of the rotation in this basis. I know the fundamental representation of the rotation and I know how my symmetric basis tensors transform under this rotation giving me 6 equations $E'{ij}$ as a linear combination of the untransformed $E_{ij}$ but I'm really stuck here. Any pointers? Should I use the fact that you can decompose rank 2 tensors into a Kronecker delta, an anti symmetric part and a traceless symmetric part?
Solklar
The question specifically asks "a complete basis of second rank symmetric tensors under rotations", I am unsure of what effect the "under rotations" has on the sentence before
Under just the rotations coming from D_6?
you sound like a physicist, no offense
Yes exactly only the rotation subgroup
Haha you got me
you can define a group action of D_6 on the two basis vectors as it acts on R^2
just torsion doesn't imply f.d.
but its torsion over k[x]
and i showed that its f.d over k
like so like consider infinite product of k[x]/(f)
it's torsion, as f kills everything
so but f.d. over k
but if you assumed f.g. over k[x], then you good
Wait also are you starting with a 3-dimensional representation where D_6 acts trivially on the z axis?
I know how the fundamental rep of the rotation looks like, I am just unsure of how I can write it in a basis of symmetric tensors
oh i did
are you allowed to use structure thm? >.<
yes
nice :3
im not sure about the reverse direction xd
M being f.d over k => M is torsion over k[x]
Yeah so the fundamental representation is $\begin{pmatrix}1/2 & -\sqrt{3}/2 & 0 \ \sqrt{3}/2 & 1/2 & 0 \ 0 & 0 & 1\end{pmatrix}$ but I have no idea how I could write this in a basis for symmetric tensors, since it's not even symmetric itself
Solklar
f.d. implies f.g. so you can use structure thm 
yeah I agree with you, that matrix generates the other reps
yes so M = k^n
The tensors are living in the tensor algebra for the representation, and I'm confused what you mean by write this in a basis for symmetric tensors?
not sure where to get next
They just want you to find the invariants in Sym^2V where V is that representation
show that free part is 0, so the remaining must be torsion
So the matrix I wrote is the "fundamental" representation using cartesian basis vectors, the question asks "Write down a complete basis of second rank symmetric tensors under rotations
and use this basis to express the representation of the generators of the rotational
subgroup" and I'm super confused
A basis for Sym^2V is just the usual symmetric tensors (it's a 6 dimensional vector space) and you can write out the action on simple tensors explicitly.
right, NOW I get it 
Then the invariants are just solving for the 1-eigenspace of the generating rotation.
a direct proof woudl be to say consider the elements {m, xm, x^2m, ...} as these are infinite, they must linearly dependent over k. so a certain linear combi must be 0, this gives you a nice non-zero polynomial which kills m
I found out how this representation of the rotation acts on the symmetric tensors constructed by just using symmetric, i.e. how the basis tensors $E_{ij} = \frac{1}{2}(e_i\otimes e_j + e_j \otimes e_i)$ transform under this rotation, is that what you mean by action on simple tensors?
Solklar
One invariant tensor that you know exists is \sum_i v_i \otimes v_i since that's invariant under any rotation.
e_1 transforms as it does inside of v
So if $\sigma$ is the rotation then $\sigma(e_1 \otimes e_2) = \sigma(e_1) \otimes \sigma(e_2)$
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
Yeah so I have 6 expressions, one of them is for example
$\sigma(E_{11}) = \frac{1}{4}(E_{11} + 3E_{22}) - \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}E_{12}$
which I got from doing that. What I'm confused about is how I go from these expressions to expressing the representation in this new basis. Is it supposed to be a 3x3 matrix?
So Sym^2V is a 6-dimensional vector space so if you tried to do this in the most doctrinaire way it would be a 6x6 matrix
i understand this
Solklar
There are however, certain subspaces that you can throw out and restrict to a smaller subspace where the eigenvalue problem is easier.
how would i show this though? $M \cong K[x]^m \oplus K[x]/(f_i)$
ActiveChapter
showing that m = 0
Because V = W \oplus 1 where 1 is the trivial representation (the z axis)
Not everything is known for group actions. For example, take the notion of a primitive action. Classifying these for finite groups is equivalent to finding all maximal subgroups of a finite group. Computational evidence suggests this is a hopeless problem in general, and as for the finite simple groups, the maximal subgroups of the monster group are still unknown.
Ah I see, thank you! Is there any easy way of going from the expressions I have to writing down the 6x6 matrix? (Sorry this is ELIphysicist)
Maybe it should be mentioned, since you don't seem to be aware: transitive group actions correspond to subgroups up to conjugacy, and every action is a 'direct sum' (whatever that means) of transitive group actions, so in some sense it is fair to say that every group action is 'known'.
oh that may not be true...
you have M = k[x]^r ⊕k[x]/(f1)⊕k[x]/(f1) ... ⊕k[x]/(fn)
each of k[x]/f_i is f.d. but notice that's not the case with k[x].
so only way M is f.d. is if r = 0
"M f.d." = manifold
Is this related to how you can decompose a rank 2 tensor into a kronecker delta, anti symm part and symmetric traceless part?
did someone say the burnside ring I think I heard someone say the burnside ring
👂 🤚
Not exactly
but the basis for Sym^2 is related to this
But let's see if I understand the question correctly, they want me to find out how this representation acts on the space of symmetric rank 2 tensors?
Yes so they want you to write out how a rotation acts on the basis E_{i, j}
wouldnt k[x] be f.d over itself?
trivially
since we are considering M as a k[x] module, and M is f.g as a k[x] module
Ahhhh okay now I got it finally I think, so if I express the symmetric subspace as a 6x1 "vector" I'm looking for the 6x6 matrix that represents the rotation? Because that I can do
Yep exactly
right, but we're talking about dimension of M over k.
Thank you!!!
There are smarter ways of doing this but I think it's good to practice just doing it by hand
f.d. as a k-vector space implies it's f.g. as a k[x]-module
Yes for now it will do lol, thanks again (!!)
Wait
im proving that M is f.d over k => M is torsion over k[x]
yep
so as k[x] module, M = k[x]^r ⊕k[x]/(f1)⊕k[x]/(f1) ... ⊕k[x]/(fn)
but you are saying that k[x] is not f.d ?
over k yes
(you usually dont' use the word "dimension" unless the thing is a vector space)
for general free modules, people prefer the word "rank"
k[x] over k[x] has dimension 1?
yea rank 1 :p
im super confused
M = k^n as k module
and M = k[x]^r ⊕k[x]/(f1)⊕k[x]/(f1) ... ⊕k[x]/(fn) as k[x] module
a little imprecise, but okie >.<
i didnt understand how you forced r = 0
so isomorhpism of k[x] modules also gives you an isomorhpism as k-vector space
just forget that multiplication by x is a thing
so the left side is finite dimension over k
if r was non-zero then the right side would be infinite dimensional
so you're force to have r = 0
and now the remaining part k[x]/(f1)⊕k[x]/(f1) ... ⊕k[x]/(fn) is a torsion k[x]-module
infact the single polynomial f = f1 f2 ... fn kills the entire thing at once!
uwu? 
not yet 
how?
an isomorhpism is a k[x] linear bijection
so in particular it's a k-linear bijection
as k is a subring of k[x]
right?
like maybe we can look at the same situation over abelian groups.
finite abelian group if and only if torsion and finitely generated
right
if A is a finite abelian group, then it is finitely generated. so by structure theorem,
A = Z^r ⊕Z/a1 ... Z/an
so k^n = k[x]^r ⊕k[x]/(f1)⊕k[x]/(f1) ... ⊕k[x]/(fn) as k-modules, yeah?
but since A is finite and Z is infinite, r must be 0
yee 
uwu

thank you 🙂
np
So I sps this is like the chain rule
but shouldnt the left be DF(x_1,..., x_n) and not DF(X_1,...,X_n) ?
I think this notation is just bad, LHS should be something like $(D(F(x_1, \dots, x_n)))$
Topos_Theory_E-Girl

also the end should be (D(X_i))(x_i)
oh nvm, you're right... i assumed D is a derivation on k[X1, ..., Xn] i think they mean it's a derivation on R
so yea only the left needs to be little x_i instead of big X_i
.<
@rotund aurora >.< gomen
gomen?
I dont speak anime

d-det chan, p-please keep speaking in weebiness
ryu 
just to check uh
to show F(X) has trivial centre provided |X| >= 2, does it suffice to say like
(thinking in terms of classes of words) take a reduced word w such that its class [w] is in Z(F(X)); suppose w is non-empty, so it starts with some letter x. Pick y in X, not equal to x. By hypothesis, yw and wy are equivalent words. But yw is reduced by construction, so, by uniqueness of reduced words, wy must be reduced too (or it would reduce to smth shorter than wy). But then again by uniqueness, this means yw = wy as words - impossible, since only one of them starts with y
yee
I’m a bit confused on the final part
What’s the motivation of defining the binary operation like that? The markscheme didn’t show what the homomorphism actually is, I presume it’s T( (a,b)+H)=a?
if i had to write a really precise answer that's what i would have written. but i would think about it more like this: in yw the letters y and x always appear in that order. your reduction rules don't change this so it can never be transformed to wy where somehow x is now first.
that's a general construction in algebra called "quotienting". you take a nice subgroup, and declare that to be 0, to get a fun new group. for example in Z if you declare 5Z to 0, then you get the group {0, 1, 2, 3, 4} under addition mod 5
Yup sure
Thanks
I remember thinking like hm I wonder if there is a purely categorical proof of this
But yeah idk lol
Actually maybe that is true lol so like
is an algebraic extension necessarily finite
Nope
i know finite implies algebraic
Say $x,y$ are distinct elements of $X$. Take your favourite non-abelian group $G$, with elements $r,s$ that don't commute. There's a map $F(X) \to G$ sending $x \mapsto r$ and $y \mapsto s$. Absurd.
Hehe okay that is cute
Yeah
So I think the funniest way to create a counterexample is like
trying to show this
What is the biggest algebraic extension of Q you can think of (that's contained in C)
hint: it's tautologial
Oh this can just be done by hand
isnt it just Qbar
But yeah probably the easiest example to explicitly show is like
Okay maybe there are easier examples, but for me it'd be uh
take Q and adjoin all the (2^n)-th roots of 2
Lol

Wait why r u assuming that there's an element of X in the centre
Wait
Yeah okay that was dumb
Good point
Lol
aiukgyahbglyhb
Okay so my original ting worked better
wb this then tho
You need find a group that allows you to send some word w to an element r and some letter y to an element s
Yeah
Yeah so maybe the wordy one is cool
Use the defn of being algebraic
Hug
You don't need any finiteness conditions
yup
Nonabelian geometry solved
What does 'F is algebraic in K' mean
sorry wait im doing the dumb

det appears
wait
nvm
but what info do we get about L from K being algebraic
i realized shin and potato already discussed whut i said >.<
nothing, that's why you're asking stuff being algebraic over L... if both K and L were alg over F, then you could also say that KL is alg over F
wait im not sure i get that
i was thinking if E was algebraic over K
then L would have to be algebraic over F since it's like an intermediate to an algebraic extension E/F
Hint: ||KL=L(K)||
right... but we only need to show KL is alg over L, not necessarily over F.
which is why we don't need any assumptions about L

my hint would be more like ||consider the set of elements in E which are alg over L, by magic this is a field. it contains K and L||
Hmm that also works
I was thinking ||just use the fact that extension generated by alg elements is alg||
havent looked at the last two hints but
does this make KL just automagically algebraic?
since K is algebraic
i know that is a is irreducible then F(a)/F is algebraic
Wdym by an irreducible element
sorry not irreducible, algebraic
but it would also be the root of an irreducible polynomial over F
that's unrelated just reminding myself
Ok in this case maybe det's hint would work better for you
i still wanna know 
like if it was FK that would be enough but we dont have any info about L
You don't need info about L
Well, except that it contains F
What I was getting at is that an extension generated by algebraic elements is algebraic
Do you know this?
i thought i did, but im getting mixed up
oh wait
im dumb
F doest matter
it's algebraic over L
then my confusion is, K is algebraic over F, what about those elements of L that are not in F, we dont know if they're algebraic over L do we?

K/F algebraic doesnt give information about elements of K over L
i know im not thinking straight rn but bear w my silliness pls 
it doess because F[x] is a subring of L[x]
a in K satisfies f in F[x] then it also satisfies f in L[x]

oh
that's why shin said use definition of algebraic
if an element of K satisfies a polynomial in F
then adjoining that to L doesnt change that
since F is in L so the same polynomial will be in L when it's the "base field" of KL/L
thank you det
for this question, how do we think about F(a)[x]
asking bc i already think of F(a) as F[x]/(m_a(x))
polynomials with coefficients in F(a)
and you can imagine F(a) as polynomials in a with coefficients in F that cut off at some power
Take something like $\mathbb Q(\sqrt2) = {a+b\sqrt2\mid a,b\in \mathbb Q}$ so the coefficients in your polynomial look like $a+b\sqrt2$.
It's the same for polynomials with complex coefficients since $\mathbb C \cong \mathbb R(i)$.
Zybikron
That's a bit deceptive, F(a) denotes the smallest field containing F and a, and while your statement is true when a is algebraic over F, it isn't true when a is transcendental, in that case F(a) is the quotient field of F[a], viewing a as a letter
In no way is it deceptive
It literally says in the problem that a is algebraic
Sorry, I thought you were giving a definition for F(a)
im not sure why the answer here to the first part is correct
or well i dont see how this implies irreducibility
i got that
different question: Suppose $\mathbb{K}/\mathbb{F}$ is a field extension and that $v,u \in \mathbb{K}$. If $v$ is transcendental over $\mathbb{F}$ and algebraic over $\mathbb{F}(u)$, show that $u$ is algebraic over $\mathbb{F}(v)$.
is there a way to connect the polynomial in F(u) whose root is v to like
not sebbb not stμ₂dying
the minimal polynomial of u in F(v)?
actually can i somehow use that a finite extension is algebraic
Can you TeX the whole question?
Oh I thought this was related to the MO post
oh no this is different
this was the last thing about the MO posst
Okay well so the goal is just to show that [F(u, v):F(v)] is finite
oh?
Yes that's what it means to show algebraicity
oh that makes more sense after the edit
hmmm okay
iss F(v) finite?
not sure if ik anything about adjoining transcendental elements
ive just been thinking abt transcendental as not algebraic
uhhhhh
well v transcendental
i mean im not sure what a transcendental extension really means
though i guess you gave a hint, it's "not algebraic"
So because F(u) is transcendental, what do the subextensions of F(u) look like/
you can determine the order of an element of a factor group by simply computing it's order in G right?
oh wait
until it is in the factor gorup
group
not necessarily
for example if we have the factor group G/H and x is in H then xH has order 1 but x might not be the identity in G
ah that makes sense
v should be algebraic over that intersection right
sorry for disappearing topos :(
you can check #「the-obsidian-twink-jesus」 for why i was MIA
me inactive
:(
for K/F what does it mean to say that K is generatedd over F by a finite number of separable elements
does this just mean like
K = F(a1, ... an)
Where each one is separable
is anyone good at algebra 2
Wrong channel
From Lang Chapter 6 section 10, is $Tr_G$ well defined for $#(G)$ infinite
Parrot Tea
yeah if G is a group with identity element e, then
(xH)^n = eH in G/H
iff
x^n is in H
There’s no infinite sum
what does this mean?
what does the matrix of the map look like?
diagonal matrix with only a's ?
nu
pick a Q-basis of k
Now multiplication by a of any basis element is a Q-linear combi of other basis thingies
That's the matrix
So its a matrix with entries in Q, not k
ofc is a was in Q to begin with then its exactly diag(a,...,a)
yes
when it says det(a) and tr(a), that means of the matrix right
well this is a different way to define what tr and det are. and yes it fits together with the matrix
Why do you want to know this? It is an interesting question but irrelevant to the picture that you posted.
because there are questions asking to find the discriminant of a polynomial lol
What degree?
mth degree
There is a general definition but it might not be right for this question.
Hmmm
Okay well in general K[x] is a euclidean domain, and the discriminant is (up to a sign) the gcd(f(x), f'(x)) where f'(x) is the derivative.
oh
You can turn this into the problem of finding a p(x) of degree < n and a q(x) of degree < n-1 such that p(x)f'(x) + q(x)f(x) = 0 which turns this into a linear algebra question as you can make a (2n-1)^2 square matrix out of the coefficients of f, f' which has a 0-eigenvector iff f, f' have a gcd. This is the discriminant.
Alternatively if you know the roots of $f(x) = \prod_i (x - a_i) $ then the discriminant is $\prod_{i < j} (a_i - a_j)^2$
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
i see
i see
Let $f(x) \in K[x]$ have splitting field $L$. Is $\textrm{Aut}(\tfrac{L(\mu_n)}{K(\mu_n)})$ a subgroup of $\textrm{Aut}(\tfrac{L}{K})$?
Jeeves
($\mu_n$ is a primitive root of unity)
Jeeves
This is the first part of a question and I've done all the later parts, so I know that this can't be hard to show 😢
Have you tried drawing a square?
with K, L, K(\mu_n), L(\mu_n) as vertices
To show a correspondence between the automorphisms?
yea
I've thought about it but I got hung up on how the roots of unity may interfere with the roots of f
And so 'hypothetically' the roots may permute differently
They might, f could be the m cyclotomic polynomial for m|n
Why don't you draw the square
sure 👍
Just to check, suppose you have a cyclic subgroup with order n, does the order of every element in the cyclic subgroup divide n?
yup
So it's just because we can restrict any L-automorphism in L(mu_n) to a K-automorphism in K(mu_n)?
And to one of L
And if both of those are trivial then the automorphism is trivial
It took a while for me to 100% to convince myself but I get it
One more thing - do we use the fact that any of these extensions are Galois?
Ah because of the fixed fields ofc
You could probably prove the statement if K(\mu_n) wasn't galois? not really sure though, it would be a bit different at least.
Every Galois theory question I get stuck on just requires faith in embeddings that I need to develop
thanks for the help 🙂
I think the key point is that L/K is Galois right, or am I doing stuff differently lol
Yeah I guess in general this line of reasoning shows that Gal(LK/F) = Gal(L/L \cap K)
if L/F is galois
Poggies
I’m a bit confused on the final part, how does it know that a is a power of c and commutes?
The notation is horrible
But they're just saying if ac^n = c^m then a is a power of c
c commutes with its powers obviously
I see thanks
Is there a general approach when trying to find the size of a subgroup?
No
Two elements in a group can generate a group of almost any order given some obvious restrictions.
If the group is abelian then it is trivial to see the size of the group they generate
otherwise hard.
Just throw all of the standard theorems at it and hope something helps
hmm. i think there is some process to find presentations of groups…
i remember seeing something about it but i can’t find anything on it right now
If they are finite there is obviously an algorithm, but that's not what was asked.
the difference between endomorphisms and automorphisms is that the former isn't necessarily a bijection right
yes
Endo -> source=target, auto->endo and iso
an endo maybe epi and mono but an auto must be epi + mono, iso
epi(c)
I assume you’re working in some category where bijection makes sense
yeah field automorphisms
Could’ve gone for the mega pedantry right there
all categories are concrete
all rings are domains
u wot
i was trying to do a silly but did it wrong
if we say K is generated over F by a finite number of separable elements
that's not enough to say K is finite is it
It doesn't make sense to talk about elements being separable unless they're algebraic
any fg algebraic extension is finite
Yeah I guess you could say transcendental elements are separable
That would be natural
then the answer is no
i guess the right definition of separable is doesn't satisfy an irreducible polynomial with repeated roots
oh in that way it's kinda somewhere between being transcendental and algebraic
24 hr galois speedrun is so fun
not impossible though
sounds possible
Does “inseparable” mean “not separable”, or does “separable” mean “not inseparable” 
Math has to be flawed
I have no idea how i can show it. My first ide was to show, that e=yxxy and e=xyyx but that doesn't help at all. Can someone give me a hint?
You actually get x^2y^2 = e
and yx^2y = e
(except e :p)
because xy=x-1y-1 is true for all x and y so its also true when y=e ?
Im a bit confused
but that makes sense
Thanks, I think I get it now
How would I go about proving that if A and B are subgroups of (Z_n, +), then |A| = |B| <=> A = B? If it's true at all. I feel like I just need a nudge in the right direction and hopefully I haven't been trying to prove something that's false
It is true.
Maybe a hint that will help: try to show that every subgroup is cyclic, then count the orders of elements.
there's no need to prove that Z_n under addition is cyclic, right
I guess that's basically the definition of Z/nZ
But if you feel like it's not obvious from your definition it couldn't hurt to prove it
Does anyone have a cute application/demonstration of the chinese remainder theorem (the modular arithmetic one ofc)
solving system of modular equations?
Sure but like
I was wondering if there's some neat way of using it that I can show my class
It's useful for counting large numbers of things precisely
Human memory is very fallible in storing numbers with more than 6-7 digits so it's better to do multiple passthroughs with modular arithmetic
Not a very sexy application though, but militaries have used it to count supplies for ages.
Huh, that's interesting
This was generalized to mathematical computing eventually. In parallel processing it's a common speedup if you have lots of independent cores
For the polynomial one partial fractions and lagrange interpolation
There are also the cryptographic applications of CRT
Like secret sharing amongst k people.
of a codeword N less than p_1...p_k
I know RSA implementations use it also
yeah
Don't remember RSA using CRT 
I don't think there's really anything I can show them within this timeframe, i'll probably just end up reformulating it for them in terms of solving systems of modular equations and do an example since they saw it as a statement about a group isomorphism
very common in decryption algos for RSA
Thanks, just finished it.
Anyone have good reference texts on finite group theory?
Stuff about actions and representations and the like
@delicate orchid
I have another one
Let (G, *) be a group and a, b from G with order n. Let a * b = b * a. Prove that n is divisible by the order of a * b
Do I just use the Lagrange theorem here?
Yea probably
Representations and Characters of groups - Liebeck, James. Fulton Harris is a classic also
You're going to want to compute the order of a and b in terms of the order of a and the order of b
Actually no you don't
But yes Lagrange
can somebody give me a hint for this question? i feel like i have to use the fact that 33 can be written as 11 x 3 where 11 and 3 are primes
How would I proceed if I don't?
what does it mean if they are prime
i.e. what does it imply
well that they're cyclic
but doesn't a cyclic subgroup of G not imply that G is cyclic
but all the subgroups are cyclic
ag true
I am not good at group theory lol sry
just find a relevant subgroup
tbh this question sounds like it could possibly use like sylow p-subgroups
off the top of my head this is some Sylow bs
lol all good
oh shit
haven't gotten to that yet
ig makes sense since this is a practice final from another algebra class
maybe there's a way without Sylow
i stg this was a gallian problem tho
but off the top of my head that's how you do it
like if G has order pq where p and q are primes
then show that G is cyclic
hm ok
oh nah
the proof was to prove that every proper subgroup of G was cyclic
it is
if |G| = pq where p and q are primes
and you prove that using Sylow
not to prove that G itself is cyclic
in the case that p doesn't divide q - 1 at least
math is fake
oh huh must have missed it then
in which case then it's easy
don't know what a centraliser is sadly
or the direct product theorem
also how much did Cauchy contribute to algebra
wtf is this
Cauchy very important
i know he was huge in analysis but the only mention i've seen so far is him noticing that R[x]/<x^2 + 1> was iso to C
at least that's all i've seen mentioned in the texts that i've been reading
and every group is embedded into S_n
idk
ok so the centralizer of $A \leq G$ is denoted $C_G(A)$ and it's ${ x \in G \mid \forall a \in A,~ xa = ax}$
Spamakin🎷
so all elements of G that compute with all elements of A
idk what they mean by direct product theorem
ohh ok
yeah me neither
can i get a hint for this question? trying to show inclusion in both directions, farthest i've got is letting {1, c, c^2, ... c^n - 1} be a basis for F(c) and expressing x in F(c) as a linear combination of this basis, don't know if i'm on the right track tho
(in terms of showing right including left)
whut's your def of F(c)?
(say the extension was E) then is it the smallest subfield of E containing both F and c?
They surely mean that if A,B are normal, intersect trivially and |AB|=|G| then G is iso to the direct product of A,B
oh yes true
hm ok i'll think about that thx
is there a torsion z module with annihilator 0
Yes
i saw that
shhh 🤫
(saw whut >.<)
I’ll never tell
so it's gonna be some infinite direct sum right
(Q/Z)^2
That’s illegal

howd you do that
Did you get the counter?
not sure yet
LOL
Already floating around
ruined…
wow actually proving it properly rather than just going "le character table"... cringe
Does N2 not imply N3? If I choose v=v1,w=v2 then I can represent v and w as reduced products pa and a^{-1}q, so then vw is equal to pq, the latter being reduced too since I could just extend a accordingly if the first letter of q and the last letter of p are inverses. But from N1 I'd get that |vw|=|pq|>|v|=|pa| and |pq|>|w|=|a^{-1}q| i.e. |p| > |a| and |q|>|a|. So in a product at most less than half the world could reduce. So I could write any u in U as l(u)m(u)r(u) with m(u) being the untouched letters. But then |uvw|=|l(u)m(u)m(v)m(w)r(w)| would hold if u and v as well as v and w reduce each other. But the right hand side of that inequality then has length |l(u)m(v)| + |m(w)r(w)| so it would be automatically satisfied.
(Oh. My translated version changed the "greater or equal than" into a "greater than" on which I based the argument... that might be why the argument works although that means N2 is ever so slightly weaker than making N1 into a strict inequality which is a bit funny)
whut does it mean 
He doesn't know :pepepoint:
what was the original message?
what doesn't he know...
the name i gave to my qed eevee 
gulp
Z/p1 + Z/p2 + ...
hm is this argument fine like uhhh
Say I'm given the character table of some finite group G and I wanna find the char table of its centre Z(G)
I guess the point is given g in Z(G) and some irred character χ of G, well g just multiplies by some scalar λ(g,χ) on the corresponding irrep
And that irrep will split into 1 dim irreps of Z(G) upon restriction and we know how g acts on each of those lol
So we can use the char table to deduce all the characters of Z(G) which come from restrictions of irreducible characters of G
But each irrep of Z(G) is a direct summand of the restriction of an irreducible character (using like induction, say)
So we are done
I imagine that may be overcomplicated though? aha
really cool
Say you have a base field k=Z/p or Q, and fields K,L both contain k, K is algebraically closed field and infinite transcendence degree, and L is generated by finitely many elements over k, then does there exist an embedding L -> K?
yes
And the hypotheses are unnecessary
K just needs to be algebraically closed.
and L/k just algebraic is enough, no need for f.g.
so potentially transcendental
Yeah
oh oop
Okay then you do need at least as many transcendentals as L has.
I'm not sure how this works
The hint says to first embed the transcendence part then the algebraic part
I'm not really sure what that means
pick a trancendence basis B, define k(B) --> K and extend to L
Many
colored people >.<
Can someone help me with my benchmark I have tomorrow
So essentially you can pick an embedding as det says and devissage to the case that the base field is k = k(B), and L is algebraic over k
devissage 
Can anyone help me#
You're going to have to be more specific
Who
You
Oh

Oh wait I never learned the transcendence degree thing 
So for any field extension it's always generated by transcendence elements then algebraic elements?

Yep, if you think about it those are the only two options
What is it on
Either you satisfy a polynomial or you don't
What you mean.
if you have a field extension F/k you can use zorn to get a maximal algebraic indep set B. then by maximality F/k(B) is algebraic
What is your work on
Don't call people on discord without asking my dude
I misclicked.
If it's on percent portions, go to #❓how-to-get-help
by this exercise do they mean same up to isomorphism or literally the same splitting field?
algebra moment
literally same
hm ok thx
by that i mean: L is a splitting field of f if and only if it's also a splitting field of f(a+x)
anyway, whenever you say "the" splitting field, there are two possible scenarios. (a) you're only talking stuff modulo some isomorphisms (b) you have fixed a big enough field (for example an algebraic closure) and are you talking about splitting field embedded into that big field
wdym by (b)
so like when you work with finite extensions of Q, since you know that C is a thing, you can always talk about subfields of C where your given poly splits
and this way you always have a unique such thing
like given f in Q[x], take F = Q(roots of f in C)
oh right
both the statements here would be equivalent. because if you show the polynomial splits in one, it would also split in the other via the isomorphism.
ye but they wouldn't be literally the same tho right
(so i should have said, "doesn't matter" here, but i said "literally same" to not complicate life further :p)
ah i see
the notion of a splitting field is defined only up to isomorphism. you can say F is "a" splitting field of f over k. but not "the" apriori. but once you show that any two splitting fields of a polynomial are isomorphic, then you're good.
so yea like both Q(sqrt2) and Q[x]/(x^2-2) are splitting fields of x^2-2 over Q. but they're not equal.
for the problem i just wrote $f(x) = b(x - a_1)(x - a_2)\dots(x - a_n)$ for $a_j \in E$ and $b \in F$ where $E$ is a splitting field for $f(x)$, then i plugged in $x + a$ and got $f(x + a) = b(x + a - a_1)\dots(x + a - a_n)$, but the smallest field containing $b$ and $a - a_j$ is $E$ itself, is that right?
okeyokay
ohh ok gotcha
depending on what you treat "literally same" vs "isomorphic" you'll parse this statement in different way.
ohh ok that makes so much sense thanks!!
yee that's good 
yessss thanks!!!!
i know boytjie was explaining this earlier to me, but just to be clear; we can simply define an isomorphism $\phi: \mathbb{Q}[\pi] \to \mathbb{Q}[x]$ in the obvious way, by just replacing each $\pi$ by $x$ - therefore the field of quotients $\mathbb{Q}(\pi) \simeq \mathbb{Q}(x)$, because $\pi$ is transcendental over $\mathbb{Q}$ and the denominator never equals 0?
okeyokay
and hence every element of Q(pi) has the preceding form?
Yes. This is a way to note that pi has no algebraic relationship with Q
can somebody explain to me the sentence where it says at most 4, i'm struggling a bit to see why
i mean they explain it
but it's not clicking
oh
is it because x^4 - 3 is irreducible and of minimal degree
but adjoin an element that is a root of a degree four min polynomial => deg 4 extension
same
8am
luckily field extensions and what not won't be on it
,ti
The current time for stμ₂dying is 08:53 PM (EDT) on Mon, 08/05/2023.
oh shitt
12 hours
you got this
i hope so
,ti
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oops
It just says that since 4th root of 3 is a root of x^4-3, it's minimal poly over Q(cube root 2) is at most degree 4. Hence degree of 4th root of 3 is at most degree 4 over that field.
a splitting field of a polynomial over Q is just Q adjoined the roots of that polynomial right
@white oxide how's your prep going
it’s going well, ended up doing some real analysis tonight cuz I’m feeling decent about it
i will say I’m very nervous tho
Like extremely
yeah mee too





