#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 92 of 1
so you're looking at the image \rho(g)(V_i)
Then maybe you would say \rho_U or \rho_{V_i} for the homomorphism form G \to Gl_n
So to be clear g is a matrix \rho_U(g) and Vi is a vector space which is a subspace of the underlying vector space of U.
hey guys i have a question in groups theory
what is an arbitrary group
and how do we define it
You may have to clarify your question... are you asking about the definition of a "group?"
It depends on context, but probably the author just means "any group"
Yeah so they just mean that they don't assume anything about the structure of the group except that it is finite.
okay so its just a finite group G
It is just what you would mean in english when you say "an arbitrary person" or "an arbitrary apple"
I mean the phrase "arbitrary group" just means any group, but you can tell from context that they are assuming that G is finite.
So are you confused about why g(V_i) is an N-subrepresentation of U?
okay i didnt know that since its not my first language
Yep, no worries.
yes we use finite groups in that case
thanks
Yes
Yes okay, maybe before you go at it one more question: if W \subset U is an N-irreducible subrepresentation, obviously so is g *W, but what is its character?
I think with these two pieces of information you'll be like 75% of the way there.
Well firstly by induction it suffices to consider the case of an ideal generated by two elements
Thats what im trying
so supposing that I = (f,g)
then any function in I is $h_1f + h_2g$
ActiveChapter
This is a great problem. A good follow up is to ask what the non-principal ideals are like.
i havnt done the question yet hah
If we fixed h_1 and h_2 then i can see it equaling a single function
but my problem is that for all h_1 and h_2 it has to be that same function?
You also need to explain why principal ideals are of the form described in the question
Yeah
First doing the first bit
Showing its principal
Think i have it
(f,g) = (k)
then h_1f + h_2g = h_3k
for any h_1 and h_2, (h_1f + h_2g)(x) = b
and k(x) = z
we can defin a h_3 that makes (h_3k)(x) = b
since Real is a field
I have absolutely no idea what you are doing
You want to show that for any f and g, there exists a function k such that (f,g)=(k) right ?
no
I want to show that (f,g) = (k) as ideals
So any function in (f,g) has the from (h_1f + h_2g)
(h_1f + h_2g) is a function from Z to R
What
Well I was busy editing
First you need to come up with a suitable k
Then you need to argue why the ideals are equal
Couldnt any function that isnt 0 work
Idk which part you are on
this part
No
Are you saying (f)=(g) whether f and g are not the zero function
For a fixed h_1 and h_2, (h_1f + h_2g)(x) = b_x, say that we fixed k(x) = z, we can define a third function h_3(x) = (b_x)/z
Does this not work
So you are just taking k=1 ?
any non zero function
1 is a nonzero function
idk just trying stuff? doesnt it work
It seems overly messy - I'd try to stare at what they gave and think how you can reverse engineer S, for example
Well you will be in trouble showing that (k) = (f,g) with your choice of k
i just showed that any h_1f + h_2g = h_3k
This is a cool question tbh
According to however you put your quantifiers that's at best only one inclusion
By looking at what they say the principal ideals look like
Intersection of their 0's
I think maybe you should think of the following alternative approach:
Step 1: Show that I_S is principal
Step 2: Show that if V(I) is the set of all common zeroes of functions in I, then f_{V(I)} (the generator of I_{V(I)} from step 1) is in I.
Obviously I \subset I_S by definition
So that shows that all finitely generated ideals are principal.
Discord got rid of my subscripts 😢
Hard to understand
If (f,g) = (k)
k should also be 0 on their common 0's
but how should k act on everything else?
Well it must be nonzero on everything else otherwise the common zeroes would be larger, after that it doesn't matter.
Generators of ideals are usually not unique
Since there are so many units.
i was saying this above ;-; Zef Klop telling me im wrong
k can be anything
So here's a simpler question: what are the units in this ring R?
all non zero functions are unit ?
Nonzero here is a little ambiguous
non zero constant
Those are units, but there are even more.
Functions that have no 0's are unit
My bad
So that means that after multiplying by a unit, we can assume any function is just valued in {0, 1}
So the only relevant thing about k is where it vanishes and where it doesn't vanish.
righty
On the non zero values k could have any values
Thats what i was trying to get at initally but perhaps didnt explain the best
I didnt realise that functions with no 0's are the units
Yep! And any function which vanishes on S clearly differs from any such k by multiplying by an appropriate function.
So you've basically proved that I_S is principal, now time to prove that any finitely generated ideal contains some I_S!
Hi Joe, so did you try to solve the question about what the character of gV_1 is?
(As a representation of N)
Yep, thanks for your help
It is! that is correct
That is a formal consequence of the first part.
No but if you look at the definition carefully, that ideal has empty V(I)
right
So it cannot be one of the I_S
So if you have shown that every finitely generated ideal is an I_S, you know it is not finitely generated.
Okay so then what is gV_1^{n_1}?
@dim widget i understood, thank you very much for your time
Yes okay so either that is V_1^{n_1} for all g \in G (and then what can we conclude?) or some g \in G maps V_1^{n_1} to some V_2^{n_2} right?
Yep
So what can we conclude about U in that case?
Well we already know gU = U
because U is a representation.
Well if gV_1^n_1 = V_1^n_1 for all g what does that mean about V_1^{n_1}?
Because U is irreducible!
So it cannot have any nontrivial G-stable subspace.
So that means that in that case G transitively permutes the factors of V_1^{n_1} = U.
If g*W = W for all g \in G then W is by definition a G-subspace.
bro what even is all this
We only assumed to start that it is an N subspace
someone pls exlain to me this i have no idea wth is happening
Don't let it get to you! rep theory is hard.
I'm doing rep theory for my thesis and I still struggle 
silly little field of study
We just let G act on one of the V_i^{n_i}. Basically our conclusion is: if it moves V_i to another V_j, then we don't know anything, but if it stabilizes V_i^{n_i}, then V_i^{n_i} is a G-stable subspace, so it is all of U, and we are in the case that U is just a bunch of copies of a single N-representation
Anything outside a maximal ideal is a unit right
if the ring is local, sure
in general?
no
Anything outside of every maximal ideal is a unit
ok
but R/I is a field if I is maximal, so anything not in I should be a unit? Where am i going wrong
right irhgt
2 is self inverse mod 3, doesn't mean 2*2 = 1 in Z
yes
Because they are subspaces of U
And G acts on U
I am identifying v \in V_1^n_1 with (v, 0, 0, ..., 0) inside of V_1^{n_1} \oplus ... \oplus V_m^{n_m} = U
Yeah it's inside the a larger vector space on which G acts.
topos just in case u didn't know this server has a bot which will actually compile the latex in messages for you
$v \in V_1^{n_1}$ with $(v, 0, 0, ..., 0)$ inside of $V_1^{n_1} \oplus ... \oplus V_m^{n_m} = U$
Wew
anyway sorry for interrupting
Oh I did not notice that before.
That would be a lot more helpful
yeah texit is pog
Feel free to join in!
I read the backlog first
Joe 1 maybe you can repost the question for @delicate orchid ?
Yeah it is a difficult question to do under time pressure but I think you are learning a lot from practicing it.
I think for finite index subgroups it is pretty easy to recognize an induction, because for some subgroup H and H-rep W it should look like $\oplus_{gH \in G/H} gW$
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
where gW is the representation with the character $h \to \chi_{W}(g^{-1}hg)$
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
Hello. Can anyone here explain in a simple and intuitive way and in detail why in the hyperbolic plane it is generally impossible, starting with an arbitrary circle of area less than 2\pi, to construct (with straightedge and compass) a quadrilateral with all sides and angles congruent having the same area, and vice versa, that is, starting with an arbitrary quadrilateral with all sides and angles congruent, it is impossible in general to construct a circle having the same area?
So the idea is now that we have shown that there is some finite set I and a set of irreps W_i of N for i \in I
And a set of integers n_i such that $U = \oplus_i W_i^{n_i}$ for $i \in I$
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Yep, so here's a question: does it act transitively?
Hint: use that U is irreducible again.
Have you tried proof by contradiction?
Maybe it would help to look at a simple example?
You could write down some representations of D_8, the dihedral group Z/4 semidirect product Z/2
And restrict them to Z/4
And actually do this decomposition we're doing
I dunno why i picked D_8 you should do S_3 instead since it's easier
do C_4 :pack:
I think it's good to do a nonabelian example because otherwise both types of phenomena never occur.
Irreps of abelian groups are never induced obviously.
i asked this earlier but couldnt quite figure it out, if you have that for a field F,
[F[a] : F] is an odd number, show that [F[a] : F[a²]] = 1
tower law
F(a) : F = F(a) : F(a^2) * F(a^2) : F
what are the possible values of F(a) : F(a^2)? @charred bison
must be an odd number and must be lower than [F[a] : F]?
typo, meant the left one lol
hmm let me write it out and see
think minimal polynomials
the minimal polynomial of a over F[a²][x] is x² - a²?

am i wrong?
what if a is already in F(a^2)
then we already get F(a²) supseteq F(a) so they are equal
does anyone knwo a good reference for field extensions and all that
D&F is nice, also this problem was in D&F lol
Although there's also a book review of algebra books in #book-recommendations
today ii am become algebra
Wii
is this proof sufficient
for some reason i feel like i'm missing some really important details
same question as yesterday but how do we get that second isomorphism
and is this normal to come up with yourself a common argument with tensors
this is to try and show C \otimes C ≠ C
and ofc it's = C x C instead
not sure but that kinda looks like A/a otimes M = M/IM?
o
what's the dimension as R vs?
and what about ℂ ⊗ℂ
are they tensor prod as Algebras or just modules?
the complexification of R[x] is C[x], x^2+1 factors as (x+i)(x-i) over C
But this is as abelian groups not R-vector spaces.
If we have a ring A and the nilradical N of A is it true that every element in A \ N is a unit? I find it hard to believe that getting rid of elements x for which there exists n such that x^n = 0 leaves only elements that have inverses.
This is true if and only if A has exactly one prime
So like, most examples you can think of will work
e.g. nilradical of any integral domain is {0}, but not every integral domain is a field
You didn't prove the inductive step, i.e. that F(S)(T)=F(S\cup T) (you use this in the finale line). Proving this is basically the entire proof.
If L/K is a field extension K[x]/(f)\otimes_K L is isomorphic as a K-algebra to L[x]/(f), i.e. the larger field absorbs the smaller.
hm i thought i included that in the inductive hypothesis
and then X and X_s are disjoint by assumption, so induction hypothesis gives result
maybe i missed something
You assumed the result is true for s-1, i.e. F(X_1)...(X_s-1)=F(X_1\cup\cdots\cup X_s-1)
That's not the same as this.
Besides, idk why you're so adamant about disjointness. Just prove this, then your result follows easily by iteration (or induction, same thing).
hm good point
I.e. it doesn't matter if you adjoin stuff in stages or all at once.
does surjectivity here just follow immediately from the defn of tensor products of homomorphisms
Yes, injectiveness doesn't (because it's not always true).
u basically just asked "is this question lying to me" 

He might've been thinking if it's just symbol pushing or something more is required.
i was asking if it was as immediate as it seemed lol
It is.
true
i proved this for the case F(u_1, u_2) = F(u_1)(u_2) in a previous problem
i guess i generalize that to all of U?
You mean adjoining elements? Yeah, that's a special case of this (X_i={u_i}).
There's really little to prove, just think of the definitions (i.e. F(X) smallest subfield containing F and X)
yea
ok i’ll think about it ty
F(X_i)(X_j) is the smallest subfield containing F, Xi and Xj, so equivalent to F(Xi cup Xj)?
is it enough to just say "elementary tensors of N_1 \otimes N_2 arent necessarily spanned by the image of elementary tensors of M_1 \otimes M_2"
that's kinda just restating shit but idk
like it seems clear that it's not necessarily the case
Succinctly put, yes, but if you want to go about it properly:
F(S)(T) is the smallest subfield containing F(S) and T. F(S\cup T) contains F and S, therefore it contains F(S) and it contains T, so it contains F(S)(T).
F(S\cupt T) is the smallest subfield containing F and S\cup T. F(S)(T) contains F(S), therefore it contains F and S, and it contains T, therefore it contains F and S\cup T, so it contains F(S\cupt T).
Eh, idk. IIRC the problem is there might be unexpected relations between tensors, so stuff that's not 0 in M_1xM_2 might turn into 0 in N_1xN_2. IIRC the prototypical example involved 2Z and Z/2Z or smth like that.
i'll play with it ty for pointer
ty!
i can see it all good 
As always, KC is the answer to all of life's problems
i keep forgetting to check those
KC be praised
I just pray to god he releases a textbook (preferably on algebraic number theory) within my lifetime
This might sound embarrassing, but I've unironically written fanmail to him (and another author).
The man has collectively taught me more about algebra than any amount of textbooks of courses.
based
what's the other author
det summon 
Martin Isaacs, his algebra textbook is godly.
I rate it and Jacobson's BA as the best.
Turns out he also knows Russian and is a total dork irl (in a fun way), based on the few videos of him I've found.
this isnt phrased correctly but
do elementary tensors commute
like m times n = n times m
Not literally (i.e. not inside M\otimes N), but M\otimes N is canonically isomorphic to N\otimes M
I'm a bit stuck on this exercise. The right-to-left direction is obvious, so I'm working on the left-to-right. Currently, I have the surjective homomorphism $f: F[x]\to F$ such that $f(p) = p(a)$, and I'm trying to figure something out in $F$ and then pull that information back to $F[x]$.
ecurtiss
use the fact that given F is a field you have F[x] is an euclidean domain with the norm defined to be degree of the polynomial
@fervent agate are u still stuck
Yes
do you know what an euclidean domain is
Yep. It's the last thing in this chapter, so I only have the definition. I don't know of any special properties they have
if i were u once i see this expression ( the one i wnat to prov )
prove*
i would immediately guess euclidean algorithm
do u see it?
from b)
Sure. I could take literally any other nonzero polynomial and do the division algorithm. Although I would probably want to use a polynomial such that r=0.
well ur already forced
the problem wants ut o show that p(x)=q(x)(x-a) for some q(x)
u have it alreaddy but with some r(x) polynomial with the condition on deg r
so apply the euclidean algorithm on p(x) and (x-a)
what do u get
I get that p(x) = q(x)(x-a) + r(x), and then I want to show that r(x) = 0.
evaluate at a
:o
and look at the degree of r
thats not all what u get
u missed something
deg(r) < deg(a) = 1
So r is constant but we need p(a) to be 0, meaning r must be 0
ye
Thank you!!
something to note tho:
u took for granted that given F is a field F[x] is euclidean
u should try to prove that
it would be hard to do it on your own
so look up the proof of Z is an euclidean domain
and try to imitate the argument
This is a good point, will do
😠
You don't even need F to be a field for this hm
Like it is easiest to prove this directly imo
But then again that is also a good exercise
😠
don't need F to be a field for F[x] to be a ED? What's an example of this? I'm just think that F[x] needs to be principle, so that restricts you quite a bit on your choice of F
oh
No for the conclusion
lol
A[x] is euclidean iff A is a field actually
oh nice
yo
Hom(-,D) is exact if D is injective
both left and right?
so for example like
suppose A-->B-->C-->0 is some exact sequence
yeah i meant inside
with A being injective
then Hom(A,M)-->Hom(B,M) -->Hom(C,M)-->0 have trivial ker/im?
ie exact too?
this would be p easy if it did "commute"
so ig the homology grp of this would be like how far is A from being injective in some sort?
is that correct intuition
cuz its 0 if it is
same idea with like derham stuff in geom
What do you mean by that
Like they were elements of the symmetric space
e1 tensor e2 is not equal to e2 tensor e1 right
I think one useful way to think about tensor products is this:
by easy i meant obvious
The space of n x n matrices is the tensor product V \otimes V^{dual}
For simplicity if we identify V and its dual with some choice of pairing, we can just write M_n(F) = V \otimes V
Where V is a V-dimensional vector space with a basis.
Given two vectors v_1, v_2 \in V you can always form the Kronecker product or (v_1 \otimes v_2)_{i, j} = (v_1)_i \cdot (v_2)_j
These are what the "simple" tensors look like in the space of matrices, and it's clear that not all matrices are of this form.
I think this is a nice toy model for various basic facts about tensor products.
wdym by ^{dual}
like V^* or Hom_F(V, F)
hmmm i might have to sit on that for a bit
i have to prove that the tensor prod of fin. generated modules is also finitely generated - is this obvious from just considering the image of the generating set of each module in the tensor?
yeah, you can generate the pure tensors and then add them together
(linear combination of generators of A) otimes (linear combination of generators of B) and then distribute
not really image i guess because there is no canonical map A -> A otimes B for modules
yo can we show Q is not a projective Z-module from the first defintion only?
like if we suppose it is
can we construct some diagram that it doesnt work
like maybe for example f is the identity map
and the exact(?) sequence ZxZ-->Q-->0
yea
so u would have a map that must be the identity map by commutativity
from Q to ZxZ
which is a contradiction(?)
thats my first thought
this doesnt work ig
Guys, how can I prove that every cyclic of length k has order k, this is equal to the identity

What if you try to consider an n-cycle and work from there
What do we know about the order?
Consider the cycle to be (a1 a2 ... ak) then you want to show that applying this permutation to any arbitrary element of the cycle ai returns back ai
looking at rings for the first time
do the proofs for the properties look alright?
F is a subfield of C(complex numbers), f(x) ∈ F[x] is an irreducible polynomial(over F). If f(x) has more than one root say a and b, then F[a] = F[b]
how do i show this?
What happens if you look at Q and f(x)=x^3-2
Do you really mean that F[a] = F[b] are equal or do you mean isomorphic?
yeah up to isomorphism
If it's up to isomorphism then both are isomorphic to F[x]/(f(x)) as rings. If you are actually asking about equality as subfields of C then counterexamples are generic. And the one @lethal dune gave is fine.
You don’t really need to ping me
I thought it might be educational for you 🙂
Again no need to ping
Oh, sorry 🙂
god dammit 

In a Hilbert space, let 𝑃 be an bounded operator, is it true that if 𝑃𝑃* = 0, then 𝑃 is zero?
where * is the conjugate
There is no such exact sequence of Z-modules
Q is not finitely generated
you mean adjoint?
yes
then yes ,because ||P*P||= ||P||^2
thanks!
is this true in any star algebra?
I dont think so , i think the ring Z/nZ with identity involution should be a counter example , But it is true over any C*-algebra
This is an answer if you are asking whether xx*=0 implies x=0
@warm urchin thanks!
What is your guess as to what I_S is?
A function that is 0 on S
No sorry, more precisely what is your guess as to what the generators of I_S are?
No idea
Does S include the inside part of the circle?
No it's just the unit circle. But if S was the entire unit disk could you show that I_S is just 0?
Maybe after i can try that
f = X^2 + Y^2 - 1 is a polynomial that is 0 on S
Yes, so my first guess would be that that generates all of the polynomials which vanish on S because I can't think of any others (except for multiples of this one).
ok
So how would you go about that?
Supposing we had arbitrary polynomial that vanishes on S and try and see if it is a multiple of f
Is that how you would do it
Well yes
We could do long division by X^2 + Y^2 - 1?
And show that the remainder is 0
That is the doctrinaire way to do it, but it's a bit complex
I have never done division in 2 variables
Since R[X, Y] doesn't have a division algorithm
Yeah
R(X)[Y] and R(Y)[X] do and sometimes you can use that division algorithm
The remainder is forced to be 0 on S too
But i need to show that the remainder is exactly 0
Whats the difference between R(X)[Y] and R[X,Y]
R(X) is a field?
Yes R(X) is all the P(X)/Q(X) where Q(X) is not zero.
No probably not
But I think this is not an unreasonable way to do this:
R(X)[Y] is a euclidean domain thus a PID, so we know $I_S*R(X)[Y]$ is a principal ideal
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
Since X^2 + Y^2 - 1 is irreducible in R(X, Y), by Gauss's lemma it is irreducible in R(X)[Y] so it generates the ideal I_S
over R(X)[Y]
This means that any P(X, Y) which vanishes on S satisfies P(X, Y) = (X^2 + Y^2 -1)*(Q(X, Y)/R(X)) for Q some polynomial in two variables and R some polynomial in only the variable X.
So then R(X)*P(X, Y) is a multiple of (X^2 + Y^2 - 1)
But it is easy to see from this discussion that the ideal (X^2 + Y^2 - 1) is prime, and also not hard to prove that R(X) cannot be a multiple of (X^2 + Y^2 - 1)
So P(X, Y) is a multiple of (X^2 + Y^2 - 1)
but there are also other ways to prove this.
So they show that every irreducible is a prime
but the definiton of prime is, if x|yz => x|y or x|z
but they say that x=yz not x|yz
So how does this prove that x is prime?
Yes it is a typo. It should be x|yz, but the rest of the argument works unchanged. Edit: I read the argument and I think the whole thing is super weird, but the basic idea is correct.
this whole proof is strange
one is singular and one isn't
Calculate the tangent space at (0, 0) on the RHS.
Okay that makes proving this harder
Singular means there exists a maximal ideal m \subset R where dim(m/m^2) is not dim(R)
If you don't know what dim(R) is then it doesn't matter, just notice that one ring has a maximal ideal where m/m^2 has dimension 2 and the other one doesn't
On a more direct level, can't you show the latter isn't a UFD?
You could also show that C(x) is not isomorphic to C(x)[y]/y^3 - x^2
You could also do that... but I think proving any particular element is irreducible is probably more work than just computing tangent spaces. But that is another valid approach which maybe seems less magical if you don't know algebraic geometry.
Fair enough
Is there a cyclic permutation of natural numbers?
Yes
Actually no
For integers yes
For natural numbers no
Well as sets they are the same.
They are equinumerous but they are not the same set
So you have to ask what they mean by the cyclic permutation I would say.
What do you mean by cyclic permutation?
how do we know that g(X) also divides f ?
how coprime and irreducible implies that
This proof is to show that if a polynomial has n roots then its degree is atleast n
What exactly is the result being proven here
They show that since r_i(a_i) = 0 that r_i = 0, so there is no remainder. Thus g divides f
i get that
but mean g(X) = (X-a_1) .. (X-an)
how do we know that the whole thing divides f
Because the (X - a_i) all divide f, and they are coprime since the a_i are distinct
I suppose that is a detail that you have to fill in: that (X - a_i) is coprime with (X - a_j) for a_i != a_j
And how does coprime implies that g(X) divides f?
Doesn't this follow by definition?
Like if g(X)|f(X), then g(X)h(X) = f(X) and we already know that g(X)(X-ai) = f(X)
We know that individually the (X-a) divide f(X)
but we dunno that the multiples of them all divide f(X)
is what im asking
like 3|6 and 6|6 but 18 doesnt divide 6
write f(X) in terms of it's irreducible factors
we know that each (X-ai) divides f(X)
but since they're all coprime they share no irreducible factors with each others
hence their product can be written as a product of irreducibles that all correspond to irreducibles of f(X)
I think @novel parrot is confused because the book refers to the P such that P(X)(X - a_i) = f(X) for all i by g(X), then uses g(X) to refer to the product of the (X - a_i)
Yes this is the key point somehow.
you are using the UFD property to do this?
but what if R is not a UFD
is R a UFD?
yeah
what do you mean by this?
so you can decompose f(X) into a unique product of irreducibles over K[X]
definition of coprimality in UFDs
like if they had nontrivial gcd
then they have to share some irreducible factors
I think that is a good definition for this problem.
So if an irreducible divides something, then it must show up in its factorisation into irreducibles ?
Yes, this is almost the definition.
i dont understand why coprime is needed
Because of this example.
X^2 + X + 1 and X - \omega divide X^3 - 1 in C[X], but their product does not.
i see
Nevermind, it was a silly question
Is there a proof that proves this formally
It is pretty easy, you have to show that (R[X]/((X - a), (X - b)) is the 0 ring if a is not b.
Ahhh sorry, true facts.
since b - a is not neccesarly a unit in R
This is not a side question, it's very pertinent.
Yes this proof is incorrect as stated, but the result is correct.
I would stop trusting this book since it seems like the quality is very poor
Either way, so many completely incorrect or just wrong-headed proofs.
yeah
Anyway here is the simpler and more obvious proof:
The degree of a polynomial in R[X] is the same as the degree in K[X], and in K[X] this proof actually works.
but how does that prove this?
That shows that (x-a, x-b) = K[X] which means that (x - a), (x-b) are coprime.
That's one definition of coprime.
But if you like this is the chinese remainder theorem: $K[X]/(X - a) \times K[X]/(X - b) \cong K[X]/((X - a) \cap (X - b)) \cong K[X]/((X - a)(X - b))$
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
The last isomorphism is what we get from the two ideals being coprime
So if you look at what it means to be zero on the right hand side and on the left hand side we see that (X - a) and (X - b) divide P if and only if the product divides P.
No worries 🙂 I hope you find some better lecture notes!
Good luck!
Thanks
Need to grind another 50 pages of lecture notes
Oh another thing
Two irreducibles are coprime then they cant be associates right
x,y are irred and coprime then x!= yu where u is unit
Yes
Hello. Can anyone here explain in a simple and intuitive way and in detail why in the hyperbolic plane it is generally impossible, starting with an arbitrary circle of area less than 2\pi, to construct (with straightedge and compass) a quadrilateral with all sides and angles congruent having the same area, and vice versa, that is, starting with an arbitrary quadrilateral with all sides and angles congruent, it is impossible in general to construct a circle having the same area?
no
It's not clear what you mean by straightedge and compass on a hyperbolic space. Are they hyperbolic or euclidean compasses and straightedges?
4 day streak!
You can use $ab = gcd(a, b)lcm(a, b)$ to get that result specifically.
Halliday
To get the above, you can use the fact that if $\displaystyle gcd(a, b) = \prod_{\substack{p_i^{k_i}||a \ p_i^{j_i} || b}}p_i^{min(k_i, j_i)}$ and $\displaystyle lcm(a, b) = \prod_{\substack{p_i^{k_i}||a \ p_i^{j_i} || b}}p_i^{max(k_i, j_i)}$
Halliday
I think that does it, I might be off on some details though
Wait yeah, because then their product is just $ \prod_{\substack{p_i^{k_i}||a \ p_i^{j_i} || b}}p_i^{min(k_i, j_i) + max(k_i, j_i)} = \prod_{\substack{p_i^{k_i}||a \ p_i^{j_i} || b}}p_i^{k_i + j_i}$
Huh, why isn't the bot compiling this?
Actually, I think this explains it right? You can't put a straightedge on a hyperbolic plane because a hyperbolic plane is all curvy and shit
I mean it's just a question of what you mean, the hyperbolic plane is just the plane with a strange notion of distance. So you could ask for either compass or either straightedge
I know I was just making fun of the guy, because no one seemed to like his question
Although it does seem at least a bit galois theory-y
AFAIK you can actually square the circle with a euclidean compass and straightedge on the hyperbolic plane when the angles are constructible
Halliday
Other than euclidean geometry obviously
hey y'all
a question's asking to describe the subrings of the ring of integers
is that not just the subrings $n\mathbb Z$?
blanket
also the trivial subring 0 and Z itself of course but
Uh
am i missing any?
i have no idea, this is my first day with ring theory haha
or second day i guess i started looking at this stuff yesterday but didnt get too far, im doing some exercises now
It depends on the convention of the text you're reading basically but I assume you don't need rings to have a multiplicative unit here in which case yeah that's correct
Then you should also ask if the multiplicative unit needs to be different from 0 🤔
hmm there were some exercises dealing with subrings of $\mathbb Z_n$ and they did have unity different from 1
blanket
like this one
the book said that the subrings $n\mathbb Z$ didn't have unity so im assuming they don't have units
blanket
is that a right assumption?
Yes of course, but I was thinking about whether (0) should count.
As a ring with unity
ah
Which is another thing that people quibble about sometimes
hmm
well from what i know so far, unity's the element 1 such that a1 = a for some a in the ring
Let's see, they have to be an additive subgroup, so you take the smallest positive non-zero integer N, and by induction, it contains NZ
if its the trivial subring, then 00 is 0, no? i would then say it has unity
Yeah, I think there is no objective argument one way or another, it's just a convention 🙂
ahh okay
If you have M also in the subring, bezout's lemma gets you GCD(M, N)
Some people don't like to include it because it's weird
they have already solved the problem
I'm trying to give justification that those are the only subrings
i do appreciate the justification
To justify this, let $n$ be the smallest non-zero element of the subring, and consider $gcd(|m|, n)$ for any non-zero element of the subring m
the book lacks in explicitness sometimes so ill take all explicit forms of statements
Halliday
Basically, because of Bezout's lemma, you can always find a way to get $gcd(m, n)$ for any $m, n$ in the subring, but if $n$ is the smallest non-zero in it, $gcd(m, n) = n$, meaning $n$ divides every element of the subring
Halliday
If you're unfamiliar, Bezout's lemma just says there always exists integers $x$ and $y$ such that $xm + yn = gcd(m, n)$ for any integers $m, n$.
Halliday
Yeah
also i do have a question about notation
so for group theory, we used $\langle \rangle$ notation to denote a cyclic group/subgroup
blanket
is the same notation used for rings?
Not really? I think you're actually getting kinda close to the idea of an ideal
Basically cyclic subrings aren't really a well defined idea cause of the two operations.
An ideal is an analogy to divisibility, kind of
im still stuck in the group mindset, there wwas one exercise that messed with me for a bit because i just forgot about the second binary operation
You'll get used to it
Don't worry rings are generally easier than groups
Groups can go hard
gotcha
oh is it okay if i asked for one more clarification before i go back to doing more exercises?
go for it
so it was these two questions that were messing with me
for part a, i said Z_6 with a = 3 sop a^2 =9 mod 6 = 3
b i said z^4 so a = b = 2, but ab = 2*2 mod 4 is 0
and then c i said z_4, a = 2, b = 1, c = 3 so that 2 * 1= 2 * 3 mod 4 = 2
Yeah that's all correct
alright
and then for 7, i said that if we had z_p where p was prime, then its set of units is every element except 0
so it means that they all have inverses
oh too small
sec
\begin{enumerate}
\item $a^2 = a \implies a^{-1}a^2 = a^{-1}a \implies a = 1$. The equation is also true for $a = 0$.
\item $ab = 0 \implies a^{-1}ab = a^{-1}0 \implies 1b = 0 \implies b = 0$. Similarly, if $b^{-1}$ is the multiplicative inverse of $b$, then $abb^{-1} = 0b^{-1} \implies a1 = 0 \implies a = 0$ so that either $a$ or $b$ must be 0.
\item Let $a$ be a nonidentity element. Then $ab = ac \implies a^{-1}ab = a^{-1}ac \implies 1b = 1c \implies b = c$.
\end{enumerate}
blanket
If you want a cheesy answer, you could also just point out that the units form a group
oh yeah thats true
Which means that the units are closed under multiplication, and have cancelation
I had it drilled into me to not use \implies like that by a very mean british professor, but other than that yeah
ah LOL
"mean british professor" i love it
He's actually not that bad, but I sure hated him at the time
LOL
do i have to do cases for these?
where m can either be greater than, less than, or equal to 0
How does the book define $m \cdot(ab)$?
Halliday
Also, the first implies the second, and also the third so long as you already have $(-1)(a) = -a$, which should be by definition of multiplying an element of the ring by an integer
Halliday
You could avoid cases by using some trickery with something like $SGN(m)$ to mean the sign of $m$,
Halliday
they define it ab + ab + ab m times
i think its because they dont want ambiguity with mab?
Ugh, that's annoying imprecise
i was a bit confused as to why they did that because... mab makes sense as long as i know m is an integer
and ab are ring elements
You can probably get away with calling it $SGN(m)\sum_{k = 1}^{|m|}ab$, right?
Halliday
And noting that you define the empty sum to be Id_R
sgn is the sign function right
if i didnt use sgn would i then proceed by cases?
Yeah
i forgot we do have access to (-1)a = -a, that was one of the properties we proved
But basically you just induct on distributivity for the first, and then use the first to prove the other two
gotcha
okay i think i got it now
thank you!
i think ill stop here after to take a break and study something else :p
is this proof sufficient?
sorry to bother but which environment do you use for the problem and proposition?
ive been using t color box for stuff but ive been really wanting something like that...
You claim that $\mathbb{K}_1$ and $\mathbb{K}_2$ are the splitting field for $p_1$ and $p_2$, but that's not necessarily true right?
Halliday
And since the degree if the extension is potentially infinite, I think it might not work beyond that, although I'm super rusty on this stuff, so take that with a pinch of salt
I also have not looked at the proof beyond that point, since I was trying to remember what the hell any of it meant lol
Oh yeah, it doesn't break it, but they're definitely not necessarily the smallest fields such that ...
by assumption, i have that K1 and K2 are algebraic closures
In $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2})$, the polynomial $x^2 - 2$ factors, but that's not the algebraic closure of $\mathbb{Q}$.
mdframed
Halliday
The algebraic closure is the smallest field such that EVERY polynomial factors, not any given one.
And iirc, an algebraic closure can have potentially infinite degree, right?
I think it needs to be infinite. No?
Either way, I don't think it actually matters for your proof, since you're just claiming that $p$ splits, the fact that you say it's smaller doesn't matter
yeah it does
Halliday
infinite size, not necessarily infinite degree though. Degree is the degree of the smallest polynomial that you add the roots to the field to get to the new one
how do I form integral extensions of Z
ok ill look into that, thank you
Like the degree of $\mathbb{C}$ over $\mathbb{R}$ is $2$, since $\mathbb{C} = \mathbb{R}(x^2 + 1)$ or whatever the notation is
Halliday
Don't you have irred of every degree for Z and C? I guess not if you include C and R
R(i)
R(i) = R[x]/(x^2 + 1)
Makes sense lmao. I know so much more algebra than I did when I learned galois theory that that notation seems like it actually makes sense now lol
I guess yeah in geo you wouldn't want to assume that kind of thing
Yea, I think the degree of C over Q is infinite
indeed
C is bigger than Q's algebraic closure
Oh it is?
Q bar is countable,
Right right transcendentals
tfw no monic poly satisfies you 😿
uwu?
I guess I could just find a finitely generated Z module lmao
What's an integral extension?
I find $x - \pi$ very satisfying thank you
Halliday
every element is integral
You mean root of poly with intege coefficients?
no
Monic
R --> S is integral iff every element in S is integral over R i.e. is the root of a monic polynomial in R[x]
Z --> R
That has not helped me
Z[x]/f(x)
Okay, sure
non algebraic extensions count too
Like what?
How is a non algebraic extension integral?
That sounds like a contradiction in terms
that's not what I meant
Ew
Z --> C is a non algebraic extension but still an extension
Oh gotcha
we have this proposition
So it's a ring that contains Z as a subring?
for an extension R --> S and s_1, ..., s_k in S. we have s_1, ..., s_k are integral over R iff R[s_1, ..., s_k] is finitely generated as an R mod
yes, Z embeds into it
Z --> R
R is thick R?
Oh okay
neither Z[1/2] nor Q are integral over Z
though Z[sqrt(2)] and Z[zeta_3] are
I think
we need to take a number field K
and then its ring of integers will be integral over Z
yeah that would make sense
what does integral mean in an arbitrary ring, is it just $n \cdot id$?
but is the other direction true as well
Halliday
like is every integral extension of Z the ring of integers of some number field
No
For one it can be way too big
Take an algebraic closure of Q
And form Z’s integral closure in it
This is called the absolute integral closure, and generally is denoted R^+ for an integral domain R
This is hella infinite-dimensional
wdym with this? ring of integers?
Everything integral over it
ah right integral closure
I saw it somewhere in the upcoming lecture notes
I assume it's the same thing as algebraic closure just for integral elements?
Even if you restrict to finite extensions I don’t think it’s true
The ring of integers of Q(sqrt(d)) for d ≠ 2 is Z[sqrt(d)] if d = 1 mod 4 (or was it 3 mod 4 lmfao) and Z[(1+sqrt(d))/2] otherwise
Take d such that it’s the latter
that's what I was working on earlier today lol
alg nt is fun ong
If Z[sqrt(d)] was the ring of integers of some number field, it would have to be the ring of integers of its fraction field which is Q[sqrt(d)]
But this ring is not the ring of integers
why would it have to be the roi of its ff
C over R
In general you can show that if you have an extension L\ Frac(R) then the fraction field of the integral closure of R in L is L
Frac(R^~) = L
But in this case it’s even easier because of degree stuff
Yeah, I think my observation breaks your proof actually, since I believe you end up proving instead that two splitting fields for the same polynomial are isomorphic
Hmm, I think the general idea is still mostly good, though
What if you instead look at a chain of isomorphisms, ordering them by inclusion on the domain and codomain
you're overthinking
what does the upside down capital pi mean
Hints:
- || Every embedding into an algebraic closure can be extended to any algebraic extension. So given 2 alg closure, being alg, it can be extended to a map K1 → K2. ||
- || nontrivial field morphisms are injective ||
- || Show your map K1 → K2 is surjective by pulling back the polynomial and pushing the root ||
disjoint union in most cases
can also denote coproduct in arbitrary category
uhhh
I think coproduct?
,, \mathcal{O}(U) = \set{s : U \to \coprod_{\mathfrak{p} \in U} A_{\mathfrak{p}} | s(\mathfrak{p}) \in A_{\mathfrak{p}}}
$U \subseteq \operatorname{Spec}{A}$
looks like it
no it's disjoint union
this the espas etale contuction
aka space of sections
well this is more accurate
what I said is a more general construction, what you have is more specific. your O here is the structure sheaf of the ring
wait so is it disjoint union or coproduct 
por que no los dos?
disjoint union
Coproducts are a generalization of a disjoint union
Although the difference sounds like it matters here
me no know cat theory ):
oke thanks
it does
you have coproduct in the category of Rings, namely tensor product
cat theory is super cool in theory, but then hell in actuality
yeah I tried working my way through category theory in context but it was just too painful
meow
It's like "Hey lets look at math things not by the actual composition, but by whether they stand in relation to other things"
I like abstract nonsense but not THAT much abstract nonsense
yoooooooo moamen
category theory without context is just cringe
what's good
I'm usually good at levels of recursion
not necessarily but makes a lot easier
the method I'm doing right now is fun and that's all that matters
gosh darn it
not every commutative diagram is cat theory 
who gives a sheaf
good one
What's a sheaf?
such bullsheaf
a local presheaf
Sheaf doesn't sound nearly enough like fuck for that joke to work

a presheaf is like
you take a topological space
and you assign some data to every open set
e.g. abelian groups
a functor from open(X)^op → Ab
@formal ermine how would you motivate sheafs
like I could make a gazillion structures with compliacted data
why do u care about sheafs
ok xD
I've finished the chapter on sheaves like a couple of days ago lmao
haven't "used" them yet
I mean, I intentionally refuse to learn about sheafs and schemes for now
Open as in open sets, what does op mean, and what is Ab here?
Ab abelian groups?
yeah idk I have nothing better to do
I'm procrastinating my alg nt homework lmao
I like math because it's like the textbooks keep trying to make me give up on understanding things
And just do it all computationally
this sounds interesting btw, like every time I see a functor it's pretty cool
every time I see a functor I cry<
Functors are sick
every time I see a right exact but not left exact functor I break into tears
EVERYMODULEISFLATEVERYMODULEISFLATEVERYMODULEISFLATEVERYMODULEISFLATEVERYMODULEISFLATEVERYMODULEISFLATEVERYMODULEISFLATEVERYMODULEISFLATEVERYMODULEISFLATEVERYMODULEISFLAT
Functors are homomorphisms except between branches of math
but you do a lot of AG stuff
functors are homomorphisms between diagrams
without using scheme language?
your mum is a homomorphism between me and her bed
yooo
today is rest daay so i can do math
epic
Functors being homomorphisms between diagrams is a formal extension of the basic intuition I mentioned
I had a stressful school day today
school?
nice
ur a highschooler?
yeh
idk what you call it in english but I had like an hour where I didn't have class
I was born at a very young age
it's gap
i meant why was it a stressful day



