#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 91 of 1
Less fun though cause I don't feel like I'm helping people
without the pressure of actually having to take them ofc
y?
Hard to get in.
Yeah I got super lucky with mine
no but y do you want a phd?
cause then people will call me dr
spoiler: they probably wont
They will.
But then I get to go on that cliche rant, and that's always fun
Real doctors know ochem, don't believe the hype
I know some IUPAC naming schemes I can fake it til I make it
md more like smd
h
phd is way cooler
Eh getting credentials just to get them is pointless. But the 5 years getting paid to do math and nothing else is pleasant.
getting paid
Oh no no no
I'm sure if you haggle with your PhD program they'll let you work for free.
I’m paying to do mine
I mean the actual reason I want one is a mixture of the prestige of it plus the doors it opens, plus the opportunity to study at a high level without financial pressure to work on other things
Plus a professor told me that I wasn't enough of a "detail oriented perfectionist" to get one, so fuck him
Hey here's a cool little thing. Since the positive rationals are generated by the primes, you can construct an isomorphism between them and the ring of polynomials with integer coefficients
Except in this case, the addition of this ring ends up being multiplication in the rationals, and the multiplication ends up being some wonky shit
But it does get you a pretty unique structure, where you have a ring + a semigroup, such that the addition of the ring distributes over the semigroup operation
Where the semigroup is addition in the rationals
If you can find a way to relate the multiplication in the ring with the semigroup operation, all kinds of number theory shit pop out for free.
Have people studied the extension of the natural numbers where you allow for an infinite number of prime factors?
Do you mean like 2^n1 3^n2 5^n3 ... for an infinite number of primes? If so, that is just the space of sequences of natural numbers! :)
Yes, and yes. The reason I was asking was reated to my previous things
Basically you can show that Q+ is iso to integer polynomials, which is a subring of formal power series, which lets you invert some things
So I guess my question would be better phrased as "have people studied what happens to addition if you extend the natural numbers to allow for an infinite number of prime factors?"
Oh I see
My initial guess is that there would be, unfortunately, infinitely definitions that would be compatible
What is the way that you want to define addition?
I mean it's already defined for finite sequences, so just trying to figure out how many ways to extend
Let's see, there's uncountably many integer sequences, right? I'm not being dumb am I?
I guess you could work with hypernaturals in which case you could define hyperfinite prime factorizations 
Cause you can just 1-1 them with decimal expansions between 0 and 1 edit: this doesn't quite work, but you can just diagonalize
yes N^N is uncountable
Yeah, just wanted to double check without googling it lol
Yeah, there should be infinitely many permutations that fix the naturals then, right?
And that would imply infinitely many definitions of addition that are compatible with normal addition.
Is there a name for a ring where the additive group is a semigroup instead of a group?
like a semiring?
not sure what this is saying
"fixing a 2-by-2 matrix A over k"
then what? How does this give a module structure?
I think they just mean a k[x] module over k^2
like, the scalar multiplication ring action is a ring hom k[x] —> End(k^2). Let this be the homomorphism which maps x to A, and k to k(Id)
a polynomial acts on vectors like: p(x).v = p(A)v
Let $G$ be an Abelian group with order $p_1p_2 \dots p_k$, where $p_i$ are distinct primes. Prove that $G$ is cyclic.
blanket
ah ok
that's clearer
also is showing Hom_R(M, N) satisfies ACC and DCC the right way to go about this? Having troubling doing either of those but I can't think of a different direction.
ah maybe I should use finite generation?
Yeah you want to show Hom(M,N) is noetherian and artinian, and for that you’ll want to use finite generation to try and extend the result from free modules to your situation if I remember correctly
Here's an interesting question I had, what are (nontrivial) examples of modules M over a Dedekind ring R such that End_R(M) = R? I know such things exist if R = Z, but I'm curious if there can be nontrivial examples if R is say some algebra over an uncountable field which is Dedekind.
Do you have fundamental theorem of finitely generated abelians yet?
What's a Dedekind ring?
Nevermind found it, that's not bad at all
do you really need such a strong result?
By Cauchy's theorem there are two elements a, b the first of which is order p_1 the second is order p_2, then a + b has order p_1*p_2 since p_1, p_2 are coprime, so it generates the entire group.
No, but it gives it in a sentence
It is probably used implicitly in the classification of torsion abelian groups.
Bro everything follows from the definitions 
just don't use , and . and you'll be able to do it in a sentence
So maybe a bit disingenuous to prove this using such a strong result.
Just don't use coma and.? I don't understand that sentence
i've forgotten all the easy results and just remember the strong result that implies all of them
It's a one-dimensional Noetherian domain such that all prime ideals are maximal. I think that should be enough
Oh I saw that it a Dedekind domain is an integral domain such that ideals factor to prime ideals
That the same?
This only works for two primes. You can't induct directly on it since Cauchy's theorem is only for primes
Actually my definition is terrible, one-dimensional is the same as all prime ideals being maximal.
Honestly I don't know how the dimensions of rings are defined
Something something krull?
Yes but similar ideas work to prove the chinese remainder theorem, which is usually an input in classifying fgabs.
maximal prime ideal height iirc
the proof of classification of finite abelian groups looks like it goes through chinese remainder anyway
My definition should be equivalent to yours.
which coincides with the krull dimension of the noetherian topological space of the closed set you're looking at or something
That is what I was saying.
that's the first idea i had, and that's what wikipedia seems to suggest too
yeah so basically it's easier to prove the classification theorem and then show that the problem follows
No
The classification theorem is hard work, chinese remainder easily implies this problem and is an input for the classification (but not the only input), thus the classification is unnecessarily harder.
yeah i see
If you like this question is like step one of classifying torsion abelian groups, which is part of the classification.
Sylows theorem gives subgroup of order p_i for each i. Since they're prime order they're all cyclic. Define x_i to be the generator of subgroup p_i, then induct on number of x_i, applying that the fact that the orders of \sum_{i=1}^k x_i and x_{k + 1} are comprime
Oh fuck off discord one sec, gotta make that readable
yeah the only other part is structure of abelian groups of order p^n
basically
Yeah, essentially step 1 is CRT, step 2 is classifying abelian groups of p-power order. Then you're done.
You don't need Sylow's theorem, Cauchy's theorem is fine for this specific problem.
But it's all the same.
I mean you just need the existence of a subgroup of order p
Oh that is Cauchy's theorem, my b
Yeah the case of two primes is just as hard as n primes.
Oh yeah for sure, I just wanted to give a complete answer
I wouldn't be on a math discord if I didn't have a little voice in my head telling me to nitpick every little point
Is it true that for $L/K$ purely inseparable the norm of $x$ is $(-1)^{|L:K|}(-1)^{|L:K(x)|}$? My thinking was $N_{L/K}(x)=N_{K(x)/K}(x)^{|L:K(x)|}$ and $N_{K(x)/K}(x)$ is $(-1)^{|K(x):K|}$ times the constant coefficient of the minimal polynomial of $x$, which is $-1$.
Ocean Man
This cannot be correct because what you've written can only be +/- 1, what is your definition of the norm for a general extension? Usually for a purely inseparable extension it should just be some pth power and for a separable extension it is defined as usual.
Strictly speaking this is a p-th power, because since L/K is purely inseparable both exponents will be divisible by p, but that's beside the point.
If this is wrong, where is the mistake? Because I don't see it.
Why did you define that Nm(x) = (-1)^{[L:K]} (-1)^{[L:K(x)]} for any x? this makes no sense
I did not define anything.
For instance you just said Nm(0) = +/- 1
Firstly, N_L/K is equal to a power of N_K(x)/K
You are assuming perhaps that x is of a specific form?
That works in every extension.
No, I'm not
Then the constant term of the minimal polynomial of x need not be -1 so your reasoning is incorrect
Then, since L/K is purely inseparable, the minimal polynomial of x is of the form x^{p^m}-1 for some m
That is false.
Oh shit, I just saw it
it's x^{p^m}-a for some a in K
not -1
nvm, same thing basically, just replace -1 with a
Yes but that is a crucial difference.
Lol, potato, definition of the norm which is not multiplicative....
I was just doing some cyclotomic stuff before, hence why x^{p^m}-a turned into x^{p^m}-1 for me
That makes sense.
Important to point out that x^{p^m} - 1 never generates a purely inseparable extension since F_p is perfect.
True
So maybe the best way to say it is that the norm along a purely inseparable extension is just taking the p^m th power, rather than what you said which is pretty inexplicit.
Wdym, N_L/K(x)=x^p^m, where p^m is the degree of x?
Yes.
Is it really that simple?
That's the same as your definition, using the fact that x satisfies its own minimal polynomial
It's just cleaner.
If x^p^m-a is the minimal polynomial, then N_K(x)/K(x) is (-1)^p^m(-a)
Yes if you notice either p is odd then your signs cancel or p is even and -1 = 1.
So you're just saying N(x) = a
Oh, right
But x^{p^m} = a by definition
So N_L/K(x)=x^|L:K|
When the extension is purely inseparable, yep.
Right, thanks
No worries 🙂
I'm thinking how to prove transitivity of norm for a general extension
Separable and purely inseparable is easy
Mixed I'm kind of wondering
Breaking the tower up in stages is a little messy
Yes that makes sense that it is confusing. So in general: every L is of the form L/K/F where K/F is separable and L/K is purely inseparable right?
Yeah, that's what I'm trying to do
Okay so take an x \in L, what does its characteristic polynomial look like in terms of the characteristic polynomial of x^{[L:K]}?
L/K being purely inseparable? Char. poly. of x^|L:K| should be (y-x^|L:K|)^|L:K|, since x^|L:K|\in K and the charpoly is a power of minpoly.
I mean the characteristic polynomial of that element over F not over K.
I need to step out, so I'll think about this later. Appreciate the help.
No worries!
Does there exist a finitely-generated group which has elements of all finite orders, that is, for each natural n, there exists an element of order n?
I've been trying to search for examples online but one or the other condition is compromised (neither Prüfer groups nor a solution to Burnside's problem directly suffice here)
For one it can’t be abelian right?
Yes, that sounds right
Hello. Can anyone here explain in a simple and intuitive way and in detail why in the hyperbolic plane it is generally impossible, starting with an arbitrary circle of area less than 2\pi, to construct (with straightedge and compass) a quadrilateral with all sides and angles congruent having the same area, and vice versa, that is, starting with an arbitrary quadrilateral with all sides and angles congruent, it is impossible in general to construct a circle having the same area?
I get the feeling that such a group can't exist, but I'm not able to prove it at this moment.
Yeah, this feels too good to be true in a way
Aight so
You have a surjective map to the direct product of Z/pZ for all p
Composing that with a surjective map from a finite gen free abelian group would give you that this direct product is finite gen
So you just have to show this isn’t the case
Which should be doable
yes, you can take \oplus_{i = 1}^\infty \oplus_j^{\infty} Z/p_i^j
Oh yeah it isn’t by fund theorem of finitely generated abelian groups
Not finite gen
Finitely-generated is key here
Then it's provably impossible
I think my proof works?
You can only have torsion of bounded order.
Yes you have Z^r \oplus Z/p_i^j and all torsion elements are killed by \prod_i p_i^j .
Ah sorry I misread the question twice
You were asking about an arbitrary group?
Yes
Arbitrary finite gen but you can map into an abelian group
Ah that is more difficult.
Not necessarily
Why not?
Send everything to identity and an element of order p to 1 gives a map to Z/pZ
Then take a direct product
That’s abelian
Well for instance there exist nonabelian groups in which no two elements commute unless one is a power of the other, and there exist nonabelian groups in which the abelianization is trivial
But not finite gen
So in general you cannot expect there to be lots of maps either to or from abelian groups.
Sure yeah
The only maps you can expect are the trivial Z \to G by n \to g^n for some g \in G.
You'll have to explain what you're trying to do?
Okay, that's what I thought. But of course you're not an idiot.
Aight let’s think some more
Yes so I think the best way to do this is quite complicated
I would use some topology if that's alright.
Oh neat
Hmm actually now I'm starting to think its possible
It will take longer to construct an example.
Can’t you like glue disks to a Hawaiian earring by taking increasing degree maps, and look at the fundamental group of that or smth?
If you glue nicely enough (say in R^3 by making them smaller) you should get something compact and locally simply connected no?
I am not sure, it will probably not be locally simply connected unless you get rid of an infinite amount of the fundamental group and then you might as well just have a finite number of circles.
Ah damn I wasn’t sure if that was an issue or not
I have moved away from the topology idea, I originally thought we could say something about the fundamental groups of a bouquet of circles but then I realized that the statement sounds like it's true.
I.e. there probably does exist such a group.
But yeah you’re right gluing the disks isn’t meant to make the small ones simply connected 🤦♂️
Does quotienting by commutator subgroup preserve order?
No
For instance for simple groups the commutator subgroup is everything.
Or nothing.
But if they're nonabelian its everything.
Okay so here is close to an answer.
So there is a map from Sl_2(Z) \to \Prod_{p prime} Sl_2(Z/p) which surjects onto Sl_2(Z/n) for any n a squarefree integer.
(viewed inside of the product by the chinese remainder theorem)
By just reducing coeffs mod p and taking the product?
Yes, it is a little tricky to show the claim about the surjection thing but that's the map.
Aight sure
So Sl_2(Z) is well known to be generated by 3 elements (probably 2, but I am not feeling smart enough to work out what the minimal generators are vs the minimal generators of PSl_2)
Can't you do a similar thing for non square free n too
-1, (0 -1 | 1 0) and ( 1 1 | 0 1)
Yes you can but the exponents always have to be bounded which is frustrating
Anyway this quotient of Sl_2(Z) gives you a finitely generated of group with elements of p-power order for all p, and the exponents can be as large as you like.
Still cannot do all n though....
That’s real close though
But I am thinking it's possible.
Why can't you do all n
Because the quotients that you get if you reduce mod larger powers of p are different groups.
So for each sequence n_i I construct a group G_{{n_i}} which has an element of p_i^{n_i} power order for each prime p_i.
But they don't all occur in the same group.
AHA
I think I see it...
$\ker A \oplus \text{im } A^T = V$, where $A: V \to W$ and $\oplus$ is direct sum and $V, W$ are vector spaces
is this correct a identity?
Helium
Ah okay I think I can, I was being silly.
Look at the map from Sl_2(Z) \to \prod_{i, j \in \mathbb{N}} Sl_2(Z/p_i^j) for all i,j, and p_i some enumeration of the primes. The map is given by reducing an element mod p^j for every j in each factor. The image of this map is some subgroup G. One can show that the map Sl_2(Z) \to Sl_2(Z/n) is surjective for all n \in Z, thus G contains an element of order p^j for any p and any j (just look at a unipotent matrix in Sl_2(Z/p^j)). Thus G has elements of arbitrary order.
Because Sl_2(Z) is finitely generated (in fact two-generated, it;s just Z/4*Z/6) so is G.
Sick! 
Yes if they are finite dimensional vector spaces. Otherwise you have to be a bit more precise about what you mean by A^T.
In general you can say more: from the definition Im(A^T) is the orthogonal complement of ker(A)
I'm assuming that you want to prove this for vector spaces over R or C right?
yes R^n, i used it in a proof... just double checking if it's true
I am given a group G which is a semidirect product of the integers and some group H. Let H^{ab} and let denote the abelianized factor group of H, with [h] standing for h[H,H]. Let Z(x+-1) be the ring of Laurent polynomials, I am supposed to show that this (see picture):
Defines scalar multiplication and turns H_{ab} into a module over the laurent polynomials.
It seems like a simple calc and check exercise but I have no idea how this would work out. "Adding" two elements [h] and [k] gives me h[H,H] k[H,H] = hk[H,H] and the subsequent "sum" would look like \sum z_i [g^{i} hk g^{-i}] (since multiplicative notation is already used and H has only one operation since it is a group the sum should be interpreted like a product IMO). I have no idea how this result would "distribute" to \sum z_i [g^{i} h g^{-i} ] (operation symbol of H of choice) \sum z_i [g^{i} k g^{-i} ]
So... is there some wizardry that makes it work or is the question just very ill-posed?
An element from the pre-image of 1 of the canonical map from G to Z.
Ooooh, yeah that makes sense then.
So you need to show that f.g.[h] = fg.[h] ?
I wanted to start with f.([h] x [k])=f.[h] x f.[k]
Although I probably got it from there since I can finally parse it. Thanks
that's sick
i hate that this exists, and what more is given by only two generators
I think worse you can embed any countable group into a 2-generated group.
It's some famous result from the 70's
Here's a very simple 1-paragraph proof: https://www.jstor.org/stable/pdf/2324618.pdf?refreqid=excelsior%3A04897f26a477855d6e4bd1bbb4bf7d40&ab_segments=&origin=&initiator=&acceptTC=1
every countably generated free group appears as a subgroup of the free group on two generators, and obviously you can embed any countable group into a countable free group - for those who were wondering why this is true
You cannot embed any countable group into a countable free group.
Because a subgroup of a free group is free (good exercise)
So the only countable groups you get are Z and the trivial group inside of any free group.
are we using different definitions of countable here
I took countable to mean "has a countable generating set"
Even then it doesn't work, because you cant have any torsion inside of a free group.
embed was probably the wrong word
But you can get any "countable" free group (since there is just one) inside of a 2-generated free group.
you take a countably generated group and then throw away the relators you get a countable free group which is in F_2, then add the relators back in
that's what I meant
u get a little square of morphisms how wholesome
Yeah but that doesn't show the result, since those relations may or may not extend to a normal subgroup of F_2
How evil/annoying is it to check if a polynomial is irreducible over GF(2^192)?
What is GF? is that the finite field of that size?
Yes
American country voice: sure do be sounding quite evil/annoying
I mean are you looking at a specific polynomial? What is its degree?
Well so I am looking for degree 192 polynomial with minimal number of non zero terms which is irreducible over GF(2^192)
Hmm, well you'll be relieved to know that the minimal number of nonzero terms is 2
Is that like unrealistically hard
But I suppose that would be reducible?
Nope!
Because this is supposed to be part of a cryptography standard
If I'm not messing something up (I am pretty tired): 192 has only 2, 3 as prime factors
So we know that 3 does not divide 2^{192} because we're smart
can somebody give me a hint to show that a + bsqrt(2) has a multiplicative inverse if a, b nonzero? i wrote 1/a + bsqrt(2), multiplied by the conjugate and I got a - bsqrt(2)/a^2 - b^2(2). but then 1/a is not an integer
We also know that 3 does divide 2^{192} + 1 because 3 divides 2^n + 1 for all n (all n ODD!)
So 3 is coprime to 2^{192} - 1 which is the order of the multiplicative group of F_{2^{192}}
Obviously 2 is also coprime to this number
why do you need multiplicative inverses?
That is (-1)^192+1=2 mod 3 tho
i thought it's because the real numbers are a field, so every nonzero element has a multiplicative inverse
subring
ah yeah i suppose that's true
Ah I was being tired, it's only true if n is odd as you say
ring
Z is a subring of R which is a field but plz tell me a multiplicative inverse of 2 in Z
1x0=0 because 1 is the identity or 0 is the zero element

yes
Yeah I dunno then, doing it by hand is clearly impossible.
Ah wait no, this is still fine.
I think there is another approach you can take to making a solution
Unsure how in the world you'd ever prove something is minimal though...
Well I am looking at a crypto implementation and they are like "implement it yourself"
can somebody give me a hint for this question? my strategy was to break it up into two cases: R has unity, or it doesn't. if R doesn't have unity then I showed that phi must be the trivial homomorphism (phi(a) = phi(a x 1) = phi(a)phi(1) = phi(a)0' = 0' for any a in F). i'm struggling a bit with the injective case tho, and would appreciate a hint
What would the kernel look like?
The kernel has to be an ideal of F right? How many ideals are there.
(including the trivial ones)
i have no clue how many ideals in F there are tbh
Try proving it: either the ideal contains something nonzero, or it doesn't
Why are you interested in it having a minimal number of nonzero terms?
It seems like you just want any irreducible polynomial no?
For a general ring R, which ideals contain units?
It's a crypto standard thing
Well ig I am gonna BS this assignment since it's like quite literally impossible to compute such a polynomial
ok i think i got it?
If $R$ is a ring w/o unity, then for any $a \in F$, $\phi(a) = \phi(a) \cdot \phi(1) = 0'$ since $\phi(1) = 0'$ since $R$ does not have unity. Otherwise, suppose $R$ does have unity $1'$ and $\phi$ is not the trivial homomorphism. Then, for any $a \neq 0 \in F$, $\phi(a) = \phi(a) \cdot \phi(1) = \phi(a) \cdot 1' \in R \implies $\phi(a) = 0'$. But then $\phi$ would be the trivial homomorphism, contrary to assumption. Hence $a = 0$, and so $\phi$ is injective.
idk if that works, it should??
okeyokay
Compile Error! Click the
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There could be some clever trick, or some well known pre-compiled database of such things. All I'm saying is that it's completely absurd to brute force.
Yeah I think that's like the point
Like it's supposed to be pre compiled
But no one does it
what are you trying to do ?
But it can't be that everyone is using the same polynomials? Which protocol is this?
Yeah it's standardized
Then surely the point isn't that "you can't guess the polynomial which is hard-coded into everyone's implementation" that wouldn't be secure.
Well my prof isn't very bright
She probably thinks you can
Like once she expected us to run 2^47 iterations on a computer
And print everything on paper
Maybe she hates trees.
Probably
Anyway my point is that I don't think the cryptographic security of AES is predicated upon the fact that your specific irreducible polynomial is hard to generate or hard to guess, that doesn't make much sense (so I think the algorithm works quite differently from what you think, you might want to read more about it). My impression is that everyone uses the same fixed irreducible polynomial of degree 8 (x^8 + x^4 + x^3 + x + 1) over F_2 for key-scheduling, and the only difference between the various instantiations is how many round keys are produced from the initial key.
Ok this is not aes per se
This is CMAC
idk why it is called cmac aes everywhere
But yea the polynomial is fixed here too
Yes and I really doubt it's of degree 192 over F_{2^192}...
So I read the documentation for AES-CMAC, the way messages are encoded is just done with the usual AES algorithm. I don't see any reason why you would need such a huge polynomial for doing any of this (or indeed any polynomial at all except for the standard one used in the MDS matrix part of AES), I would revisit your textbook and see if you have understood the algorithm.
Are the elements of $\mathbb{Z}_3[x]/(x^2)$ ${[0],[1],[2],[x],[x+1],[x+2],[2x],[2x+1],[2x+2]}$ ? Just double checking I am thinking of ring quotients properly
JacobHofer
Why F_3? That was just the format I was given
Z_3 is often used to mean the 3-adic integers
a more standard ring-theoretic ways of denoting that quotient of Z is just Z/3Z, or Z/(3), or my personal preferred shorthand, Z/3.
If your course requires you to write Z_n though, this is what you should write for that course.
heyo
Let $f(x) \in \bZ[x]$ be a primitive polynomial. How do you show that $f(x)$ is irreducible over $\bZ$ iff it is irreducible over $\bQ$
CoolShot
Gauss' lemma
beat me to it
damn i also have to prove gauss's lemma
Gauss' lemma is precisely the statement you're looking for
i mean the other statemnt
Yeah but just saying Gauss's lemma doesn't help you prove gauss's lemma
Gauss allegedly tried shouting "Gauss's lemma" at the problem for years before he figured out the proof
Which is why I linked the proof :)
but that story might be apocryphal
Also, that ring from before is not a field correct? Since [x] has no multiplicative inverse?
Have you proven that x has no multiplicative inverse?
Because if so, yes that would mean it's not a field, by definition
I mean, the question is asking us to construct tables, so I've essentially exhaustively shown that there is no element a such that [x]a = [1]
If you've done so then I think the answer is clear
There is an easier way to prove that x has no multiplicative inverse, which doesn't require drawing a table. Hint: consider x^2.
Would it be that x is a zero divisor since xx=x^2=0, and so it cannot be a unit?
Yes
Can I get some help on this one?
I know I want to somehow show that Hom(M, N) has ACC and DCC
so I can get ACC probably via finite generation somehow
not sure how to get DCC
nvm got ACC, not sure how to do DCC
Can we maybe distinguish submodules of Hom_R(M, N) by looking at the span of the images of the submodules of M?
Just guessing here, I don't recall the proof :)
I wanted to try something like that but wasn't sure how to go about that
So can you describe what modules you think should occur in the composition series for Hom(M, N)?
well they should be simple meaning they have no proper submodules but I'm not sure what this really means in terms of module homomorphisms
I know that since M is finitely generated, morphisms from M are defined by where they map the generators but I don't think that's super helpful
kinda spitballing here
Topos mentioned the composition series, not the composition factors ;)
Usually with these things about finite length modules it's a good idea to induct on the length, have you tried that?
oh hm
Like I would say 99% of things you ask about artinian modules reduce to checking them for simple modules by inducting on the length.
I think I can see some nice submodules of Hom_R(M,N)
henlo 
what would I even try to show by induction?
I guess you could try to do double induction on the length of M, N to show that Hom(M, N) is finite length
Using these submodules of Hom(M, N) that we are hinting at.
did someone say Artinian 
This thread has escalated from "all rings are Noetherian" to "all rings are zero dimensional"
wym all rings are already 0 dimensional
is this some non commutative joke I'm too commutative algebraist to understand
I don't really know what I should expect the actual series to look like
I mean you don't really need to for the problem, but it might've pointed you in the right direction.
Like if it were me I would think about what happens with finite dimensional vector spaces or maybe reduceable but not decomposable representations of a group or smth
But maybe just see if you can use the composition series for N and M to relate Hom(M, N) to some smaller modules?
And thus do some kind of induction
I'm now confused about the bit lol. The krull dimension of artinian rings is zero but there are rings like Z which are one-dimensional... or are you making another layer of joke that I don't follow?
lol it's the latter
Couldn't find a member matching mumbai!

is 18b possible?
trivial
if the constant was odd i could apply mod 2 test
Eisenstein
what's the only p that satisfies all the axuoms,
but 13 doesn’t divide the constant
doesn't?
nope
i tried that
that was my first thought as well lol
1, 2, 4, 5059, 10118, and 20236.
these are the factors
it looked easy until i realized 13 didn’t divide it

Lol
ok let me think now
those are some real terrible numbers for an exam problem 
since 2 and 3 didn’t work
and i couldn’t use 5
maybe it should’ve been an odd constant?
which was the point of making it huge
should have been a constant divisble by 13
that too
lol
but not by 13^2
and then for c, is there a way to do it without knowing that -4 is a zero
or is that the intended way
to just factor it since it’s degree 3 or less
well yeah, intended to be odd
which one?
oh b
I mean what's the supposed correct problem statement then
wouldn’t it just have to be the same thing with any odd constant
then mod 2 test works
prolly, ask the instructor
Could be that you were meant to reduce mod 3
it didn’t help me. i tried it
unless i made a mistake
i’ll ask him
thanks for looking at it though
ye doesn't sound right
Can any padic group be viewed as its analogue lie group manifold or is there some nicer way to find the topological structure?
you can regard p-adic groups as p-adic manifolds, it's just that there are some ways in which p-adic manifolds are maybe not so nicely behaved
Im new in abstract algebra and I have a question. If we have a monoid (S,•) and a in S and a^2=a then a=e?
No; try to come up with an example where this is not true.
You will be very familiar with one
Yes (N,+), e=0 and 1^2=1
No, in (N, +) 1^2 = 2.
^^
(close though)
That's right
Im dumb )) thanks
Dumb? You got a correct answer, I don't see how that's dumb
This is my first day on abstract algebra it looks so different and I know it is alot of theory. I hope I can understand it.
good start for a first day lol
The question is related to a problem that a finite monoid where a^2≠a for every a≠e is a group
And from matrices problems I said that a^i=a^(i+k) for some i,k>=1
And I got a^i=a^(i+tk) for every t>=1
very good start
Hint: this can be rephrased as a^2 = a implies a = e
You've skipped some steps here
in general this isn't true either
Yes I took tk>i and a^tk=a^i • a^(tk-i)=a^(i+tk)•a^(tk-i)=a^(2tk)
Good good
@lethal dune yo
i have a bad request
Z is noetherian but not artinian
some students like me have bad memory
and can remember falsly ur nickname
and lose marks 😠
change ur name to something true plz 😦
Yes and from the hint a^2=a implies a=e we get a^tk=e and then a is invertible so S is a group
Why is a invertible exactly? What's its inverse?
Because a•a^(tk-1)=a^(tk-1)•a=e and this is the definition
Yeah, crucially tk >= 1
Is abstract algebra harder than linear algebra? I finished my 11 grade olympiad two days ago and I got silver medal because I messed something with jordan blocks and now I want gold medal. I have a year to prepare but I heard it is hard and it is alot of theory and this scares me. Some tips?
Linear algebra is, mostly, a part of abstract algebra. I wouldn't say one is harder than the other, you can really get as difficult as you like with either.
My only tip is: study.
linear algebra is probably easier but having a good lin alg background will help with abstract algebra
I wouldn't say that just because you messed something up with like Jordan blocks you have anything to worry about
that's such a small thing
and alot of things in abstract algebra will remind you of things in lin alg
Yeah. I understand. Thanks. Probably in the next months I will be very active here 🙂
like if you remember linear transformations, that idea will come up again but for different structures like monoids or groups or whatever
lol I basically live in here
hw is hard
=))
I have my own question now
Ok so
I couldn't prove this true
so I think it's false 
my idea is this
find a module M which is not a semisimple module
but it has a semisimple module N, and also M/N is semisimple
Hint: you can find a counterexample in R = Z.
Yes, but this isn't saying much: that's just translating what the SES states
yea but making it more explicit ig
that is literally what an SES is you're right whoops
Interesting
0 -> Z/pZ -> (Z/pZ x Z/pZ) -> Z/pZ -> 0 I think works?
Trying to think of a non-semisimple module lol
Z/pZ x Z/pZ
This is a semisimple module
it is the direct sum of Z/pZ and Z/pZ
oh wait yea
both of which are simple
yes
Your idea is good, try again
this is where I'm stuck also lmao
I know the semisimple Z modules are direct sums of Z/pZ, p prime
Your example works if you change the ring I think lol
Bigger hint: ||think about the classification of f.g. abelian groups||
To what ring? I don't see which one you're thinking of
classification of what?
Okay I may be wrong let me think
sorry, typo
So like
oh
With what action?
Okay I am used to thinking of this in terms of representations so it is hurting my head slightly aha
Now if you'd said F_p[S_2] I would've agreed
though I haven't checked that
In fact no, that can't be the case
I basically mean you let Z/pZ act on Z/pZ x Z/pZ by like $1\cdot \begin{pmatrix} a \ b \end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 1 \ & 1 \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} a \ b \end{pmatrix}$
Right, I think that might be right
potato
Okay so basically like
Well, there is still a much simpler example in Z-modules if you want to find it
A 2-dimensional rep which has a 1 dim subrep which doesn't admit a direct complement
That's right
I should start writing more non-examples of things in my notes...
Also not to criticise your example, but I think it's funny that instead of just one example you've produced an infinite family of examples :)
But just to mention
I forgot direct sum of semi-simple is semi-simple for second there
if it were true that N and M/N being semisimple implies M being semisimple, then every finite-length module would be semisimple.
In that way, just finding a single finite-length non-semisimple module would suffice to disprove this
interesting
I'll try to prove this later
It's not tricky, just pick a maximal chain and induce
and try to work on that question I asked about earlier cause I got nowhere lol
oh hm I think I can see that
Yeah that one is tricky, I've also been trying to do it
ACC isn't bad it's just DCC is hard.
Trying to do stuff with induction on composition series with like Hom(M_m-1, N_n-1) and such and trying to extend it but no luck
I don't even know what a composition series should look like for Hom(M, N)
Like what even is maximal submodule
I think it will have a lot to do with the kernels and images of the maps in the submodule. I have more details but I haven't finished the proof, so I won't waste your time
You can look at N_{n-1} \to N \to N^n, where N^n is the nth composition series of N
What happens when you apply hom to this?
You get an exact sequence 0 \to Hom(M, N_{n-1}) \to Hom(M, N) \to Hom(M, N^n)
So if we knew that Hom(M, N^n) and Hom(M, N_{n-1}) were Artinian, we'd be done.
Thus we reduce to showing (by induction on length) that Hom(M, N) is artinian when N is simple.
is there any other insight that can be taken about the topoligical structure or no? (im guessing the answer is no)
I mean features of the p-adic topology certainly play a role in the theory, but I'm not sure this necessarily gives any geometric insight
like in practice when you study (often infinite dimensional) representations of p-adic groups you are studying these through some sort of Hecke algebra, so like a convolution algebra of smooth compactly supported functions on your p-adic groups which are bi-invariant under some subgroup K
the p-adic topology forces such smooth compactly supported functions to be locally constant, so this is quite different from the usual convolution algebras that one studies over the reals for example
so there are things like this where the p-adic topology intervenes
ah i see. the compact support helps us integrate over something compact and nice instead of G right?
sure, usually you're thinking of these as test functions you're integrating against, usually you want your test functions to be smooth with compact support
So you're in C_c^infty(G)?
And cause it's a haar measure it becomes workable
Oh
I see
why exactly are these two field of quotients isomorphic? my first thought was that any two field of quotients contained with a field are isomorphic, but they're not contained in the same field right?
ah ok got it thx!
Cant you just define a ring homomorphism f: Q[x] \to \mathbb{R} by f(p) = p(pi)
the image is Q[pi]
So just consider kernels
If $\varepsilon^k$ is an $n$-th root of unity, how can I conclude that $\langle \varepsilon^k \rangle = \langle \varepsilon \rangle$ iff $k$ and $n$ are coprime?
anamono for anamono
consider the order of e^k
if coprime you can use bezout's theorem to prove theirr orrders are both n
every divisible abelian group is injective as a Z-module proof:
it is enough to show that any module homomorphism from an ideal (submodule) to the module can be extended to a map from the whole ring (Z) to the module
notice that any ideal in Z is of the form (n) where n is an integer
now the map f:(n) --> D is a homomorpihsm
how do i extend it
what gives us that second iso
to define an extension g: Z -> D, it suffices to specify where 1 maps to
No, you want the extension to agree with the original map, so g(n) = f(n)
Try using the fact that D is divisible
I've gotten that E = k(a,b) where k(a) = $E_0 \subset E$, the largest separable extension of k, $\subset E$, but I do not know how to proceed from here
Parrot Tea
Oh yeah I also have that $b^{p^r} \in E_0$
Parrot Tea
okay so it would be
1 --> x where the x is "divisor" of the images of f
yea it is
f: (n) --> D , there exists x such that nx=f(n) for any n
so define 1 --> x
got it
tysm
yo super bad question
Hom_Z(R,J)
what ring is this a module over
R is a ring with identity
Z
It's just an abelian group
nf = f + f + f + ... + f n times
no
okay this is isnt right exactness right?
oh thank god ur here
they arent the same category ig
cuz that would be saying right exact but u told me its not
and i believe u
haha
I don't understand your question
prop 4.3
now this isnt saying that Hom is a right exact
functor
right?
cuz it isnt
also how is this a functor again?
which category does it take and which does it send
modules to abelian?
Yeah, but if R is commutative then Hom_R(A, B) is still an R-module
Correct, Hom(-, D) is not right-exact
It is left-exact, but this is giving a sort of converse to the left-exactness of Hom
would this be right exaxctness if this sequence were to be 0-->A-->B-->C?
the direction of exactness has to do with whether the sequence after applying the functor is left or right exact
that's how I remember at least, but I find myself having to google because contravariance is weird
ok
This is a construction known as coinduction (or coextension of scalars) to get an R-module from an abelian group J. The action is given by (r.f)(s) = f(sr)
wait so is it an R-module or is it a Z-module
But more importantly, it has the structure of an R-module
yea
One reason that coextension of scalars is important is because it is right adjoint to restriction of scalars
i was proving that Hom_Z(R,J) is an injective R-module given that J is divisible
Yes, that's very important
Well I mean, the corollaries of that are important
What do you mean
like
call defitionally equivalent =
injective = all short sequences ( from the right? lmfao ) are exact = Hom(-,J) is exact given J is divsible cuz divsible = injective Z-module?
nvm, but damn this solution was cool
I'm not sure about your second equivalence, but yeah the other three are fine for injective abelian groups
an R-module is injective given that for all R-modules A,B the seq 0--> P-->A-->B--?0is split exact
or did i switch up the arrows
That's right, you're just missing a zero on the left
yea
damn okay
i still didnt prove this
i proved it for the dual
like projectivity
and its much easier
It shouldn't be any different really
the text im using is doing this one at the end
Maybe a little different depending on what defn you use lol
its the dual def of the projecivity one i use
the diagram one
like its the same diagram but the arrows reversed
I understand
To an extent
yo there is something fundamental
that i am missing
okay so whats the difference between the direct sum and product?
like capital sigma and capital pi
like an element in the direct sum would be x1+x2+x3...
while the product would be a tuple?
So they are the same thing if you have a finite index set
how thoo
thats not like linear algebra
at all
or any set theory XD
But in the infinite case, an element of the direct sum has only finitely many nonzero summands while an element of the direct product can have infinitely many nonzero summands
I think you are interpreting the summation too literally
Do you not see how you can identify between tuples in the product and summations in the direct sum
i can
but
its not mentioned
that one does this
or maybe it is
but they are just magically dual to each other for me
Maybe because you skipped parts of the book where they define these notions
But yes, products and coproducts are dual in a sense
Coproduct = direct sum
XD okay
the section i covered was that
the product was defined for me using a universal property
equipped witth the projections
and co product was just the arrows reversed
wait ohh lmfao the arrows reversed would mean i have inclusion
Indeed
so like x1 --> x1+x2 <-- x2
and the universal property goes along but equipped with inclusion
so its rreversed lmfao
I'm glad you've come to this revelation
Happy to help
yea im going to be asking alot these days
especially once i get to tensor products which are the bane of my existence
one last thing , its an exercise but i think it follows trivially:
in a ring R: every R-module is projective <---> every R-module is injective
proof: consider the SES 0-->A-->B-->P where A ,B,P are R-modules
now if P is projective that this would mean that this is split exact
which would mean i can find a function g such that g o f ( f is B-->P) = 1 from P to B ( splitting lemma )
and i can do the same for A-->B ( cuz they are projective by hypothesis )?
so i can just literally reverse it?
so i get that this sequence is "right" exact split?
If it splits, it splits
I recall referring you to the splitting lemma sometime in the past
Oh sorry I didn't actually read your proof lol
But yeah, right split iff left split
Not as you've written it
wdyum
I don't understand what you mean when you say "i can do the same for A -> B"
A and B are R-modules so they are projective so the sequence 0->A->B would be split exact so i can do the same
uh oh somehting wrong
Indeed
1 momento
wait i have 0-->A-->B-->P all of those projective and by the splitting lemma i get P-->B-->A -->0
eaxct
exact
so im done?
P is injective
thats it?
cuz it splits both left and right
I genuinely have no idea what your argument is
I think you're muddying the proof a bit
Wait wdym N_{n - 1} and N^n? I feel you mean n is the length of the composition series but you say it's the "n-th composition series" which doesn't make sense to me since composition series unique up to ordering?
The point is that a module P is projective iff every short exact sequence 0 -> A -> B -> P -> 0 splits and a module Q is injective iff every short exact sequence 0 -> Q -> A -> B -> 0 splits
lmfao nvm nvm
yea but the latter seq already splits
By the first seq
Cuz B is projective
Right
I mean it's kind of inherent in saying that right splitting is equivalent to left splitting
yea thats what i was trying to prove i think
Sure, that's the content of the splitting lemma
Happy to help
bump
I'm just thinking that we have linear maps R[x]/(x^2 + 1) -> C[x]/(x^2 +1) and C -> C[x]/(x^2 + 1), so you get a unique map through the tensor product which you should be able to write down explicitly. If you do so, you can probably define an inverse in a straightforward way
I can write it out in more detail if it isn't that clear
i understand that it's kinda like extending bilinear maps to homomorphisms
and that a map M x N -> L kinda factors through the tensor product M \otimes N
but i cant put these ideas to use with concrete examples
Sure, have you computed, say, Z/mZ \otimes Z/nZ
i dont recall but we can do it
i think part of my problem is that im approaching this through the universal map defn
which seems to be more like a property than a definition
I mean, I use the universal property as a definition and then derive the other properties from that
Like the results that make some computations easier are things like R/I \otimes_R N is isomorphic to N/IN and stuff like that
But I guess that has more to do with right-exactness of tensoring
Sorry I can't be more enlightening at the moment, it's a long week for me
i have this as a hw question lol
it's okay walter ik we all have lives to live too 
do yk any good resource by any chance then?
These are a bit long but I'm sure you can find what's relevant to you
yeah i was abt to say
they arent usually 59 pages 
how relevant is the construction of the tensor product to it's actual usage
Not very relevant at all
Conrad my beloved
I think it's a good exercise in understanding quotients, but you'll never actually work with the explicit construction
phew
That's why I always just remember the universal property
wym it's true
(*for 0 dim cases)
I misspoke if I said that, I meant for N_{i-1} \to N_i \to N^i to be exact so that the N^i are the composition factors of N.
wat
Can you explain your reasoning?
Also I assume that Z is the integers and Z_4 is Z/4 is that right?
yep
uh
admittedly i was too lazy to check the multiplication
but we were given this table
at the top, it says F is any of Q, R, C, or Z_p
and it says its a group
and then the ad - bc not 0...
is that enough reasoning?
So 4 is not prime
oh
I think when they say Z_p they mean for p a prime.
that says Z-p
p is prime woops
i see okay
i wrote that too and i missed my own thing..
dam
So I will spoil it and say that none of these are groups
But it
is up to you to see why!
oh quickly before you go @dim widget
for the first group, is it matrix multiplication modulo 4?
like is that implied?
Yeah, it is matrix multiplication modulo 4, since no other way of multiplying and adding a, b, c, d is well-defined
a priori
$\frac pq$ where $p, q > 0$
blanket
Ah so not including 0
i believe so
Yeah that is more plausible, but I still don't believe it
So the inverse of a rational matrix with nonzero determinant is given by
1/det * (d -b | -c a) and you can easily see that these cannot all be positive
if all of a, b, c, d are positive
yep thats what i had
oh good point
If you start allowing some of them to be zero (there is a difference between the english and european definitions of things like positive, negative, etc. which is sometimes confusing) then the matrix (1 1 | 0 1) obviously has no inverse with all positive entries.
The other two also have this problem: they have all the right properties but not inverses.
right okay i kept getting inverses was the thing screwing me over from having them be groups
thank you!
No worries!
doing a bit of review right now, taking a break from partial diff eqs lolol
feel like im out of touch with the earlier group theory stuff
It's always good to practice algebra, especially if you've been doing PDE's 🙂
bump (here K = F(α) is a finite simple field extension)
What is your question?
The message I replied to.
In full:
Let K = F(α) be a finite simple field extension.
For any polynomial p in K[X], let F(p) denote the field generated by F and the coefficients of p.
Let p, q be polynomials in K[X] with α as a root.
Is it true that if p divides q then F(q) is a subfield of F(p)?
If not, is there a subset of all polynomials with α as a root on which this does hold?
What is F(q)?
Oh oops
q has coefficients in K so it doesn't seem to make sense as a standard notation.
Are p, q supposed to have F-coefficients?
is \alpha \notin F?
Edited.
I see.
I introduced that notation the first time I asked the question and forgot just now that it was made up.
So I mean polynomials p, q in K[X] with \alpha as a root are just p'(X)*(X - \alpha)^i so maybe this is a bit of a silly thing to write.
They are?
What is p' here?
p' is some polynomial without a root at \alpha
Oh another polynomial
Anyway just in general
Take G(X) to be the minimal polynomial of \alpha.
Let's make things concrete
Over F?
Yes, over K it's just X - \alpha
But we can make things even more concrete we can take F = Q and K = Q(\omega) where \omega^3 = 1
Then p = X^2 + X + 1 divides q = (X^3 - 1)(X - \omega) and both have roots at \omega, but Q(p) is just Q and Q(q) = Q(\omega)
I don't know but I think your question mostly just fails all the time.
Ah, I see. So you can have q = (X - α)G divisible by G without having coefficients in F in this case.
Without a lot more conditions.
All polynomials with α as a root was too ambitious, but what about polynomials dividing the minimal polynomial of α over F?
Maybe it's better to ask what you were trying to prove in the first place that you got to this point? I think this question probably doesn't have a very interesting answer.
I wasn't trying to prove anything in particular, just wondering more about the proof that finite simple extensions have finitely many intermediate fields.
That proceeds by mapping an intermediate field E to the minimal polynomial p of α over E and showing that is injective (because E is the field generated by F and the coefficients of p by a degree argument).
So I wondered if there's a Galois connection between intermediate subfields and some collection of polynomials, with the maps being “take the minimal polynomial” and “take the subfield generated by the coefficients”. If we take “all polynomials which are minimal polynomials of an intermediate subfield” there clearly is, and it's a bijection, but I was wondering if extends to a larger collection of polynomials.
What do you get from N being normal?
So let U \cong \oplus_i V_i as N-representations with the V_i = W_i^n_i and the W_i irreducible
Then if there's more than V_i there must exist some g \in G such that gV_i = V_j for j \neq i, can you see why?
Is this a typo? Doesn't K[X] have the basis (1,X,X²,....)?
third sentence, in the middle
It's from this book, it is available here: http://math0.bnu.edu.cn/~liuym/Book-algebras-and-representations.pdf
Yes seems a typo
I wonder if the argument still works then, I'll see
Yes; the element 1 has to act by the identity regardless
Yes.
I am doing what people usually do and abusing notation: U refers to a representation but also the underlying vector space of the representation.
Thanks
