#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 98 of 1
No the point is that (much stronger) R \cong R^2 as abelian groups
do I need them to be isomorphic as fields?
No just as abelian groups
under addition.
huh
K^2 is not a field unless you add some extra choices.
Anyway "many fields" will have this property, the only real problems in characteristic 0 are Q and number fields, where these examples dont work.
But if the question was "is it possible to have such a map f on an infinite field" then yes most infinite fields admit such a map.
WHich is why I zeroed in on Q, because I think there it's very unclear whether such an f exists or not.
Inma go have lunch and try to write this all down properly to interiorize it coz I'm struggling
thanks a lot
why wouldn't this work for a simple bijection as sets between K and KxK?
Ah you’re right, even just a random bijection works. I was over complicating things.
- Does there exist a neat characterisation of the kernel of a map from a free module that sends any elements to the sum of their coefficients for a given basis?
- Similarly, does exist for a basis consisting of two subbasis B1 and B2 (each of the same size as the one of the previous question) such that the sum of coefficients of the vectors must be equal 0 for each subbasis respectively
Somehow those are meant to be isomorphic
The one cycle, (1) only means that the permutation sends 1 to 1
It could still send 2 to 3
yeah your correct
This is exactly the reason we ignore 1 cycles
Personally I prefer to denote the identity map by e or 1
except it doesn't have any different ways, because we don't write down 1-cycles
So do most groups, we can write down the identity in G as aa^{-1} for any a in G
But in the end it's still the identity
I think of it as analogous to why we don't consider 1 or -1 prime in Z, its so each integer has a unique prime factorisation and we can't just keep adding on 1s forever
hi wew
who is this guy ^?
So true
POTATO
Hallöchenlein Illum was geht
I'm still trying to figure this variety thing out 
Which thing oof
ok so definition 1 is
nur englisch bitte...................
Z(f) is irreducible iff f is irreducible
definition 2 is through noetherian topo space
how are they equal
the definitions
What's the second defo in more detail
This is equivalent to the definition of varieties as algebraic sets that can't be written as a sum.
cannot be written as union
Ah
We just that Convo on hallidays thread
Take any point from your variety
Hi stupid I'm dad
It is a zero of some polynomial, if it is the zero of an irreducible polynomial that polynomial is the minimal polynomial of that root
):
Oh hey that's me
You're not stupid
And so any other equation you could add that has that root must have that minimal polynomial as a factor
Dad? But you died in the fire...
They have gained enough karma from answering silly math questions to be reborn
as not a slug
I have 501 rep on mse!
But as a potato
potato > slug
Fair enough. A slug can suffer existential dread but a potato cannot ig
potato feed all of Russia...
's vodka addiction
why is the definition of a scheme so... unintuitive
Existential dread is lame just make your own meaning
What's a scheme?
do you know what a ringed space is
Yeah
a scheme is like a manifold but instead of R^n as charts you have affine schemes
an affine scheme is a locally ringed space that is isomorphic to some spectrum
Yes
So it's a spectrum?
yes
Just like R^n is a manifold whose ring of smooth functions is isomorphic to C^infty(R^n)
Im of the philosophical opinion that isomorphic objects are different ways of writing down the same thing and will fight anyone that disagrees
if only there was a person versed in hott here
a morphism of ringed spaces is weird
That sounds kinda lukewarm of a take
I'm versed in hot, that the same?
Isn’t that an extremely basic tenet of all mathematics for the last 150 years? It’s not super controversial
Maybe more like 100 years
Isomorphic is a very popular notion of "the same"
sometimes the isomorphism is interesting though
like why the f^sharp : O_Y -> extension of X for X -> Y, like why is the domain O_Y
but when it is canonical it is more fair to say that it's "the same"
I think you have to argue it most of the time
you should think of the map on sheaves as "pulling back" functions on Y to functions on X
like precomposing in topology
Nooooooo not this
the codomain is on Y tho
It is equivalent by some adjunction
Yeah but like, why?
oh yeah lol
But the way it’s written in modern mathematics is that you think of the sheaf of functions on X as defining a sheaf on Y by “pushforward”
Obviously
Meaning functions on V\subset Y are functions on f^-1 V as a subset of X
What's x->y denote here?
And the morphism intuitively assigns a function on Y it’s “pullback” which is a function on X
Probably some "initial" morphism from which you are building f sharp from
So f
the structure sheaf of a ringed space can be thought of as the "scalar functions" on it in the same way that continuous real-valued functions on a manifold are the scalar functions on it (which has a scaling action on the tangent bundle, for example)
smoothness or whatever
Like a dual space sorta?
Oh neat
That was a question
Lol
like in physics, you can have a vector field and then scale the vector field by multiplying each vector by a scalar
but if the scalar varies continuously/smoothly ("scalar field") you can still do this
I apologize for not using mandatory the ", no?" Question format
Oh neat
so the locally ringed space keeps track of what "scalar functions" it considers to be admissible
i don't think anyone else uses the term "scalar-valued functions" that's just how i think about it
The fact that you aren't using the term dual space there is making me doubt myself
yeah no dual spaces are involved
Yeah I think of ringed spaces as zooming in on shit and stuff
It's a ring where you zoom in and get a quotient
people do use the phrase "admissible functions" though
Ringed spaces are clearly chain mail
A ringed space is that dark souls 3 dlc
the analogy to manifolds is pretty important though
https://mathoverflow.net/a/756 idk how relevant this is
but it provides a reason why we should do geometry with locally ringed spaces
Slave algebraic Geometer Gael was a cool fight
Locally ringed city
Dark souls 1 is the greatest game of all time and I will fight anyone that disagrees
Or at least have a math off with them, since I can't punch through the internet yet
Where do you guys think would be a better place for a question used by cheap knockoff homology of 2-cells attached to (multi)graphs as used by my algebra course. Here or on algebraic topology
Here
Liked sekiro and Bloodborne most
Yeah but the map
Think about the map my guy
The dark souls one map is homeomorphic to perfection
oh sorry i thought this was #algebraic-geometry
i guess my explanation doesn't help much if you're not familiar with manifolds and stuff
A manifold is just a shape
So what's an atlas though? Or chart or whatever
Physics guys mentioned them to me before
Isn't DS1 like really slow
Compared to what?
Sekiro
Yes
And ig Blood borne
you know how an atlas of earth works
Now replace ds1 in those sentences with any game that's not sekiro or bloodborne
you can't draw the globe on a flat piece of paper
Yeah the little map goblin in the book asks his friend in the sky where I am
so you instead draw several patches
So we have a slightly modified definitions of graph so that the set of edges has twice as many elements by adding e^-1 for each e and we have some functions that spit out the starting vertex, end vertex and an involution sending any e to its opposite oriented version.
Defined the chain complexes like this:
also known as charts
Ok damn most games are slow
And the chain map like this:
the charts have coordinates on them
no my question has a break 
Let me go drink an unhealthy amount of coffee real quick
and then you have to bend the analogy a little and say that the atlas also says that if you're in a region that is mapped on two charts, there should be a "transition function" turning coordinates of the first chart into coordinates of the second
and then furthermore that if you have three charts and you're in the triple overlap, going from the first to the second then from the second to the third is the same as going from the first to the third
bit of a technical condition that just says that these transition functions are compatible
actually it kind of depends on how you want to define a manifold
sometimes you start with a bunch of charts (i guess "patches" in this situation) and transition functions and verify the above compatibility condition to construct your manifold
sometimes you start with a topological space and a bunch of charts that makes the topological space into a manifold
A complex is defined as a graph together with a set of closed paths, which act as gluing instructions for 2-cells onto the graph. What I am meant to show is that the homology isn't changed if I change some things, one of them is adding a new vertex "e" to the original set and splitting the closed paths from this to that leaves the homology groups unchanged.
That is, geometrically, instead of attaching one 2-cell to a closed path of a graph attaching 2 smaller 2-cells
this looks like stitching together a bunch of patches in a specified and compatible way that gives you a manifold. while the other one is just a way to make computations on manifolds easier by writing down charts where you can do local calculations
One thing after another, the second chain map looks weird, it would just be summing up the edges of a cell rather than the usual alternating sum
That sounds sheafy, but that's maybe just surface level
Involution?
it definitely is, because if you stitch together structure sheaves on R^n then you get the structure sheaf of the manifold
Also what's that notation Vgamme | emptyset?
self-inverse function
What's VGamma here?
vertices
Oh it's just the set of vertices?
EGama correspondingly the edges and I is the index sets of the closed path i.e. the 2-cells
yeah
What are the patches? Open subsets of a larger space?
What's the umlaut fur?
?
I'm sorry my keyboard doesn't write in German
@slim kayak what's that notation you're using with the empty set here?
?
implicitely
where?
for a manifold, the patches are open subsets of R^n
Wait why wouldn't you generalize it to any space?
well if you instead use all affine schemes and appropriate kinds of transition functions you get schemes
if you use open subsets of R^n and continuous/smooth/differentiable/whatever transition functions you get the respective kinds of manifolds
I'm trying to figure out your notation of [VGamma|emptyset]_Z
Its free module over set with relations
Oh that's a nice notation
in this case empty set
probably you can write anything you want in the right column as long as it makes sense
So the empty set is the relations?
yeah
Cool cool
as you can see by the isomorphism there
So people do use this construction in other contexts, they just don't call the things they get manifolds?
for
if u see any german words i left just read them as "for"
What's a chain map?
looks like thats a technical term already
in this case just the boundary map between the chain complexes C0, C1 and C2
Boundary map?
oh, and 0 so that it doesnt feel left otu
I.e. these are closed sets and it maps their boundaries?
For defining homology groups?
write ue for ü, oe for ö, ae for ä, and sz for ß
Uh give me a sec to go figure out homology
sometimes u people just need to say "u don't have the prereqs sorry"
Sz för ß? Low German degeneracy
u told me here would be fine, you traitor
says the person who ghosted my dms
Ich hasze sowas zu sehen
That's the only heart I could find
haße 
gotta have to wash my hands after this is over
thats a crime
I would do this also
Anyways, given these changed 2-cells and the definition for the boundary map here it seems that C2 goes from being Z^n to Z^2n
So delta(x) = $\sum a_{i} \partial(i) = \sum a_{i} (e_{1} + ... e_{n})$ should hold.
Kerr
( I had to write "\partial" based on "partial derivates" on the abstract algebra channel 😔 )
oh are we doing graph homology
is it really called that? Cuz googling that didnt find me stuff that looked like it
Okay so a homology is like an exact sequence, but less strict?
a chain complex is a less strict exact sequence
the homology of the chain complex measures how far it is from being exact
oh cmon i was typing that 😦
you what
vine thud sound
So
my name changed
no no exact sequences are not just the first iso theorem
I was called out for not touching grass enough
Well no but also yes. Or rather they're important cause of it
sure you can construct 0 -> N -> G -> G/N -> 0 as an exact sequence? I think that's what you're getting at?
It is, but that idea generalizes to any exact sequence
does it now
If a -> b- > c is exact, then the three things are analogous to your N, G, and G/N
short exact sequences be like
So it encodes the quotienty relationship between consecutive elements of the sequence
I wonder if you can express solvability of groups with exact sequences idk I don't wanna figure that out
nlab has a page or two on this kind of thing
But that expands to any three consecutive elements in a sequence
Nlab is scary
not quite I don't think
long exact sequences are compositions of short exact sequences but it's more complicated than just putting them end to end
goes like this
That sounds like you are stating the definition of an exact sequence vaguely
Yeah exactly
That's my entire niche
What does that have to do with the first iso thm?
But the point is that that quotienty relationship is the first iso theorem
But harder
And written in a way to confuse ambitious undergrads
If you quotient out by "harder" then those are the same, true
That diagram is what you get if you don't restrict to images right?
But either way that structure makes sense if you go ahead and derive it yourself
It's not actually mean, it just has resting bitch face
Pre images? What the hell was I saying lmao
anyways it looks like that for the modified set of 2-cells one has the free module over paths whose image under the boundary map is the sum of their edges, so one then have:
for $x = \sum a_{i} \gamma^{1}{i} + b{i} \gamma^{2}{i}$ and so since edges are mostly disjoint for the split paths that means that the kernel consists out of the elements such that $\sum a{i} = \sum b_{i}$ = 0 holds.
Okay disregard the first sentence there, you can't restrict without losing a lot of generality
Kerr
You can, sort of. It's easier to see with nilpotent groups, you can define a group to be nilpotent if it's built out of central extensions of abelian groups. So for example, G is nilpotent if it fits into an exact sequence 1 -> N -> G -> G/N -> 1 where N is central and G/N is nilpotent, where you define the trivial group to be nilpotent.
A similar thing holds for solvable groups, where you can inductively define a group G to be solvable if it can be built out of abelian extensions of abelian groups
But that makes the statement of the exercise false, since one could take the graph complex with a single 2-cell / closed path and split it into the two and then one has instead of kernel being trivial that it is generated by a single tuple (1,-1)
Oh cool. I'm not sure what a lot of that means, so id need to spend a bit on it, but still cool
Whoever wrote "abelian groups or modules" on Wikipedia has some explaining to do
Abelian groups can be equipped with Z-module structure
That's why they have explaining to do
Smh distinguishing between abelian groups and modules
Or are you asking whether there is a notion of solvability for modules over some ring
No, I'm going back to figuring out homologies
sure
Oh fuck you Lang
I just realized why he threw an iso theorem into groups and never mentioned it again
It's so he could use it 2000 pages later when he got to homologies
halliday whenever he sees the iso theorem anywhere
I'm fairly confident that the isomorphism theorems would be used throughout the book
It's almost like it's the central idea in groups
You'd often be hardpressed to know when he is using it though
Fair enough
Kerr I thought you were cool and then you called me a monkey :(
It's okay you're not wrong
Admittedly I've only used Lang as a reference once or twice so it really isn't my place to comment on it
it's the central idea in many categories not just groups
the central idea of groups is conjugation :smoked:
Did lang remove his jordan-hölder section or sth
it used to be in groups
Uh doesn't sound familiar then
that section i was my first into jordan-hölder and group composition series
and I still have nightmares
Btw if you wanna be impressed, I also did the exercises
what's the connection between rep theory and normal subgroups?
Of the group section?
It's almost definitely important
Okay yeah vector spaces have dimensionality
So probably it lets you use dimensionality arguments to derive stuff about the structure of groups
nvm its still in the group section, just somehow 3 pages long

Hmm, no clue then
okay and also
My rep theory is non existent
number of reps = number of conjugacy classes
mine is shit too lmao
I only know like one or two definitions 
just google stuff right now lol
Right that's the finite simple group classification bit right?
so we needa use class formula or something to find the number of reps
if we work over the complex numbers
Bro it's first iso theorem
more or less, it says that each group has an unique tower to them
It always is
I see a homomorphism, I see a normal subgroup
MUST BE ISO THEOREM
It's the central idea of algebra
Ok but it literally is the first iso theorem. If you have a rep of G with kernel N, this yields a faithful rep of G/N
The complex plane is just the first iso theorem
yeah lmao
Galois theory and free algebras and topological gluing
the what?
Plain? Idk
Do you mean R[X]/(X^2+1)?
he's talking about the algebraic closure of R
if you have something that is like an identity, you just call it an identity
so only the identity is the identity
and the action is faithful

The complex plane is clearly just ring set of polynomials of sets of sequences of pairs of sets recursively containing the empty set quotiented out by the equivalence relation of cross multiplication quotiented out by Cauchy sequences quotiented out by the by the smallest multiplicatively closed additive subgroup that contains x^2+1
Will that last one define an ideal? Feels like it should
...the ideal generated by x^2 + 1?
Yeah
Math is wacky lmao
We come up with all these complicated definitions for shit in order to make them match our intuition
Okay so I'm reading the definition of a homology on Wikipedia, but from what I can see they don't actually attach the homology to the top space in any way. What relationships do the chain complex C(X) have to satisfy with the space X?
You associate a chain complex to a topological space and then compute the homology of that space. If you've built up your theory correctly, the homology should be an invariant under whatever equivalence relation you're considering. So to compute homology of a topological space, you compute homology of say the singular chain complex, or the cellular chain complex if you're a CW complex, etc.
Yeah, the general procedure is to start with some object, associate some chain complex, and then take the homology to get an invariant which is hopefully useful
Hi, guys, in these assumptions, let pR be the ideal in R generated by p, and m be the maximal ideal of pR in R, then why R/m is the splitting field of f_p
I'm R[x] you mean?
Or please just be more specific with your definitions, cause I think you're only giving like 80% of the info here and then missing 20% seems critical
suppose F is the splitting field of f_p, then i want to show that R/m is isomorphic to this F
sorry about the confusion
R= Z[\lambda_1,...,\lambda_n], where Z is integer and \lambda_i is root of f in K
Okay, so there's no initial relationship, it's just that the structure of the space will force one, which tells you stuff?
Oh gotcha. It's just the thing in the thing
Well you have to be smart about how you build a complex out of an object, I wouldn't say it's "forced"
You have to be smart? Oh no
Okay, so it's a "I guess this will be useful, hey look it is" kinda deal?
Take cellular homology for example. There are infinitely many CW structures you could attach to a space, yet they all yield the same homology
Do you have fundy thm yet?
Sorry, CW?
Probably another thing for you to look up
Oh lmao it stands for CW
CW stands for CW obviously
You can probably do this with the iso theorems. Define the splitting field of f_p and try and find it as a subfield of F
Hi polynomial ring over R
R/m is F?
Being a splitting field means that your polynomials dissolves into linear factors, since f_p splits in F_p any field containing is hence also a splitting field.
In case of p a prime pR is already maximal so in your case the statement says F_p is a splitting field and F=R/pR = F_p is a splitting field
Would this be the right channel to ask about stuff with Complex numbers? Or is that calculus? (Sketching subsets with it)
it involves them ( i.e |z-2-3i|)
probably one of the lower uni or hs channels then
Have you taken abstract algebra or a proof-based course linear algebra course?
Yeah, probs a level too high here
the entrance bar here is knowing what a group is
Ah well.. Thought it may be in here cause our topics are also rings n stuff rn (feels like its all over math)
I mean last week we had stuff like an abelian group.. this week its complex numbers .. to fast to understand
is this some hs summer camp lol
sounds like my first semester analysis course
Complex numbers are an abelian geoup
Groups are just things like addition
nah its just 2nd Semester maths for Computer Science ;-;
Groups are just things that look like addition
if you state it we can tell you where it belongs
Abelian groups even moreso
free group starring blankly
How would you sketch something like {z ∈ C:0≤arg(z+3-4i)< π/4} ? I know how it would look like if it just says arg z but this confuses me.. I already have done it but idk if its right
Anyways, if you can combine things and cancel things and also do nothing at all, thats a group
z : 0≤arg(z+3-4i)< π/4 ?
ah yeh sry
Did you already cover using the exponential function to depict complex numbers?
@delicate orchid 
firstly #algebraic-geometry
scary place
Lol Wew told you to grow up
I don't know alg geo beyond basic affine varieties and results relating to them
uhh idk
I am learning classical ag and scheme theory at the same time rn 
after I'm through this and the next chapter I'm gonna switch to diff geo for a couple of weeks
le wedge has arrived
Nevermind, just think for what z arg(z) lies between 0 and pi/4.
Then shift those values accordingly
ahh k .. thanks @slim kayak
it's like a manifold innit
Yes, that's the analogy
I still need intuition for an affine scheme though lmao 

what do the values z look like that have arg pi/4?
Its just the area between the "x axis" ("" cause its the real axis or whatever you would call it) and x=y
Yes, now you have everything to know the values z+3-4i, now you only have to translate that to z.
And with (z+3-4i) the point which would be (0,0) moves to (-3,4)? right?
yes
good.. then I fully understood it now .. Many thanks
So according to a YouTube video the answer is C although in answer key the given answer is A. Can anyone confirm?
how should 2 be true lol
Free group looks like addition
Well the one who explained on video did something like f(a+1) = (a+1)³ = a³+1+3a²+3a = f(a)+f(1)+3a²+3a
So 3a²+3a = 0 implies 3a(a+1)=0 and since a is arbitrary 3=1+1+1=0
hmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmm
Doesn't factoring out like that work only in an integral domain?
Is this for first part?
yeah
Ah ok
le frobenius endomorphism has arrived
Yeah I'm doubtful the way he did it
Tho i think 2 actually is correct lol
yeah you can't automatically conclude from 3a(a+1) = 0 that a+1 = 0 or 3a = 0
Alright, do you think part 2 is wrong then?
not sure tbh
I mean, it sure is valid that expressing the abelian group as a Z-module, that 6.1=0.
but something we have to break that down further
Yeah i think that you can immediately conclude that 3x1=0
I think you can only conclude that 6x1=0
So uhhh
is there any reason the second ring can't be Z/6Z
ok everybody, lets name our favourite char 6 rings!
the map isn't a ring homomorphism
uhhhh
Tru
or is it
R/6Z
petition to declare Z/6Z favourite char 6 ring
Aye
nay
F_6 is my favourite char 6 field
so hey
counterexample is Z/6Z which has char 6 i.e. 1+1+1 is not 0 but instead 3
Alright I'll check it
just gotta have to check if cubing a number is equal to itself reduced mod 3.
Which it is, so f is just the identity map
Yeah I was thinking about that
You mean mod 6?
Yes mb
Alright thanks
why does x^6 - 2 not split in the given field? i thought the given field also included -2^1/6?
and those are all the roots of x^6 - 2 right
unless im trippin
oh it's some shit involving the primitive nth roots of unity
Good to keep in mind that there couldn’t be only 2 roots because it’s degree 6
And irreducible
Over the splitting field it has exactly n roots
Not over it’s splitting field
Yeah, the roots form a circle around the origin in the complex plane, meaning some of them are negatives of each other, i.e. integer multiples of the other, edit I misread your issue, ignore this
Basically your issue was in the opposite direction right?
A degree n polynomial has <= n roots
They should add in 1 as well lol
but ig by complex they just mean C \ R lol
But it's x^n - 1 that it's a root of
Think of a complex number of module one as a thing that rotates. The roots are the things that rotate n times, and get to one, but don't get to one rotating less than n times. Another way of looking at is as generators of z/nz^*
not x-1
These notes are very worrying lol
Why are they using degrees...
Both degrees and not using e^ix

Tbf Wew we did this before Euler for some reason lol
Idk why, seems a bit pointless delaying Euler's formulae but ye
Degrees are king because I learned them in highschool and I refuse to adapt
You did not do splitting fields in A level
What lol
We learnt euler’s in year 12/13
It's why miles > meters
Bleak
???
I was just confused why you brought up splitting fields lol
The question is about the splitting field of x^6-2
oh i didn't see that bit above lol
I was talking about the roots of unity ting
Okay
Jesus Christ you're 31 feet tall?
Make sure you don't knock down any buildings on the way home
I am a nephilim this is known
Is your dating pool restricted to the statue of liberty?
Jealous
boys gentlemen, is Q(2^1/6) not a splitting field for x^6 - 2 because it doesn't include the complex roots included in the primitive 6th roots of unity?
Lady liberty's got back
<@&286206848099549185>
Why did you sully your own message
Pinging helpers… lol
Because it don't include imaginary numbers
idk what you're talking about
that was Wew
is that sane?
That is yes a way to reason it
Yeah stick an e^ipi/3 on that thang
Also it just doesn’t factor into linears over that field
No complex numbers in thy field, but there are complex sixth roots of two
Thy lmao
Yeah like Q(2^1/6) is a subset of R, and x^6 - 2 only has 2 real roots
Think theyve got it by now lads
Lol
No I mean I was giving another way without appealing to the preexisting work lol
Yes
To sum up everything else here
okay thank you lads!
What about halliday asks questions?
That's my least favorite thread because it makes me feel like I'm sectioned off :(
confusion
oh
it switches them
I thought it was the exact same thing xd
nvm
ignore
Ignore what 😎
Ngl I did too when I saw what you posted
How would I show that, if a group has at least one reflexion, then this group is a dihedral group
you don't, because that's not true
I have that written in my notes 😮
There are many reflection groups which aren’t dihedral
Oh wait I didN't write it in the righ way
Let G be a finite symmetry group, then if G contains at least one reflexion, then this group is a dihedral group (there exists a n for which G=D_n)
Actually I think I found how to do it 🙂
poooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooo
why do they have to show that the common divisor is of common degree? isn't x - a already of positive degree?
also by the last theorem how is this true
that the only divisor of positive degree of f(x) is f(x) itself
bc correct me if i'm wrong but for (x - 1)^2 in F[x], 1 is a multiple zero, but (x - 1) is a divisor of (x - 1)^2 which is not equal to (x - 1)^2
lol is that just not true
f(x) = (x - 2)^2(x + 1), f'(x) = 3x(x - 2) so they share a common factor of (x - 2), and x - 2 divides f(x) and is of positive degree?????
or rather what do they mean by up to associates
<@&286206848099549185>
If they differ by the product of a unit AKA if f(x)=ap(x) for constant a, then f and p are called associates
ah i see thank you, so then a(x - 2) = (x - 2)^2(x + 1) for some a nonzero in F?
Hold up let me read and see if I understand your question
than ku
Start the proof by assuming f is not reducible
Yeah they left that out
got it got it
But they say it in the statement of the theorem
Np np
There are no polynomials of degree 1 in Ker ϕ. Hence a polynomial of degree 2, like x²+1, is of minimum degree in Ker ϕ
im dumb lmao can i get a hint for cayley's theorem
do you remember cayley’s theorem
welp now you will
ye
so what should g be mapped to?
what kind of element is it being mapped to* i should say
Hint: See left multiplication as a group action
the previous problem was this which i solved
ohhh ok thank u
wait whats a group action
like
define f(g_i)=gg_i?
ye for some g in G
basically u wanna map group elements to functions right
ye
cuz its a subgroup of Sn
using his hint, left multiplication can be considered a function
oh
like $f_g(x) = gx$
blanket
there u go
thanks
are we allowed to write (x - alpha)(x + alpha) because E is an extension of Q and therefore E[x] is an extension of Q[x]? so x^2 + 1 can be both viewed as a member of E[x] and Q[x], but in this particular instance we're viewing it as a member of E[x] because alpha is in E but not in Q?
and by identify do they mean "shifting the perspective" (F is isomorphic to a subfield of E, so we can view E as "containing" F)?
no it doesn't
that's analysis...
you only need the numbers from 1 to 10
maybe occasionally a big number like 57
Yeah to create fields
cuz some metric space used integration
Is anyone awake at this hour? I'm stuck showing that the following is a proper subgroup of the automorphism group.
I've proven everything but the word "proper" from part (c).
I first tried an (incorrect) argument by considering the algebraic closure of Z_p as the direct sum of infinitely many copies of Z_p.
And then I remembered the appropriate definition of F was not the direct sum and am puzzled.
That approach was one of "uncountably infinite number of subfields" until I realized there wasn't.
I tried appealing to ChatGPT for inspiration, but was not able to glean anything helpful from the conversation. It made some arguments that were woefully easy to find fault with.
The earth is round there is always someone awake "at this hour"
Fair enough. I don't know the scope of this server.
I assume in this notation Z_p = Z/(p)?
Do you have any idea how to approach showing that H is a proper subgroup of the Galois group? And yes, Z/pZ
I've proven everything but "proper".
Yes, that's the hardest bit.
Aye.
So how are you describing the automorphisms of \bar{F}_p/F_p right?
You are describing how the automorphism acts on F_{p^n}/F_p for every n (is what I was saying)
Automorphisms of F that fix Z_p.
Ah, gotcha. Yes.
So are you saying
we could take one element a and map it to a^p
and another element b mapped to b^{p^2}?
I don't know how much is determined by the map.
So one option is to just write a single integer m and be like "on F_{p^n} we map a \to a^{p^m} for all n".
Since the structure of the algebraic closure is a bit puzzling to me. I get that it's the splitting field of...everything.
I don't know if that makes sense.
Couldn't we just compose phi with itself that many times?
Yeah you shouldn't need to know anything specific about the structure of the algebraic closure as a field. All you need to know
Or am I misunderstanding your point?
Is that $\bar{F}p = \cup_n F{p^n}$ and $F_{p^n} \cap F_{p^m} = F_{p^{(n, m)}}$
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
What is \phi? \phi is just Frobenius?
a \to a^p?
I suppose that makes sense. Yeah, I think so. We haven't used that word I don't think but it's that map.
Anyway so the thing to notice is that raising a \to $a^{p^{m + kn}}$ and $a \to a^{p^m}$ on $F_{p^n}$ are the same automorphism.
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
Anyway so the thing to notice is that raising a \to $a^{p^{m + kn}}$ and $a \to a^{p^m}$ on $F_{p^n}$ are the same automorphism.
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l.57 ... the thing to notice is that raising a \to
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I've inserted a begin-math/end-math symbol since I think
you left one out. Proceed, with fingers crossed.
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How can the subgroup be proper if it's fixed field is Z_p, by the galois correspondence E^H is contained in E^G, so G is contained in H?
That's not how infinite galois theory works.
unfortunately, yeah.
We'd just need to show the existence of an automorphism of $F$ that is not a power of $\varphi$.
Amizar
Yes, so what I'm suggesting above is that we make it different powers of p on each of the finite subextensions F_{p^n}, subject to some compatibility conditions on the intersections.
But wouldn't $a\mapsto a^{p^n}$ be in $H$ for every $n$?
Amizar
How would we be able to define such different powers of $p$ while preserving the nature of the automorphism?
Amizar
So for instance on F_{p^2} we could make it $\phi$, and on $F_{p^3}$ we could make it $\phi^2$, these are both automorphisms to to stitch them together we just need to make sure that what power of $\phi$ that we describe on $F_{p^6}$ is compatible with the inclusion of these two fields (for which we can use the chinese remainder theorem). If we keep doing this for $F_{p^q}$ for infinitely many primes $q$ we get an automorphism which is not a power of $\phi$, because it gives a different power of $\phi$ on each $F_{p^q}$
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
I could tell you exactly what all of the automorphisms are but I think you'll understand the structure better if you come up with it yourself
So, would it be possible to just change the exponent on a single piece?
Like, $\psi = \varphi$ everywhere but...
Amizar
Or would we need to have an infinitely-constructed automorphism?
What happens if you apply the it to a product that isn't in the "but" set but one element is
If you don't use infinitely many disjoint finite fields to construct it there will always be some power of $\phi$ which agrees with it by the chinese remainder theorem.
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
Ohhhhh, I think I see what you mean. Wait, are you sure?
Wouldn't it have to be an infinite power of phi?
in order to be 1 mod every prime number?
except for one
It won't even be "a power of \phi" that's the whole point!
Let phi(a)=a^n and phi(b)=psi(b)=b^m, with phi(ab) unequal psi(ab)
That's what I'm saying
The Chinese remainder theorem thing you're talking about
Like, what's the problem with $\psi=\varphi$ everywhere but $F_{p^3}$, on which $\psi=\varphi^2$?
Amizar
Is it that it's not an automorphism, or that it's in $\langle\varphi\rangle$?
Amizar
That would work! But you need to be careful when you say "everywhere"
for instance on $F_{p^{2n}}$ for $n$ arbitrary it cannot be $\phi$, since it has to agree with what you've described on $F_{p^2}$
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
Wait, do you mean $F_{p^{3n}}$?
Amizar
Because that's the one that's been singled out.
But are you saying that on $F_{p^{3n}}$ it needs to be...surely not equal to $\varphi^2$... That would have some interesting consequences for factors of $n$. How would we combine them?
Amizar
Ah yes, I mean on $F_{p^{3n}}$
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
You combine them using the chinese remainder theorem.
How could we define it on $F_{p^{3n}}$? It's been so long since I've used CRT that I honestly am not sure I remember how it works.
Amizar
I know it has something to do with GCDs but beyond that I'm not sure.
Which is kind of ironic, as a number theorist.
So $F_{p^{3n}} = F_{p^{3^d}} \cdot F_{p^{m}}$ where d is such that $3^{d-1}$ exactly divides $n$ and $m$ is coprime to 3.
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
Is the dot meant to be a straight up product?
Does that behave the way direct sums used to behave?
It's the field generated by all sums of products of elements in either field.
Kind of like the ideal IJ for I, J two ideals in a ring.
Ok, that makes sense.
Wait
no
wouldn't that be I+J
IJ is strictly contained in both I and J.
Maybe like $H\lor K$ for groups
Amizar
But the point is that if you describe an automorphism on $F_{p^{3^d}}$ for all $d$ and then on $F_{p^{m}}$ for $m$ coprime to $3$ you describe it on all extensions in an essentially free way.
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
Ohh okay.
No
I'm talking about the ideal of all elements $\sum_k i_k j_k$ with $i_k \in I, j_k \in J$
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
Anyway it's just an analogy.
Maybe we learned ideals differently. Hungerford's definition has $IJ$ strictly contained in both. $I+J$ is our name for what you're describing.
Amizar
that's definitely not the case
The ideal I described is pretty clearly contained in the intersection of I and J.
Wait, you said sums of products.
My bad
Yes, sorry.
I forget that products make ideals smaller and fields larger.
Yes, because fields have identities in them!
Aye.
Anyway, would it suffice to say $\psi=\varphi^{2d}$ on $F_{p^{3^d}}$ and $\varphi$ on $m$ coprime to 3?
Amizar
Or would it need to be $\varphi^{2^d}$?
Amizar
Or wait, could we just define it as $\varphi^2$?
Amizar
That last option definitely feels the easiest if it's safe to do so.
It's an automorphism on the whole thing so it should still extend to the subfields
It should just be $\phi^2$, the other examples are not compatible with the inclusion $F_{p^3} \to F_{p^{3^d}}$
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
Right, that makes sense.
And we can extend the isomorphism for free because the fields are disjoint and we define them on the pieces?
Yep
It's a nice exercise to show that if $K, L$ are disjoint galois extensions then the Galois group of $K\cdot L$ is a product of the two galois groups
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
I don't think we've covered that yet, but it seems reasonable.
You just...extend twice, right?
order notwithstanding?
Yeah I mean in one direction you just restrict the automorphisms to the subextensions, this is clearly injective. If K, L are finite then all you have to do is show that K \cdot L is galois and you're done.
Let's just do K, L finite since that's enough for us.
And we can use that an injection between finite groups of the same size is an isomorphism.
So long as it's still a homomorphism.
Well restriction to a Galois subextension is always a homomorphism
I suppose that's fair.
Anyway once you show all of this the only thing left is to show that there is no integer which is congruent to $2$ mod $3^d$ for all $d$ but congruent to 1 mod another prime.
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
I mean, I doubt it takes a ton of convincing to say that there are no natural numbers congruent to 2 mod every power of 3 and congruent to 1 mod every other prime.
The only integer congruent to 1 mod every prime but 3 is... 1.
And that one's congruent to 1 mod 3.
Yep. I think your proof is fine, you might want to give more justification about why that is an automorphism depending on what level you're at/how strict your grader is.
It's a 2nd-semester grad course, and she's not terribly strict but she's pretty thorough.
Yeah it's up to you.
But I've already passed the prelim in the subject and have basically full marks for both semesters so I'm not really that worried about grades.
Most of this is just for the sake of making sure I know what I'm doing.
Also, the underlying reality that grades are irrelevant calls to me.
Anyway similar arguments show you that $Gal(\bar{F}p/F_p)$ is the set of families $(m_n){n \in \mathbb{N}}$ of integers such that when $d|n$ $d|(m_n - m_d)$ i.e. it is the inverse limit of the family of groups $Z/nZ$ with the obvious morphisms $Z/nZ \to Z/dZ$ when $d|n$.
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
Since you are a budding number theorist it is extremely important for you to know that this is $\prod_{p \text{ a prime}} Z_p$ where $Z_p$ is the p-adic integers.
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
(although the topology is also important for infinite galois theory, and I haven't described it for you).
The product of...all of them?
An inverse limit of groups, rings, etc is something which you can associate to a system of maps of objects $R_i$ indexed by some partially ordered index set $I$ such that for any $i_1, i_2$ there is some $i_{1, 2} \in I$ such that $i_{1, 2} \geq i_1, i_2$. Given such a collections of groups/rings/etc. $R_i$ with maps $f_{i, j}: R_i \to R_j$ when $j \leq i$ one can form the collection of products $(r_i){i \in I}$ such that $f{i, j}(r_i) = r_j$ for all $j \leq i$.
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
That can easily be verified to also be a ring, group, whatever.
Common examples of I are the natural numbers partially ordered by divisibility (which we're using here) and the natural numbers with the usual ordering.
Perhaps this will make more sense to me when I'm not on the tail end of 10 hours of math at 6 in the morning.
Thanks for helping me understand the automorphism from earlier, though!
Sure, feel free to read it later.
I'll look at it when I'm more well-rested.
Meanwhile, I have a class to teach in a few hours 😂
But it is really important for number theory (and math in general!) to eventually know what inverse limits of algebraic objects look like 🙂
Good luck with your class! Hope you do well. And have fun teaching.
Sounds good! Thanks again
profinite completion of the integers my beloved
The one thing Lang mentioned in chapter 1 and ignored for at least 5 chapters
That isnt a question
beat me to it
Lol
I don't know what you mean, the thing you are referring to (as people are pointing out) is a definition. If you have a specific question about it you can ask!
Ok so what does it mean for a ring to be noetherian
chains of ideals become stationairy
this
Ye perfect
Ye
And what does that imply
kernel is 0
Cool that's what we're aiming for
so taking a in Kerf
f(a) = 0
f^n(a) = 0
probably need to use surjectivity between f^n+1 and f^n ?
but i dont really know how its done
assuming f(a) = 0 and ker(f^n) = ker(f^{n+1}), try writing a = f^n(b)
i've basically solved it for you by writing it out like this
so b is in kerf^n too
so a = 0
cool
does smith normal form always exist over a noetherian ring?
or need PID ?
my instinct says pid
Apparently Noetherian + SNF always exists over the ring <=> PID
Actually yeah so you can kinda use the structure theorem for this lol
Like in reverse sort of
yeah, SNF gives you the decomposition of the ring that appears in the structure theorem for PIDs
therefore, if it's Noetherian and you can do SNF, you get something isomorphic to a PID
owo
Can all finite groups be generated by a generating set of 2 elements?
no
I think this is wrong but can't think of any counterexample. Dn is clearly generated by 2 elements
Take (Z/2Z)^3
there's only 8 elements, if you really want you can enumerate every 2-element set and see it can't span, or you can just see that there's 3 components and why this means it can't be 2-generated
interestingly, I believe it's true that every finite simple group is generated by 2 elements
which, as you might expect, depends on classification
no
take the walter-chmonkey group
I swear I had a convo about this a week or so ago
yeah it's the tits group
Thanks
I see, maybe this was being asked. Is it something that an undergrad is supposed to know?
Absolutely not
You just apply the classification 4head
Isn't the proof for classification of finite simple groups like tens of thousands of pages long scattered all over the place?
yes

the finite simple groups are: A_n, C_p, GL_3(2) and that's it
Reminds me of a homework problem I had in rep theory class where it was trivial by feit Thompson but obviously wasn't intended to be done that way
I forgot the original question though
The problem: show that every odd ordered group is solvable
Was it showing that a 2-dimensional representation of a finite nonabelian simple group is trivial?
I remember someone asking in a rep theory exam if they could use Feit-Thompson for this question and not understanding at all what they were thinking.
Was this not advanced enough for #advanced-number-theory (Edit: apparently it was advanced enough)
I think something along those lines
Given $A$ a square matrix with $\lambda_i$ eigen-values, show that [\sum_i |\lambda_i|^2\le \tr (A^*A).]
I forgot how to show that 😦
RaD0N
this is related to singular values. I don't think it is "early university" 😄
you can pretty much ignore the category names
there are occasional advanced linear algebra questions in that channel
I'm guessing Schur decomposition or something would help
Maybe... let me check that out
A is not necessarily normal
Yeah its self adjoint
@agile burrow yeah, I guess the Schur decomposition is the way I did it some time ago
Therefore its simile#ar to a diagonal matrix with respect to an orthonormal basis
Oh nvm its not self adjoint
matrix decompositions are awesome
True
A^*A is
So then take A*A and it will be similar to A diagonal matrix an orthonormal basis
And I may be wrong but im pretty sure this diagonal matrix has the eigenvalues across the diagonal
Then theres a property for a set of orthonomal vectors that the norm of any vector with those vectors as their basis is the scalars summed
Which looks a whole lot like your left side
take $Q$ unitary such that $A=Q^*TQ$, where $T$ is triangular. Then
[\tr(A^*A)=\tr(T^*T)=\sum_{i,j}|t_{ij}|^2\ge \sum_i |t_{ii}|^2=\sum_i |\lambda_i|^2.]
RaD0N
@agile burrow actually working out 😄
thx!
happy to help
@agile burrow u don't see the help that u gave xd
I spent 2h on this crap that I did years before
Well a good review never hurt anyone
Unless they were like allergic to reviewing or something, idk
is there any easy way of counting conjugacy classes of a finite group other than counting normal subgroups
Certainly not in general, I don't think. There are probably various orbit-stabilizer tricks you could come up with for specific cases though.
Just compute the character table 
Unironically though, sometimes this can be quite straightforward
If you have a nice enough normal subgroup, you can use Clifford theory to count the number of irreducible characters without necessarily actually writing them down
Apart from that, as walter says, finding conjugacy classes is very hard. In fact the conjugacy problem is undecidable in general.
a word problem is undecidable? imagine my shock
If G is a group of order 385 show that its 7-Sylow subgroup is in the center of G.
i understand everything up till the last line
can someone explain the last part to me
The natural map is the map induced by conjugation, i.e. the map taking an element g to the automorphism of G_7 given by conjugation by g. Then it's clear that G_7 is in the center iff this map acts trivially. The image of a group homomorphism is a subgroup, so by isomorphism theorems its order divides the order of both the domain and the codomain. Since the domain and codomain have coprime orders, the image must be trivial.
so i remember someone asking about cayley's theorem, and it got me thinking when my professor was just mentioning how important it was
is there a similar theorem/idea for rings?
can rings also be isomorphic to a group of permutations? or does that question even make sense
There is an analogue of Cayley's theorem for rings. The idea is that a ring acts on its underlying abelian group by left multiplication and this is a group homomorphism. In particular, R is a subring of the endomorphism ring of its underlying additive group
I'm not really sure how to interpret this question, I don't think it really makes sense as stated
this was what i was looking for, my bad
i was just thinking if there was something similar to cayley's theorem for rings
see that G_q∩ G_r is {e}
so the product is a direct product and hence unique subgroup of order q
@craggy lichen
Anyone here know any groups isomorphic to Z^n aside the complex version?
What is "the complex version"?
Why is f+(f)=0 where f is the ideal generated by the polynomial f?
f = 0 mod f
gH = H iff g in H
Where's the mod comin from?
f + (f) is just a permutation of (f)
I'm stupid
