#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 87 of 1
Consider where you are right now. Now consider if it would have seemed trivial to you a year ago
You were struggling with much simpler things (which is no shame, just for context), it's just that you need to be able to assess the level of someone and what would be immediate for them/not immediate if you want to be an effective helper
In their mind taking the alg closure might be a mental leap to take if they're being asked about the sizes of fields of a given characteristic
Anyways this is a talk for #math-pedagogy or discussion more than here. I'd be happy to continue there if anyone wants to
Hi, guys, is it true that G/H \cong N, then G\cong H\oplus N, where the isomorphism is group isomorphism
use latex bot 
from what I can tell of your Q, unlikely
very odd of you to use H for your normal subgroup
and N for something else
Absolutely not
You can find very elementary examples
Try doing so
Hint: ||Look at quotients of Z||
Thanks! I see, but suppose i have a group homomorphism f: G\ to H, under what condition for f, we have G = ker f \oplus im f
if you are talking about ⊕ are you assuming groups are abelian?
I that case, I'm rephrasing the question to
When should a map 0 → kerf → G → imf→ 0 split
This splits exactly when you have a section imf →G or G → kerf
I'll leave it up to you to figure out what that means
Thanks!
hey all
so this question is asking me to calculate the number of elements in $\mathbb Z_3 \oplus \mathbb Z_3$, and i got 8
blanket
could anyone give a hint as to how you would go about it if it was $\mathbb Z_3 \oplus \mathbb Z_3 \oplus \cdots \oplus \mathbb Z_3$?
blanket
(n times)
This is incorrect
it is? how so
So the element of the sum will be of the form (a,b) with a and b in Z3
Now how many such combinations of element are there
there would be a total of 9 possible elements in Z_3 + Z_3
Yep
Ah lol
sorry i misinformed you
i was like... how are there 9 LOL
but yeah, order 3 specifically
what im seeing is that every element that's not the identity is an element of order 3
or at least thats what i want to hypothesize
I feel like that's true
I think you can show this inductively
hmm okay
On an arbitrary number of summands
i will go about that then
so assume $\mathbb Z_3 \oplus \mathbb Z_3 \cdots \oplus \mathbb Z_3$ has $3^n - 1$ elements of order 3
blanket
show that its true for n + 1?
Yeah
before i go, could i ask you one more thing?
Sure
so im currently in abstract algebra rn (obviously) and we take the next part next semester, but i was planning on doing some studying over the summer
our first part covers some group theory, while our second part goes over ring theory and some other stuff
do you have any ideas as to what else they would cover in the next part of an abstract algebra class?
to at least look at and maybe get an idea of
Probably just ring theory
Idk if they'll cover modules
Probably look at Artins book
That's a popular UG AA book
gonna keep this in mind then, thank you
There might be some field theory in there too
Realistically algebra classes vary on depth
got it
ill see how i handle ring theory then during the summer
So i cant say what you'll cover like 100%
ye
i just got other things to study during the quarter so i was thinkin that i should get some level of exposure to not be completely blindsided lol
Let K = F(α) be a simple algebraic extension of a field. There is a poset Field of intermediate fields between F and K ordered by inclusion, and a poset Poly of polynomials p in K[X] with α as a root and dividing m_{α,F}, the minimal polynomial of α over F, ordered by divisibility.
There are maps L -> m_{α,L} and
p -> F(p) := the field extension of F generated by the coefficients of F
in both directions between these two posets, which are anti-monotone. Do they form a Galois connection?
To show this, we need to show that $F(p) \subseteq L \iff m_{\alpha, L} \mid p$ for all intermediate fields $L$ and appropriate polynomials $p$.
The LHS is equivalent to $p$ having coefficients in $L$, i.e., $p \in L[X]$, so the left-to-right direction is trivial. But I haven't figured out how to prove the left-to-right direction.
Is it true? If not, is there a subset of either poset on which it becomes true?
Raghuram
is it true that a in Zn is a unit iff a is coprime with n?
think about it
yea i proved it
i cant figure out the distinct elements. so for this: my thought process is that this is Z[i]/<2i>
bro super reacted
any b multiple of 2 is gonna be absorbed by <2i>
i think b can either be 0 or 1
but im confused as to what a can be--my instinct is all integers because you cant get a multiple of 2i by adding real valued integers
is this correct? if not why not/what am i missing
wait so like Z[i]/(2i)?
im not familiar with that notation
Hm
well what does <2i> mean here
In itself this seems like slightly dodgy notation in the question
thats what im confused about. typically we've discussed that notation in the context of a cyclic group generated by 2i
so like <2>={0,2,4,....}
so im inclined to think the same for <2i> but that just makes me more confused
I believe this is isomorphic to (2) as an ideal of Z[i]
So the quotient would be Z2[i]
Wait isomorphic to (2) as an ideal wdym 👀
sorry I meant that they're literally the same ideal lol
doesn't phi have to be a map K^x -> Aut(SL(n,K))?
sorry I'm being goofy
but this map is basically going to be a splitting of the determinant
like this semidirect product is just witnessing the extension 0->SL_n(K)->GL_n(K)->K*->0 where the last projection is the determinant
Tbh I'd wager that phi is something like
you're picking a splitting and then conjugating to get the action
conjugation by diagonal matrices who's entries are the same element of K^x
this isn't a splitting 🙂
but this is almost the right idea yes
you could take the splitting K*->GL_n(K) sending x to the diagonal matrix with entries x,1,...,1
and then define the action K*->Aut(SL_n(K)) by conjugating by this matrix
ah I wasn't talking about a splitting
I was thinking of what phi could be concretely in the semidirect product
actually is there some connection between how you choose a splitting and what phi is?
yes
in our algebra class we only showed an SES splits for some map into the automorphism group
not every sequence splits
but the ones that do are described by semidirect products in this way
yeah I wasn't saying that sorry if there was a misinterpretation
what I meant was
We showed that if we take a splitting SES then the middle group is a semidirect product of the two outer groups for some map into the automorphism group but we never showed if we can determine which map
i need some help with this question
i got the first part right; (m + 2)(n + 1) - 1
but they got 2(n + 1) for the second one
im not sure where they come from
how does group homomorphism propertyof gamma follow from exactness?
hmm why does it split?
I think it's just a set theoretic section
I mean has a section*
it has a section since exactness, and in particular g is surjective iff g admits a section
okay that doesn't necessarily behave well with homomorphisms
the definition of gamma makes sense because of this
but idk why this is a group homo
so set theoretic section
Let x, y in Q. Then g'(x) g'(y) = g'(xy) f(n) for some n in N since g'(x) g'(y) and g'(xy) both map onto xy, hence their difference lies in (the image of) N as a subgroup of G.
Apply beta to both sides, then apply g tilde
By commutativity of the diagram, the f(n) dies
or you can use the universal property of cokernels
That works too
why do g'(x) and g'(y) and g'(xy) map into xy?
g'(x) * g'(y) maps onto xy since g is a group homomorphism
You get g(g'(x)) * g(g'(y)) = xy by the definition of a section
g(g'(x)) * g(g'(y))=g(g'(x)g'(y))
and for the left hand side, we get xy
so g(g'(x)g'(y))=xy
but idk why this hels
we have that g(g'(x) g'(y))=g(g'(xy)) in particular
yes, so g'(x) * g'(y) * g'(xy)^-1 lies in the kernel of g
but we can't apply g^{-1} to this
which is the image of f
note that g^{-1} need not exist
g'(xy)^-1 is the inverse of g'(xy) as an element of G
ye i think this is bad terminology on the part of the writer right lol
hmm i am very lsot
if you say a group hom has a section, i'm definitely assuming that's a group hom 
this holds
what we do with this thing?
i don't really understand what @agile burrow is trying to say 
Do you see why this shows g'(x) * g'(y) * g'(xy)^-1 is in the kernel of g?
if i apply g to this equation, i get xy*(xy)^{-1}=1
but idk how to get there
all i have is this so far
Lol, just apply g to the element g'(x) * g'(y) * g'(xy)^-1 and use the fact that g is a group homomorphism
yes,that's what i did
but what does that have to do with this?
It's just another way of saying that g'(x) * g'(y) * g'(xy)^-1 lies in the kernel
sure, g'(x) g'(y) g'(xy)^{-1} is in kernel of g. right
kernel of g=image of f.
exactness
Right, so g'(x) * g'(y) * g'(xy)^-1 = f(n) for some n
Rearranging yields g'(x) * g'(y) = f(n) * g'(xy)
ohhh
The rest should follow suit
$\beta(g'(x) g'(y))=\beta(g'(xy) f(n))$
ProphetX
now I can use that beta is a homomorphism?
$\beta(g'(x)) \beta(g'(y))=\beta(g'(xy)) \beta(f(n))$
ProphetX
commutativity where?
$\beta(f(n)) = \tilde{f}(\alpha(n))$
walter
ah lol i think i see the trick
is it that $\tilde{g}(\tilde{f}(\alpha(n)))=1$ by exactness??
ProphetX
that's right
ok that makes sense. what does it mean for this to be unique?
what do they mean unique?is there just this one concrete map? or up to some iso?
There is only one way for this map to be defined such that the diagram commutes
unique in what sense
One concrete map
how could one see this?
(btw @agile burrow it's really funny because this is literally part of proof central extensions <=>proj reps haha)
oh lol
this thing tells us that a linear rep of the central extension induces a unique proj. rep.
If the diagram is to commute, then $\gamma'(g(x)) = \tilde{g}(\beta(x))$. Since $g$ is surjective, every element of $Q$ is of the form $g(x)$ for some $x \in G$. This forces us to define $\gamma'$ by taking a preimage of an element and looking where it maps to in $\tilde{Q}$.
walter
I agree up to the point every element of Q is of the form g(x)
why does this force us to define gamma as such?
Because we need the first equation to hold for every x in G
And every y in Q is of the form y = g(x) for some x in G
Maybe the key point is that the definition of gamma is independent of the set-theoretic section you choose
how so?
commutativity imposes that
We're demanding that gamma makes the diagram commute
We need to define gamma such that the equation holds
holds for all x,no?
i'm confused by what you mean
diagram commutes iff $\gamma' \circ g = \tilde{g} \circ \beta$ independent of $x$
ProphetX
Right, so now we need to define gamma as a function from Q -> \tilde{Q}
Since every element of Q has the form g(x), the fact that we want the diagram to commute forces us to define gamma in this way
oh I think I see. is the idea that commutativity implies that the map $\gamma:Q \to \tilde{Q}$ must map $g(x)$ to $\tilde{g}(\beta(x))$
ProphetX
now, in principle,this fixes gamma on elements of the form $g(x)$. but we know that g is surjective, that is, every element of $Q$ is of the form $g(x)$
ProphetX
hence i have no other choice?
Right
ok perfect
how does this paragraph show what's underlined in blue?
is it because it has to contain the additive identity which is M since it's a subgroup?
<@&286206848099549185>
It’s the result about preimages being ideals from a quick glance
Also that was not 15 mins
So this is actually trivial, except that I forgot to actually check that the maps between Field and Poly are order-reversing. So the question comes down to:
given polynomials p, q in K[X] with α as a root, is it true that if p divides q then F(q) is a subfield of F(p)? If not, on what subset of these polynomials is it true?
how do we know that fbar(x) = gbar(x)hbar(x)?
Isn't it true by definition of fbar(x), gbar(x) and hbar(x). In other words, reducing coefficients of fbar(x) modulo p is the same as, reducing coefficients of gbar,hbar and then multiplying them
Question: for an injective homomorphism to exist between 2 groups, must they have the same order?
say Z_7 to Z_12. They dont have the same order so the only possible mapping is all elements of Z_7 to Z_12
to the identity of z_12*
No
then what do they mean by this example?
Example 4.1.9 Suppose that we wish to determine all possible homomor-phisms φ from Z7 to Z12. Since the kernel of φ must be a subgroup of Z7,there are only two possible kernels, {0} and all of Z7. The image of a subgroupof Z7 must be a subgroup of Z12. Hence, there is no injective homomorphism;otherwise, Z12 would have a subgroup of order 7, which is impossible. Consequently, the only possible homomorphism from Z7 to Z12 is the one mapping all elements to zero
What is it an example of
The whole thing relies on the non existence of a subgroup of order 7 inside Z12
I assume that is a consequence of whatever is being discussed before the example
kernel is a subgroup of a group. By Langrage's theorem then only possible orders are 1 and 7. If it's 1 then image of Z_7 must be of order 7 such that it's subgroup of Z_12 but it's not possible by Lagrange's theorem again. Therefore Ker is all of Z_7
Also it looks like at this point you are supposed to know the subgroups of Zn because they also just state that Z7 only has 2 subgroups
if we have U(1) = complex numbers of norm 1, and we have a differentiable group homomorphism f: U(1) --> C^x, how do we show that f is a solution to y' = ky for some complex number k?
f being a group homomorphism means f(e^{i(t+h)}) = f(e^{it}*e^{ih}) = f(e^{it}) f(e^{ih}) for all x, h in R.
Then [f(e^{i(t + h)}) - f(e^{it})]/h = [f(e^{it})f(e^{ih}) - f(e^{it})]/h = f(e^{it})[f(e^{ih}) - 1]/h.
If F: R -> C^x is F(t) = f(e^{it}) then [F(t+h) - F(t)]/h = F(t)[F(h) - 1]/h.
So if f is differentiable, then F is also differentiable and so F'(t) = lim h->0 [F(t+h) - F(t)]/h = F(t) lim h->0 [F(h) - 1]/h
So you can define k = lim h->0 [F(h) - 1]/h, then F'(t) = kF(t).
something stupid: is it true that if R is a commutative ring with unity and ideals I, J containing another ideal K then (I \cap J)/K = I/K \cap J/K? Is it true taking the intersection of arbitrarily many ideals containing I? One inclusion is obvious but I'm blanking on showing that if an equivalence class has a representative in I and a representative in J that it has a representative in I \cap J, if that's even true
this was the specific thing - idk if there's something more specific that would make this true
Ye, this follows from the correspondence theorem
the one that there's a one-to-one correspondence between the ideals of R/K and the ideals of R containing K?
how does that come into play here?
Yes, and it's order preserving
So the largest ideal of R contained in I and J corresponds to the largest ideal of R/K contained in I/K and J/K
anyone know of an orthogonal linear transformation in R^2 with infinite order?
rotation by some irrational multiple of pi?
im trying to do this
i guess that works thats a lot harder than i was thinking
i thought it was something obvious that i wasnt seeing
wait but it has to be composed of two finite order transformations
yea you can compose two weird reflections to get a weird irrational rotation
reflections are going to be the problem since SO(2) is just rotations and is abelian
like pick your favorite reflection f and a rotation r of infinite order, and consider the element rf and f
Lol I was about to say this is wrong until i saw the 2
So used to SO(3) and SU(2) lol

hehe :p
Imagine a matrix group being abelian
hewwo ryuu 
hi det
konichiwa
hii illu 
im trying to use this theorem to prove this
and i wrote down all the possible groups
including Z5 X Z5 X Z2 X Z2
and im pretty sure this is the Klein 4-group
or well it is contained in that form i mean
klein four is Z2 x Z2
because that's what it's defined to be
sorry i mean a subgroup of an abelian group of order 100 that is the Klein 4-group
I guess im struggling to figure out which structure theorem composition is isomorphic to my original abelian group
it's either Z/25 x Z/2 x Z/2 or Z/5 x Z/5 x Z/2 x Z/2
but the problem is only asking you to show it contains a copy of Z/2 x Z/2
wait why nt Z/25 x Z/4 ?
how would i know that they arnt isomorphic to that group though?
like without what the question says

there are 4 abelian groups of order 100 up to isomorphism.
so yea without using "no elements of order 4" you can't say anything :p
wait i just reread the question and completely missed that part lol i thought it just said abelian group of order 100 not the no elements of order 4 part
now it makes sense
lol
Show that the centre of U(n) is { λ I_n }
I need to try this tbh maybe it is trivial tho
yea commuting with E_{ij}+E_{ji} should tell a lot about the matrix
That isn't in U(n) though right 👀
or am i misunderstanding lol
Oh wait aha it's easy i think
Unitary matrices are diagonalisable and any element in the centre is similar only to itself
:)
unitary matrices
isn't A^-1 = A = A*
A = E_{ij}+E_{ji}
E_{ij} is the matrix with 1 in (i,j)th spot and 0s everywhere else
oh lol i see now

this entire time i had E_{ij}+E_{ji}+sum_{k not i, j}(E_{k,k}) this in mind
ig a better way to write it is
id + E_{ij} + E_{ji} - E_{ii} - E_{jj}
Yeah sure ookie :)
But yeah ye i think this is coolest
Perhaps overkill

Oh
lol
It is a determinant which is so small that it causes errors SINGULAR MATRIX

how long did it take you guys to get good at the basics of algebra? I feel like I still have a skill issue
i am not good by any means but ik there is only one answer
and its to do more problems
develop your toolbox of arguments
and have your intuition guide you when to use which argument (and how to tinker them for your own problem)
untill u create ur own arguments and solutions then game over
lmfao
thats for the harder problems , the rest are all just " do u know what the definition is"
ye indeed the coolest
but how would you show that the only matrix similar to itself is the scalar ones?
that's not the statement potato said (I hope - similarity is an equivalence relation and so every matrix is similar to itself)
ye lol*
they're essentially saying the scalar matrices are central as their conjugacy classes only contain one element each
ye i said "It is similar only to itself" rather than "Only it is similar to itself"
idk was kinda just gradually getting intuition + found it kinda snowballs a bit lol
like i kinda sucked at intro group theory a bit i feel whereas it seems to get better 😳 but you definitely seem to be beyond the basics lol
like impressively so
yeah then they throw Z_p-graded algebras at you
I'm not saying these either lol
tbh I didn't read any of your messages
LOL
I'm basically saying like
let A in U(n) be central
There is P such that PAP^-1 is diagonal
but PAP^-1 = A by centrality
so A is diagonal
and then ig you just gotta show that all the diagonal entries coincide
centrality only tells you A commutes with stuff from U(n) right
unless A is like self adjiont and you can choose P to be a unitary
Oh yeah I'm dumb mb
gulp
I saw smth like this once and must've got confused 
Hi!!!!
Can somebody give me a hint for the following question? Let $f(x)$ and $g(x)$ be cubic polynomials with integer coefficients such that $f(a) = g(a)$ for four integer values of $a$. Prove that $f(x) = g(x)$.
okeyokay
lagrange interpolation :pack:
look at f(x) - g(x)
ok that's way quicker than lagrange interpolation
Now show that this doesn't work in general rings or fields
but I didn't have to think about my response :pack:
mwah ha ha
I hate lagrange interpolation with a passion
it's so easy stop crying
I don't even knwo what Lagrange interpolation is really lol
splines 
u do the product of the dudes on the top and then discriminate one of the dudes on the bottom
I mean I saw smth in analysis for approximating but they only introduced it to say it was shit and not good enough for Weierstrass
Oh that one
Yeah sure
fuckin pure mathematicians smh
Kinda cringe cause it involves division
next u will tell me u can't even construct representations of C_m \wr S_n using nothing but gramm-schmit smh
I took a numerical analysis course once and I am so glad I didn't take the exam
I quite like numerical analysis ngl
the prof required them to remember the cg method by heart lmaooo
I only like splines
I hate the recursive formula though
if u ain't modelling PDEs what r u doing
I only remember something something energy norm
i LOVE numerical analysis
that sounds weirdly like stockholm syndrome
no idea what you're talking about
it's my all time favorite subject, i am incredibly good at it
wait this is abstract alg
Lol gramm schmidt is cool
Shows that there is a homotopy equivalence between the two types of Stiefel manifolds of each flavour

lemon and lime for me
Fr
how do we know that f(x) - g(x) is of degree 3? because couldn't the coefficients of x^3 for both f(x) and g(x) cancel each other out if they're the same (my intuition tells me that if they are the same then they are the same polynomial but ig i have to prove that)
i.e., if $f(x) = a_3x^3 + a_2x^2 + a_1x + a_0$ and $g(x) = b_3x^3 + b_2x^2 + b_1x + b_0$ with $a_3 = b_3$ is it true that $f(x) = g(x)$?
okeyokay
we know it's of degree 3 or less because how are you going to get an x^4, x^5... term by subtracting two cubics lol
oh lol i think I just like assumed they were monic lol
what does that mean again
wait I'm confused why does them not being monic invalidate this idea
thanks for that one "i"lluminator"3"
coefficient on the highest degree term is 1
No I mean
Being monic would make it be of degree 2 or less
It doesn't affect the problem lol
Just my brain assumes polynomials are monic often lol
do non monic polynomials even exist
No

shouldn't it work in any field
||0 and x(x-1)...(x-p+1)||
well okay maybe there is a snag if you say they have to have the same degree
but you can just chuck on like x^N for big N or smth lmao and it'll work still
"smth lmao" cope
if what has the same degree?
Oh i mean
the example I gave is two distinct polynomials agreeing everywhere
But the original question had two polys of the same degree
so i'm just saying you can fit my example to that if you want by just chucking in some big power of x
I'm really confused right now
if a degree n polynomial has n + 1 roots in a euclidean polynomial ring then it's the zero polynomial no?
R[x] euclidean iff R field
sure
agreed yeah just not heard someone say "euclidean polynomial ring" rather than poly ring over a field lol
Or a better example is just like lol
well x^{p} - x in Z/p[x]
which is the same thing i guess (multiplied by x-1))
doesn't that have p roots?
it's of degree p
wdym
can you give me a polynomial of degree n that has n + 1 roots
oh wait lol maybe that is a good point you have made there
yes you're correct
I
AAA
misunderstood
thank you
ok I thought I was going insane
yes then
lol
I
I believe it fails if the polynomial ring isn't euclidean?
x^p-x has infinity roots mod p because I don't care about equivalence classes anymore :devourerofsouls:

What in the
hey buncho
Howdy
Hey

has anyone studied free groups from D.J. Robinson's A course in the Theory of Groups?
Z[x]
2x=0 has 2 roots in Z/6, laughs in non integral domains
what if i have Q( (6)^1/4) ?
what is this set composed of?
is it {a + b* (6)^(1/4) + c*(6)^(1/4) + d*(6)^(1/4)}?
did you mean to square and cube the terms with coefficients c and d? otherwise you can just factor out 6^(1/4) out
no the coefficients arent raised to the power of anyhting
I think what they're saying is that currently you have a + 6^(1/4) * (b+c+d)
ohh, then what does the set look like?
like how would i write it in the form like in the image
Pretty much what Mero said here
Currently it doesn't have 6^(2/4), etc
ohh so i do it like {a + b*(6)^(1/4) + c*(6)^(2/4) + d*6^(3/4)}?
Yes
is $[\bQ(2^{\frac13})\colon\bQ]=2$?
CoolShot
no
Bruh
you saw nothing tubular

I had a brain fart
Try writing out a minimal polynomial
right its degree 3
ye fam
so if an extension over Q has deg 2, is it necessary that it has the form Q(√a) for some a in Q, √a in Q?
yes
Yes. This is basically the quadratic formula
quadratic extensions are normal
normal?
lol
there are equivalent conditions for being normal
Why is being normal relevant here?
one of them being that you're the splitting field of a family of polynomials
Anyway yes so this is basically the statement that uh
Assuming you're learning about field theory, you'll learn about it soon enough
If x^2 + bx + c is a polynomial with discirminant Δ then it splits in Q(sqrt(Δ))
there is a more general version of this which is a consequence of the primitive element theorem: any finite extension of Q is generated by a single element
damn ill have to go read some more algebra
my condolences
yeah
bet
So for the first part
I have f: A --> Abar defined by f(a) = pi(a)
and then to prove that's a hom. is it actually that trivial?
Well I mean you have to prove it satisfies the definition of a hom
it is nilpotent in R/N, you are looking in R
i j don't understand how (a+N)^n = 0 + n
0 + N is the zero element of R/N
What is Z/60Z localized at the prime ideal (2)?
What do you want to know?
I'm seeing that it would be Z/4Z, but this doesn't feel right.
rings with zero divisors have a special sort of localization.
keep in mind the correspondence between ideals of the localization and ideals contained in the localizing prime
in this case you have a decent few ideals contained in (2), more than there are ideals in Z/4Z at least
This is more related to ag probably, but I guess the following is then not true? The stalk O_{X, (2)} is isomorphic to the localization of the underlying ring Z/60Z at (2).
X is here just the spectrum of Z/60Z
It's likely a typo and there should be Z/2Z?
but 2 * 3 * 5 = 30
can i get a straight definition for characteristic of an integral domain
is it n * 1 = 0
or n * a = 0 for all a in A
(n being smallest int)
@south patrol
The characteristic of $A$ is the smallest positive integer $n$ such that $na = 0_A$ for all $a\in A$. If such an $n$ does not exist, we say that $A$ has characteristic zero.
0090
Does that answer your question?
Yeah no sorry I’m an idiot lol
That correspondence is for prime ideals haha
characteristics in domains take on special values
Yeah Z/4Z is right (in general taking Z/nZ and localizing at p gives you Z/p^kZ where k=v_p(n), can you see why?)
n is a bit more limited than any integer
this is characteristic of a ring
those two definitions are equivalent. If n*1 = 0 then n*a = n*1*a = 0*a = 0
the reverse implication is obvious
If your ring has unity sure
of course it does
wew lads what the fuck
it's a ring
Some authors
some authors are NERDS
hello!
Surely if you write a math textbook you're a nerd
this is true
Not sure why. Could you elaborate a bit on this?
why only these weird kind of elements
what
?
no
if you put an "= 0" at the end (which is what the quotient is actually doing) and do a little re-arranging you may recognise them as the properties of a particular kind of function
you want a multilinear map out of - ok cool 
Either do it by the universal property of localization or show that the characteristic map Z-> (Z/nZ)_(p) is surjective and has kernel p^v_p(n)
is finding a concrete module for the output of a tensor product hard
I feel like there’s probably a way to show that’s also more generalizable to give some result on discrete valuations but I’m not sure
Can be pretty ugly yeah
Sometimes the tensor product description is best
like Z otimes Z/2Z over Z
No that one can be handled
tensoring with the ring itself just gives you the original module
In general if you’re doing things like R/I tensor M you get nice results
oh yeah I saw that one question in #category-theory
And there’s a decent few results that allow you to handle some products
Like if you know one of your modules is flat for example you can usually figure things out
generally you shouldn't expect to find a "nice" form
But it’s sometimes best to leave it in tensored form anyways
generally you shouldn't care about what it is up to isomorphism really
It’s indicative of the type of structure your module has
that's the tricky part, you have to work with it without actually knowing all the details of what "it" is
(Like you can read from the notation that it’s a « free » extension to a module over whatever ring you’re working with, or a free way to get a certain algebra etc)
or be like me and only work with vector spaces 

:blazedtothe9s:
lol
be careful though they messed up their tex a bit
R/I \otimes M is iso M/IM and not M
oh I didn't read the proof
yeah they prove the right thing but the initial statement is wrong
oh lmao
uhhh but then you cancel the Ms? 🤣
1/I
AoiKunie
Specifically I want to check how the prime ideal P = (\sqrt(2)) splits
On the one hand the minimal polynomial of $\sqrt{6}$ is $X^2-6 = X^2 \mod P$, so it seems like one should have $P = P_1^2$
AoiKunie
For some prime ideal P_1
On the other hand, we might as well write our extension as $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2}) \subseteq \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2}) (\sqrt{3})$. The minimal polynomial is $X^2-3 \mod P$ which does not give a ramified prime
Why do I get different results?
AoiKunie
Am I missing something?
Okay I think X^2-3 is (X-3)^2=(X+3)^2 in your second example because again 6=0 mod P
So -3 = 3 mod P
So you still get a ramified prime
Ahh
Q[sqrt(2)]/P is just F2 right?
Okay what we do have is 3 = 9 mod P
And then my decomposition holds
So not entirely wrong
But still you couldn’t straight away factor
Wait so
Sounds about right
X^2-3 = X^2-9 = (X-3)(X+3) = (X-3)^2
Yeah but in my head I was doing sqrt(3)=3 without justification haha
So stroke of luck
So if I were to write it out
(Sqrt(2))=(sqrt(2),sqrt(6))^2
It "looks" weird but I guess it has something to do with how the ring of integers look
Yeah it does look a bit weird 🤔
I would think that (sqrt(2),sqrt(6)) would just be (sqrt(2)) again
Since sqrt(3) is integral
I don’t think so
Yeah I’m thinking
I’ll let you know if I think of something but right now I’m blank
Idk where we’re going wrong
Im absolutely sure P should ramify do I don’t think that’s it
Maybe it’s the criterion that has a mistake but I doubt it
Hmm
There can't be such a thing as an "idempotent ideal" in a ring of integers right, because of unique factorization?
Im not so absolutely sure of this anymore haha
Okay so I don’t think P ramifies cause unless I’m mistaken the discriminant ideal should divide (3)Z[sqrt(2)], and P does not divide (3)Z[sqrt(2)]
And I think the issue may be that the criterion is missing a condition
Namely that v_P(disc(theta))= v_P(D_(O_L | O_K)) where
In our case the first valuation is 2
But the discriminant ideal I’m pretty sure gets valuation 1
Hmm I see
Does that sound right to you?
Not sure I'm understanding the notation, what is v_P?
Highest power of P dividing an ideal
The valuation at P
They never write that condition anywhere?
I mean I’m not sure that it’s a necessary condition
But I have a variant of this criterion in my course and it makes use of this condition
No this is all there is to it, but there has been several errors in the rest of the text so a missing condition would not surprise me
We haven’t seen the proof of the criterion yet though so I’m completely sure how it plays a role
I’d suggest asking your professor just to be sure
Cause I’m not to be trusted on this subject quite yet I’m also in the process of learning it
Yeah I will, we haven't really talked about relative discriminants
is there heterological algebra
Maybe ask on #advanced-number-theory too
I guess the criterion is true over Q though?
Yeah if your ring of integers is a PID the condition should be true I think (so over Q you get E and it works out fine)
Okay not sure about this but it does hold if O_L is a monogenic extension of O_K
Not too sure what the ring of integers of Q(sqrt(2),sqrt(6)) over Q(sqrt(2)) is though so can’t check that here
I think I have seen the proof of the criterion over Q in another course. Then I think you look at O_K/P and write it as (Z[X]/(H(x)))/P = F_p[X]/(H(x)) and then use CRT
Yeah that sounds about right
Hmm so I guess something goes wrong if you try to do the same thing over some other O_K
how does this exercise imply that f(x)g(x)bar = f(x)barg(x)bar = 0?
The exercise implies $\bar{f}(x) \bar{g}(x) = \overline{f(x) g(x)}$. The fact that p divides each of the coefficients of $f(x) g(x)$ implies that $\overline{f(x) g(x)} = 0 \mod p$
walter
hi det
hewwo walter 
dumb question, mind blanking: if $\sigma$ is frobenius automorphism on $\mathbb K$ and $\alpha \in \mathbb K$, is $\sigma^j(\alpha)$ the composition $j$ times or multiplication $j$ times
anamono for anamono
ah thank you!!
it can mean both things, but more likely the composition.

does there exist a ring such that a polynomial over it has more roots than its degree
Z/6
what polynomial?
2x
I think my code is broken then
import numpy as np
for n in range(2, 1000):
roots = 0
for k in range(0, n):
if (2 * k) % n == 0:
roots = roots + 1
if roots > n:
print(n, "has", roots, "roots")
break
I ran this on a couple of polynomials but it never found anything
oh lmao
I'm stupid
roots > n
should be like roots > polynomial degree 🤦
yeah lmao

wait is 43 prime
,w is 43 prime
ah
i feel like im trippin up right now, i have no idea how to complete this sentence
i know its not identity but
is it in H?
That's right
Remember that the elements in G/H are cosets, so they have the form gH. In particular, the identity element in the factor group G/H is the coset H
right yep
okay thank you!
how would I show that $\bZ/m\bZ \otimes_\bZ \bZ/n\bZ = 0$ if $m$ and $n$ are coprime
like I'm not sure where to begin
or what the proof would even look like
would I show that x otimes y is always 0?
Lol
Atiyah macdonald moment
So uh it suffices to show that 1 tensor 1 = 0
Try to write 1 tensor 1 in another way and use properties of tensors to force it to be zero
yeah so my idea of showing x otimes y is always 0 wasn't so far off innit
but yeah lemme try
Tbf doesn't matter ye if you do general or not
right
ok so we somehow need to use the fact that n in invertible in Zm and vice versa
but I can't seem to figure it out
hmmm wait I think I have an idea
ok that was too easy lmao
does this work
,, 1 \otimes 1 = (nn\inv) \otimes 1 = n(n\inv \otimes 1) = n\inv \otimes n = n\inv \otimes 0 = 0
Sadge
Ye that's all that matters
That suffices here
wdym
funky
Cause it has a right adjoint lol

Actually that is the argument given in atiyah macdonald ig lol
I couldn't be arsed reading the proof of prop 2.18 lol
Lel
okay so we should obviously use iso innit
we have M ->> A/a otimes M
surjective
which is cash money
now we need to show that the kernel is aM
it just screams iso theorem to me
are tensors and localization used in algebraic number theory
They r like very important techniques in algebra in general, yes
for this
do I need to know what f looks like
or can I just guess
I can see why a is in the kernel
simple question but can i get a nudge pls
im rusty havent done algebra in like 2 weeks and im now behind 
This should be immediate from the definition of T1 tensor T2
So check how that is defined
the defn's feel a little funky
i have universal property onne
i get the idea that the tensor product is trying to extend a bilinear map to a homomorphism
though that's not a definition
this picture
yeah nah still can't seem to figure it out. like a vanishes because of the A/a, but is that all to it? I think my issue comes from not understanding aM. is it just identifying a with a submodule of M or something? like ik it's just a linear combination
actually im guessing i need to think of this through the elementary tensors first
so we have a map R^2 x R^2 -> R^2 \otimes R^2...?
or thisss
Previously on the blog, we've discussed a recurring theme throughout mathematics: making new things from old things. Today, I'd like to focus on a particular way to build a new vector space from old vector spaces: the tensor product. This construction often come across as scary and mysterious, but I hope to shine a little light and dispel a litt...
super helpful distillation 
OH I THINK I SEE IT
saving this for later
the links at the bottom are also nice
can't quite put it into words but like
we wanna know when f otimes 1 is 0. this happens when either f is 0 or when 1 is 0. 1 is zero if the input is zero. f is zero when a. so it's zero when it's an element of aM?
wait no the end part doesn't quite sound right
ker f = a
ker 1 = 0
ok so if im understanding
tensor products are just... products... but spicy
which i guess makes sense from the name
ive been trying to begin my understanding with the universal property but that hasnt been working
where's the det button when you need it

if you spam enough 
maybe det will spawn in
I could use some det in my life right now too
i know he doesn't mind pings but i always feel bad
ok i have thisi
but this feels silly
mine def is simple lol
to summarize my question again.
I have a map f : A ->> A/a, what is ker f otimes 1 (i.e. kernel of M ->> A/a otimes M)?
I know ker f is a
why is ker f otimes 1 = aM
my homework
not a textbook
just problems prof gives us
illum do i do it
do i hit the det button
yeah it's this
Or do you want to know why u can do dat
do le kronecker product
would be nice
didnt define this 
you literally wrote the definition 10 messages ago
^ will forever remain ignorant

I don't know of anyway of explaining the connection between the tensor product of spaces to the kronecker product without invoking le V \otimes V' meme
but if you tensor the two matrices as linear maps you get the result of the kronecker product
ah okie
you might be able to show this for 2x2s in general considering that's kinda what it's asking you to do here
T_1 maps e_1 -> e_1 and e_2 -> 2e_1-e_2 etc. etc.
then you literally tensor everything and use the "algebraic" properties (u know the ones) to simplify it down
okay i'll be right back mr lads
specifically, T_1 \otimes T_2(e_1\otimes e_1) = T_1(e_1)\otimesT_2(e_1) iirc
there we go
uwu?


The current time for det is 02:41 AM (CEST) on Fri, 14/04/2023.

im confused, what exactly do they mean by the line in blue? that if the content is not zero, we can just divide it by the content of f(x) to get it to 1?
my bad sorry to interrupt
hm well i find this comment a bit odd actually
tfw the clearly is not clear
yeah lol
But you can just say like, if f isn't primitive, then f = kg for some k in Z (a non-unit!) and g in Z[x]
so f is immediately just reducible over Z
How much have you done on content?
Because it seems this proof is longer than necessary if you already know a bit about content
uh it was introduced on the page before that lol, only used content to prove that the product of two primitive polynomials is primitive
have you defined content only for polys in Z[x]?
is it just the gcd of the coefficients
ye for Z[x]
what would it be for like Q
Okay so actually the proof kinda uses the idea of content for a poly in Q[x]
ok lemme use cont(-) for content lol
given f in Q[x] and N > 0 with Nf in Z[x], we define cont(f) = cont(Nf)/N
it's easy to see that is well-defined basically
As a corollary of product of primitives being primitive, we actually have that cont(fg) = cont(f)cont(g) for any f,g in Z[x]
that then carries over to Q[x]
further, we have that cont(f) is in Z if and only if f is in Z[x], which is nice
but yeah these are like extra details you don't really need lol
just with them, you can write it as like: sps f = gh with f primitive. by multiplying g by a factor and dividing h by it, we may assume g has content 1. Then taking contents, h also has content 1. So g,h in Z[x]
I've been playing around with this family of fields over the past few months or so, and I'm pretty I've identified them as fields of formal Laurent series. I only really dabble in doing this sort of stuff and I was mostly leveraging intuitions and techniques from algebra and calculus (and a bit from the little familiarity with topology, coding, and some other stuff) as they came in handy, so I didn't really have the language or the conceptual toolkit to understand my field as such initially. I also actually was first exploring what I think (?) were polynomial rings modulo prime ideals, initially just checking out extensions of the binary field where addition and subtraction are the same (x+x=0), and eventually that lead me into stumbling into the infinite fields I been checking out more recently.
Anyways, I was curious if anyone had any recommended reading/watching/listening if I want to understand fields of formal Laurent series?
A wild det appeared
Det used baby doll eyes
are ideals of commutative rings closed under subtraction?
Yes, cause all ideals are closed under subtraction
Any clues for part b?
For part a I got $Z(t) = \frac{1}{(1-t)(1-qt)}$, I have no idea if that is correct or not, cause I assumed $e^{\text{log}Z(t)} = Z(t)$
Parrot Tea
bump
This was in our pset
solution is ridiculous, not really sure how we were supposed to get it :\
Solution (spoilered)
someone tell me if I'm overreacting
I mean, it's not THAT hard, but it requires making quite a few connections (which I certainly didn't make rip)
because you can pull the scalar to the other side
You have a natural SES $0 \to (a) \to A \to A/(a) \to 0$. Tensoring is right exact so tensoring with $M$ yields $(a) \otimes M \to A \otimes M \to A/(a) \otimes M \to 0$. Presumably you know that $A \otimes M$ is isomorphic to $M$. The image of $(a) \otimes M$ in $M$ under this isomorphism is precisely $aM$, but this is then equal to the kernel of the map $M \to A/(a) \otimes M$, the latter of which is surjective by right-exactness.
not sure if walter is typing up a more elaborate answer rn
walter
lol good call timo
indeed
I like yours better
right the fact that the map that identifies A \otimes M with M is am solves this as well
forgor about that for a sec
Sorry, what is degree in the context of this problem?
degree refers to the number of elements in the set that permutation group is acting on
And then subdegree refers to the number of orbits in the induced action of a stabiliser
why is the image of it equal to aM
.
wdym with this
the isomorphism $A \otimes M \to M$ is $f(a \otimes m)=am$
Timo
yw
it is a very nice SES
yeah
indeed
I'll spend a bit more time thinking about this, I find the given solution a bit odd. Presumably I'm having an easier time because now I know one way to solve it lol. But my thinking is as follows:
If $|G|$ is even, there's an element $g$ of order 2 which permutes elements $a$ and $b$. If $[G : G_{(a, b)}]$ is even (where $G_{(a, b)}$ is the set of elements such that $ga = a$ and $gb = b$), then orbit-stabilizer implies that $|Ga|$ or $|G_a b|$ is even (where $Ga$ refers to the orbit of $a$ under the action of $G$).
But $[G : G_{(a, b)}] = [G : G_{{a, b}}] \cdot [G_{{a, b}} : G_{(a, b)}]$, where $G_{{a, b}}$ is the set of elements such that $ga = a$ and $gb = b$ or $ga = b$ and $gb = a$. The latter index in the product is equal to 2, hence the index of $G_{(a ,b)}$ is even and we get a contradiction.
I think for a pset problem it isn't totally far-fetched
walter
Yeah, your solution looks a lot more natural tbh (and it's closer to what I was doing)
The flavor of the intended solution is so my professor
LOL I was gonna say
I feel like solutions to group theory problems say so much about what kind of math people do
yeah lmao
ok so like any simple module V over a f.d. commutative C-algebra A is one dimensional, but how badly does this break over other fields?
I guess that if you view C as an R-algebra then C as a simple C-module has real dimension 2
let F be a field and p(x) be an irreducible polynomial over F, with E being its splitting field
suppose there exists a in E such that both a and a+1 are roots of p(x)
prove that char(F) != 0
any hints?
I'm guessing that you have to do a proof by contradiction using the fact that splitting fields in char 0 are separable
Weird/interesting question tbh
its from a quali exam
fuck i didnt know that
it's interesting and boring at the same time
proof: exercise
Yeah I'd just do what illum said lol basically
If you know like galois theory this falls out quickly
By contraposition again
oh ic
yip
okay but what contradiction do i get
can someone help me with this please?
main trick is to try not to cry. Luckily for you that presentation is a semi-direct product of cyclic groups so you already know 75% of the conjugation straight away
actually no i just had a walk lol
found a way more elementary solution to moamen's thing lol
try to contradict minimality of the minimal polynomial
||p(x) - p(x-1) also annihilates a but is of lower degree so it vanishes||
no worries you don't need to know anything special about the semidirect product



