#groups-rings-fields
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Probably because they're learning category theory in high school
and left
No, I don't do a lot of AG stuff. I am learning about elementary algebraic geometry, but I try to keep it classical in a sense. So no schemes and sheafs
I could've just gone home during those two hours
but no, I spent them at school
doing nothing
what kind of problems
life
yo there was this cool ass problem
but i cant remember it exactly
but it was something of
the probability that an element is in Z(G) is 2/3 or something like that
given G IS non abelian finite
example of a module with no ass 
๐
you can refine to to say at most 5/8 (if i remember correctly
given in Gallian
serious question btw
whats an ass
yea idk about those
Find a three-digit number "abc", where "a" is the first digit, "b" is the second digit, and "c" is the third digit, such that the second digit subtracted from the sum of the first and third digits, added to the sum of the second digit and the first digit subtracted from the last digit, results in (a+b+c)/2 that is similar to a prime number to the power of three.
If possible, find all three-digit numbers where (a+b+c)/2 equals a square number, and add them together
what does similar mean
ig u should expand it out
ie write "abc" as 100a+10b+c
and then u can form ur system of equatiosn
@chilly ocean
You seem to be projecting something here
I think that's a good strategy, it's important to learn what algebraic geometry actually is, then you'll appreciate the Grothendieckian stuff more imo.
Sooo, in algebraic geometry, is 57 a prime?
Ends in seven is a prime
How big of a field of study is Lattice theory, generally? Lattices here being posets with pairwise supremums and infemums, not just the vector space lattices.
Because sometimes I go to look stuff up while reading from Gratzer's lattice theory text, and I feel I just get vector space stuff most often, or very sparse results from my searches.
77 goes brrrrr
would dualizing free modules
call them co-free modules
would co-free modules be injective?
So I know how to do this directly
However I know that if I can show that Q is injective, then by Baer's criterion, the result also follows
but how would I show that Q is injective?
no I know
so u start with a set
point is I want to know how to just show it's injective in a different way
the set of all homomorphisms {f | f:C-->Q}
and order this set with inclusion of domains
like f<g iff dom f subset dom g
sure
then u get some maximal element by zorn
this maximal element must be the homo f:B-->Q
if it were not
say its a homo f:D-->Q
B is the module ur trying to go from to in the injectivity diagram
pick any element in B not in D call it b
and let I be the ideal { i in R | ib is in D}
this is a left ideal
i cant remember much of the details but then u construct some map
from this left ideal to the module
u then use ur assumption
and define another map from this map that has bigger domain ( u do this by using the element that is in B not in H, i would guess it would be defining a map from H+Rb to Q)
so contradicts the maximliaty of the map "wrt to our order"
where Rb = {rb | r in R}
this is essentially proving the -> partr
the other part is easy you can do it on your own
just consider the diagram with inclusion
hence they are equivalent
now ur proof would be to show that any sequence Q-->A-->B--> 0is split exact
so Q is injective
and by what we said above
or not by what we said above by the other way
Q attains this property
thats it
does F(1) = F imply F[x] = F? here F(a) denotes phi_a[F[x]], the image of F[x] under the evaluation homomorphism by a
bc you're just plugging in one into every single polynomial with coefficients in F, and my thought process was that you could only get F if you had F[x] = F
F[x] is a polynomial ring, F is a field
so no F[x] is not equal to F
if you evaluate x at k in F, then of course you have F(k) = F
Woah then F[x] would be like a field valued function 
F(1) here is a very awful and unfortunate notation to denote the F-subvector space of E spanned by 1
It does not mean evaluation in any way, shape or form
how do i go about proving that $A_4$ is the only subgroup of $S_4$ with order 12?
blanket
It involves few steps
First show any index 2 subgroup of S 4 must contain all 3-cycle
im osrry i was doing something
why do we need to show this??
A_4 is generated by 3 cycles
would someone mind explaining the last sentence to me? i don't understand how $eR'$ and $e'R'$ are isomorphic to $F_{11}$
jonny
the only ways i could think of checking are actually computing the elements of $eR'$ and $e'R'$ which is really unwieldy, or by finding isomorphisms from $F_{11}$ to those rings, which i don't know how to do. i know there's maps from $F_{11}[x]$ to $F_{11}[\delta]$ and from $F_{11}[\delta]$ to $eR'$ and $e'R'$ (the canonical map from a ring to a quotient, and then the multiplications by idempotent elements are surjective maps too) but i don't know how to use this, or if i even can
jonny
feels like im overthinking tbh
There is only one ring with 11 elements
shit really
ok yeah definitely overthought it, i get it now
cyclic groups of prime order right
i always forget that the group structure still matters
Here you could check that x -> ex is an isomorphism from F11 to eR'
i think ill skip that and go with the first fact you told me
thanks for the help i feel dumb for missing that
~~there is also the ring (without unity) where a*b = 0 for all a, b ๐ค ~~
Please use the same straightedge and compass that you always use in Euclidean geometry.
Google is your friend https://scholar.rose-hulman.edu/cgi/viewcontent.cgi?article=1052&context=rhumj
Based Lang
but is this simple and intuitive

:true...:
brutal....
If I want to show that $Z/nm \cong Z/m \times Z/n$ if $m$ ,$n$ are coprime, is this a valid way?
Find a mapping $\phi: Z/nm \mapsto Z/m \times Z/n$, show that its well defined and a homomorphism (in general), show that its injective and both sets have the same order (in this case), thus its surjective and bijective.
Most likely there is a nicer way, but I have to review what we have done about cyclic groups first I think.
aabb
this is a perfectly fine way of doing this
Great, thanks for the reassurance
i am curious, is there a nicer way to do that?
nicer? probs not
there are other ways of doing it, for example showing that Z/nm is the internal direct product of Z/m and Z/n
Well you can prove that it is surjective and injective directly
actually you can invoke a lattice based argument for this which makes me happy
Nerd
they're just lil dudes with the dots and lines
i would like to see lattice based argument :)
(i have no idea what a lattice is other than something which plants can climb on)
it's basically this but rephrased slightly
Isn't that a trellis
france...
decided to check my notes before spouting shite:
two subgroups H_1, H_2 form an inner direct product if their meet is trivial, their join is the entire group, and one is contained within the centraliser of the other
which is just a rephrasing of the usual definition but I find it NIFTY
Thanks for the link.
"or else, that if an irreducible element of R
divides c(f g), then it divides c(f ) or c(g), which is what we will do."
How does that prove that c(f_0g_0) = 1?
Is it because
Lol this book again
sadly
Yes this is another plausible looking but wrong claim (at least without more context)
What should it be?
I know that if an irreducible divides c(f_0g_0) then c(f_0g_0) cant be equal to 1
Yes but they are not showing that irreducibles do not divide c(f_0g_0)
let's phrase what they're saying in terms of integers
They show it below sorry
i didnt include it
Because i dont understand the logical statement that they are using to prove that c(f_0g_0) = 1
It sounds like from what you posted
that they are saying something like
n = abc,
if p|n with p prime then either p |a or p|b, thus c = +/-1
But this is clearly false.
Even if it was true for all primes p
consider n = 12 a =2 b = 3 c = 2
If they showed this for all powers of irreducible elements then that's fine.
heres the whole thing for more context
i basically dont understand why it implies that c(f_0g_0) = 1
Yes it does not.
rip
Unless the content of a polynomial can't be squarefree or something?
But isn't the content just the gcd of the coefficients or something?
Yeah this (as far as I can tell) doesn't work because all they have proved is that c(fg) and c(f)*c(g) have the same prime factors
but two numbers can, shocker, have the same prime factors but not be equal.
On the other hand the key idea of how you would actually prove this is in this proof amusingly
I don't follow the last statement here, I feel I'm missing something very simple
numbpy
Do you know an alternate correct proof for this?
So the correct proof is that $c(f_0g_0) = c(f_0)c(g_0)$, and the same proof works but it actually gives you what you want.
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
Because knowing that $c(f_0g_0) $ has only prime factors which divide $c(f_0)c(g_0)$ actually tells you that it is trivial
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
So i need to prove if f_0 and g_0 are primitive then f_0g_0 is primitive also to complete this proof
right?
Yes but actually if you just substitute f = f_0 and g = g_0 in the proof they just wrote it already shows this
So they weirdly managed (as they seem to do a lot in these lecture notes) to give a proof which contains all the key ideas of an actual proof but which makes a very simple mistake about divisibility of numbers.
Like a lot of this feels like someone half remembered the right ideas, wrote something down, and didn't spend any time checking if it made any sense.
Professor most likely did exactly this lol
Anyway you are a hero for having the stamina to find all the mistakes in these notes.

We stan a detail-oriented king
and/or queen and/or themperor
Thanks lol
Grinding through the lecture notes
And problem sheets
If $\sigma$ is in N and $(a b c)\sigma(a b c)^{-1}$ then $\sigma^{-1}$ is in N and $\sigma^{-1}(a b c)\sigma(a b c)^{-1}$
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
So just the closure property
Yes under inverses and multiplication
Thanks 
How you define c(f) when f is primitive is pretty arbitrary since it's really only well-defined as an ideal.
But you could just define it to be 1 wolog
Or any other unit
If you want content to be multiplicative you have to define it to be 1
So if the content is a unit, the definiton is to just let it be 1?
Yeah, again a better definition is to say the content is not a number but an ideal
yeah I mean you can say that "there is a generator for c(f)" such that that is true
It will be true for any generator
Or just say "okay everything we write about content being multiplicative etc. is only true up to units"
Hmm ok
Just because the gcd is only well-defined up to units etc.
So we call a polynomial primitive if its content is a unit, not neccsarily 1
right
Generalise a bit
Is every element of a ring uniquely identified by the ideals it belongs to?
The fact that it's true for integers is obvious, but I'm wondering if it extends
It is not true for integers.
If you want to generalise this then it'd probably be up to units
But even then think of Z_{(p)}
Which only has 2 prime ideals.
But countably many elements.
All fractions with denominators not divisible by p.
Gotcha
Yeah that makes sense
I'm trying to unpack your counterexample, and figure out what the ideal structure is and so on
Okay let me know if you have questions.
It's a good exercise to do so.
Are all the ideals prime? Does it have infinitely many units?
I think you can work out the second question for yourself
Wait, let x and y be in the same ideal every time
Ah I did not see that you said ideals and not prime ideals
Then $y \in (x)$, and $x \in (y)$, meaning $x = \alpha y$, and $y = \beta x$. In particular, $x = \alpha \beta x$, and so $\alpha$ and $\beta$ are units
Halliday
Differing up to units should be true by the above
Yes I completely misunderstood what you were asking.
I think I would need a pen and paper to work out the ideals, and I'm not near one
How would you show that the set of all symmetries of a figure is always a group?
Define a symmetry
A function f that when you apply to a figure C, f(C)=C.
at least is what is written in my notes
A figure is like some kind of shape like a polygon or polyhedron right?
Yea !
So f(C) has to take edges to edges, vertices to vertices, etc.
So given that, what's f(g(c))?
Yea like if you rotate a square by 90 degrees, it is the same figure
g(c) ?
if g is another symmetry of the figure C you can go further
(we're showing the set is closed)
It is, since f(g(C))=f(c)=C
yarrr
But given that, don't I have to show that the composition law is associative for my group?
Or is it by definition
function composition is always associative for any functions, given the composition is actually defined of course
damn your edit
see if you can prove that because it's just as easy as doing it generally as it is to just do it for this specific case imo
Wait but you haven't proved that it is a group yet
All semigroups are the trivial group ๐ฆพ
just taking the identity (the element that fixes the shape) should work
true I'm still missing that every element has an inverse
yeah the identity function works
The functions have to be bijective
But are they?
One to one and onto
makes sense
well we know they're surjective immediately
true and we need injective
Just want to point out that to actually prove this you also need to show something like "the inverse of this function is also a 'symmetry of a figure'"
Since the definition of symmetry is not just an abstract bijection, but one with very rigid properties
hmm
I'll try it out and see where it gets me
Thanks @delicate orchid and @dim widget
:(
and @dusty verge
:)
p^2 must not divide a_0
But how does r >0 and s>0 imply that b_0 and c_0 are divisible by p
This is true anyway if r = 0 or s = 0
wdym
I mean a_0 = b_0c_0 even if r= 0 or s = 0? so we always have contradiction lol?
im probably wrong tho lol
wtf is r
b_r is your leading coefficint
in your polynomial g
b_0 is your constant coefficint
in your polynomialg
r = degree of polynomial g
you meant p^2
or nvm
nah p
yea
what question do you have
yes
yeah im looking at the proof in dummit and foote
@novel parrot I think you're getting really hung up on this r, s > 0 thing
Since $a_n$ is nonzero mod p we know that $b_r * c_s = a_n$
so if r = s = 0 then n = 0 and this whole statement is trivial
Similarly if either r = 0 or s = 0 then the factorization is trivial.
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
this is the proof from df
how do we know that both of the constant terms are 0?
if b_0c_0 = 0 then we can only say that one of them is 0 (in P)
ye
so u suppose f is reducible
so u have a non trivial factorization
say f(x) = a(x)*b(x)
yes
now the hypothesis which ur screenshot is missing is this
cant the a(x) or b(x) be just elements of R, just not units?
P is a prime ideal in an integral domain R , f(x) = x^n + a_n-1x^(n-1)+.... where each a_n-1 are all elements of P but a_0 is not in P^2
good question
u tell me
ah
units of R[x] are the units of R
so forced to be non constant
nvm
stupid question
u got it?
yes
now again we suppose f has a non trivial factorization , f(x) = a(x)b(x)
now lets reduce everything mod P here
ie lets look at R/P[x]
u would get x^n = a(x) mod P * b(x) mod P
yes
all coeff lie in P
ok
so u have x^n = a(x) * b(x)
then the constant terms of a(x) and b(x) multiplied together must be what
a_0
= 0 mod P
yup
yes
yes
call the constant coeff of f omething else , call it c_0
ok?
and we know c_0 = a_0b_0
yes
I dont understand this though
mod p we get both a_0 and b_0 are 0
How can both be in P
Prime only forces one of them
To be 0
yk
integral domain/ prime
xy = 0 => x = 0 or y = 0
when u have such a question
not always both
ok
saay suppose a_0 mod p is 0 but b_0 mod p is not
now what happens when u multiply the polynomial a(x)*b(x) mod p
we multiply coefficients
do it
painful
I think i understand though
if b_0 wasnt 0
then a(x) is forced to be 0 mod P right
because we always have terms like b_0a_i = 0
and if a_i = 0 always
then a(x) = 0
so some b_0a_i = 0 and b_0 = 0
so a(x) doesnt be 0
Am i correct
no
oof
grab two polynomials
and try it on paper
with a pencil
only math gods use pen for math
should i multiply arbitrary polynomials
write out the coefficints that u have
dont foil everything out obv
say a(x) = sum(a_ix^i)
everything here is mod p
(X^m + ... a_1X) * (X^l + ... + b_1X + b_0)
a_0 = 0
so i didnt include
and m + l = n
and u know this is = x^n
now figure out what happens when u have some element that is 0 while the other is not
yes
now if u have the constant term of one 0 and the other not
u will have a term of say x^j where j is less than n
But couldnt the inner sum, sum to 0
since terms are like (b_0a_i + (other stuff) )x^j
Feels hard to visiual the terms
only the terms that are multiplied with b_0 that is
yeah
the point is
that when u have a b_0 non zero and a_0 is 0
then u will have terms that have degree less than n which will force the whole polynomial of a(x) to be in P ( this is becuase P is a subring after all )
hence a(x) is 0 mod p
its cuz of that before last coefficint
do u get it?
the identity transformation refers to the identity matrix right ?
yes
thanks ๐
Not 100% because i need to become more familiar with how the terms of polynomial multiplication turn out. But i understand overall
having a_0 = 0 forces b_0 = 0
because it all is = x^n
we have a_0b_0 in P
yes
we claim that both a_0 and b_0 are in P
yes
proof: suppose a_0 is in P but b_0 is not
we know that a(x)b(x) = x^n [ thats the whole point , it is not true in general that ab = 0--> both a and b are 0 so we know the hypothesis is the key obv ]

ok
remember this.
and .
yes
do you see why
yes because x has 0 coefficient
rightttt
good
would that imply that a_1 is in P?
yes, or b_0 = 0
yeah
thats our hypothesis
so a_1 = 0
then we repeat for X^2 coefficient right
yes exactly
gotcha
good
I understand the rest
just that part of forcing both a_0 and b_0 to be in P
was unclear
u got it now?
do u see how this goes to this
no it is not
in df they totally omit this detail
which is not easy
Ah
the original proof says that the polynomial is just 0 if both a_0 and b_0 are not in P
gotcha
cool
u got it now hopefully
np
Does this look right?
Den hรคr borde inte vara hรคr.
jag vet inte vart?
kan du snรคlla hjรคlpa mig
jag har suttit i 3 h med den utan hjรคlp
snart kommer jag explodera lol
@sonic coral รคr rรคtt det borde vara i #odes-and-pdes
Om du posta den dรคr kan jag garna hjรคlpa dig
aaa jag har gjort det
I am probably being very dumb but why does the tensor being 0 imply that the gammas are K-linearly dependent
If the $\gamma_i $were linearly independent over K then so would be the $\beta \otimes \gamma_i$ for any $\beta$, in particular so would the $\beta_i \otimes \gamma_i$.
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
-_-
Intriguing
You could see the last assertion by, say, taking a K-basis for L and expressing all of the \beta_i in that basis.
Is this confusing?
Nah I wasn't seeing it at first but now it makes sense thanks
Nw ๐
Let f be a monic polynomial in Z[x]. What is the ideal (f, f') ?
where f' is the derivative
what do you want to know
What is the ideal (f,f')
It is the ideal generated by those two polynomials
what's the intersection (f, f') cap Z
It's the ideal generated by those polynomials intersected with Z :kappa:

ok so
I think (f, f') contains the discriminant
which is an integer
so I guess (f,f') cap Z is the ideal generated by the discriminant, or maybe not. That's what Im kinda asking
Haha yeah the image of (f') is the different ideal (or inverse different idr which is called which) of Z[x]/(f)
what's the different ideal
The norm down to Z is the discriminant of the order Z[x]/(f)
The different ideal is the dual of Z[x]/(f) under the trace pairing inside of Frac(Z[x]/(f)). I am assuming that (f) is irreducible just because that's what I'm familiar with.
The relevant thing is that the norm of the inverse of the different ideal is the discriminant.
But if you are just interested in which primes divide the discriminant then yes (f, f') \cap Z has the same support as the discriminant of the order Z[x]/(f).
differents are cool
D_(K/F) is not defined previously, is that a typo and they meant to write D_(K/F)=(alpha)^{-1} o[alpha] ?
What is the complementary module?
Croqueta
They must define D_{K/F} somewhere otherwise the proposition has no content.
Anyway from context it is the different of O[\alpha]
probably they reserve \mathfrak{D}_{K/F} for the different of the maximal order O_K
Ah makes sense. How is it defined that this proposition is not a tautology? Just as (f')?
$D_{L/K}(\alpha)=f'(\alpha)$
Croqueta
Yeah makes sense
One thing to keep in mind by the way: not every ring of integers O_K is of the form Z[\alpha] for some \alpha \in K (although most examples you encounter will be).
So you cannot always compute the discriminant this way.
ik
Have you seen the cool obstruction to a ring of integers being monogenic which comes from the F_2 points?
no
So if O_K = Z[\alpha] then there is a surjection Z[X] \onto O_K so Spec(O_K) is closed inside of A^1_Z
but then if you tensor both sides with F_2 you see that O_K \otimes F_2 is a closed within A^1_{F_2}
But
A^1 only has 2 points over F_2
So if you can engineer a cubic field with 2 totally split for instance, it is automatically not monogenic.
what is Z[X] here
Because then $\text{Spec}(O_K) $has too many points in the fiber above $\text{Spec}(\mathbb{F}_2)$
ah yeye lol
$O_K = Z[\alpha]$ iff $Z[X]$ has a surjection onto $O_K$
you either use latex bot or dont 
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
Latex bot is for the weak
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
what does it mean Spec(O_K) to be closed inside A^1_Z. Guess it means its an algebraic set, but how?
Ah okay I forgot that you didn't know about schemes
So Spec(A) is closed in Spec(B) iff B surjects onto A
That's it
yes
It is then the "algebraic set" cut out by the equations defined by the generators of the kernel
and if you have a surjection R -->S then you have an injection Spec(S)--> Spec(R) right
or im smoking
Yes but I'm claiming even more, it's actually a closed immersion
If you like you can think of Spec(Z) as an infinite number of points (one for each prime, and then a mysterious one for (0) which corresponds to Q), and $Spec(Z[X])$ is an $A^1_{F_p}$ at each prime p, and an $A^1_Q$ at $(0) $ all glued together in some mysterious way. For now you can think of $Z[X] \twoheadrightarrow O_K$ as meaning that $O_K \otimes \mathbb{F}p$ is a closed subvariety of $\mathbb{A}^1{\mathbb{F}_p}$ for all primes p.
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
in this context, you can view numbers as functions right
Yes exactly, and they vanish wherever their prime divisors are, etc.
And the order of vanishing is the multiplicity of that prime divisor.
Anyway maybe this was too much to go into, but I think it's very cool.
But the different stuff is what you were originally asking about.
I am interested in the analogy between number fields and Riemann surfaces
Yes rings of integers are very much the same as riemann surfaces from a geometric point of view
Both one dimensional, both have the same ramification theory, elements of a number field are like meromorphic functions, there is a Riemann Roch theorem for both
I don't really know about the analogy yet, but how strong is it? Like do you get a functor { number fields } --> { Riemann surfaces } ?
No not a functor, it is not that literal of an analogy. Number fields are much more difficult to classify than Riemann surjaces.
It's more of an analogy where the same structures tend to pop up on both sides.
๐
The analogy is actually closer with curves over finite fields though
can somebody give me a hint for this question? I feel like it has to do with the characteristic of R, or the fact that R contains a subring isomorphic to Zn.
i'm trying proof by contradiction but for the moment i seem to be stuck
What happens if you quotient out a prime ideal
If it has an R-basis with no nontrivial relations.
Usually you have to use something cleverer to figure out if a module is free, but for this exercise just the definition is fine.
The Ideal I can always be spanned right
by some set of elements
only linear independence is a possible issue?
Yes every ideal has some possibly infinite set of generators.
So there is a surjection from some free module onto I
Why does the last line of this proof imply that d is a unit?
g is monic and df divides g in A[x] so the leading coefficient of df (which is d) divides 1 in A, so it's a unit
Ahh true
thanks
the annihalor of 1 is <X - 1> and annihalor or t,t^2,t^3 is <(X-1)^2> right
because (X-1)^2 * t = (X-1) * 1 = 0
are you saying (X-1)ยฒ.tยฒ = 0 ?
yes
what's (X-1). tยฒ ?
what's X. tยฒ
(t+1)^2
yeah i was wrong xd i treated t^2 = t * t and not f(t) = t^2 XD
I'm honestly not sure what's the difference
I think maybe you're thinking that R[X] is acting by ring homomorphisms, but it's obviously not, it only preserves the addition.
yep
did this
ah the sum of ring morphisms isn't a ring morphisms
Yes but also on a more basic level: scalar multiplication is not a ring homomorphism unless the scalar is idempotent.
ah yeah
Trying to prove |cos xโcos y| โค |xโy| for all x, y โ R. - using the mean value theorem
Can I get a hint (which doesn't give away the solution too much). Tried a couple things and not quite sure
Well what does the mean value theorem tell you about cos x - cos y
that between two points x,y there is a point with its derivative equal to the slope of x and y?
This probably is better relegated to #real-complex-analysis than here
That is also true lol I didn't even realise
solved it. & yup! ๐คฆ (I've been asking a few group theory Qs recently, so instinctively clicked on this channel)
where is the sylvester matrix used other than to define the resultant
Can you use Turing machines to prove that the group given by a presentation is undecidable?
Feels like there'd be a way to twist it
After googling it, the answer is yes. Neat
can someone help me with this, Im trying to understand how 4 principal ideals (2), (3), (1+sqrt(-5)), (1-sqrt(-5)), in Z(sqrt(-5)) can be expressed as products of 4 other ideals in Z(sqrt(-5))
my first thought was to pick the 4 ideals to be
a = (2, 1+sqrt(-5))
b = (2, 1-sqrt(-5))
c = (3, 1+sqrt(-5))
d = (3, 1-sqrt(-5))
but that didnt really help
Ok can someone check my work on this?
Suppose $A = 0$, the matrix of all $0$'s. Then the left action of $p(x) \cdot v = p(A) \cdot v$ is essentially just scalar multiplication by $k$ and so our module is $M = k^2$ with scalar multiplication. We can write this as $(k \times \{0\}) \oplus (\{0\} \times k)$ which are both simple submodules of $M$. Thus fixing $A = 0$ yields a semisimple ring.
Spamakin๐ท
I'm not at all comfortable with semisimple rings (absolutely 0 intuition) so it may be basic but I want to make sure. I think it's right so if it's wrong I want to know for sure
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m64sky
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@wide shard #latex-testing
this is abstract algebra
nor abstract algebra for that matter
well i can't tell what that is because there is not enough context lol
oh this channel is used for questions and answers
i thought it was used for just discussions or just abstract algebra
it is used for abstract algebra
@wide shard do you know what abstract algebra is
but this is not abstract algebra
if you're just trying to figure out tikz stuff + play with bot go to #latex-testing
look, if you have something to say, say it
@wide shard my brother in christ that is not abstract algebra
otherwise go to #latex-testing
let him cook and ask a question ig
yeah bro
๐งโ๐ณ
let me cook
(also if anyone has any ideas about my question above ๐)
what does that mean btw
I can cook minute rice in 58 seconds.
lol
just ask your question if you have one
same ๐
what does what mean
i can cook biryani in 10 minutes
instead of clogging the channel
let him cook meaning
ya know what
and further burying my question
just go to #chill
theres no hope for us my guy, dw
you can ask on mse and get deleted if you want
whoops
what is stopping you from multiplying a,b,c,d together
wdym
I tried combinations
like I tried a*b but it didnt seem to help
or I messed up somewhere
you are thinking that your 4 principal ideals might be expressed as products of some of a,b,c,d, right ?
My idea was that if we do that then for example a * b = (2)
ye
so what happened when you computed a * b
I got an expression, which didnt seems to be (2)
but maybe i made a mistake
lemme send pic
I was thinking maybe the first 4 terms in the final step were all equivalent?
but honestly im not sure
that's uh probably not the best way to go about it
you should try to get a set of generators for ab
lovely
ok but I just put a factor of 2 before the sqrt(-5) in the last step
at least thats easy to fix
ah fuck it, its too late for this anyways, im gonna go to bed and look at it tomorrow
thanks for the help anyway
also if you want to show this is equal to (2)
you can show that it's included in (2)
and then show that it contains 2
The last sentence of this proof is confusing me
I get that N_{L/K}(\beta) and \Tr_{L/K}(\beta) are integral over A and elements of K, but I can't see why they're elements of B?
It seems more realistic to me that they're integral elements of some field over A
Yes that is right. But did you find a non-semisimple example (that is arguably harder)?
Also this is the referenced proposition
not yet, stuck on that part
They have to be integral over A because B is integral over A
yeah I mean I understand why they're integral I don't understand why they're elements of B
Beta is in B, so all of its conjugates must also be in B (Edit: images of B under various embeddings of L into \bar{K})
Since integrality is independent of the choice of embedding (or invariant under automorphisms fixing A if you look at everything in the algebraic closure)
Aren't the conjugates elements of the algebraic closure of L?
Ah wait
The minimal polynomial is Monic
So the roots are restricted to B subset L
Weren't you worried about B not being integrally closed in L?
I guess I thought after this comment that was your confusion.
this isn't necessarily true tho. Like take e.g. B=Z[cbrt(2)] in L=Q(cbrt(2)), its conjugates are certainly contained in an isomorphic copy of B inside the algebraic closure, but they aren't inside of L even, since they involve complex roots of unity
Yes but having them live in isomorphic embedded copies of Z[sqrt(2)] is enough to deduce that the products are integral over A, and contained in Z[sqrt(2)]
More precise is to say "contained in the image of B under some embedding" but I was being lazy
I think that's the part that irony incarnate is confused about
that the product is indeed contained in B
Ah I see, then perhaps it's better to say that the product is integral and obviously in K.
That's a simpler way to end the proof anyway
honestly yea
either way, the product ends up being integral over A and in L. The only elements of L which are integral over A are elements of B anyways. If you have non-trivial denominators then you're gonna end up not satisfying a monic polynomial with coefficients in A
This isn't obviously true from the problem statement
I thought this was what they were worried about.
But there's no reason that B must be integrally closed in L
Unless I'm misunderstanding what they mean by "integral extension of domains"
this is the best way to think about this
Yes I think so, I realize now that my proof of the norm and trace being in B goes through proving this.
i know that if i quotient by a prime ideal i get an integral domain, and also the ring is finite and Zn is an integral domain iff n is prime and is hence a field?
although i'm not sure if it would automatically be iso to Zn
Do you know a theorem about finite integral domains??
nah
hmmm
well i suppose maybe we could regard R/N as a finitely generated abelian group under addition
since it's a ring
and perhaps then it's isomorphic to Zn which is an integral domain iff n is prime and hence is a field
??
idk if that works
oh ya
every finite integral domain is a field
oops
So proposition: all finite integral domains are fields. Can you prove this?
forgot about that
Yep
Nah
rip
Because you don't know what the multiplication is like
ahh true
Structure theorem for FGAB's will not say anything about whether it's a domain or not
E.g. F_p[x]/x^2 is just (Z/p)^2 as an abelian group just like F_p \times F_p
nw
so my book gave Z2 x Z3 as an example, since i tcontains a subring isomorphic to Z2 and a subringg isomorphic to Z3, but how is this possible? wouldn't imply that if such a ring exists that has a subring isomorphic to Zm and one isomorphic to Zn, then that ring would have characteristic m and characteristic n for m neq n? but i thought the characteristic of a ring is defined to be the least such integer n such that n x r = 0 for all r in R, and hence a unique integer value?
There it doesn't say anything about the characteristic though
Like for Z2 x Z3 the characteristic is 6
The characteristic of the ring is the order of the multiplicative identity. Here is an example that will really bake your noodle: $\prod_{p \text{ prime}} \mathbb{F}_p$ has characteristic $0$.
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
ah true
damn
what does \mathbb{F}_p denote here
just any field of order p or Zp?
both, there is only one field of order p as it so happens
.
oh yea true
I suppose the profinite integers have characteristic 0?
Yep, they're even torsion free.
people in the literature like calling things like Q_p or Z_p "mixed characteristic": they are characteristic 0, but have char p residue field
it's good terminology, but it's a little funny when you first encounter it
probably a stupid question, but why couldn't we consider the elements 1, B, B^2, ... B^n+1? wouldn't that show that the deg(B, F) is at most n + 1?
isn't it explained in the text between those two highlights?
I mean you could, but certainly if the degree is at most n, then it's also at most n + 1
geometric series
A more straightforward hint would be to remember the difference of two squares.
oh I didn't see the 2 there lmao
kek
but the difference of squares helped
so (a + b)(a - b) = a^2 right?
since a is a unit, then a^2a^(-2) = 1
yeah
Noic
so a + b's inverse is (a - b)a^(-2)
yip
okee thank you
I'm stuck on finding an example that is not semisimple.
Keep at it. If you know about the Jordan normal form you may be able to land on an example quickly.
wait sorry i'm confused wouldn't that contradict the fact that deg(B, F) < deg(a, F)
I said if you know it. I will emphasise that you don't have to know it.
Just keep trying matrices.
Btw, the Jordan normal form classifies all finite-dimensional k[x]-modules where k is algebraically closed.
No? "At most n + 1" means "less than or equal to n + 1"
I guess part of the issue is that I'm not sure how I'd show something isn't semisimple
Then you should try showing that
yea but what if it is n + 1
deg(B, F) = n + 1 which is not less than or equal to deg(a, F) = n
It can't be because you can show the stronger condition that the degree is less than or equal to n
so wouldn't it be incorrect to say that deg(B, F) is at most n + 1 if it can't be n + 1
sorry i'm confused this is my fault
No
You are incorrectly thinking that "at most n+1" means that there is a case in which the value is n+1, when this is not how this term is used in mathematics.
If what you were thinking was the case, then it would be incorrect to say "x is at most y" unless the two were literally equal, which is just not useful at all.
"6 is at most 7" is a correct use of the term in mathematics
yea but how. For example how would I show that something cannot be written as a sum of simple modules?
Exercise: show that Z/p^2Z is not the sum of simple Z-modules.
Trying to do this will help with the problem at hand
former has elements of order p^2 but the latter cannot?
i'm struggling to see how the preceding sentences before consequently justify 1, sqrt(3) being a basis
can somebody help me pls
i understand that {1, sqrt(3)} is a basis, but that's because the irreducible polynomial for sqrt(3) over Q(sqrt(2)) is of degree 2, but how do we know that
<@&286206848099549185>
guys
need some help here
i've asking some question to ChatGPT then i get this answer from one of those question
We have a collection of normal subgroups $G_n$ of a group $G$, and we form the group $G_N$ as the direct product of the groups $G_n$. There exists a natural homomorphism $\phi$ from $G_N$ to the group formed by the direct products of the quotient groups $G/G_n$. The homomorphism $\phi$ is defined by sending each element of $G_N$ to a tuple of the corresponding cosets in the quotient groups. Moreover, $\phi$ is surjective and its kernel is given by the elements of $G_N$ whose components lie in the subgroups $G_n$. By the homomorphism theorem, it follows that $G_N$ mod the kernel of $\phi$ is isomorphic to the image of $\phi$, which is the direct product of the quotient groups $G/G_n$.
brey
The homomorphism $\phi$ is defined as follows: for $a = (a_1, \ldots, a_n) \in G_N$, we define $\phi(a) = (\overline{a_1}, \ldots, \overline{a_n})$, where $\overline{a_i}$ is the coset of $a_i$ in $G/G_i$. In other words, $\overline{a_i} = a_i G_i$. To show that $\phi$ is a homomorphism, we need to verify that $\phi(ab) = \phi(a)\phi(b)$ for all $a,b \in G_N$. If we write $a = (a_1, \ldots, a_n)$ and $b = (b_1, \ldots, b_n)$, then $ab = (a_1b_1, \ldots, a_nb_n)$. Therefore, $\phi(ab) = (\overline{a_1b_1}, \ldots, \overline{a_nb_n})$. Now, $\overline{a_ib_i} = a_ib_i G_i = a_i G_i b_i G_i = \overline{a_i} , \overline{b_i}$ for each $i$, since $G_i$ is normal in $G$. Hence, $\phi(ab) = (\overline{a_1} , \overline{b_1}, \ldots, \overline{a_n} , \overline{b_n}) = \phi(a)\phi(b)$. Therefore, $\phi$ is a homomorphism from $G_N$ to $\prod_{i=1}^n G/G_i$.
brey
is it just the intersection of the bases??
like how do we know deg(sqrt(3), Q(sqrt(2)) = 2
<@&286206848099549185>
Sqrt(3) is not in Q(sqrt(2)), so the minimal polynomial can't be of degree 1
x^2-3 is a polynomial with coefficients in Q(sqrt(2)) with root being sqrt(3) so we can conclude that [Q(sqrt(2), sqrt(3)) : Q(sqrt(2))] = 2
What is Z here?
it might be a typo it should be Z_n i think
Ahh
idk ๐คบ
Then show that the set satisfies the axioms for a ring
And argue why it only has n^2 elements
(here addition and multiplication are the regular matrix addition and multiplication)
...do you have a question about something in here?
wait sorry why not
when proving that something is a ring, do i go through all the ring axioms?
i have not gotten into quotient rings in my readings but i will consider the subring idea
i think because i havent had an exercise that said to check all the ring axioms, i might do it that way just to get some practice with it
How do we define addition for tensor product to make it into a module
Addition in $A\otimes_R B$ is just induced from addition in $A\times B$, i.e. component wise. If R is commutative, then $A\otimes_R B$ is an R module.
Parrot Tea
Read the construction of a tensor product as a quotient space from here
In mathematics, the tensor product
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If I have established $B \cong C $ and I need to show that $ A \cong B $, but showing $A \cong C$ is easier for me.
I think i get that im allowed to just show $A \cong C$ and it should follow that $A \cong C \cong B$.
Whats the "good practice"/justification here? If I where to explicitly justify this I would say something along the lines of that a composition of two bijections is bijective hence $A \cong B$.
aabb
Can I just treat them like equal signs in that case? Like $A \cong C \cong B$ implies $ A \cong B $?
aabb
Well isomorphisms work like that yes
If f is a iso from A to C and g is a iso from C to B, fg is clearly a hom from A to B. It's also iso because g^-1 f^-1 is inverse
I think this is kind of misleading: the way you word of it makes it kind of sound like $A \otimes B$ has the same underlying space as $A \times B$. Instead maybe it's better to say that $(a + a') \otimes b = a \otimes b + a' \otimes b$ and $a \otimes (b + b') = a \otimes b + a \otimes b'$.
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
That is proved in the sentence before the word consequently
Every module has a spanning set right
We could take the spanning set to be just every element of the module correct?
I don't think this is true?
are you thinking of the spanning set as finite
maybe that should've been a good thing to ask beforehand tho lol
possibly infinite
nvm tho because i only seen the proof that all vector spaces have a basis in the finite case


