#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 99 of 1
I disagree with this definition on a pedagogical level :pack:
(f)={g*f : g in K[X]}}
f+(f)={f+g| g in (f)}
So what is happening here?
I=(f)
I still don't understand why this would be zero
It isn't even a number?
Since g=h*f, we have f+g=f+hf=(h+1)f and since h+1 is also a polynomial if h is a polynomial, we have f+(f)=(f)?
they're abusing notation a bit here, it should be (0+I)v = 0+I
0+I is just I, right?
yus
I wrote it as 0+I to emphasise the fact that it is indeed the 0 element of the ring K[x]/I
I am reading Gromov's 1981 paper "Polynomial growth and expanding maps" and want to prove the following lemma:
Let L be a Lie group with finitely many components and let G be an arbitrary finitely generated group. Suppose that for every number p =1, 2, . . ., there is a homomorphism G \to L such that its image is finite and has at least p elements. Then G contains a subgroup G' \subset G of finite index such that the commutator group [G', G'] \subset G' has infinite index.
This is the proof in the paper: Let q be as in Jordan's theorem. Take for G' \subset G the intersection of all subgroups in G of index at most q. It is clear that G' satisfies all the requirements.
I have been able to proof that G' has finite index in G. How do I proof that [G',G'] has infinite index in G'?
(Jordan's theorem states: For each Lie group L with finitely many components there is a number q such that every finite subgroup in L contains an Abelian subgroup of index at most q.)
since o is noetherian, every ideal in o is finitely-generated
how do we see that a non-zero submodule J of K is a fractional ideal iff there exists non-zero c in o such that cJ \subset o is an ideal?
one direction seems fine. suppose J is a non-zero o-submodule of K and cJ \subset o is an ideal. As o is noetherian, cJ is finitely generated, say cJ = (a_1,...,a_m). then, J = (a_1/c, ..., a_m/c) is a finitely-generated o-submodule of K
what about the converse?
If your submodule of K is finitely generated, just clear the denominators of the generators
ahh right! thanks
This is a nice paper! The idea here is just simple group theory though: you get your G' in G of finite index. Now in all of your homomorphisms f_p: G \to L G has finite image with at least p elements, whence they each contain an abelian subgroup H_p \subset f_p(G) with index \leq q. Then f_p^{-1}(H_p) has index \leq q in G, so G' \subset f_p^{-1}(H_p), so f(G') \subset H_p which is abelian. Finally because [G:G'] is finite we see that f(G') is abelian of size \geq p/[G:G']. Since f(G') is abelian this shows (taking p large) that [G', G'] is of infinite index.
thank you so much!
No worries!
Gaussian integers sorry i wasnt specific
Hm I've been asked to show the polynomial x^{2^k} + 1 is always reducible over Fp, provided k > 1. I'm struggling a bit because clearly there needn't always exist roots (-1 needn't be a quadratic residue) but I've got the hint to consider the structure of (Z/2^n Z)^x
How to show integral elements of Q(t, √t³-t) over Q are Q itself?
It's not as obvious as it seems
There's also a second part to it that says show that this extension is not purely transcendental
which I have done
Are you asking this as a question or as an exercise for other people?
no this one's a question
this might be an exercise

So you can look at this field L as Frac(Q[t, s]/(s^3 - t^2)) and notice that this is finite over Q(s) which does not contain any finite extension of Q by Luroth. On the other hand suppose K \subset L was finite over Q, then K must be contained in a quadratic extension by degree counting. But K is also disjoint from Q(t) whence K must be contained in a cubic extension.
Poggers
haven't seen Luroth, what's the statement
Just that there are no subextensions of Q(t) except those isomorphic to Q(t).
That's also a nice exercise. Although showing the easier statement that there are no finite subextensions is much easier than the whole theorem.
I wanna give that bad boy a go tbh
nice
Also oop any ideas on dis
Perhaps I am overcomplciating it
It has many proofs, including very elementary ones, so it's very pleasant to work out.
This was 6 marks, and the previous part was to show x^4 +1 is reducible over F5 which is a one liner (for 5 marks) lol
is F_5 Z_5?
Is t some transcendental element over Q or is this about something else than usual field theory?
not the sully
F_5 is common notation for it when thought of as a field yes
So what are the finite extensions of F_p? How do you distinguish whether or not a polynomial is irreducible using the Galois group?
Sure I will try wacking the gal group at it
It is just a transcendental, but it's kind of harder than it looks. Not sure I see an elementary way to show that this is true for some totally general curve's function field.
I used a trick that only works for this particular equation.
Although be careful, F_n is not Z_n in general
Like for example, F_25 is not Z_25
yes Z_25 is not a field
Indeed F_{p^n} can never be Z/p^n unless n = 1 since every (non-zero) element has additive order p in F_{p^n}
Given topos e-girls response... where did you even find that problem?
tips for this?
thanks
This is cool because it's like the start of some bigger theory in a sense lol
I mean dimension theory basically lol like studying how primes of R[x] relate to primes of R, I mean
oh
So the point is like R[x] has more primes than R is some sense and a PID is essentially as close as you can be to a field without being one
that's the kind of intuition i mean lol
In fact I can illustrate what I mean lol
Are you fine with the fact that R is a field iff it has no non-zero proper ideals
(1) isn't prime
yeah
Okay so the point is like, okay suppose R has a maximal ideal m which is non-zero
Well then the ideal m[x] of polynomials in R[x] with coefficients in m is also a prime ideal
sounds similiar to localization?
But m[x] isn't maximal, since A[x]/m[x] is isomorphic to (A/m)[x] which is a polynomial ring over a field, hence not a field lol
assignment
So m[x] is strictly contained in a maximal ideal M, say
What is the course about?
But then we have strict inclusions 0 < m[x] < M of prime ideals in R[x]
Which is impossible for a PID
comm alg and galois
noice
we could have just said that (X) is a maximal ideal
and then R[X]/(X) = R
and a field
interesting
if J is an ideal, then J^2 = {ab} where a,b in J?
context?
and in general we have J > J^2 > J^3 > ..
no
closed under addition?
commutative algebra?
you wrote ab so I thought you are treating a,b as ideals
is this true?
strict? no otherwise yes
that's not what TT meant
For example if J is your entire ring they'd be all equal, so specifying the order relation is important
what did she mean?
you may not be able write all elements of J² as ab. what you do is take finite sum of the form a1b1+a2b2+...+anbn
ohhh
Krull dimension thingy, although not too hard to verify if you think about what it means for a principal ideal to be prime
no that's not what i meant at all lmao
ryu nailed it
How is this not just a variation of the krull dimension of PIDs?
... that's exactly what it is lol
Getting mixed signals here lol
any (m mod IM) = r_1(x1 mod IM) + ... + r_n (xn mod IM)
I am assuming someone asking about this hasn't covered dimension theory - that's why I did it in more elementary terms
This is a really fun one.
looks hard lol
Lol TTEG any uh further hints for that galois q i was doing
I'm not sure how to check if a poly is irreducible using the Galois group hm
im guessing the preimages of the x_i will generate M
I mean my idea was basically to consider that the polynomial I gave, if irreducible, has splitting field F_{p^{2^{k}}
And play around w that being impossible but hm
I tried to be elementary, just name dropped krull dimension
As did i lol, i mentioned dimension theory
So if x is a root then the galois group acts on 1, x, x^2, x^3, ..., x^{2^k -1}
We are assuming that Frob_p acting on this set has order 2^k otherwise the polynomial is not irreducible.
I mean okay so F_{p^{2^k}} is generated bby the roots of x^{2^k} + 1
I wasn't saying you weren't, it's all good. Moving on.
So what is the order of multiplication by p in Z/2^k?
Oh okay sure
Hm
Wait okay I was gonna say has order 2^k right lol
But that is wrong ig
Addition by p has order 2^k for sure.
Lol
if p is not 2.
But first question: is multiplication by p invertible in Z/2^k?
Second question, what is the size of Aut(Z/2^k)?
Third question: are there any order 2^k automorphisms of Z/2^k?
wait uh isn't p equal to 1?
sorry im crazy
1 is my fave prime
The rare "(0) is an integral domain" supporter.
i literally alqways confuse Z/n with F_n
Stephen Crowder at a desk meme: 0 is an integral domain, change my mind.
love its field of fractions
Best algebraic closure in class
Actually that is an interesting question, is the algebraic closure of the field with one element just $\mathbb{N}$ as a "vector space"?
Lol
Literally everything becomes algebraic
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
Anyway potato, yes a group of order 2^{k-1} has no elements of order 2^k

I mean yes
When I said 2^k I meant like according to the work we've done thus far, not answering in an absolute sense lol
Lol idk why my brain is exploding over this question in particular, maybe I need a break lol
Oh well the point is this means that on the field $F_p(x)$ Frobenius has order $\leq 2^{k-1}$, so $F_p(x) \subset F_{p^{2^{k-1}}}$, so $x$ cannot have a minimal polynomial of degree $2^k$.
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
If you know Nakayama's lemma from class it is one line.
Hm
Okay so why is this true, like why did you omit x^{2^k} = -1
I'm not really sure what you are doing tbh I am confusion 😿

I am go eat dinners I think but will be bach thankies
Oh whoops I should've said it acts on the set -1, x, x^2, ..., maybe that's what was confusing you?
hi there, I need some help multiplying these two permutations. the result should be a product of disjoint cycles.
(1 2 4)(3 6 5) * (1 6 5)(2 3)
I started off with 1 which maps to 6, which then maps to 5
What do I try to map next, 2? or 6?
You should just follow an element until you get back to where you started, then try an element which you haven't tried before, it is deterministic.
So after you try 1 -> 5, you should try 5 (which goes to 2) then keep going until you get back to 1.
Nice, i was thinking some bs
I am a bit confused if this is what they want because in this form it essentially "is" nakayama's lemma. They may want them to actually prove it themselves.
Say you have a group G, where |G| = mp (p is prime). And we want to show there exists a subgroup of G with order p. I suppose Lagrange is not sufficient for this statement? (I suppose Lagrange can rule out certain subgroups being possible, but can it prove a subgroup with a certain order definitely exists?)
it's sylow time baby
There is a partial converse to Lagrange called Cauchy's theorem, and a stronger one called Sylow's theorems.
For what you want it's just Cauchy's theorem.
I wonder if there are some analogues of Sylow for infinite groups
i've heard there is a profinite generalization of sylow, but never looked what it was
Since profinite groups are determined by their finite quotients it's just the obvious bootstrapping.
so is it just like, given any profinite, there is a maximal pro-p subgroup?
and you obtain it by applying sylow to all finite quotietns and taking the inverse limit again
"Given an infinite group G, for every prime p G contains a subgroup of order p^\infty"
what if G was countable tho
I was just spitballing lol, I've never really thought about it
All countable profinite groups are finite.
I should work with profinite groups sometime
no i mean, if G was countable then you can't have a subgroup of order p^infty 
oh yea i've seen a cute proof for this. you put a finite Haar measure on it and then poof, it can't be countable 
G is a subgroup of order p^\infty unless its finite 🙂
p^infty is uncountable 
I was too well-vaccinated as a child to understand jokes 
Aww tysm x
Actually seeing p^infty reminds me of a paper I read part of
I'll try to find it lol
Okay dinners helped with the Galois problem I was doing lol so uh @ topos lol
You can define p-groups as groups where all elements are of order p^n, and then you can still talk about Sylow subgroups in infinite groups as maximal p-groups
iirc this theory works well for nilpotent groups
Very neat
I guess the point is like okay for the moment assume $p \ne 2$ and say $f = x^{2^{\ell}} + 1$ is irreducible and has splitting field $K$ over $F_p$ and let $\alpha$ be any root of $f$ in $K$. Well on the one hand, we know that $\alpha$ has order $2^{\ell+1}$ in $K^\times$, but we also know - from the Fröbenius etc - that the roots of $x^{2^{\ell}} + 1$ must be given by $\alpha, \alpha^p,\dots,\alpha^{p^{2^{\ell-1}$. This implies in particular that $p^{2^{\ell-1}} \not \equiv 1 \mod 2^{\ell + 1}$. This is absurd for $\ell \ge 2$ because $(\mathbb Z/2^{\ell+1})^\times$ is not cyclic.
potato
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Lol my apologies
And the p = 2 case should be easier i think
For example because every finite extension of a finite field is separable
So there are no irreducible inseparable polynomials over F_p I suppose
I think the idea is right but Z/2^{l+1} has cyclic multiplicative group. Also I don’t understand the occurrences of l+1 instead of l.
Well $\alpha^{2^{\ell}} = -1$, so $\alpha$ has order $2^{\ell+1}$. And huh, pretty sure $(\mathbb Z/2^{\ell+1})^\times$ does not have a cyclic multiplicative group for $\ell \ge 2$
potato
How do I show that $\mathbb{Q}(\mu_m) \cap \mathbb{Q}(\mu_n) = \mathbb{Q}$ for $m,n$ coprime?
Jeeves
where $\mu_n$ is the primitive nth root of unity ofc
Jeeves
Oh cool, what was your idea?
Oh lol I saw this on stack exchange
@south patrol what's your mse handle
planning to stalk 
Anyway, I'm p sure once you turn this into Galois theory this becomes CRT.
Unless I'm mistaken lol
Uh should just be nuclear potato
how do you turn it into galois? fixed field?
Considering them as subextensions of Q(ε_{mn}) and noting that an intersection of fields corresponds to the smallest subgroup containing both groups
||I believe basically Q(ε_m) and Q(ε_n) correspond to the subgroups (Z/m)^x x 1 and 1 x (Z/n)^x of (Z/m)^x x (Z/n)^x, from which the result follows quickly||
Perhaps I am making a dumb dumb though - i think it should be a bit more delicate but idk
nono I think that's right
you can also say [Q(α):Q] | m and |n so | 1 so for any alpha in the intersection, it must be of degree 1
okay that is nice lol
Wait
Primitive root of order m has a degree φ(m) min poly tho, not m ryu, so i'm not sure how that'd work?
"without loss of generality, assume that phi(m) = m and phi(n) = n"
refuses to elaborate
Yeah if degree arguments like that worked I wouldn't be asking lol I hope
What does work as @south patrol suggested is to look at the degree of Q(\mu_{nm})
Yeah I see 😦 I can't believe I missed that
||I think the groups should be backwards cuz you're looking at Gal(Q(e_nm)/Q(e_m)) which should be (Z/n)^x||
Not that it matters
Yes true sorr6
what was the purpose of the sentence before "Then"? (underlined in blue)
It's to show that the preimage of H contains N
ah got it thx
why is the join the smallest subgroup of G containing HN? if Ej is a subgroup containing HN, shouldn't it be smaller than the intersection of groups E1, E2, ... EN containing HN?
No, the intersection would be a subset of E_j
hmm ok thank u
what exactly do they mean by factoring the canonical map by a normal subgroup K of G?
(this is the third isomorphism theorem)
Anyone willing to help me out with tensors?
ask ur question
All I know about tensors is they are bilinear formssatisfy the universal property but the idea is too abstract for me to be able to answer a question like this
hint: C = R[x]/(x^2 + 1)
alrighty
How to show that if R is a commutative ring and $R[T]$ is the polynomial ring. $f=\sum_{i=0}^da_iT^i \in R[T]$ is a unit if and only if $a_0$ is a unit and $a_i$ is nilpotent for $i >0$. The tip I got on this exercise is to look at is to look at $g=\sum_{i=0}^eb_iT^i$ such that $fg=1$ and then prove $a_d^{k+1}b_{e-k}=0$ by induction. But I don’t really get how to get to the last equation and what it means. The only thing I know is that it probably relies on the fact that if a is a unite and x is nilpotent then a + x is also a unit.
1000101
Okay so like
One direction follows from the fact you mentioned at the bottom, pretty much immediately
For the other direction, well the hint is pretty inefficient
I think it's best to think about prime ideals - it gives a way cleaner solution
The easy direction is the one were I know that a_0 is a unit and the other coefficents are nilpotent and I just need to construct the g, right?
That is the easy direction but yes it actually just follows from the fact
We haven’t talked about prime ideals yet 👍
It’s part of a linear algebra class and we just talked a little bit about ring theory
ah this is a famous book?
The problem I have is to show that it has to follow this property. Intuitively it’s very obvious, but it’s hard for me to get an idea how to formalize it.
Yeah, it's a classic graduate textbook in its subject.
Ah yes you’re right! Just looked at it it’s the second exercise. Now I’m interested to learn about prime ideals.
I actually think it’s more instructive to write out the system of equations for an inverse personally! Fwiw
Because this same type of proof also shows up in other contexts
The “linear algebra” way is more flexible
I will try it
On a side note: Is it true that if $a,b,c \in R$ and $(a) \cap (b) = (c)$ that c is a lcm
1000101
The element c is the natural analogue of “lcm” even when such a thing may not exist.
In rings where an lcm does exist, it will be the element (c)
Thanks Gallian
That sounds a lot like Piet Hein. Is that poem properly attributed?
nope
And yet the author probably expects his readers not to plagiarize stuff in their homework. Three cheers for double standards.
I'm lost about computing Ext and Tor
Ok so I want to compute $\text{Ext}_1^\mathbb{Z}(A, \mathbb{Z})$ where $A$ is a finite abelian group. So I think I start with a projective resolution of $\mathbb{Z}$ and then what?
Spamakin🎷
Ext is additive, so applying the classification you have to compute it for A = Z/nZ only
Now you have an easy resolution to use, now compute
Also, if you wanted to compute it via resolving Z you need to use injectives
You use projectives when resolving the first argument
wdym Ext is additive
Oh
I see
And if I wanted to compute directly with Z, I use an injective resolution?
0 -> Z - n -> Z -> Z/nZ -> 0 right?
I'm on phone (forgot laptop) so excuse that notation
Yeah
And then apply Hom and go from there? Lemme try that
I mean once you apply Hom you get a really funny thing
Uh
Is the answer 0?
Yes it took me this long but I double checked stuff and I'm hoping it's indeed 0
Hmmm maybe I fucked up
Ok yea I fucked up but I'm not sure how to compute the image of the pullback of multiplication by n on Hom(Z, Z)
is it just nHom(Z, Z)?
yeah
Ok then I got it
like the complex you end up getting is Z->Z with the map given by multiplication by n, so you should get Hom(Z/nZ,Z)=0 and Ext^1(Z/nZ,Z)=Z/nZ
I got 0 by accidentally assuming that applying Hom(-, Z) I'd maintain exactness and clearly no
Yea that's my homework, prove that's the case
But honestly all this homology stuff is brand brand new to me
So I'm still in "wtf even are these objects" mode
yea
in general it can be pretty hard to do explicit computations with this complex or finding good resolutions
but the general recipe is the same
General recipe is still trippy
for Ext it's kinda trippy because you can do a resolution on the right or on the left and it's annoying to remember which way things go
oh like if you're computing Ext^i(A,B)
you could take an injective resolution of B
and then apply Hom(A,-) to that
versus taking a projective resolution of A
and then apply Hom(-,B) to that
somehow the second of these is more natural or nicer in some ways, not least because projective resolutions are usually nicer to work with than injective resolutions
the fact that you can do both of these things and end up with the same answer is weird and not obvious
I may try to prove that
Probably a good exercise
And will let me wrap my head around things
For computing Tor^i(A, B)
Would it just be the dual?
Take projective resolution of B, apply A ⊗ -
Or equivalently
Take injective resolution of A, apply - ⊗ B
well no, with Tor there's only one way
Aw
tensor product commutes in a way that Hom doesn't
Ok I guess more homework, find a counterexample
Ok so I have to start with a projective resolution for Tor
like if you're tensoring on the left versus on the right with a module it doesn't matter
versus if you Hom on the left versus right it changes the exactness properties among other things
and yeah for Tor you start with a projective resolution
of either A or B
so I guess there are two ways it's just they're both projective and now it's maybe a little clearer how things might be isomorphic
Tensor is additive right? So if I want to compute Tor^1(A, Z) for A finite abelian, I still only need to consider A = Z/nZ?
And then apply - ⊗ Z?
yup, and then compute cohomology of the resulting complex
that's always the recipe, you resolve your object, discard the original object from the resolution, apply the functor, compute cohomology
omg so true
<@&268886789983436800>
lmao
agressive discussion of cohomology lmao
Forget to compute cohomology, compare answer with friend who also forgot to compute cohomology, panik
Homological algebra is such an interesting topic. I'm currently soing some work trying to prove Serre's characterization of regular local rings using global dimension
..............._
What's s(s with bar) in dihedral group
who knows
grrj
I think basically something incorrect! You really have to know that (Z/2^k)^* is not cyclic to solve this problem without really struggling.
fröbenius lol
Ah ok
What lol
Oh I didn't realise it was like
Lüroth
I was the cool kid who wrote Weierstraß and stuff
DER KRULLSCHE HAUPTIDEALSATZ
German people parse umlauts like texit bot parses latex. If you put an umlaut in one part of a message and not another all of the text is indented with no spaces when they try to read it. It's actually quite hard on the eyes for them.
Pray for germans 🙏
and it's frobenius not fröbenius lol
do you know how to pronounce nullstellensatz?
Oh lol didn't even realise
I think I mistakenly thought it was Fröbenius and then assumed people spelling it Frobenius were just lazy anglophones
Nein. Die Wörter Null, Stellen und Satz kann ich zwar aussprechen, das Kompositum bringt mich aber zum Ausschreien, Weinen und Kotzen.
GCDs are unchanged under taking algebraic field extensions I'm p sure basically
Greatest common divisors don’t change across extensions
how does that help
Since you compute them by euclidian division
Well it’s a theorem about gcd’s
So we can compute that gcd in an algebraic closure without changing anything
Or Euclidean division lol
How does that apply to this question though
I’m not sure this is the right way to show it I don’t see how you conclude in the end
Euclidian division is more transparent imo
You can show the GCD in the alg closure is X-b
and then the GCD in the original field is also X-b
What’s the general theorem?
oh
Wait now I'm paranoid I've made a mistake, I may have
I have a tendency to not see obvious things so dw
Ah okay nah my theorem was mistated lol
how does this proof work though?
since we want to show that X -b is the GCD
X - c is another common factor, we must show that X -c | X - b
The way i understood
For finitely many lambda, X - b is not the GCD
since X - b and X - c is a factor
And that means for all but finitely many, X - b is the gcd
Heyy! \
Here is my conclusion my paper on the ring of fractions. I'm not too confident with my words since it's a conclusion and not a proof, and especially in English. What do you think of it?\
(Let $A$ be a commutative ring and $\p$ be a prime ideal of $A$, let $A[(A\setminus\mathfrac{p})^{-1}]$ be the ring of fractions of $A$ over $A\setminus\mathfrac{p}$.)\
The fact that the ring of fractions of $A$ over $A\setminus\mathfrac{p}$ is local suggests that the information contained in this ring behaves particularly well around $\mathfrac{p}$. To be more specific, the concept of a local ring captures the idea that the elements of $A$ that are not invertible "behave" like zero. In the case of $A[(A\setminus\mathfrac{p})^{-1}]$, this means that the elements of $A$ that are not invertible in $A\setminus\mathfrac{p}$ are "localized" in $A[(A\setminus\mathfrac{p})^{-1}]$. We can see this like "smoothing" the behavior of $A$ near $\mathfrac{p}$, where the non-invertible elements of $A\setminus\mathfrac{p}$ are "approximated" to zero.\
This is the reason some sources call the ring of fractions the "localization".
Overfull hbox, badness 1000
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Can someone help me see where I am going wrong with this. I want to show that for a finite abelian group $A$ we have that $\text{Tor}{1}^\mathbb{Z}(A, \mathbb{Q} / \mathbb{Z}) \simeq A$. Without loss of generality by classification we consider $A = \mathbb{Z} / n\mathbb{Z}$. So I have the following projective resolution
$$
0 \to \mathbb{Z} \xrightarrow{n} \mathbb{Z} \to \mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z} \to 0
$$
and now I apply $- \otimes{\mathbb{Z}} \mathbb{Q} / \mathbb{Z}$ and recover
$$
0 \to \mathbb{Z} \otimes_{\mathbb{Z}} \mathbb{Q} / \mathbb{Z} \xrightarrow{1 \otimes n} \mathbb{Z} \otimes_{\mathbb{Z}} \mathbb{Q} / \mathbb{Z} \to \mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z} \otimes_{\mathbb{Z}} \mathbb{Q} / \mathbb{Z} \to 0.
$$
So now to compute $\text{Tor}_{1}^\mathbb{Z}(A, \mathbb{Q} / \mathbb{Z})$ I want to compute
$$
\text{ker}( 1 \otimes n) / \text{im}(0) \simeq \text{ker}( 1 \otimes n).
$$
And here I'm stuck. In theory my end goal suggests $\text{ker}( 1 \otimes n) = \mathbb{Z} / n\mathbb{Z}$. However the kernel of the identity map $1$ is $0$. So $\text{ker}( 1 \otimes n) = 0 \otimes$ something $= 0$ and so I don't see how I recover $\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z}$. I know I'm doing something wrong but I can't see what.
Spamakin🎷
the map should be n⊗1, but that doesn't matter... 1⊗(1/n) would be in the kernel eitherway
oh oops yea that's backwards
wait wdym
1⊗(1/n) would be mapped to n⊗(1/n) = 1⊗1 = 1⊗0 = 0
ah rip
maybe this will help: https://youtu.be/t1CRjNriCR8
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Oh I need to use the fact that for abelian groups $G$ we hvae $\mathbb{Z} \otimes G \simeq G$ right?
Spamakin🎷
yea, that would simplify the complex
so you'll have the map Q/Z --> Q/Z given by multiplication by n
and by definition Tor_0 is coker and Tor_1 is kernel of it
right
so then I need to show ker of that is Z/nZ which is kinda obvious but idk how Z/nZ appears as a subsett of Q/Z formally
like the intuition is there for sure but I can't state it precisely which is bad
how would you even tensor non abelian groups
well I'm viewing them as Z modules
implicitly
you need a ring of some sort for tensors but that's neither here nor there right now
can you find an element in Q/Z that has (additive) order n?
yep, so <1/n> is the copy of Z/nZ that you're looking for 
Tysm

Isn't the answer 2??
assuming by 1^(1/n) you mean zeta_n = exp(2 pi i/n), those two fields are equal. zeta_34 = - (zeta_17)^9
Indeed the nth cyclotomic extension has degree phi(n) and phi(2n) = phi(2) phi(n) = phi(n) for n odd for example
thats horrifying notation...
Yeah he's really something this professor 😂
btw
I think Gauss actually uses the square root notation in modular arithmetic
like sqrt(-1) to denote an x st x^2=-1 mod something
and like roots of 1
Based
That's awful
Cyclotomic polynomials.
Oh lol went down the rabbit hole looking at proofs of irreducibulity of cyclotomic polus
Weird
Oof
we did that in alg 1 
it was horrifying
Which proof(s) did you do
I saw a weird proof which I really enjoyed but it's long if you write it all out properly and rigorously lol
my fault it is
lol
Piet Hein, "T. T. T.," Grooks (1966)
wanted to let everyone know who helps me with questions here that i got a 97% on my last abstract algebra midterm
feelin good abt the final now 
Death by subscripts
y'all goated fr
this is the proposition btw
@south patrol
the reply didn't work once again
F_0[x] = Z[x] => F_0 = Z confirmed 
Inch resting
Fr
Nah interesting lol
The way it's written reminds me of my German lecturer lol
The mod p stuff
Idk I haven't seen others write it like that
http://math0.bnu.edu.cn/~liuym/Book-algebras-and-representations.pdf
Can someone help me understand p. 33, especially Definition 2.7 and Proposition 2.9?
I don't understand proposition 2.9 because in order to define a(v)=X·v we need to define ·, but · seems to be defined in terms of a, this seems circular.
I don't understand this :/
You are starting a priori with a K[x] module V, and you are defining a 'new' structure on it via definition 2.7, and you wanna show that this new structure is actually equivalent
xv is a prior defined in V
Alpha is just the multiplication by x map
So we're basically not explicitly defining · here?
Ah, I see. So Definition 2.7 is, at first, just an "example" of a K[X] module that later appears to characterize all K[X] modules?
Definition 2.7 says "That's a way to define a K[X] module"
Proposition 2.9 says "Actually, you can characterize all K[X] modules that way using alpha=Xv"
Still a bit weird to me ... if we say that it is already defined, are we saying that it is defined in the manner of definition 2.7?
Like is there a ß: V->V somewhere in the background that we're not explicitly mentioning?
Well, technically every K[x] module structure can be obtained this way, but that's not really important
Well yea that's pretty much that
"can be obtained in this way" means "there are others, but we can reduce them to this way"?
It means this is alwahs an equivalent definition
That's in fact what the proposition says
Like, the relevant homomorphism IS alpha in this case
That defines the module structure
The module structure is given to you from on high, but it can always be reduced to 'what is K doing to V' and 'what is X doing to V'
By linearity
You mean what "K[X] is doing to V"?
And the question 'what is X doing to V' is answered by 'it acts as a K-module homomorphism'
No I mean K separately and X separately
Like, the action of K[X] on V is defined by what is x . v and what elements of K do to an element v
Hmm
I feel like my answers are just confusing you further, i'm not sure how to phrase this in the best way for you to understand, sorry
If we know how g acts on v, it is no suprise we know how X acts on v. The converse is the interesting part.
Well, every polynomial is just a sum of elements of a_ix^i right
That we know from the way X acts on v, we know how any g acts on v
If we know how x acts once then we know how ot acts i times as well
And we know that the module action is distributive
So if we knoe how K acts and how X acts, you knoe how X^i acts, and so you know how a sum of a_iX^i acts
Is what I mean
If we're saying that V is a K[X]-module, we know there is a ·: K[X]xV-->V which fulfills the necessary axioms. And, in proposition 2.9, I should not confuse this · with the Definition 2.7 where we say that g · v:=g(alpha)(v). Is that correct?
Because otherweise, if we set alpha(v)=X·v, we'd have alpha(v)=X·v=g(alpha)(v) where g=X.
Yes
You don't know how \cdot acts in this case
But you can think of using alpha to define a NEW action
g*v= g(alpha)(v)
Okay, thanks, that's what was confusing me
I think I understand
Great!
I feel like this presentation is kind of misleading however
In what way
Because of this
But maybe I am the problem 🤣
@chilly radish To sum up, we have to multiplications:
(i) g·v=g(alpha)(v)) as in Definition 2.7
(ii) * which is not further defined and associated with the K[X] module V in Prop. 2.9
Next, we're trying to show that V=V_alpha by using alpha(v)=X*v (* is the multiplication in (ii)).
And then, we're relating (i) to (ii). g*v=g·v?
g·v:=g(alpha)(v)
HOW is this obvious 🫠
But I believe I understand now ...
"It reams to check that for any polynomial g we have g*v=g·v"
Yes
You're very welcome
a module is projective iff every ses splits iff left morphism is an exact functor
is there any nice condition like the middle one for an injective module too?
like a module is injective iff right morphism is an exact functor
but I'm looking for one similar to that every ses splits
what does it mean that left morphism is an exact functor?
the R-mod P is projective iff Hom_R(P, \cdot) is an exact functor
P is projective iff 0 --> M --> N --> P --> 0 splits
similarly
Q is injective iff 0 --> Q --> M --> N --> 0 splits
thanks
You should prove this because it's very similar to the proof of the definitions of projective being equivalent
didn't know this was called left-morphism 
i just call it covariant hom :p
ah right makes sense
will do
det did you learn spectral sequences

.<
I may work through the last section of aluffi and supplement with vakil
But really I think I just need to do lots of computations
det tried reading some AG today
me ded

its so hard to read a book from somewhere in the middle >.<
what book did you read
hartshorne 
wanted to read about surfaces for a talk i need to give
yea fully.
Yeah, aluffi is entirely self-contained
It's honestly so worth to learn as many different spectral sequences as possible to play around with, cause some contexts are easier than others
yes, but for the sequences stuff and categorical stuff, would it make sense?
idk just curious
Yes, I learned all of the homological algebra I know from the last chapter of aluffi
but whats the point of homological and cohomological stuff
Makes sense, the only context I've seen them applied in is alg top for some homotopy group computations but I should diversify
doesnt this come from like differential forms for example, and serre duality?
I mean the main build up of the last chapter is proving existence of derived functors and all of the machinery behind that
But once you have the tools it opens up a lot of other areas
And you can talk about those in a purely algebraic context, though motivating them might be more natural from topological settings and stuff as you suggest
so the applications things he talks about here are like topological and geometric things?
(this is the first paragraph of the homo chapter)
Yeah, lots of applications to topology, geometry, and number theory to name a few off the top of my head
where does homo and cohomo things show up in NT?
Galois cohomology seems to be a popular phrase
ahhh right
I think Ill wait to study these things
first I wanna see them in nature 🏞️
Fair enough
I would totally look at the Atiyah-Hirzebruch SS, the K-Theory calculations are really good for getting comfortable. It's also not too bad to show cool results like how rational K-theory and even degree cohomology with rational coefficients are isomorphic via the chern character or something. But other than that, the Serre SS, the Lyndon-Hochschild-Serre SS, and the Cartan-Leray SS for a cover are so nice too.
Ah yeah, I've done a bit of lyndon-hochschild-serre so I'll review that
But thanks, I'll try to get around to these
Yeah Caran-Leray is a slight generalization where you mix group cohomology with a space that the group acts on to compute quotient spaces
stupid question, but what do they mean with "replacing M by 0"?
Quite literally just taking the projective resolution of M and placing a 0 where the M is

how is H_0(P) = M if we're removing M from the sequence
In the projective resolution, exactness implies that M is the cokernel of P_1 -> P_0
When we replace M with 0, H_0 of the resulting sequence is P_0 / im(P_1 -> P_0), where P_0 is the kernel of P_0 -> 0
and the quotient is precisely the cokernel of P_1 -> P_0
I'm confoosed, do the morphisms stay the same?
Yes, all the other morphisms are the same
except the one from P_0 to M?
ah
yeah ok I see where I went wrong
I thought the sequence should still be exact 
thanks walter
Lol yeah was a joke, the only way I know to compute it is comparing with CP^n/CP^m and stuff
np
fuck I ran out of paper
Idk any non-trivial AHSS computations besides that though eek, isn't it rly rough in the real case for example
AHSS abbreviation for?
Yeah it is rough for the real case but you can still get information in certain degrees for relatively simple spaces (speaking from what I've done which isn't very much). And yeah even in the complex case it's still hard for spaces that aren't like spheres or CP^n's (but low dimensional manifolds are plausible to me), but I think these still give a feel for it at least.
Atiyah-Hirzebruch spectral sequence

I definitely saw an MO post about computing some stable homotopy groups of RP^2 using AHSS which was cool

And I guess just pulling up a list of cohomology theories gives you a lot of examples to play around with
You can show how oriented cobordism agrees with singular cohomology in low dimensions for example, which is pretty cool IMO. It just gives you a context to work with spectral sequences versus just running something like a base-change Ext SS or really any Grothendieck SS (except if you do algebraic geometry or something like that)
Tensors are useful objects in their own right (differential forms), but I've often heard in their algebraic study something along the lines of "tensors [or more specifically the universal property] allow[s] us to convert problems about multilinear maps into problems about linear maps, i.e. we can use linear algebra." What is an example of a problem about multilinear maps that can be solved in this fashion?
maybe it's worth mentioning that this passage is almost certainly referring to the universal property that tensor products satisfy: it literally turns multilinear maps into linear maps in this sense
I’m not sure about “when it’s useful.” Almost any proof using linear algebra could be translated into multi linear algebra in one line. But it puts everything on the same footing which is pleasant
it's just meant to say that any time you have a bilinear map out of a product, you can turn it into a linear map out of a tensor product. Linear algebra is about vector spaces and linear maps between them, so by doing this you've brought multilinear maps back into the natural setting for linear algebra
you can come up with particular examples for how this would be handy, so long as you can come up with particular examples of bilinear maps that you care about
tensor products are essential to the existence of blackholes :pack:
she doesn't know
unaware
clueless
Hm so I was wondering smth. The way the lecture notes I was following constructs induced reps as follows: let $H \sub G$ be a subgroup and $W$ a $k$-linear rep of $H$. Then we form the tensor product $k[G] \otimes_k W$ of $k$-modules, turn it into a $(kG,kH)$-bimodule by $g \cdot (x \otimes w) = gx \otimes w$ and $h \cdot (x \otimes w) = xh^{-1} \otimes h \cdot w$ and then take the $H$-coinvariants
topos, I can't believe you don't already know this at (insert age here). aren't you ashamed of yourself?
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How does this fit in with more general theory? i can't seem to find much about this construction at all...
It seems a little perverse to tensor over k and then add structure for example
hi mrean
But idk if this is a special case of some more general construction that I've not seen
Wouldn’t it make more sense to mention entanglement if you were going to talk about something physical which needs tensor products?
she doesn't know
entanglement is an immediate consequence of what wew said
maybe this is just saying that this tensor product naturally carries this structure, which is fine
stop taking anything I say seriously I'm the court jester
hm ok
I mean somehow one part of what is happening that is quite natural is like
I realise now that basically what he's doing is like
can I see one / a sketch perhaps
In a sense he's just splitting up the "normal" construction of a tensor product over a non-comm ring into first quotientien out stuff to make everything k-linear and then quotienting out even more stuff
like the tensor product is the natural way to go from k[H]-modules to k[G]-modules, but then if H is already a subgroup of G it's maybe not so surprising that you should be able to extract some other k[H]-module structure from this new k[G]-module
I think it’s just the usual definition of induction via tensor products as in eg Fulton and Harris but phrased in a slightly less common way.
there's a tiny bit about this written in Remark 1.14 of Bellovin's notes: https://rmbellovin.github.io/teaching/induced.pdf
hm how so
appears right after the more standard construction
I mean all the constructions are equivalent ultimately ofc so like
They just break it up into tensor product, then push out
But yeah I guess sure the H-coinvariants should be thought of as corresponding to orbits under the action of H on G

I mean fundamentally quotient if by that left action of C[H] is what it means to take \otimes_C[H] so it’s just the usual definition
Indeed
Wait so what was the question?
Hm that's not quite this though lol
Wait hm
Idk it was more like has anyone seen this kinda construction / is it a special case of smth more general
And the answer sort of seems to be know lol, like it's close to but not the same lol
sorry for the stupid question but I don't quite get where we get the cochain complex from
This is confusing me though like why opt for smth different to what books seem to do typically xd but fair
it says directly below the complex
yeah I mean the definitions are equivalent, I don't know that I've really seen this particular phrasing of it that much
but they're only a few steps removed from each other
It is, if you have a right space M for a group and a left space N you can take a space M x^G N which is the push out of the two spaces along this action
That’s a very general construction
Yup sure
but P is ... -> P_2 -> P_1 -> P_0 -> 0, no?
that functor is contravariant is it not
oh I'm stoopid
the N is on the right
sorry
I need to find some good examples of induced reps though because I have literally seen a single example where they are useful for computations aha
apology not accepted.... u will be fined
wait, really?
I know ultimately they are useful theoretically e.g. Brauer induction theorem and I've used Frobenius reciprocity
Yeah Wew lol
have you never computed one? 
Well I guess as an exercise like once
this is the problem with u lalaland mathematicians u don't ever actually DO anything u jsut talk shite
But for actually computing character tables I usually just use orthogonality and things lol
and that's what everyone seems to do idk
Lalaland mathematician
Or like inflate characters
yeah lifting is more normal but sometimes the group is simple!!
more normal xd
Lalalangland mathematician
xdxddxxdfxdxddxxdxddx
Hm are there any good examples to do stuff with
like where induction helps you find new reps
induce from a normal subgroup see what the affect of tensoring with C[G] IS
Maybe try inducing a character from an index two subgroup?
Yeah I imagine that is good but isn't that pretty special but yeah
wow it's what I said but cooler... wow.... ok.... yeah wow....
Stuff like D_n works well I guess
Maybe I just don't have enough groups in my mind lol
The galois representations of Cm elliptic curves defined over Q are of that form
It’s useful to recognize
Oh interesting
automorphic induction of Hecke characters 
hmmmmmmm index p subgroup.... how delectable my dear...
is this typo? should this say nth cohomology group?
Yes, depending on their definitions. The most natural thing to call it would be cohomology.
I mean it’s just an indexing thing, it would be just as logical to call it the H_{-n} of some complex in negative degrees 🙂
Why is f(1) = 1 lol?
Is this a valid proof that there exists no isomorphism between (Q, +) and (Q, *):
Let f: (Q, +) -> (Q, *) be an isomorphism. Then necessarily f(1) = 1so f(2) = f(1 + 1) = f(1) * f(1) = 1, contradiction.
The identity of Q under addition is 0
Anyway, consider what would need to map to -1 inside of (Q,*). Also, I think you want (Q\{0},*) if you want both to be groups
yeah rip
I think this is really the simplest proof
You don’t even need to write anything down
Just notice that (Q,+) has no finite order elements other than 0
But (Q\{0},*) has an order 2 element
Right
How about H^n (X)? Isnt that one the most widely adopted notation?
Will someone explain this to me?
What have you tried?
I'm studying up on the frobenius automorphism now
Gal(F_{2^10}/F_2) is generated by f(a)=a^2 I think. But I don't know what to do with that here
what is the use of the first isomorphism theorem? i haven't seen it used anywhere else in my book (at least the factoring part; G/H iso to image of G is everywhere)
by factoring part i mean in that a homomorphism from G to G' can be factored into mu gamma where gamma is the canonical homomorphism from G to G/K
uh
yes
that's what it is
oh shit
my fault you're gonna say something else
my bad
it's a very commonly used tool in showing things are isomorphic, i think it's probably best to see how useful it is by doing some problems
also what textbook are you using?
hm ok that makes sense
fraleigh
hmm i remembering using that textbook before, but i forgot for what and im not too familiar with its exercises :(
aww yeah that's fair, it's very gentle and the isomorphism theorems are in the advanced group theory section
but thank u tho
i guess if you wanted to, you could prove the second, third, fourth iso theorems as exercises; idk which ones are which for you, since every book seems to have a different permutation of them lol
This is like, the most useful result in all of algebra
You quickly completely avoid writing out “by the first isomorphism theorem” because you use it so often and it becomes so engrained in your mind
I forget this is a theorem sometimes
although if you really want to write something, just write FIT, otherwise it's just too many characters lol
I would have no idea what that means, it is clearer to say nothing
i meant that usually when people are learning it for the first time, on homework people feel the need to say they used theorem xyz, but I have often seen "First Isomorphism Theorem" abbreviated at F.I.T. in some classes
strictly speaking, the factoring part isn't the first iso theorem. it's the universal property of quotients more specifically, but they're pretty much the same so doesn't matter. In particular, the universal property characterizes quotients, and so you can think of it like an equivalent definition, therefore it's super hard to not use it lmao. In the start you don't think about it much because all the maps you define is done explicitly via elements, but after a while, you would just find it easier to define the map in a few steps by using universal properties alone.
the distinct left cosets of 9ℤ in 3ℤ are 3+9ℤ and 6+9ℤ. do i include 9ℤ itself?
a set is always a coset of itself
Or just not given a name in Lang
But we do have a Tate theorem (and conjecture)
And several proofs credited to Tits
this is actually quite cool, i never thought of the first isomorphism theorem categorically
Andrew Tate ???
how do i find the cosets when the group is finite? (in a cayley table)
No, just A Tate
We know that if a,b are in the same left coset of H, say aH, then a and b differ by an element in H, say a=bh for some h in H. Also we know that the size of any two cosets are the same
Also it should be obvious since H is a group that H is so a coset of H
ok, i get this part.
The first statement is also an equivalence class
hmm ok, for instance is wH a coset of H?
Sure
but also notice that w is in H
And it is equivalent to H
ohhhh
that makes sense
so it's basically, elements that are not in H * set of H? (* is the binary operation)
sorry if obv question
But then you can see that xH and yH are the same
that's true... but it didn't say that i have to provide the distinct cosets right? (or am i just wrong)
Explicitly xH={xh | h in H}
At your level for understanding, I would write out the entire sets
ok, noted
(btw side note: this group is of card 6, there are only two groups with this cards: Z/6Z and S3. You see that the tab isn't symetrical thus the operator is not commutative: it's thus S3. You can explicitely find the x, y... that make the correspondance with S3, and the correspondance is not unique :DDD.||you can also see that the number of correspondance is the number of ways to fix the transpositions, which is 3!=6. well, Aut(S_3) = S3, which is quite beautiful :>>>|| )
unsure if i should ask this here or in #algebraic-geometry but now that school is done for the year, im planning to attempt going through atiyah and macdonald. I dont expect to work through all chapters, or finish all problems in a given chapter. For people who have done a chunk of that book though; is there anything i should know before i get into this? any important stuff the book doesn't cover? honestly anything about this endeavor is appreciated.
this is an incomplete answer but i liked eisenbud's exposition better, but you can probably use both (what i did) or use one to supplement the other
https://math.stackexchange.com/a/626429/834966 I'm trying to follow this hint but am not sure how to prove that ${1} \trianglelefteq H_1 \trianglelefteq \ldots \trianglelefteq H_k$ is a central series. I get that $H_{i+1} / H_i \cong (H_{i+1}/Z(G)) / (H_i / Z(G))$ but this isn't enough, right?
Darylgolden
thanks
i think i looked through all the preface/intro stuff in eisenbud a few months ago, but i thought that it was too beyond me
i guess that might have changed recently

Indeed there's a whole category theoretic notion called a "regular category" which is essentially a category in which a generalization of the 1st iso theorem holds.
english language and their numbers
1st iso in german is called homomorphism theorem
and 2nd/3rd are called noetherian isomorphism theorems
Based
I call them "fundamental theorem of algebra", "weird lattice boy" and "cancel fractions"
yeah but like fr the last one is just common sense

ong why would you make it look like a fraction if it doesn't behave like one
I agree, oh ny god what is wrong with anglophones?
By FTA you meant trivial corollary of Liouville's Theorem right?
legendre symbol 
Nah I'm joking like first isomorphism theorem
FTA's Galois theory proof is cutest anyway imo
Wait, then this means that the SIT and the TIT are trivial corollaries of a trivial corollary of Liouville's Theorem
Let G be an abelian group of order n, and define a function f by f(m)= # of elements in G of order m
you can recover G from f obviously
but I wanted to write an algorithm to do that, and all Im thinking of is very "brute force"
so idk if there would be a nice way to do that
cuz first, Id obtain the prime factorization of n
then you do something
and it suffices to implement the algorithm for the case when n is a prime power

like you could try every single possibility lmao
nvm I think this might be simpler
you look at the highest order, say its p^k. Then you know G=(Z/p^kZ)^r*H. Say the highest order in H is p^q, then to find r you want to look at how many elements of order p^q are there
and proceed
I thought this was only true if G is simple
Oh, is it finite?
ah yeye
n < \infty
I actually wonder like
if you look at this function f for an arbitrary group (not necessarily abelian) of fixed order, how many isomorphism classes are there with the same f
like I dont think G can be recovered from f in general
There are some non abelian cases
I don't know if there is going to be a satisfying answer for this, even with just two composition factors it's very complex.
Or are there?
Does this give you S_p?
Cause F(2) isn't necessarily a transposition
Oh, and I'm already assuming it embeds into an appropriate symmetric group
it would be funny to compute f for S_n
What do you mean by F(p) > 1 and F(2) > 1? Those are very loose conditions and it's not the kind of detail that @rotund aurora was asking for
wait I think you could do that, or something close
It's a pretty simple exercise to do so.
yeh think I did something similar some time ago
I'm trying to guarantee a transposition and a p cycle.
But yeah, I think this is way too loose to do anything with
Okay basically what I was confusion about was like uh
So let's take $\alpha = \sqrt{1 + \sqrt{7}}$ and consider the normal closure of $K:=\mathbb Q(\alpha)$. P sure this is just $L:= \mathbb Q(\alpha,\beta)$ where $\beta = \sqrt{1 - \sqrt{7}}$, and that we have extensions $L/K/\mathbb Q(\sqrt{7})/\mathbb Q$ all of degree 2
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Now I want to say that $\mathrm{Gal}(L/\mathbb Q) \simeq \mathbb Z/2 \times \mathbb Z/2 \times \mathbb Z/2$, because we can basically send $\sqrt{7} \mapsto \pm \sqrt{7}$, then map $\alpha \mapsto \pm \alpha$ and then $\beta \mapsto \pm \beta$, breaking it up as I did into extensions of degree 2
potato
But this seems wrong, since then there are 4 elements fixing beta, even though Q(beta) should be a degree 4 extension of Q I guess
Perhaps I am just messing up part of the correspondence lol
Don't you have some autos that send alpha to beta?
Yeah agreed since they are roots of the same irreducible poly
But now I am confused what was wrong with the reasoning above with extending isomorphisms progressively
Wait what are you trying to do? Compute the Galois group of Split(Q(sqrt(1 + sqrt(7)))?
I missed the question.
Okay so why would it be Z/2 \times Z/2 \times Z/2?
Okay so my reasoning was you can use this lemma on extending isomorphisms where like
Given some (separable) extension F(a)/F, you can extend any automorphism of F to one of F(a) by sending a to any root of the min poly of a over F
And so I was like well I can take automorphisms of Q(sqrt(7)) (send sqrt(7) to itself or its negative), then do the same with Q( sqrt(1 + sqrt(7)) and then with that whole splitting field thing
And that would give me 8 = 2^3 different auotmorphisms, all of which are all of order 2 and commute so that we would wind up with Z/2 x Z/2 x Z/2
Are you sure this is how it goes, cause you have an automorphism of f, which is not necessarily the identity, then your automorphism doesn't preserve Irr(F, alpha)
So you have these extensions Q(sqrt(1 + sqrt(7)))/Q(sqrt(7)), what effect does conjugation on the bottom extension have on the minimal poly of the top extension?
What exactly do you mean by conjugation here?
Like the unique nontrivial element of Galois
Which seems to be what I said
Hm
Ahh, isomorphism, not auto
Yeah that's more general but here they were automorphisms anyway
Yes but the key condition is about the effect of \phi on the minimal polynomial
Uh oh

Okay yes that is the thing I was being dumb about, thank you for nipping this in the bud lol
Lol
Okay!
Thank you Topos_Theory_E-Girl and Parrot Tea
This looks like a good exercise! A lot of people kind of neglect these explicit galois theory exercises.
Any tips on being a Parrot and/or an E-girl
I need to stop saying stuff here
I don't help
I'm rusty with Galois lol haven't done enough compuations in a while
can someone pls clarify what this is asking
Nah it was foine Parrot dw, I mean you made an excellent correction
Set up your patreon early!
Don't
Actually yeah so it'd be easiest to compute the Galois group, presumably, by just sending alpha to any other root and then sending beta to like lol where it has to go
The two sequences aren’t isomorphic
Oh, I see where my issue is coming from lol
Two extensions are said to be equivalent if there exists a morphism between the middle groups such that if you put an identity morphism on the left and right, the whole thing commutes
Almost all of the Galois theory computations I've done have had minimal polynomials unchanged by the other elements of the Galois group
thanks
Stuff like Q(sqrt(2), sqrt(3))
They're definitely isomorphic! Just not equivalent.
Same thing
I’ve never heard the term “equivalent” tbh
It's important! It means that the maps on either side are the identity map.
Why is a backwards implication compared to categories that’s bad
Rather than arbitrary isomorphisms.
I believe this should be changed immediately
Nvm I have but only for group extensions- now it makes sense
Oh nice so like
The Galois group is actually non commutative
So in fact centre size 2 lol
nice
I am trying to show that Ext^1_Z(Q, Z) = 0. for this I need to show that Q is not a projective Z mod, so I tried finding a ses that doesn't split. e.g. 0 -> Z -> Q(mu_1, mu_2, ...) -> Q -> 0. now I'm stuck trying to show that Z oplus Q isn't isomorphic to Q(...)
but Q is not a projective Z mod
oh lmao 
I got the iff wrong
There are easier ways to see Q is not a projective Z module than finding exact sequences which don't split, but do whichever you feel most comfortable with
Q is not projective because Q oplus Q is isomorphic Q which isn't free?
I mean sure, but also you could just say Q isn't free lol
Projectives over a PID are free
Good exercise


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