#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 101 of 1
It is not a semidirect product either.
What do you mean by that
Z/p^2Z is not a semi direct product of Z/pZ with itself
Oh wait the inner semi product of Z3 and Z3 is still Z3?!
I don't know what you mean by inner
it's not abelian, unless it's the direct product
that's the main point
infact, Aut(Z/pZ) = Z/(p-1)Z
so the only possible embedding is the trivial map
hence the only possible semi direct product is the direct product, which is what we've already seen
Yeah ok
I am so confused
I always had the impression that if N is normal to G, then the factor group G/N times N would be G
I don’t know what that “times” exactly is
this is not true
well
for the direct product and natural semidirect product it's not
What kinda product would then
generally none
in certain cases the semidirect product is the most general product you could want for this to be true
but it's only true when the short exact sequence
1 -> N -> G -> G/N ->1
splits
I feel destroyed right now
But I am so glad I asked, because it would keep hurting me for idk how long
yeah, and this only happens when G is a semi direct product of N and G/N 
kinda circular but it is what it is
I mean it's an if and only if idk if that's really circular
Splitting can also be formulated as a section existing
the idea I think you want to kinda get at though is that G is an extension of N by G/N
which is true, as you can always construct the exact sequence Mr. Incarnate posted
I think I am starting to understand why my book put so much effort setting up some really “obvious” and tedious stuff before some serious stuff
field of characteristic 2. Are the only possible orders for this infinity and 2?
what about 4? and 8? and 16?
so then the order is 2^n
Finite fields always have order p^n where p is the characteristic, and there is exactly one field (up to isomorphism) of each such order.
In the sylow theorem(1st) in the proof the part where it's using correspondence theorem say $f: G \longrightarrow G/Z(G)$ where the order of the center is p, why is it there is some subgroup H in G s.t. $|H|=|Z(G)||G/Z(G)|$
Sry I'm only a latex beginner
backslash longrightarrow
it would have made perfect sense if you had not done it latex anyways
VeridisQuo
Thanks
Can anyone tell me what this Aut thing is?
Here S = {1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 15, 13, 9}
I know that Aut(G) is the group of automorphisms on a group or graph G
But I'm not sure when I have Aut(A, B)) what is that supposed to be
Probably the group of automorphisms phi that satisfy phi(S)=S.
Pigeonhole principle: If |G| is not cyclic, then at least one of the divisors of |G| must be the order of more elements than have that order in the cyclic group.
hmm ok i'll think about that thx
i was trying to use the fundamental theorem of finite abelian groups
good idea
I'm reading Gromov's paper on polynomial growth and I'm trying to prove that the family of r-balls in the sequence (Gamma_i) is uniformly compact. Here Gamma_i = r_i^-1*Gamma is the same set but has its metric scaled by r_i^-1. I have attached the definition of uniform compactness and of regular growth.
I think I sort-of understand the idea but haven't quite been able to successfully apply (a) and (b) of the regularity yet :c
i'm reading gromov's paper
big mistake
yes i have noticed haha
i've written multiple page proofs on his "This is obvious" claims
i just assumed i should post here since this is in L1 spaces
that's analysis lol
does this equality hold because H* absorbs the intersection of H* and K?
yh
what is K0
Then it's not a mistake 😄 maybe he did it on purpose to make you learn
"There is a ring homomorphism from Z to the ring (2x2) matrices with entries in Z whose kernel is {-1}" true or false/
this is false because kernel doesnt contain 1, but what about 0?
shouldnt kernel also contain 0 as 0 is the additive identity ?
The kernel of a ring homomorphism f: A-> B are those elements which are sent to the additive identity of B.
Is it true that every ring homomorphism sends the additive identity of its domain to the additive identity of its codomain?
i thought that is the case. it is the case for groups right?
For group homomorphisms of additive groups yes. Otherwise you need to change terminology around a little, but it's the same idea
You should prove this if you don't immediately see why it is true!
It follows from definition of ring homomorphism, you do not need any technology at all.
ah alright i see why that is the case
thanks!
I'm wondering how they "observed" this, here \varphi_i is multiplication by i function
yo does anyone have a diagram for the third isomorphism theorem i can't find any good ones online
or maybe i'm too dense
the third isomorphism theorem is easy to remember. it just says dividing works how it should
yeah true
there's not much to draw in the diagram, it would just be a tower like N-H-G
compared to the more complicated lattice you get in the second isomorphism theorem
fraleigh has one
related: who on earth came up with the fourth isomorphism
like good lord how would you think to do this
it goes by various names
steven
it does not go by all names
Usually it goes by the forbidden group theory jutsu of the Germans.
if you ever find me irl please call me "fourth isomorphism theorem"
Here we're looking for all automorphisms of Z_17 such that f(S) = S. What really bothers me is how do we know its only these multiplication functions and how we can determine this in general.
I've found the statement on stack after some search, should be fine, if anyone is interested I can send a link
I mean because 1 is in S you know that only these functions can take S to S. Then you check that they actually do work
Does anyone know what Lang meant by $\delta_{ij}$?
Parrot Tea
kronecker delta. 1 if i = j and 0 otherwise
thx
If H is a subgroup of G, and acts transitively on some set X, does G also act transitively on X?
Im looking at some example where this claim is used, but im not sure how to prove it just by looking at orbits
if x and x' are in X, then you can find an h in H with hx = x'. but h is also in G, so...
in terms of orbits, if x is in X, then the orbit Hx equals X. but Hx is contained in Gx. so Gx = X
Ah I see thanks!
anyone know why “transitive action” takes it’s name
does not seem at all related to transitivity
i can see it coming from reading "transitive" as "transitional", like you can transition from any point to any other by the group action
ah transitive in a different sense
anyone have a hint to this problem? #help-13 message
How difficult is dummit/foote?
I'd say moderate
whats wrong with this proof of hilbert basis theorem
Assume for the sake of contradiction there exists an infinite ascending chain of ideals
[
I_1\subsetneq I_2\subsetneq I_3\subsetneq\cdots.
]
We can express $I_1$ as
[
I_1={a_nx^n+a_{n-1}x^{n-1}+\cdots+a_1x+a_0\mid\forall i: a_i\in G_i}
]
where $G_i=(G_i,+)$ are subgroups of $(R,+)$. Since $I_1$ is an ideal,
[
\forall f\in R,g\in I_1: f+g\in I_1.
]
Set $f(x)=b$ so for all $i$,
[
\forall a_i\in G_i:a_ib\in G_i.
]
It follows that $G_i=(G_i,+,\times)$ are actually ideals. Similarly, all the $I_i$ can be expressed in this form. For all $i$, let the ideal of constant terms of $I_i$ be $R_i$. It follows that
[
R_1\subsetneq R_2\subsetneq R_3\subsetneq\cdots,
]
a contradiction.
Kevin Yang
Why can you write I_1 like that? Furthermore, I don’t see why I_1 is closed under adding arbitrary elements from R. Consider the ideal generated by x, this is simply all polynomials with no constant term. This is not closed under addition by R, consider x + 1
Then I agree, but I still don’t see how you can justify I_1 being written that way. I don’t know what G_i is supposed to be here, and don’t feel like trying to prove some statement that I don’t really feel is true?
I_1 can be written that way since its closed under addition right
Please write down a proof
idk i just see all the proofs on wikipedia are tricky
Sure
Okay I see
You’re just proving the set of coefficients on n-th degree terms are ideals
Yes this is true
does the last line follow?
i never learned "subrings" but i assume $A\subsetneq B$ if the set $A$ is a subset of the set $B$?
Kevin Yang
No, it’s a proper inclusion
Otherwise the Noetherian property is impossible to satisfy
proper subset*
You could just take a single ideal over and over
Then yes
But you have to argue why I_k a proper subset of I_k+1 means R_k is a proper subset of R_k+1
Take for example (x^2) < (x)
The ideal of constant terms in both cases is (0)
oh
hmm
i can just take the ideal of some x^n term
right
they cant all be the same
Well this won’t satisfy the initial hypotheses
This forms a descending chain, not an ascending one
?
in this case i can take the ideals for the x^2 terms
wait
no
i mean x terms
Okay but then just crank the degree up again
oh wait
I don’t think this method will work, when proving the basis theorem for power series rings you do actually look at ideals of lowest coefficients
But for polynomial rings I don’t think this leads to a proof
I don’t think the proof of the basis theorem is that complicated. It involves a trick for sure, but the trick is looking at ideals of constants
Which is what you were trying to do here, that’s the key idea
oh
The details are a bit more complicated than what your proposed proof tried, but at the end of the day it’s not that much more work
thank you

I am reading Judson and he defines orbit of an element of G-set X, ie O(x) as the equivalence class which contains x. From what I remember the natural definition of orbit of x was set where x can be mapped to ie O(x) = G*x
Am I misremembering or are the two definitions equivalent
y is in the equivalence class of x if and only if...
write it out and check that they're equivalent
Ah, got it. x would obviously lie in it's equivalence class and rest follows since the classes are mutually exclusive
question :a field cant have characteristic 1 right?
only 0 or prime
also no characteristic can ever have "order 1" right?
which i think in other word it means no field has 1 element
same with order 0, thats not possible right?

{0}
But most people won't consider this a field
and the order for this is 1?
What is an order of a characteristic?
should have sent the question for it to be clearer. 1 second
in this case characteristic 1
what are the possible orders?
Oh, order is just size
Yeah char 3 implies at least 3 elements
So order 1 is not possible there
and for char 1 the possible order is just 1 and infinit right?
F_1 is my favorite field
I think it's time for you to review your definitions
Pretty much every book explicitly defines a field to require 1 != 0, so characteristic 1 is not possible at all.
If it were not for being exclude in the definition, the only 'field' with 1 = 0 would be {0}, because in such a 'field' we would have a = 1·a = 0·a = 0 for every element a. So it couldn't have infinite size.
If f(x) is reducible
over F, it does not mean f has a root in F. - examples to show this?
where F is a field
(X^2+2)^2 over Q
(x^2+1)^2 over R
but x=-2?
so it doesn't need to be completely?
where even x^2+1 is reduced
What
What, again
I think they are asking in what field does x^2 + 1 have roots
I see, Q^a isn’t a field albeit
oh wait
never mind think I got it
but then the next part baffles me more - If f is irreducible over F, then f cannot have any root
in F, unless when f is a linear polynomial, when it will definitely have a root. This is the right statement, but how do I go about proving this?
Yeah that’s correct
So say f has a root z, try dividing f by some polynomial involving z
wait so this says that if f is a linear polynomial then it will have a root if it is irreducible?
or am I reading this wrong
something doesn't seem to stick right
I’m trying to get you to prove the contrapositive, if that’s what’s confusing you
i can prove that, but I'm thinking of proving the first part
precisely yes
a polynomial in a field F is reducible if it can be written as the product of two elements of F both having positive degree. Linear polynomials cannot be written like that even though they may have a root in F
Just learnt wreath products, they are cool objects
I like how their elements & operations have quite a few decent interpretations
they've very cool if you're wreathing with a subgroup of S_n
then you get a certain very nice group of automorphisms of a very nice set of graphs
cyclic wreaths are cool too
appear in lots of places
This is the last chapter of my lecture notes
And somehow it seems like we're going back to chapter 1
Is it supposed to be more general than just binary operations in some way?
I don't see it
well, it's pretty obviously more general than a binary operation
GxG -> G
GxX -> X
I'm not sure why the course starts w this, in lin algebra vector spaces has similar def in the beginning of the course
it's important to understand the basic idea of a group before looking at group actions
I think I understand what a group is
But I don't see how this is more general
(other than the obvious difference you pointed out)
Oh wait so, instead of the group acting within itself (binary operations), it acts on a whole different set?
I think it's more general it explains an evolution of sets from magma to field/modules/VS
yes exactly
although there are of course canonical group actions of a group on itself, like g.g' = gg' and g.g' = gg'g^-1
This seems very abstract, is there any interpretation for it?
there are two very easy examples
*three
we'll stick to two actually
the dihedral group acting on the corners of a shape, the symmetric group S_n acting on the set {1, ..., n}
you may have heard that groups are the "symmetries of [something]" - that set X is the [something]
oh shit that makes sense
number 3 is groups of matrices acting on a vector space by matrix multiplication
fyi
VS act on a field, if they act on a ring then form a module
tbh group theory as the "study of symmetry" is what made me interested in the topic initially
so up until now i thought it was only called that because of dihedral groups
lol looking back that was kind of dumb of me
i have yeah
Specially for the 1 line proofs w group actions fu lagrange
yeah so given any group action GxX->X for a (we'll keep it finite for now) set X
isn't a field acting on an abelian grape a vs
you get a homomorphism from G to S_|X| by mapping g in G to whatever permutation swaps things in X the same way that the group action of g on X does
Do u know why is the the object w the most structure is first? Or is this not necessary?
a field can also just act on a k-vector space as long as it's a subfield of k
why wouldn't you start with the most well behaved object
And it's usually (always) the least behaved object that wins
they're so easy, especially when they're finite dimensional it's basically just looking at the poset category of N
What's a positive category of n
so you introduce students to the idea of thinking about an abstract object via the nicest one
Poset*
then go to groups+rings which are less nice, and then to modules which are a mess
you also get an isomorphism to GL_|X|(k) through this via permutation matrices 
yeah, consider the action of the group $S_{m}$ on $\mathbb{N}^{m}$, if we define the map as $S_{m}\times \mathbb{N}^{m}\to \mathbb{N}^{m},~~~(\sigma,\alpha)\mapsto (\alpha_{\sigma(1)},\dots,\alpha_{\sigma(m)})$ then you may verify that this satisfies the definition of group action, i hope you can see what this is doing
pikachupikachu
tied to the idea of group actions is the idea of orbit, consider $G$ be a group and $X$ a nonempty set then the orbit (under action of $G$) of any $x\in X$ is the set $G\cdot x$, if we now define a relation $x\sim y \iff x\in G\cdot y$ then it is verifiable that this is an equivalence relation therefore the orbits partition $X$ and we denote this space of orbits $X/G$. this notation is similar to how we use $G/N$ when cosets w.r.t subgroup $N$ partition $G$. an example would be the multiplicative group $\mathbb{R}^{\times}=\mathbb{R}\setminus {0}$ and its action on $\mathbb{R}^{2}$ defined as $(t,(x,y)) \mapsto (t\cdot x, t\cdot y)$, this partitions $\mathbb{R}^{2}$ in terms of lines through origin
pikachupikachu
i just learned this the other day, so forgive me if i made a mistake
sebbb studies for fields and modules
I have no idea how to prove why the G-equivariant map of G-set G/H has that property
I know that for G-sets X and Y, G-map f:X->Y should be f(gx) = gf(x)
Have you tried looking where the identity goes and using G-equivariance??
Is there anyone reading ring theory?

A particular part or the entire thing?
If you have specific questions, you should ask them here. I don't think anyone can give a good answer to such an open-ended question.
A more answerable question would be "how do I understand the definition of a ring," but I'm not sure if that's what you're asking.
What do you call a semigroup that can deal with infinite semigroup operations?
For example, if the operation is + and I want to do x1 + x2 + ...
where ... is infinite.
To be more precise, what do you call a semigroup with an extra function f than can take a sequence (xn) and do f (xn) = x1 + x2 + ...
Hmm.. but why morphism G/H -> G/K has the form 1H |-> gK?
Well it's gotta go somewhere
set g = phi(1H)
That's it
Or well, more accurately gK = phi(1H).
After which you can just choose a coset representative g.
That's the form of any function G/H -> G/K
let f : G/H -> G/K be some function
then f(1H) = gK for some g! That's just because {gK | g in G} = G/K
@coral spindle all the topics. I just started reading ring theory
hi boytjie
Hey
I cannot summarise all the topics of ring theory. It is a truly immense field. Please be more specific.
I have a question that asks to show that a o group with size n greater than 1 with no proper subgroups must have prime order
Hint: look at a cyclic subgroup
Can I just argue that it is a consequence of Lagrange’s theorem directly?
It is not a consequence of Lagrange's theorem directly.
Unless you're using some version of it I'm unaware of!
what's good
that's a deep question
Does anyone really know what good is?
I'm fine, hope you're well too
I got tired of asking "what's up" and people responding with "the sky or the ceiling"
One of my pet peeves too
hi merosity
i find that to know what something isn't helps us understand what something really is
SFC there exist a prime order group with proper subgroups, then this subgroup order k must divide the order of G by lagrange’s theorem, which implies that k|n which is a contradiction as n is prime
system file checker 
what's evil
this is wrong
take the trivial subgroup
Who said anything about it being prime order?
Oh my bad, I read it wrong
You need another result for that to happen
Wait it says, show that a finite group G of size n=>2 with no proper subgroups other than the trivial subgroup has prime order
Yes
But you assumed it had a subgroup of prime order first
You need to justify that assumption
I did a contradiction proof though?
Oh wait, my bad. I misread your proof. In fact it is wrong for different reasons.
You have proved that if G is of prime order, then it has no nontrivial subgroups.
However, you must prove the converse
Yes my bad, I’ll reattempt it
I thought after skim-reading that you had assumed that a group of non-prime order had a prime order subgroup, which I was asking you to justify.
The actual contradiction should be there exist a group with no proper subgroups but isn’t prime order?
.
yo my professor prolly meant <x^2 + cx + 1> right
cuz i think the point of this question is to find c such that x^2 + cx + 1 is irreducible and hence <f(x)> is maximal
and hence it's a field
for (x^2 + cx + 1)? both () and <> mean the same thing
Both notations are used by different authors
<> for groups () for ideals
Ye <> for v spaces and submodules etc too
notation was a mistake
we need to go back to the time when everything was explained in clear and perfect english
We need to go back in time and express everything in a simple and intuitive way
Perhaps we could use tensor products to do so
Since TENSOR PRODUCTS ARE ESSENTIAL FOR THE THEORY OF BLACK HOLES
Hi, could someone please check if my proof is correct?
tensor products are for amateurs. real chads use Tor_0
Nevermind I think I found a mistake
@valid night the answer is 2 though! But yes this proof doesn’t make much sense as stated
A non-proof-related comment: homomorphism is not spelled "homomorfism".
Your proof is incomplete. You write down a formula and then do not justify why it relates to the 3rd paragraph. It seems like you are claiming that f((a,b)) = f((c,d)), but you have not justified this, or even mentioned it.
Haha I realised the spelling error but didn't bother to correct it
You can prove this in this way though, just by restricting to transpositions and seeing what you get from applying the definition of homomorphism to cut things down
No more hints! Kronos is almost there
Alright thanks a lot guys
As an aside, I have a joke proof for n \geq 5: the image is Abelian, ergo the homomorphism factors through S_n/A_n.
I mean only the assumption n \geq 5 is a joke, otherwise I think it’s basically the correct proof tbh
It's correct but it's overkill which is why I think it's funny
u pick up on this fast
Umm it's actually existence, not theory
Fake wodzicki fan
Also I'm stealing this problem for my next pset on cosets and homomorphisms
i struggled for way too long on a pretty simple problem but that got me thinking: what kinds of results do we have to relate the factorization of an integer polynomial over C to its factorisation over the algebraic closure of Fp
the only way i can think to approach such a big problem is to study how different primes split in the splitting field of your polynomial, which is more or less handleable when the polynomial is separable
but im wondering if there are other different kinds of approaches
How do you know about this
@next obsidian I have been initiated and blessed with knowledge of the sacred texts.
(Illum was shitposting about it)
can somebody give me a hint about this question? Would it just be the union of Q[x]/<x^2 + x + 1> and Q[x]/<x^2 - x + 1>?
we know that the splitting field has to contain x + <x^2 + x + 1> and x + <x^2 - x + 1>
A union of fields is not a field
Unless one contains the other :)
ahh i see where you're going
Ultrapedant
- crazy polish dude, 2019(?)
Anyway, maybe you could describe it as a subfield of C. You may find it quite difficult to find a quotient of Q[x] that works.
If that's what the question is asking for, then so be it.
hey that makes it more fun
but i don't get anywhere tho
but anyways okay i'll try that
thx
Given that they are quadratic polynomials, it will be extremely easy.
i think finding the complex roots is the way to go
yeah
oh so it would just be $\mathbb{Q}(\frac{1 + i\sqrt{3}}{2}, \frac{1 - i\sqrt{3}}{2})$
okeyokay
well ig i have to describe that explicitly
Is that not explicit?
yeah true
i'm just used to describing it by providing a basis
also i think that's wrong, should be -1 in one of them
Doesn't actually matter, as it turns out.
Btw, if you use what you've learned by doing this calculation, you may be able to go back and work out the splitting field as a quotient of Q[x]
hm okay i'll try that
Hint hint: (-x)^2 = x^2 :)
haha got it thank uuu
One of those is the other to the 5th power.
oh shit should it would just be one of them
hmm ok
Let $a,b$ be rational. Then $\mathbb Q(a + bx) = \mathbb Q(x)$.
Boytjie
Third time's the charm
Habits, man...
You also have w² = w-1 when w=(1+isqrt3)/2.
I am using a different font.
Just add it to your texit preamble

It's a cube root, not a square root
nvm
Hint: extended Euclidean algorithm
oh nvm i got it fr fr now
plugged that shit into mathway to simplify the expression
we chillin
not tryna do that type of algebra sadly
Bro sully reacting himself 💀
you could also just use difference of cubes
what's that again
which is pretty similar to what you would do if it was a square root
That is an ad-hoc way, true. The method using the extended Euclidean algorithm applies to any finite extension of Q.
hm ok
$a^3-b^3 = (a-b)(a^2+ab+b^2)$
Tubular Cat
ah
i mean better to do it the ad-hoc way than googling how to simplify it and completely circumvent the entire problem
nah they're lost
not tryna do that type of algebra
why are the elements of Q(pi) of this form?
i get it's because it's a field of quotients
That is the definition
Well, ok. It depends actually on how you're defining Q(pi).
yeah i was confused about that
If you define Q(x) as the smallest complex field containing x, then you can rederive this easily
in some sense, the definition also gives you something like that for Q(\sqrt(2)), but you can simplify it to just be a + b sqrt(2)
certainly it contains 1, x, x^2, ... and finite sums thereof
And then also quotients
this is sufficient because this now forms a field
oh right so it's basically like pi is the indeterminate
and then you form the field of quotients analogous to forming the field of quotients for F[x]?
where F is a field
Yes
ohhhh ok
I will expond on this, in case you're interested.
oh thanks!!
Yes that makes sense
Boytjie
This is an interesting subtlety in my opinion.
As I mentioned, an alternative definition is to let $\mathbb Q(\xi)$ to be the smallest subfield of $\mathbb C$ that contains $\xi$. This is actually a subtle one – why should a smallest subfield exist? Might it be possible to find smaller and smaller subfields, ad infinitum, and never find a smallest?
So this definition requires some work, if you want to show that such things actually exist.
Anyway that's all I have to say about that.
Exercise: show that the two definitions of Q(xi) that I've talked about are equivalent.
(not for credit :p )
this is the case since xi doesn't have any g(x) in Q[x] such that g(xi) = 0 correct
That's right
Forgot to mention: pi is a transcendental number.
You've probably heard this fact before, but just in case
why exactly is the field of complex numbers an infinite extension over the rationals? that would imply that that there is an infinite basis but i suppose i'm trying to find one
ye
pi is transcendental over Q but not over R
Well, pi is a real number so pi - x is a real polynomial with a root pi :P
ye
it's not saying very much, therefore, to say that pi is transcendental over R
yeah true
ig my question is more related to linear algebra
why there doesn't exist a finite basis for the complex numbers over the rationals
kinda rusty on that ngl
Hint: pi is transcendental
Alternative hint: use the tower law.
oh wait, is it because we can't write pi as a linear combination of complex numbers with scalars in Q
wait no
i'm tripping
what's the tower law
this is one of the questions where it's on the tip of my fucking tongue
lmfao
OK, try using my hint that pi is transcendental if you can't use the tower law.
tower law 
isn’t that just applying lagrange twice since |E| cancel out?
gotcha okay
The notation is similar because of the fundamental theorem of Galois theory
can somebody explain to me the equality right after "for clearly" 😭 it's not really clicking as to why is you remove the brackets both fields are equivalent
is it suppose to be clear or am i hella overthinking
oh wait
this is literally the tower law huh
bc Q(3^1/4, Q) is a finite extension of Q and Q(2^1/3, 3^1/4) is a finite extension of Q(3^1/4)
tower law makes a lot of these calculations quite straightforward
or at least makes them a lot more approachable
how obvious is the first part of this
actually lemme go back
i is algebraic over Q
so Q(i) \cong Q[x]/(x^2 + 1)
dont think that's useful here but still
i was first thinking like
cube root(2) is algebraic over Q so x^3 - 2 must be irreducibl
but that's irreducibility over Q not Q(i) i think
It's a cubic. If it's reducible then at least one factor is linear which means one of the three cubic roots of 2 is in Q[i].
oh that sounds more elementary than i expected
can you elaborate on wym by at least one factor is linear
also is what i said actually inaccurate
you mean why is at least one factor linear?
just degree of polynomial=1
ooh linear as in constant
uh no constant polynomials have degree 0
can someone help me understand the solution to part c? I don't understand: firstly, parts a and b rely on P being a Sylow subgroup of H, but (c) seemingly rely on P being a Sylow subgroup of G, and I don't understand why if $N_G(P)/N_H(P)$ is nilpotent, there exists a nilpotent subgroup $K$ of $N_G(P)$ so $N_G(P) = N_H(P)K$
Darylgolden
<@&286206848099549185>
im a little confused by this question
what is the relationship/difference between Q[x] and Q(x)
and similarly what is the polynomial ring of the field Q(x/x^3 + 1)
1/x is in Q(x) but not in Q[x]
$\mathbb{Q}(x)=\text{Frac}(\mathbb{Q}[x])$ which is the field of rational functions with rational coefficients
Kevin Yang
does thiss still agree with the definition of smallest subfield containing x...?
I wanted to know the steps which can help me to learn ring theory. I am feeling difficult with every line
the typical advice is to open up a ring theory book and do the exercises and stuff
you'll have better feedback if you say more than just "it's hard". math is hard, that's a given
ohhhh i think i see why this is true
Q(x) is the smallest field containing Q and x
so by defn must have inverse of x
right, and then you're forced to throw in the inverses of all polynomials with coefficients in Q as well, and then that's the whole field
but then what about the fact that $\Q(\alpha) \cong \Q[x]/(m_\alpha(x))$
not sebbb not stμ₂dying
what about it?
like how does that work when alpha isnt some element but instead x
right, in particular the minimal polynomial doesn't make sense
yeah that's why i was confused
so this isn't algebraic is it?
but if it's algebraic you can talk about minimal polynomial and if this is irreducible the dimension of this quotient is the degree of the polynomial
right Q(x) is not algebraic over Q
it has transcendence degree 1
it's the same as like
Q(\pi)
\pi is transcendental, so it isn't the zero of any polynomial defined over Q
so it might as well be a free variable from the point of view of polynomials
well the question is about x over Q(x/x^3 + 1)
oh sorry I can't read

I mean it should be transcendental for the same reason that adjoining x alone is
I mean you just have to show that this is the same as adjoining x after some suitable change of variables
uhhhh
x^3 +1 is in Q(x)
then so is 1/x^3 + 1
and also obviously x/x^3 +1
is that enough 
ah no it's not
What's a good advanced (not just the Frobenius map and classification) resource on finite fields and their applications to other areas?
just doing some light review before an exam tomorrow
if phi is a homomorphism from a group G to another group G' where |ker(phi)| = n, then phi is an n-to-1 mapping
i feel unsatisfied with the proof that the book gave, but maybe its just because im being stupid
what does "ker phi = n" mean?
oh oops
order of ker(phi)
is n
my bad
oh wait...
never mind i just made sense of it in my head
do we want the set of x's such that phi(xg) = phi(g)
?
then that would mean that x is in the kernel?
it essentially boils down to: if \phi(g) = g', then \phi^{-1}(g') equals the coset g ker(\phi)
that is true
if \phi(x) = g', then x = g(g^{-1}x), and this g^{-1}x is in ker(\phi). conversely if x is in ker(\phi), then \phi(gx) = \phi(g) = g'
since g ker(\phi) has as many elements as ker(\phi) does you have your conclusion
Here, the first statement should be $p(x) \in \mathbb{Q}[x]$ right?
numbpy
what makes you say so?
cause it googling it on wiki says that gauss lemma is irreducibility of p(x) in Q[x] is same as that in Z[x]
oh wait, nvm I got it
your theorem goes from reducibility in Q[x] to reducibility in Z[x]. what you're reading online is likely the contrapositive (irreducible in Z[x] implies irreducible in Q[x])
ah, got it. I was confused that polynomial itself should have coefficients in Q but then ofc we can't talk about reducibility in Z[x]
I missed that alpha(x) and beta(x) are in Q[x]
thanks
If anyone is studying abstract algebra for their finals, lmk if you want to do practice problems with me in a discord call cause I feel like its so much better to have ppl to collaborate with
i might take u up on that offer, i got my final in two weeks

for sure can I dm you?
hi so I have the question, find the galois group of x^3-1 over q, and I'm completely confused on how to approach it
i get the intuition behind how they work, but how do I find it for a given polynomial as such?
You mean the Galois group of the splitting field of X^3 - 1
Well this case is a simple one, does moving one of the roots not in Q induce a unique automorphism of the splitting field of X^3 - 1 over Q?
I'm not sure
could you help explain in a little more detail?
Well you have 3 roots, say 1, zeta and zeta^2?
Moving zeta to zeta induces the identity morphism
Moving zeta to zeta^2 also induces a morphism
hmm yes
So that's all of your morphisms
but over x^3-1?
Wdym over x^3 - 1?
the splitting field over x^3-1
Yes, that's just Q(zeta)
what does this mean?
The smallest field containing Q and zeta
Isn't it just Z/2Z
What's the degree of the splitting field of x^3 - 1?
3?
No
how would find the degree of the splitting field?
Well your two complex roots are just zeta and zeta squared, and your real root is 1
So we just need to find the smallest field that contains all 3 of those roots
So find Q(zeta) basically
But Irr(Q,zeta) is just x^2 + x + 1
so you just attach zeta and zeta squared right?
what does this mean?
Well any field that contains zeta, also contains zeta squared
The minimal polynomial of zeta over Q
oh right
how do you get x^2+x+1?
Factor x^3 - 1
oh right
ohhh okay
okay so i get that
till x^2+x+1
which is the minimal polynomial for q(zeta)?
Yeah, so [Q(zeta) : Q] = 2
ohh okay
That means there are exactly two automorphisms of Q(zeta) over Q, as Q(zeta) is a Galois extension
that's my question
one map maps zeta to itself
how do you know if there's another map that maps zeta to zeta squared?
You could verify it
Literally construct a map from Q(zeta) to Q(zeta) that fixes Q and sends zeta to zeta^2
Treat Q(zeta) as a vector space if that makes it easier
i get this
i got that idea
how do i proceed?
how?
Cause zeta is a root of Irr(Q,zeta)
i don't get it
What does Irr(Q,zeta) mean?
not sure
It's the unique monic irreducible polynomial over Q that has root zeta
oh okay
how do you get this though
Cause zeta^2 + zeta + 1 = 0
how?
What's Irr(Q,zeta)?
so you get this from there
there isn't too much to work with here, so you will have to consider ||the subgroup generated by a and b|| and use the fact that this is ||finite and abelian (what theorems do you know that apply in this scenario?)||
thanks
lie theory question: does anyone know how to prove that L(2) is isomorphic to the adjoint representation of sl_2. L(2) here is the verma module modulo some invariant sl_2 subspace. This is discussed in Hall's book section 4.6
like i am confused how a module can be isomorphic to an adjoint representation (because the adj rep is just a homomorphism)
but how does it imply that they are not isomorphic?
py is just y+y+...+y p times
it's defined only using the group structure
so it's a property of the group.
The adjoint rep comes from the action of $sl_2$ on $sl_2$, they are saying that the quotient is isomorphic to $sl_2$ as a representation of $sl_2$
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
Not really an abstract algebra question but why does the multiplicative modulo group 7 only have congruence classes 1 to 6?
How about [0]_7?
The point is that 0 isn't invertible mod 7
As for any a in Z, 0*a = 0 which isn't 1 mod 7
In general, the multiplicative group of the integers modulo a prime p will consist of the classes {1, 2, ..., p-1}.
This is not true modulo a non-prime
If you want to try proving this, you may find Bézout's lemma and the extended Euclidean algorithm helpful
Or a bit of basic ring theory
hi! I was reading eisenstein's proof about how cyclotomic polynomial ϕ_p (x) is irreducible over Q for any prime p. Can someone please explain to me the highlighted sentence?
suppose (say) Phi(x) was reducible, ...
let y = x - 1
if I have a line and point (in 3d), how do I find a perpendiclar line to said line going through said point?
This is more suited for #linear-algebra , and there will be infinitely many lines perpendicular to that line/point pair
if you can find a factorization for p(x), can you find one for p(x+1)?
hii
hi
Yes
😠
😠
my fake accounts
hi topos
That wasn't all manifolds are smooth, that was all products commute with coproducts
no
disjoint union
$\varprojlim \varinjlim = \varinjlim \varprojlim$

same thing

plus minus some elements
disjoint intersection
can somebody give me a hint for this question? I wrote x^2 - 1 \equiv 0 mod p, and i know it has to do something with fermat's little theorem but i'm a little stuck
how many solutions does x²=1 mod p has?
x^2 - 1 = (x + 1)(x - 1)
yeah now use that Zp is an integral domain
mood
hi seb
galois theory in disguise

hewwo sebb 
F(a) ≈ F(b) when a and b are roots of the same irreducible polynomial
You can extend isomorphisms of field extensions up to algebraic field extensions
You’ve maybe seen the tower
Like, F’ > F > k
Aut instead of Gal
E’ > E > k
arrgghhhh I remember doing this for a homework
I forgor how I did it lemme think
😑
u no know the char, alg closure need not be sep closure 
this shouldn't need proving right
I mean the proof is easy
like that seems kinda obvious...?
It depends on how you define F(a), it could be by definition.
I am now less convinced because you said it just seems obvious
But the proof is
F(a) ≈ F[x]/(m_a(x))
By x -> a
But if b is also a root of that polynomial
You can take the iso x -> b
And now you chain the isos
my prof's lecture notes are written in a way that I first need to copy them over to my notes to understand them 
his hand writing is uhhhh
interesting
it's hard to decipher it
imagine profs encrypting lectures notes for fun 
this prof at least writes small
smallest field containing F and a
but i see what chmonkey said
my other prof writes like 2 sentences per page
My NT prof had decent handwriting
it's a scrolling nightmare

Whenever we say G has a normal subgroup are we talking about proper subgroups?
not necesarily
cause trivially {e} and the group itself are always a normal subgroup
You want a definition such that the kernel of any homomorphism of groups is a normal subgroup, so you should include "improper" subgroups.
hmm.. am I missing something here then? The answer key says only (b) is correct
maybe review how your prof defined it
It should say "nontrivial normal subgroup" but you might have a different definition.
This is a competitive exam so there's no way of knowing what they actually meant
It's certainly not mentioned in the notation or terminology section
.
The real problem is you're doing algebraic number theory
What is $k[t]\otimes_{k[t^2]} k[t]$?
Potitov06
Have you tried substituting R = k[s] with s = t^2 and trying to write S = k[t] over R?
As a finitely generated algebra
Like, $k[t]\cong k[s][1,t]/(s-t^2)$, something like that?
Potitov06
well, forget the 1
Yes, so what is R[t]/(t^2 - s) \otimes_R R[t]/(t^2 - s)
R[t]/(t^2-s)?
what is the motivation for talking about separability
It measures the different ways a field can be embedded in its algebraic closure
At least that is the way I think about it
We talk about it so that students can learn about it.
Is this correct?
this a result of the correspondence between roots of polynomials and the different embeddings?
wait that's too vague
It seems weird
It shouldn't be that, that would be the tensor product with R
What if R is a field (it is not) could you figure out that one?
The separable and embedding into alg closure correspondence is whacky
I don’t have good intuition for it
If R is a field then it should be k[t]/(t^2-s)
k=R
sorry
Sorry, i am not thinking
Inseparability is saying that a field has "hidden nilpotents" that you see over the algebraic closure.
I.e. inseparable field extensions geometrically are "thicker" than regular field extensions.
This is so insanely hard to justify
Tfw geometric reducedness type beats

The proofs become some insane field theory that I’ve only ever found written down in Bourbaki
I don't really know on what level you want an answer I guess
level
Honestly, until you have a point separability starts to play a role
I think you should just shove it in a corner of your brain
It shows up in tricky situations in weird ways
Like I could start to try to talk about differentials
But it would not mean anything unless you knew why you care about them
the following section of notes is on "thm of primitive element"
If you're asking about why it comes up in Galois theory: it measures the defect in embeddings in the algebraic closure to fully distinguish elements in the field. This also manifests in the lack of "enough" automorphisms of that field extension.
A formal way to see what she’s talking about is that separable iff # of distinct embeddings of F (fixing K) into K-bar = [F:K]
interesting
A purely inseparable extension in contrast has only one way to embed F into K-bar
nice to hear this stuff talked about so lucidly, shame I don't have time to think about this stuff for the forseeable future
For me separable means not inseparable, but this is not stupid because inseparable to me means
x such that x^p in K, but x not in K
Only in char p
This is bad because when you take a derivative you get pdx^p-1 = 0
But you don’t want that derivative to be 0, it shouldn’t be 0
For field extensions as well, it’s “formally smooth” iff the extension is separable
What does this mean…
I’ll tell you when you’re older
Okay here’s another example
You may not have realized, but tensor products of field extensions can be bad
C (x)_R C isn’t an integral domain, it’s C^2
I think this is the real correct perspective but is unlikely to be appreciated by someone in a galois theory class. This is why, for instance, inseparable extensions can have infinitely many intermediate extensions.
But in general they can be so bad that you can even introduce nilpotence
@wicked zephyr take note!
If F/K is separable though, F (x)_K L will never have nilpotence
In fact this characterizes separability
This is what TTEG was talking about with inseparability being about having hidden nilpotence
Note that this definition about having no nilpotence after base change makes sense even for infinite extensions, so one can define non-algebraic separable extensions
Which happen to be the same thing as “separable generated” extensions when the extension is finitely generated which you may have seen in an algebraic geometry book
This condition is saying that you can write F as a separable algebraic extension over K(x1,…,xn) for some transcendence basis x1,…,xn
Such an x1,…,xn is called a separating transcendence basis, but you can have non-separating transcendence bases even in a separable generated extension
Anyway, the point of me just typing to myself is to say that separability is important, but it’s hard to justify why
And you can only really appreciate it until something pops up that forces you to care about it
repeated roots cause inequalities
Separability causes equalities 😎
I dunno
I mean, if k is a field, the $k[x]/(f)\otimes_{k} k[y]/(g)\cong k[x,y]/(f,g)$
Potitov06
or that is false¿
Potitov, k[t] over k[t^2] is “adjoining a square root”
How would you write that down for field extensions?

If k is a field, adkoining a square root of $a\in k$ is k[t]/(t^2-a)
Potitov06
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Right
So let’s say k[t^2] = R
And let’s call the variable s for right now
What is your a in this case that we’re taking a square root of?
So k[t] is R[t]/(s-t^2)
Yup
wat
R[s]/(s-t^2)
But we are taking the square root of s
So now we want to evaluate R[s]/(s-t^2) (x)_R R[s]/(s-t^2)
But wait
This is almost the same setup as evaluating C (x)_R C
Yes
So we want to evaluate this





